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  • Magento set Store Id - customer login - but still logged out

    - by user3564050
    I've got an overridden AccountController in which i set the current store to an other as currently running (example: Customer is in website default and store default, going to login page, click login, my loginPostAction sets the store to id "2" (on website 2) and then executes the parent code loginPostAction. The store is set, of course, but after the login and the redirect to home, the customer is not logged in anymore... Customer-sendlogindata-myaccountcontroller sets store-original account controller logs in without errors (cause $session customer is set)-redirect to home-customer is not logged in anymore... i set the store with Mage::app()-setCurrentStore($id); . And in index.php i've got an extra where the store is set to the right id (2) too and this works... but the customer is not logged in anymore.. is that an issue with the session cause different websites ? I don't want to globally share customer.. each website has his own customers, but every customer has to be able to login on default store. AccountController.php overridden: public $Website_Ids = array( array("code" => "gerstore", "id" => "3", "website" => "ger"), array("code" => "ukstore", "id" => "2", "website" => "uk"), array("code" => "esstore", "id" => "4", "website" => "es"), array("code" => "frstore", "id" => "5", "website" => "fr") ); public function loginPostAction() { $login = $this->getRequest()->get('login'); if(isset($login['username'])) { $found = null; foreach($this->Website_Ids as $WebsiteId) { $customer = Mage::getModel('customer/customer'); $customer->setWebsiteId($WebsiteId['id']); $customer->loadByEmail($login['username']); if(count($customer->getData()) > 0) { $found = $WebsiteId; } } if($found != null && Mage::app()->getStore()->getId() != $found['id']) { /* found, so set currentstore to id */ Mage::app()->setCurrentStore($found['id']); $_SESSION['current_store_b2b'] = $found; } /* not found, doesn't matter cause mage login exception handling */ } parent::loginPostAction(); } Index.php : session_start(); $session = $_SESSION['current_store_b2b']; if($session != null || $session != "") { Mage::app()->setCurrentStore($session['id']); Mage::run($session['code'], 'store'); } else { /* Store or website code */ $mageRunCode = isset($_SERVER['MAGE_RUN_CODE']) ? $_SERVER['MAGE_RUN_CODE'] : ''; /* Run store or run website */ $mageRunType = isset($_SERVER['MAGE_RUN_TYPE']) ? $_SERVER['MAGE_RUN_TYPE'] : 'store'; Mage::run($mageRunCode, $mageRunType); } Whats the matter ? Thanks.

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  • translating specifications into query predicates

    - by Jeroen
    I'm trying to find a nice and elegant way to query database content based on DDD "specifications". In domain driven design, a specification is used to check if some object, also known as the candidate, is compliant to a (domain specific) requirement. For example, the specification 'IsTaskDone' goes like: class IsTaskDone extends Specification<Task> { boolean isSatisfiedBy(Task candidate) { return candidate.isDone(); } } The above specification can be used for many purposes, e.g. it can be used to validate if a task has been completed, or to filter all completed tasks from a collection. However, I want to re-use this, nice, domain related specification to query on the database. Of course, the easiest solution would be to retrieve all entities of our desired type from the database, and filter that list in-memory by looping and removing non-matching entities. But clearly that would not be optimal for performance, especially when the entity count in our db increases. Proposal So my idea is to create a 'ConversionManager' that translates my specification into a persistence technique specific criteria, think of the JPA predicate class. The services looks as follows: public interface JpaSpecificationConversionManager { <T> Predicate getPredicateFor(Specification<T> specification, Root<T> root, CriteriaQuery<?> cq, CriteriaBuilder cb); JpaSpecificationConversionManager registerConverter(JpaSpecificationConverter<?, ?> converter); } By using our manager, the users can register their own conversion logic, isolating the domain related specification from persistence specific logic. To minimize the configuration of our manager, I want to use annotations on my converter classes, allowing the manager to automatically register those converters. JPA repository implementations could then use my manager, via dependency injection, to offer a find by specification method. Providing a find by specification should drastically reduce the number of methods on our repository interface. In theory, this all sounds decent, but I feel like I'm missing something critical. What do you guys think of my proposal, does it comply to the DDD way of thinking? Or is there already a framework that does something identical to what I just described?

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  • JQuery selfbuild plugin question - default value is overwritten.

    - by Bruno
    Hi jQuery ninjas. I need your help. I have made a really clean and simple example to illustrate my problem. I have build my own jquery plugin: (function($) { $.fn.setColorTest = function(options) { options = $.extend($.fn.setColorTest.defaults,options); return this.each(function() { $(this).css({ 'color': options.color}); }); } $.fn.setColorTest.defaults = { color: '#000' }; })(jQuery); As you can see I'm setting a default color and making it possible for the user to change it. My problem/question is: I have two paragraphs on the same page where I want to use the default color for the first and a different color for the second paragraph: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> <title>Color Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('a#click').click(function() { $('#test1').setColorTest(); }); $('a#click2').click(function() { $('#test2').setColorTest({color: '#fff666'}); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <a id="click">click here</a> <a id="click2">click here2</a> <p id="test1">Test 1</p> <p id="test2">Test 2</p> </body> </html> My problem is that if I click on the second paragraph (p) that overrides the default color and afterwards clicks on the first p it will use the overwritten color and not the default color for the first p. How can I ensure that the first p always will use the default color? I know I can just define the color for the first p as well but that is not an option here $('#test1').setColorTest('color': '#000'); So what to do?

