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  • Comet with multiple channels

    - by mark_dj
    Hello, I am writing an web app which needs to subscribe to multiple channels via javascript. I am using Atmosphere and Jersey as backend. However the jQuery plugin they work with only supports 1 channel. I've start buidling my own implementation. Now it works oke, but when i try to subscribe to 2 channels only 1 channel gets notified. Is the XMLHttpRequest blocking the rest of the XMLHttpRequests? Here's my code: function AtmosphereComet(url) { this.Connected = new signals.Signal(); this.Disconnected = new signals.Signal(); this.NewMessage = new signals.Signal(); var xhr = null; var self = this; var gotWelcomeMessage = false; var readPosition; var url = url; var onIncomingXhr = function() { if (xhr.readyState == 3) { if (xhr.status==200) // Received a message { var message = xhr.responseText; console.log(message); if(!gotWelcomeMessage && message.indexOf("") -1) { gotWelcomeMessage = true; self.Connected.dispatch(sprintf("Connected to %s", url)); } else { self.NewMessage.dispatch(message.substr(readPosition)); } readPosition = this.responseText.length; } } else if (this.readyState == 4) { self.disconnect(); } } var getXhr = function() { if ( window.location.protocol !== "file:" ) { try { return new window.XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(xhrError) {} } try { return new window.ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch(activeError) {} } this.connect = function() { xhr = getXhr(); xhr.onreadystatechange = onIncomingXhr; xhr.open("GET", url, true); xhr.send(null); } this.disconnect = function() { xhr.onreadystatechange = null; xhr.abort(); } this.send = function(message) { } } And the test code: var connection1 = AtmosphereConnection("http://192.168.1.145:9999/botenveiling/b/product/status/2", AtmosphereComet); var connection2 = AtmosphereConnection("http://192.168.1.145:9999/botenveiling/b/product/status/1", AtmosphereComet); var output = function(msg) { alert(output); }; connection1.NewMessage.add(output); connection2.NewMessage.add(output); connection1.connect(); In AtmosphereConnection I instantiate the given AtmosphereComet with "new". I iterate over the object to check if it has to methods: "send", "connect", "disconnect". The reason for this is that i can switch the implementation later on when i complete the websocket implementation :) However I think the problem rests with the XmlHttpRequest object, or am i mistaken? P.S.: signals.Signal is a js observer/notifier library: http://millermedeiros.github.com/js-signals/ Testing: Firefox 3.6.1.3

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  • JQuery Cascade dropdown problem?

    - by omoto
    Hi All! I'm using JQuery based Cascade plugin probably it's working, but I found a lot of problems with it Maybe somebody already faced with this plugin and maybe could help. So, I using this plugin for location filtration Here comes my CS code: public JsonResult getChildren(string val) { if (val.IsNotNull()) { int lId = val.ToInt(); Cookie.Location = val.ToInt(); var forJSON = from h in Location.SubLocationsLoaded(val.ToInt()) select new { When = val, Id = h.Id, Name = h.Name, LocationName = h.LocationType.Name }; return this.Json(forJSON.ToArray()); } else return null; } Here comes my JS code: <script type="text/javascript"> function commonMatch(selectedValue) { $("#selectedLocation").val(selectedValue); return this.When == selectedValue; }; function commonTemplate(item) { return "<option value='" + item.Id + "'>" + item.Name + "</option>"; }; $(document).ready(function() { $("#chained_child").cascade("#Countries", { ajax: { url: '/locations/getChildren' }, template: commonTemplate, match: commonMatch }).bind("loaded.cascade", function(e, target) { $(this).prepend("<option value='empty' selected='true'>------[%Select] Län------</option>"); $(this).find("option:first")[0].selected = true; }); $("#chained_sub_child").cascade("#chained_child", { ajax: { url: '/locations/getChildren' }, template: commonTemplate, match: commonMatch }).bind("loaded.cascade", function(e, target) { $(this).prepend("<option value='empty' selected='true'>------[%Select] Kommun------</option>"); $(this).find("option:first")[0].selected = true; }); $("#chained_sub_sub_child").cascade("#chained_sub_child", { ajax: { url: '/locations/getChildren' }, template: commonTemplate, match: commonMatch }).bind("loaded.cascade", function(e, target) { $(this).prepend("<option value='empty' selected='true'>------[%Select] Stad------</option>"); $(this).find("option:first")[0].selected = true; }); }); I added one condition to jquery.cascade.ext.js if (opt.getParentValue(parent) != "empty") $.ajax(_ajax); To prevent Ajax request without selected value, but I faced with problem, when I reset selection in first box 3d box and bellow does not refresh: And second issue: I would like to know where is best place to inject my own function that will do something, with one requirement - I need to know that all boxes finished work. If somebody worked within let me know maybe we could together find solution. Thanks in advice...