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  • WPF Reusing Xaml Effectively

    - by Steve
    Hi, I've recently been working on a project using WPF to produce a diagram. In this I must show text alongside symbols that illustrate information associated with the text. To draw the symbols I initially used some png images I had produced. Within my diagram these images appeared blurry and only looked worse when zoomed in on. To improve on this I decided I would use a vector rather than a rastor image format. Below is the method I used to get the rastor image from a file path: protected Image GetSymbolImage(string symbolPath, int symbolHeight) { Image symbol = new Image(); symbol.Height = symbolHeight; BitmapImage bitmapImage = new BitmapImage(); bitmapImage.BeginInit(); bitmapImage.UriSource = new Uri(symbolPath); bitmapImage.DecodePixelHeight = symbolHeight; bitmapImage.EndInit(); symbol.Source = bitmapImage; return symbol; } Unfortunately this does not recognise vector image formats. So instead I used a method like the following, where "path" is the file path to a vector image of the format .xaml: public static Canvas LoadXamlCanvas(string path) { //if a file exists at the specified path if (File.Exists(path)) { //store the text in the file string text = File.ReadAllText(path); //produce a canvas from the text StringReader stringReader = new StringReader(text); XmlReader xmlReader = XmlReader.Create(stringReader); Canvas c = (Canvas)XamlReader.Load(xmlReader); //return the canvas return c; } return null; } This worked but drastically killed performance when called repeatedly. I found the logic necessary for text to canvas conversion (see above) was the main cause of the performance problem therefore embedding the .xaml images would not alone resolve the performance issue. I tried using this method only on the initial load of my application and storing the resulting canvases in a dictionary that could later be accessed much quicker but I later realised when using the canvases within the dictionary I would have to make copies of them. All the logic I found online associated with making copies used a XamlWriter and XamlReader which would again just introduce a performance problem. The solution I used was to copy the contents of each .xaml image into its own user control and then make use of these user controls where appropriate. This means I now display vector graphics and performance is much better. However this solution to me seems pretty clumsy. I'm new to WPF and wonder if there is some built in way of storing and reusing xaml throughout an application? Apologies for the length of this question. I thought having a record of my attempts might help someone with any similar problem. Thanks.

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  • Facebook Like not Pulling Title

    - by matthewb
    I am having some issues with the new facebook like button. It shows up fine, however for some reason it's not pulling the title of the page. I have the and I am using og:title, all are filled in, when I view the source of the iframe created on the load of he button, the in there is blank. I am also trying to put the tweetmeme and that's seeing that title and not the meta, or the normal page title. What am I doing wrong? <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:og="http://opengraphprotocol.org/schema/" xmlns:fb="http://developers.facebook.com/schema/"> <fb:like href="<?=$url?>" layout="button_count" show_faces="false" width="100" font="arial"></fb:like> UPDATE: Complete Head <head> <title>Ladder 15 Gets A New Menu!</title> <meta content="Growing up can be hard to do, especially in the Mad River family. But Ladder 15 has come into its own over the winter.&nbsp; With some new cocktails, wine selection, a hefty new beer list and veteran Chef David Ansill in the kitchen, you can check your fist pump at" name="Description"> <meta content="" name="Keywords"> <meta content="cities2night inc." name="author"> <meta content="Cities2Night 2010" name="copyright"> <meta content="en-us" name="language"> <meta content="General" name="rating"> <meta content="index,follow" name="robots"> <meta content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" http-equiv="Content-Type"> <meta content="Ladder 15 gets a new menu!" name="tweetmeme-title"> <meta content="Ladder 15 gets a new menu!" property="og:title"> <meta content="article" property="og:type"> <meta content="http://philly.cities2night.com/articles/show/listing/11/ladder-15-gets-a-new-menu" property="og:url"> <meta content="http://philly.cities2night.com/public/article_images/11.jpg" property="og:image"> <meta content="c0176da0ec38aaf107c0ef6c8cdeee38" property="fb:app_id"> <meta content="Philly2night.com" property="og:site_name"> <meta content="Growing up can be hard to do, especially in the Mad River family. But Ladder" property="og:description"></head>

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  • jquery 1.4.1 breaks my slideshow

    - by JMC Creative
    After toying with the jquery slideshow extension, I created my own that better suited my purposes ( I didn't like that all the images needed to load at the beginning for instance). Now, upon upgrading to jQuery 1.4.2 (I know I'm late), the slideshow loads the first image fine ( from the line$('div#slideshow img#ssone').fadeIn(1500); towards the bottom), but doesn't do anything beyond that. Does anyone have any idea which jquery construct is killing my script? The live page is at lplonline.org which is using 1.3.2 for the time being. Thanks in advance. Array.prototype.random = function( r ) { var i = 0, l = this.length; if( !r ) { r = this.length; } else if( r > 0 ) { r = r % l; } else { i = r; r = l + r % l; } return this[ Math.floor( r * Math.random() - i ) ]; }; jQuery(function($){ var imgArr = new Array(); imgArr[1] = "wp-content/uploads/rotator/Brbrshop4-hrmnywkshp72006.jpg"; imgArr[2] = "wp-content/uploads/rotator/IMGA0125.JPG"; //etc, etc, about 30 of these are created dynamically from a db function randImgs () { var randImg = imgArr.random(); var img1 = $('div#slideshow img#ssone'); var img2 = $('div#slideshow img#sstwo'); if(img1.is(':visible') ) { img2.fadeIn(1500); img1.fadeOut(1500,function() { img1.attr({src : randImg}); }); } else { img1.fadeIn(1500); img2.fadeOut(1500,function() { img2.attr({src : randImg}); }); } } setInterval(randImgs,9000); // 9 SECONDS $('div#slideshow img#ssone').fadeIn(1500); }); </script> <div id="slideshow"> <img id="ssone" style="display:none;" src="wp-content/uploads/rotator/quote-investments.png" alt="" /> <img id="sstwo" style="display:none;" src="wp-content/uploads/rotator/quote-drugs.png" alt="" /> </div>

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  • What is the best way to create related types at runtime?

    - by SniperSmiley
    How do I determine the type of a class that is related to another class at runtime? I have figured out a solution, the only problem is that I ended up having to use a define that has to be used in all of the derived classes. Is there a simpler way to do this that doesn't need the define or a copy paste? Things to note: both the class and the related class will always have their respective base class, the different classes can share a related class, and as in the example I would like the control class to own the view. #include <iostream> #include <string> class model; class view { public: view( model *m ) {} virtual std::string display() { return "view"; } }; #define RELATED_CLASS(RELATED)\ typedef RELATED relatedType;\ virtual relatedType*createRelated(){\ return new relatedType(this);} class model { public: RELATED_CLASS(view) model() {} }; class otherView : public view { public: otherView( model *m ) : view(m) {} std::string display() { return "otherView"; } }; class otherModel : public model { public: RELATED_CLASS(otherView) otherModel() {} }; class control { public: control( model *m ) : m_(m), v_( m->createRelated() ) {} ~control() { delete v_; } std::string display() { return v_->display(); } model *m_; view *v_; }; int main( void ) { model m; otherModel om; model *pm = &om; control c1( &m ); control c2( &om ); control c3( pm ); std::cout << c1.display() << std::endl; std::cout << c2.display() << std::endl; std::cout << c3.display() << std::endl; }

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  • asp.net custom templated datalist - throws argument out of range (index) on button press

    - by MrTortoise
    I have a class BaseTemplate public abstract class BaseTemplate : ITemplate This adds the controls, and provides abstract methods to implement in the inheriting class. The inheriting class then adds its html according to its data source and manages the data binding. this all works fine - I get the control appearing with properly parsed html. the problem is that the base class adds controls into the template that have their own CommandName arguments ... the idea is that the class that implements the custom templated dataList will provide the logic of setting the Selected and Edit Indexes. This class also manages the data binding etc. It sets all of the templates ont he datalist in the Init method (which was another cause of this exception). the exception gets throw when i hit one of these buttons .. but after the ItemCommand event is being processed. The stack trace does not include any references to my methods or objects which is why i am so stuck. The Exception Details Exception Details: System.ArgumentOutOfRangeException: Specified argument was out of the range of valid values. Parameter name: index The Stack Trace: [ArgumentOutOfRangeException: Specified argument was out of the range of valid values. Parameter name: index] System.Web.UI.ControlCollection.get_Item(Int32 index) +8665582 System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataList.GetItem(ListItemType itemType, Int32 repeatIndex) +8667655 System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataList.System.Web.UI.WebControls.IRepeatInfoUser.GetItemStyle(ListItemType itemType, Int32 repeatIndex) +11 System.Web.UI.WebControls.RepeatInfo.RenderVerticalRepeater(HtmlTextWriter writer, IRepeatInfoUser user, Style controlStyle, WebControl baseControl) +8640873 System.Web.UI.WebControls.RepeatInfo.RenderRepeater(HtmlTextWriter writer, IRepeatInfoUser user, Style controlStyle, WebControl baseControl) +27 System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataList.RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter writer) +208 System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataList.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +30 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +163 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlContainerControl.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +32 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.Render(HtmlTextWriter output) +51 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +40 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.Page.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +29 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1266 This is driving me absolutley stark raving bonkers ... im talking cthulu style.

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  • Javascript regex returning true.. then false.. then true.. etc

    - by betamax
    I have a strange problem with the validation I am writing on a form. It is a 'Check Username' button next to an input. The input default value is the username for example 'betamax'. When I press 'Check Username' it passes the regex and sends the username to the server. The server behaves as expected and returns '2' to tell the javascript that they are submitting their own username. Then, when I click the button again, the regex fails. Nothing is sent to the server obviously because the regex has failed. If I press the button again, the regex passes and then the username is sent to the server. I literally cannot figure out what would be making it do this! It makes no sense to me! This is my code: $j("#username-search").click(checkUserName); function checkUserName() { var userName = $j("#username").val(); var invalidUserMsg = 'Invalid username (a-zA-Z0-9 _ - and not - or _ at beginning or end of string)'; var filter = /^[^-_]([a-z0-9-_]{4,20})[^-_]$/gi; if (filter.test(userName)) { console.log("Pass") $j.post( "/account/profile/username_check/", { q: userName }, function(data){ if(data == 0) { $j("#username-search-results").html("Error searching for username. Try again?"); } else if(data == 5) { $j("#username-search-results").html(invalidUserMsg); } else if(data == 4) { $j("#username-search-results").html("Username too short or too long."); } else if(data == 2) { $j("#username-search-results").html("This is already your username."); } else if(data == 3) { $j("#username-search-results").html("This username is taken."); } else if(data == 1){ $j("#username-search-results").html("This username is available!"); } }); } else { console.log("fail") $j("#username-search-results").html(invalidUserMsg); } return false; } The HTML: <input name="username" id="username" value="{{ user.username }}" /> <input type="button" value="Is it taken?" id="username-search"> <span id="username-search-results"></span>

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  • user defined Copy ctor, and copy-ctors further down the chain - compiler bug ? programmers brainbug