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  • Primary language - QtC++, C#, Java?

    - by Airjoe
    I'm looking for some input, but let me start with a bit of background (for tl;dr skip to end). I'm an IT major with a concentration in networking. While I'm not a CS major nor do I want to program as a vocation, I do consider myself a programmer and do pretty well with the concepts involved. I've been programming since about 6th grade, started out with a proprietary game creation language that made my transition into C++ at college pretty easy. I like to make programs for myself and friends, and have been paid to program for local businesses. A bit about that- I wrote some programs for a couple local businesses in my senior year in high school. I wrote management systems for local shops (inventory, phone/pos orders, timeclock, customer info, and more stuff I can't remember). It definitely turned out to be over my head, as I had never had any formal programming education. It was a great learning experience, but damn was it crappy code. Oh yeah, by the way, it was all vb6. So, I've used vb6 pretty extensively, I've used c++ in my classes (intro to programming up to algorithms), used Java a little bit in another class (had to write a ping client program, pretty easy) and used Java for some simple Project Euler problems to help learn syntax and such when writing the program for the class. I've also used C# a bit for my own simple personal projects (simple programs, one which would just generate an HTTP request on a list of websites and notify if one responded unexpectedly or not at all, and another which just held a list of things to do and periodically reminded me to do them), things I would've written in vb6 a year or two ago. I've just started using Qt C++ for some undergrad research I'm working on. Now I've had some formal education, I [think I] understand organization in programming a lot better (I didn't even use classes in my vb6 programs where I really should have), how it's important to structure code, split into functions where appropriate, document properly, efficiency both in memory and speed, dynamic and modular programming etc. I was looking for some input on which language to pick up as my "primary". As I'm not a "real programmer", it will be mostly hobby projects, but will include some 'real' projects I'm sure. From my perspective: QtC++ and Java are cross platform, which is cool. Java and C# run in a virtual machine, but I'm not sure if that's a big deal (something extra to distribute, possibly a bit slower? I think Qt would require additional distributables too, right?). I don't really know too much more than this, so I appreciate any help, thanks! TL;DR Am an avocational programmer looking for a language, want quick and straight forward development, liked vb6, will be working with database driven GUI apps- should I go with QtC++, Java, C#, or perhaps something else?

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  • Cannot extend a class located in another file, PHP

    - by NightMICU
    I am trying to set up a class with commonly used tasks, such as preparing strings for input into a database and creating a PDO object. I would like to include this file in other class files and extend those classes to use the common class' code. However, when I place the common class in its own file and include it in the class it will be used in, I receive an error that states the second class cannot be found. For example, if the class name is foo and it is extending bar (the common class, located elsewhere), the error says that foo cannot be found. But if I place the code for class bar in the same file as foo, it works. Here are the classes in question - Common Class abstract class coreFunctions { protected $contentDB; public function __construct() { $this->contentDB = new PDO('mysql:host=localhost;dbname=db', 'username', 'password'); } public function cleanStr($string) { $cleansed = trim($string); $cleansed = stripslashes($cleansed); $cleansed = strip_tags($cleansed); return $cleansed; } } Code from individual class include $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . '/includes/class.core-functions.php'; $mode = $_POST['mode']; if (isset($mode)) { $gallery = new gallery; switch ($mode) { case 'addAlbum': $gallery->addAlbum($_POST['hash'], $_POST['title'], $_POST['description']); } } class gallery extends coreFunctions { private function directoryPath($string) { $path = trim($string); $path = strtolower($path); $path = preg_replace('/[^ \pL \pN]/', '', $path); $path = preg_replace('[\s+]', '', $path); $path = substr($path, 0, 18); return $path; } public function addAlbum($hash, $title, $description) { $title = $this->cleanStr($title); $description = $this->cleanStr($description); $path = $this->directoryPath($title); if ($title && $description && $hash) { $addAlbum = $this->contentDB->prepare("INSERT INTO gallery_albums (albumHash, albumTitle, albumDescription, albumPath) VALUES (:hash, :title, :description, :path)"); $addAlbum->execute(array('hash' => $hash, 'title' => $title, 'description' => $description, 'path' => $path)); } } } The error when I try it this way is Fatal error: Class 'gallery' not found in /home/opheliad/public_html/admin/photo-gallery/includes/class.admin_photo-gallery.php on line 10