    - by J.Colmsee
    Hi. i have a little problem, and I am not sure if it's a compiler bug, or stupidity on my side. I have this struct : struct BulletFXData { int time_next_fx_counter; int next_fx_steps; Particle particles[2];//this is the interesting one ParticleManager::ParticleId particle_id[2]; }; The member "Particle particles[2]" has a self-made kind of smart-ptr in it (resource-counted texture-class). this smart-pointer has a default constructor, that initializes to the ptr to 0 (but that is not important) I also have another struct, containing the BulletFXData struct : struct BulletFX { BulletFXData data; BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr; BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr; BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr; BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr; BulletFX( BulletFXData data, BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr, BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr, BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr, BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr) :data(data), render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } /* //USER DEFINED copy-ctor. if it's defined things go crazy BulletFX(const BulletFX& rhs) :data(data),//this line of code seems to do a plain memory-copy without calling the right ctors render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } */ }; If i use the user-defined copy-ctor my smart-pointer class goes crazy, and it seems that calling the CopyCtor / assignment operator aren't called as they should. So - does this all make sense ? it seems as if my own copy-ctor of struct BulletFX should do exactly what the compiler-generated would, but it seems to forget to call the right constructors down the chain. compiler bug ? me being stupid ? Sorry about the big code, some small example could have illustrated too. but often you guys ask for the real code, so well - here it is :D EDIT : more info : typedef ParticleId unsigned int; Particle has no user defined copyctor, but has a member of type : Particle { .... Resource<Texture> tex_res; ... } Resource is a smart-pointer class, and has all ctor's defined (also asignment operator) and it seems that Resource is copied bitwise. EDIT : henrik solved it... data(data) is stupid of course ! it should of course be rhs.data !!! sorry for huge amount of code, with a very little bug in it !!! (Guess you shouldn't code at 1 in the morning :D )

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  • Assign an existing click event function to another click event using jquery

    - by Peter Delahunty
    Ok so i have some html like this: <div id="navigation"> <ul> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li class="selected"> <a>tab name</a> <span class="tab-del-btn">X</span> </li> </ul> </div> I then have javascript that is excuted on the page that i do not control (this is in liferay portal). I want to then manipulate things afterwards with my own custom javascript. SO... For each of the span.delete-tab elements an on-click event function has been assign earlier. It is the same function call for each span. I want to take that function (any) and call it from the click event of the span.tab-del-btn ? This is what i tried to do: var navigation = jQuery('#navigation'); var navTabs = navigation.find('.delete-tab'); var existingDeleteFunction = null; navTabs.each(function (i){ var tab = jQuery(this); existingDeleteFunction = tab.click; }); var selectedTab = jQuery('#navigation li.selected'); var deleteBtn = selectedTab.find('.tab-del-btn'); deleteBtn.click(function(event){ existingDeleteFunction.call(this); }); It does not work though. existingDeleteFunction is not the original function it is some jquery default function. Any ideas?

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  • problem with jquery sortable of ul with childrens - how to allow li to be sorted only on the same le

    - by Y.G.J
    $(document).ready(function() { $("#test-list").sortable({ items: "> li", handle : '.handle', axis: 'y', opacity: 0.6, update : function () { var order = $('#test-list').sortable('serialize'); $("#info").load("process-sortable.asp?"+order+"&id=catid&order=orderid&table=tblCats"); } }); $("#test-sub").sortable({ containment: "ul", items: "li", handle : '.handle2', axis: 'y', opacity: 0.6, update : function () { var order = $('ul').sortable('serialize'); $("#info").load("process-sortable.asp?"+order+"&id=catid&order=orderid&table=tblCats"); } }); }); <ul id="test-list"> <li id="listItem_10">first<img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle" /></li> <li id="listItem_8">second<img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle" /> <ul id="test-sub"> <li id="listItem_4><img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle2" /></li> <li id="listItem_3"><img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle2" /></li> <ul id="test-sub"> <li id="listItem_9"><img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle2" /></li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> the problems i have: sorting the main ul is working but not all the time - i will try to fix that my own but if there is a problem with the code here and not the one in proccess-sortable - tell me. moving li in the main ul is ok but the sub or the sub of the sub is having problem - i can drag something from one sub to it's sub or the other way too - i don't want that to happend. i want to be able to drag li and by selecting that one that only this ul group will send to proccess-sortable to be updated - how can i catch the specific ul of li i am draging?

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  • How to obtain a pointer out of a C++ vtable?

    - by Josh Haberman
    Say you have a C++ class like: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual DoSomething() = 0; }; The C++ compiler translates a call into a vtable lookup: Foo* foo; // Translated by C++ to: // foo->vtable->DoSomething(foo); foo->DoSomething(); Suppose I was writing a JIT compiler and I wanted to obtain the address of the DoSomething() function for a particular instance of class Foo, so I can generate code that jumps to it directly instead of doing a table lookup and an indirect branch. My questions are: Is there any standard C++ way to do this (I'm almost sure the answer is no, but wanted to ask for the sake of completeness). Is there any remotely compiler-independent way of doing this, like a library someone has implemented that provides an API for accessing a vtable? I'm open to completely hacks, if they will work. For example, if I created my own derived class and could determine the address of its DoSomething method, I could assume that the vtable is the first (hidden) member of Foo and search through its vtable until I find my pointer value. However, I don't know a way of getting this address: if I write &DerivedFoo::DoSomething I get a pointer-to-member, which is something totally different. Maybe I could turn the pointer-to-member into the vtable offset. When I compile the following: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual void DoSomething() = 0; }; void foo(Foo *f, void (Foo::*member)()) { (f->*member)(); } On GCC/x86-64, I get this assembly output: Disassembly of section .text: 0000000000000000 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE>: 0: 40 f6 c6 01 test sil,0x1 4: 48 89 74 24 e8 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x18],rsi 9: 48 89 54 24 f0 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x10],rdx e: 74 10 je 20 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE+0x20> 10: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 13: 48 8b 07 mov rax,QWORD PTR [rdi] 16: 48 8b 74 30 ff mov rsi,QWORD PTR [rax+rsi*1-0x1] 1b: ff e6 jmp rsi 1d: 0f 1f 00 nop DWORD PTR [rax] 20: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 23: ff e6 jmp rsi I don't fully understand what's going on here, but if I could reverse-engineer this or use an ABI spec I could generate a fragment like the above for each separate platform, as a way of obtaining a pointer out of a vtable.

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  • Cannot Call WordPress Plugin Files Under wp-content

    - by Volomike
    I have a client who has many blog customers. Each of these WordPress blogs calls a plugin that provides a product link. The way that link is composed looks like this: {website}/wp-content/plugins/prodx/product?id=432320 This works fine on all blogs except two. On those two, when you try to call the URL, you get a 404. So, I disabled all plugins except prodx and reverted the theme to default (Kubrick), thinking perhaps a plugin intercept with add_action() API was doing this, such as intercepting URLs and redirecting them. However, this did not help. So, I upgraded the WordPress to the latest version. Again, didn't fix. So, I checked permissions, comparing with a blog that worked just fine. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced the .htaccess, using one from a working blog. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced all the files using some from a working blog that was identical to this one, and then restored the wp-config.php file back so that it talked to the right blog database. Again, didn't fix. Again I checked permissions meticulously, comparing to a perfectly working blog. Again, didn't fix. So, I created a test.php that looks like so: <?php print_r($_GET); echo "hello world"; I then copied it into another plugin folder and used my browser to get to it -- again, 404. So I copied it into the root of wp-content/plugins and tried to call it there -- again, 404. So I copied it into wp-content -- again, 404. Last, I copied it into the root of the WordPress blog website, and this time, it worked! Doesn't make sense. I started to think that perhaps something was going on with /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf for this customer, but the only thing I saw different in their for this customer was the IP address was different than the customer's blog that worked. Each customer gets their own IP in this environment my client has built. My client sysop is baffled too. What do you think is going on? Is there something wrong in the WP database for this customer? Is there something wrong in httpd.conf?

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  • Floated DIVs not flowing properly

    - by NightMICU
    Hi everyone, I am working on a photo gallery, each thumbnail is in its own DIV and floated to the left in a containing DIV. It has been displaying properly up until vertical thumbnails entered the equation. Now, when the next row should start, the first item of the following row is to the left of the last vertical DIV (thumbnail), rather than flush to the left of the containing DIV. Here is the CSS: #galleryBox { width: 650px; background: #fff; margin: auto; padding: 10px; text-align: center; overflow: auto; } .item { display: block; margin: 10px; padding: 20px 5px 5px 5px; float: left; background: url('/images/content_bottom.png') repeat-x scroll bottom #828282; } and the HTML: <div id="galleryBox" class="ui-corner-all"> <div id="file" class="ui-corner-all"> <form name="uploadPhoto" id="uploadPhoto" method="post" action="" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <p><label for="photo">Photo:</label><input type="file" name="photo" id="photo"/></p> <p><label for="caption">Caption: <small>Optional</small></label><input type="text" id="caption" name="caption"/></p> <p align="center"><input type="submit" value="Upload" name="send" id="send" class="addButton ui-state-default ui-corner-all"/></p> </form> <a name="thumbs"></a> </div> <div class="item ui-corner-all"> <a href="http://tapp-essexvfd.org/gallery/photos/201004211802.jpg" class="lightbox" title="test1"> <img src="http://tapp-essexvfd.org/gallery/photos/thumbs/201004211802_thumb.jpg" alt="test1"/></a><br/> <p><span class="label">test1</span></p> </div> <div class="item ui-corner-all"> <a href="http://tapp-essexvfd.org/gallery/photos/201004211803.jpg" class="lightbox" title="test3"> <img src="http://tapp-essexvfd.org/gallery/photos/thumbs/201004211803_thumb.jpg" alt="test3"/></a><br/> <p><span class="label">test3</span></p> </div> </div>

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  • How to check for palindrome using Python logic

    - by DrOnline
    My background is only a 6 month college class in basic C/C++, and I'm trying to convert to Python. I may be talking nonsense, but it seems to me C, at least at my level, is very for-loop intensive. I solve most problems with these loops. And it seems to me the biggest mistake people do when going from C to Python is trying to implement C logic using Python, which makes things run slowly, and it's just not making the most of the language. I see on this website: http://hyperpolyglot.org/scripting (serach for "c-style for", that Python doesn't have C-style for loops. Might be outdated, but I interpret it to mean Python has its own methods for this. I've tried looking around, I can't find much up to date (Python 3) advice for this. How can I solve a palindrome challenge in Python, without using the for loop? I've done this in C in class, but I want to do it in Python, on a personal basis. The problem is from the Euler Project, great site btw. def isPalindrome(n): lst = [int(n) for n in str(n)] l=len(lst) if l==0 || l==1: return True elif len(lst)%2==0: for k in range (l) ##### else: while (k<=((l-1)/2)): if (list[]): ##### for i in range (999, 100, -1): for j in range (999,100, -1): if isPalindrome(i*j): print(i*j) break I'm missing a lot of code here. The five hashes are just reminders for myself. Concrete questions: 1) In C, I would make a for loop comparing index 0 to index max, and then index 0+1 with max-1, until something something. How to best do this in Python? 2) My for loop (in in range (999, 100, -1), is this a bad way to do it in Python? 3) Does anybody have any good advice, or good websites or resources for people in my position? I'm not a programmer, I don't aspire to be one, I just want to learn enough so that when I write my bachelor's degree thesis (electrical engineering), I don't have to simultaneously LEARN an applicable programming language while trying to obtain good results in the project. "How to go from basic C to great application of Python", that sort of thing. 4) Any specific bits of code to make a great solution to this problem would also be appreciated, I need to learn good algorithms.. I am envisioning 3 situations. If the value is zero or single digit, if it is of odd length, and if it is of even length. I was planning to write for loops... PS: The problem is: Find the highest value product of two 3 digit integers that is also a palindrome.

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  • OpenGL ES functions not accepting values originating outside of it's view

    - by Josh Elsasser
    I've been unable to figure this out on my own. I currently have an Open GLES setup where a view controller both updates a game world (with a dt), fetches the data I need to render, passes it off to an EAGLView through two structures (built of Apple's ES1Renderer), and draws the scene. Whenever a value originates outside of the Open GL view, it can't be used to either translate objects using glTranslatef, or set up the scene using glOrthof. If I assign a new value to something, it will work - even if it is the exact same number. The two structures I have each contain a variety of floating-point numbers and booleans, along with two arrays. I can log the values from within my renderer - they make it there - but I receive errors from OpenGL if I try to do anything with them. No crashes result, but the glOrthof call doesn't work if I don't set the camera values to anything different. Code used to set up scene: [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, viewFramebuffer); //clears the color buffer bit glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); //sets up the scene w/ ortho projection glViewport(0, 0, 320, 480); glLoadIdentity(); glOrthof(320, 0, dynamicData.cam_x2, dynamicData.cam_x1, 1.0, -1.0); glClearColor(1.0, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0); /*error checking code here*/ "dynamicData" (which is replaced every frame) is created within my game simulation. From within my controller, I call a method (w/in my simulation) that returns it, and pass the result on to the EAGLView, which passes it on to the renderer. I haven't been able to come up with a better solution for this - suggestions in this regard would be greatly appreciated as well. Also, this function doesn't work as well (values originate in the same place): glTranslatef(dynamicData.ship_x, dynamicData.ship_y, 0.0); Thanks in advance. Additional Definitions: Structure (declared in a separate header): typedef struct { float ship_x, ship_y; float cam_x1, cam_x2; } dynamicRenderData; Render data getter (and builder) (every frame) - (dynamicData)getDynRenderData { //d_rd is an ivar, zeroed on initialization d_rd.ship_x = mainShip.position.x; d_rd.ship_y = mainShip.position.y; d_rd.cam_x1 = d_rd.ship_x - 30.0f; d_rd.cam_x2 = d_rd.cam_x1 + 480.0f; return d_rd; } Zeroed at start. (d_rd.ship_x = 0;, etc…) Setting up the view. Prototype (GLView): - (void)draw: (dynamicRenderData)dynamicData Prototype (Renderer): - (void)drawView: (dynamicRenderData)dynamicData How it's called w/in the controller: //controller [glview draw: [world getDynRenderData]]; //glview (within draw) [renderer drawView: dynamicData];

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  • Windows Question: RunOnce/Second Boot Issues [closed]

    - by Greg
    Moved to Super User: Windows Question: RunOnce/Second Boot Issues I am attempting to create a Windows XP SP3 image that will run my application on Second Boot. Here is the intended workflow. 1) Run Image Prep Utility (I wrote) on windows to add my runonce entries and clean a few things up. 2) Reboot to ghost, make image file. 3) Package into my ISO and distribute. 4) System will be imaged by user. 5) On first boot, I have about 5 things that run, one of which includes a driver updater (I wrote) for my own specific devices. 6) One of the entries inside of HKCU/../runonce is a reg file, which adds another key to HKLM/../runonce. This is how second boot is acquired. 7) As a result of the driver updater, user is prompted to reboot. 8) My application is then launched from HKLM/../runonce on second boot. This workflow works perfectly, except for a select few legacy systems that contain devices that cause the add hardware wizard to pop up. When the add hardware wizard pops up is when I begin to see problems. It's important to note, that if I manually inspect the registry after the add hardware wizard pops up, it appears as I would expect, with all the first boot scripts having run, and it's sitting in a state I would correctly expect it to be in for a second boot scenario. The problem comes when I click next on the add hardware wizard, it seems to re-run the single entry I've added, and re-executes the runonce scripts. (only one script now as it's already executed and cleared out the initial entries). This causes my application to open as if it were a second boot, only when next is clicked on the add hardware wizard. If I click cancel, and reboot, then it also works as expected. I don't care as much about other solutions, because I could design a system that doesn't fully rely on Microsoft's registry. I simply can't find any information as to WHY this is happening. I believe this is some type of Microsoft issue that's presenting itself as a result of an overstretched image that's expected to support too many legacy platforms, but any help that can be provided would be appreciated. Thanks,

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  • Trying to understand the usage of class_eval

    - by eMxyzptlk
    Hello everyone, I'm using the rails-settings gem, and I'm trying to understand how you add functions to ActiveRecord classes (I'm building my own library for card games), and I noticed that this gem uses one of the Meta-programming techniques to add the function to the ActiveRecord::Base class (I'm far from Meta-programming master in ruby, but I'm trying to learn it) module RailsSettings class Railtie < Rails::Railtie initializer 'rails_settings.initialize', :after => :after_initialize do Railtie.extend_active_record end end class Railtie def self.extend_active_record ActiveRecord::Base.class_eval do def self.has_settings class_eval do def settings RailsSettings::ScopedSettings.for_thing(self) end scope :with_settings, :joins => "JOIN settings ON (settings.thing_id = #{self.table_name}.#{self.primary_key} AND settings.thing_type = '#{self.base_class.name}')", :select => "DISTINCT #{self.table_name}.*" scope :with_settings_for, lambda { |var| { :joins => "JOIN settings ON (settings.thing_id = #{self.table_name}.#{self.primary_key} AND settings.thing_type = '#{self.base_class.name}') AND settings.var = '#{var}'" } } scope :without_settings, :joins => "LEFT JOIN settings ON (settings.thing_id = #{self.table_name}.#{self.primary_key} AND settings.thing_type = '#{self.base_class.name}')", :conditions => 'settings.id IS NULL' scope :without_settings_for, lambda { |var| { :joins => "LEFT JOIN settings ON (settings.thing_id = #{self.table_name}.#{self.primary_key} AND settings.thing_type = '#{self.base_class.name}') AND settings.var = '#{var}'", :conditions => 'settings.id IS NULL' } } end end end end end end What I don't understand is why he uses class_eval on ActiveRecord::Base, wasn't it easier if he just open the ActiveRecord::Base class and define the functions? Specially that there's nothing dynamic in the block (What I mean by dynamic is when you do class_eval or instance_eval on a string containing variables) something like this: module ActiveRecord class Base def self.has_settings class_eval do def settings RailsSettings::ScopedSettings.for_thing(self) end scope :with_settings, :joins => "JOIN settings ON (settings.thing_id = #{self.table_name}.#{self.primary_key} AND settings.thing_type = '#{self.base_class.name}')", :select => "DISTINCT #{self.table_name}.*" scope :with_settings_for, lambda { |var| { :joins => "JOIN settings ON (settings.thing_id = #{self.table_name}.#{self.primary_key} AND settings.thing_type = '#{self.base_class.name}') AND settings.var = '#{var}'" } } scope :without_settings, :joins => "LEFT JOIN settings ON (settings.thing_id = #{self.table_name}.#{self.primary_key} AND settings.thing_type = '#{self.base_class.name}')", :conditions => 'settings.id IS NULL' scope :without_settings_for, lambda { |var| { :joins => "LEFT JOIN settings ON (settings.thing_id = #{self.table_name}.#{self.primary_key} AND settings.thing_type = '#{self.base_class.name}') AND settings.var = '#{var}'", :conditions => 'settings.id IS NULL' } } end end end end I understand the second class_eval (before the def settings) is to define functions on the fly on every class that 'has_settings' right ? Same question here, I think he could use "def self.settings" instead of "class_eval.... def settings", no ?

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  • Passing objects to a UITypeEditor

    - by Kath
    I am currently hoping to use a PropertyGrid to allow users to edit some of my classes, however I've hit a wall with passing objects to the UITypeEditor(s) they use. When the user presses the drop down I want to show a listbox of already loaded textures to choose from, if they want to use a texture the application hasn't loaded yet they can click a button to choose one from a file dialog. In case I make no sense here a mock of the form: . My problem: To fill the listbox I need access to the class that manages the list of resources from the UITypeEditor. Now I've solved this problem for my own classes by giving them a reference on creation to their managing object. In the UITypeEditor I then use that reference to access what I need. However I can't do this for classes I haven't written, such as the XNA Texture2D class. Here are what the classes I'm using look like: class StaticGeometryChunk { // Geometry data to draw with. Contains a reference to its managing // class for use in its UITypeEditor. public GeometryData { get; set; } .... } class Material { // These are XNA classes. I can't just add a reference to its managing // class (I think?). public Texture2D Texture1 { get; set; } public Texture2D Texture2 { get; set; } .... } I've been looking at my options and they seem to be: Make the managing classes static. I don't really want to do this. There are several managing classes as each resource is loaded differently. There are also classes that need to be created before these and are passed in. Make the managing classes singletons. I don't really want to do this either. It seems like a quick and dirty way to "hide" the problem instead of "solve" it. I also might want the option of having several managing classes in the future which the singletons eliminate. Create a wrapper class which holds the reference to a managing class and its target (such as the XNA Texture2D). This is currently what I'm thinking of doing. Its would be quite simple and quick to do but something about it nags me but I don't know what. Any thoughts on the above or other methods to pass what I need into the UITypeEditor? Thank you for reading.

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  • Few iPhone noob questions

    - by mshsayem
    Why should I declare local variables as 'static' inside a method? Like: static NSString *cellIdentifier = @"Cell"; Is it a performance advantage? (I know what 'static' does; in C context) What does this syntax mean?[someObj release], someObj = nil; Two statements? Why should I assign nil again? Is not 'release' enough? Should I do it for all objects I allocate/own? Or for just view objects? Why does everyone copy NSString, but retains other objects (in property declaration)? Yes, NSStrings can be changed, but other objects can be changed also, right? Then why 'copy' for just NSString, not for all? Is it just a defensive convention? Shouldn't I release constant NSString? Like here:NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; Why not? Does the compiler allocate/deallocate it for me? In some tutorial application I observed these (Built with IB): Properties(IBOutlet, with same ivar name): window, someLabel, someTextField, etc etc... In the dealloc method, although the window ivar was released, others were not. My question is: WHY? Shouldn't I release other ivars(labels, textField) as well? Why not? Say, I have 3 cascaded drop-down lists. I mean, based on what is selected on the first list, 2nd list is populated and based on what is selected on the second list, 3rd list is populated. What UI components can reflect this best? How is drop-down list presented in iPhone UI? Tableview with UIPicker? When should I update the 2nd, 3rd list? Or just three labels which have touch events? Can you give me some good example tutorials about Core-Data? (Not just simple data fetching and storing on 2/3 tables with 1/2 relationship) How can I know whether my app is leaking memory? Any tools?

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  • ASP.NET MVC : Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. Update FINALLY, a good (and, in retrospect, obvious) way to accomplish this. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; namespace K.ObjectModel.Controls { public class TestControl : ViewUserControl { protected override void Render(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter writer) { writer.Write("Hello World"); base.Render(writer); } } } Create a new class which inherits ViewUserControl Override the .Render() method as shown above. Register the control via its associated ASCX as you would in a webForm: <%@ Register TagName="tn" TagPrefix="k" Src="~/Views/Navigation/LeftBar.ascx"%> Use the corresponding tag in whatever view or master page that you need: <k:tn runat="server"/> Make sure your .ascx inherits your new control: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="K.ObjectModel.Controls.TestControl" %> Voila, you're up and running. This is tested with ASP.NET MVC 2, VS 2010 and .NET 4.0. Your custom tag references the ascx partial view, which inherits from the TestControl class. The control then overrides the Render() method, which is called to render the view, giving you complete control over the process from tag to output. Why does everyone try to make this so much harder than it has to be?

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  • set/unset checkboxes in JSF

    - by mykola
    Hello, i've got one problem with checkboxes in JSF. I want them to behave dependently on each other, e.g., when i check a box which belongs to some object that has children then all checkboxes that belong to these children components must be checked either. And also when i uncheck one of child's checkbox the parent should be unchecked too. It's pretty simple with plain HTML/javascript, but i can't do anything with this under JSF. For some reason i can't set ID's for them because all checkboxes are rendered dynamically in a treetable and it prevents me from setting my own ID's, i.e. whatever i set in ID property only constant part will apply, all dynamic data that i pass is ignored. I tried to do it through valueChangeListener or validator but in both cases after i set needed values something sets them back! I don't know who does it and i can't do anything with this. Here's some code (i use OpenFaces treeTable): <o:treeTable id="instTreeTable" var="inst" ...> <...> <o:column id="isGranted" width="10%"> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText value="#{msg.access_granted}" /> </f:facet> <h:selectBooleanCheckbox value="#{inst.assignedToUser}" styleClass="treeTableText" valueChangeListener="#{MbUserInstitutions.onAccessGrantedChanged}" > <a4j:support event="onchange" reRender="instTreeTable"/> </h:selectBooleanCheckbox> </o:column> <...> </o:treeTable> MbUserInstitutions: public void onAccessGrantedChanged(ValueChangeEvent event) { Boolean granted = (Boolean) event.getNewValue(); Institution inst = getInstitution(); if (granted.booleanValue() && inst.hasChildren()) { setChildrenInsts(inst); } else if (!granted.booleanValue() && inst.getParentId() != null){ unsetParentInst(inst); } } private Institution getInstitution() { return (Institution) Faces.var("inst"); } private void setChildrenInsts(Institution parent) { for (Institution child: parent.getChildren()) { child.setAssignedToUser(true); if (child.hasChildren()) { setChildrenInsts(child); } } } private void unsetParentInst(Institution child) { child.setAssignedToUser(false); for (Institution inst: coreInsts) { if (inst.getId().equals(child.getParentId())) { unsetParentInst(inst); break; } } }

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  • Passing Auth to API calls with Web Service References

    - by coffeeaddict
    I am new to web services. The last time I dealt with SOAP was when I created a bunch of wrapper classes that sent requests and received responses back per some response objects/classes I had created. So I had an object to send certain API requests and likewise a set of objects to hold the response back as an object so I could utilize that 3rd party API. Then someone came to me and said why not just use the wsdl and a web service. Ok, so today I went and created a "Service Reference". I see that this is what's called a "Proxy Class". You just instantiate an instance of this and then walla you have access to all the methods from the wsdl. But this leaves me with auth questions. Back when I created my own classes manually, I had a class which exposed properties that I would set then access for things like signature, username, password that got sent along with the Http request that were required by whatever 3rd party API I was using to make API calls. But then with using a Service Reference, how then would I pass this information just like I had done in my custom classes? For instance I'm going to be working with the PayPal API. It requires you to send a signature and a few other pieces of information like username and password. // Determins if API call needs to use a session based URI string requestURI = UseAuthURI == true ? _requestURIAuthBased + aSessionID : _requestURI; byte[] data = XmlUtil.DocumentToBytes(doc); // Create the atual Request instance HttpWebRequest request = CreateWebRequest(requestURI, data.Length); So how do I pass username, password, signature, etc. when using web service references for each method call? Is it as simple as specifying it as a param to the method or do you use the .Credentials and .URL methods of your proxy class object? It seems to me Credentials means windows credentials but I could be wrong. Is it limited to that or can you use that to specify those required header values that PayPal expects with each method call/API request?

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  • How to stream semi-live audio over internet

    - by Thomas Tempelmann
    I want to write something like Skype, i.e. I have a constant audio stream on one computer and then recompress it in a format that's suitable for a latent internet connection, receive it on the other end and play it. Let's also assume that the internet connection is fairly modern and fast, i.e. DSL or alike, no slow connections over phone and such. The involved computers will also be rather modern (Dual Core Intel CPUs at 2GHz or more). I know how to handle the audio on the machines. What I don't know is how to transmit the audio in an efficient way. The challenges are: I'd like get good audio quality across the line. The stream should be received without drops. The stream may, however, be received with a little delay (a second delay is acceptable). I imagine that the transport software could first determine the average (and max) latency, then start the stream and tell the receiver to wait for that max latency before starting to play the audio. With that, if the latency doesn't get any higher, the entire stream will be playable on the other side without stutter or drops. If, due to unexpected IP latencies or blockages, the stream does get cut off, I want to be able to notice this so that I can take actions (e.g. abort the stream) and eventually start a new transmission. What are my options if I want do use ready-made software for the compression and tranmission? I have no intention to write my own audio compression engine, really. OTOH, I plan to sell the solution in a vertical market, meaning I can afford a few dollars of license fees per copy, but not $100s. I guess the simplest solution would be to just open a TCP stream, send a few packets back and forth to determine their running time (or even use UDP for that), then use the results as the guide for my max latency value, then simply fire the audio data in its raw form (uncompressed 16 bit stereo), along with a timing code over the TCP connection. The receiver reads the data and plays it with the pre-determined delay. That might just work with the type of fast connection I expect. I just wonder if there are better solutions to reach this goal, with better performance (lower latency) and less data (compressed). BTW, I first try to implement this on OS X, but might want to do it on Windows, too, if it proves successful.

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