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  • Issues querying Access '07 database in C#

    - by Kye
    I'm doing a .NET unit as part of my studies. I've only just started, with a lecturer that as kinda failed to give me the most solid foundation with .NET, so excuse the noobishness. I'm making a pretty simple and generic database-driven application. I'm using C# and I'm accessing a Microsoft Access 2007 database. I've put the database-ish stuff in its own class with the methods just spitting out OleDbDataAdapters that I use for committing. I feed any methods which preform a query a DataSet object from the main program, which is where I'm keeping the data (multiple tables in the db). I've made a very generic private method that I use to perform SQL SELECT queries and have some public methods wrapping that method to get products, orders.etc (it's a generic retail database). The generic method uses a separate Connect method to actually make the connection, and it is as follows: private static OleDbConnection Connect() { OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0; Data Source=C:\Temp\db.accdb"); return conn; } The generic method is as follows: private static OleDbDataAdapter GenericSelectQuery( DataSet ds, string namedTable, String selectString) { OleDbCommand oleCommand = new OleDbCommand(); OleDbConnection conn = Connect(); oleCommand.CommandText = selectString; oleCommand.Connection = conn; oleCommand.CommandType = CommandType.Text; OleDbDataAdapter adapter = new OleDbDataAdapter(); adapter.SelectCommand = oleCommand; adapter.MissingSchemaAction = MissingSchemaAction.AddWithKey; adapter.Fill(ds, namedTable); return adapter; } The wrapper methods just pass along the DataSet that they received from the main program, the namedtable string is the name of the table in the dataset, and you pass in the query you wish to make. It doesn't matter which query I give it (even something simple like SELECT * FROM TableName) I still get thrown an OleDbException, stating that there was en error with the FROM clause of the query. I've just resorted to building the queries with Access, but there's still no use. Obviously there's something wrong with my code, which wouldn't actually surprise me. Here are some wrapper methods I'm using. public static OleDbDataAdapter GetOrderLines(DataSet ds) { OleDbDataAdapter adapter = GenericSelectQuery( ds, "orderlines", "SELECT OrderLine.* FROM OrderLine;"); return adapter; } They all look the same, it's just the SQL that changes.

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  • Visual Studio 2010 and Test Driven Development

    - by devoured elysium
    I'm making my first steps in Test Driven Development with Visual Studio. I have some questions regarding how to implement generic classes with VS 2010. First, let's say I want to implement my own version of an ArrayList. I start by creating the following test (I'm using in this case MSTest): [TestMethod] public void Add_10_Items_Remove_10_Items_Check_Size_Is_Zero() { var myArrayList = new MyArrayList<int>(); for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { myArrayList.Add(i); } for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { myArrayList.RemoveAt(0); } int expected = 0; int actual = myArrayList.Size; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } I'm using VS 2010 ability to hit ctrl + . and have it implement classes/methods on the go. I have been getting some trouble when implementing generic classes. For example, when I define an .Add(10) method, VS doesn't know if I intend a generic method(as the class is generic) or an Add(int number) method. Is there any way to differentiate this? The same can happen with return types. Let's assume I'm implementing a MyStack stack and I want to test if after I push and element and pop it, the stack is still empty. We all know pop should return something, but usually, the code of this test shouldn't care for it. Visual Studio would then think that pop is a void method, which in fact is not what one would want. How to deal with this? For each method, should I start by making tests that are "very specific" such as is obvious the method should return something so I don't get this kind of ambiguity? Even if not using the result, should I have something like int popValue = myStack.Pop() ? How should I do tests to generic classes? Only test with one generic kind of type? I have been using ints, as they are easy to use, but should I also test with different kinds of objects? How do you usually approach this? I see there is a popular tool called TestDriven for .NET. With VS 2010 release, is it still useful, or a lot of its features are now part of VS 2010, rendering it kinda useless? Thanks

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  • How to setup Lucene/Solr for a B2B web app?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Given: 1 database per client (business customer) 5000 clients Clients have between 2 to 2000 users (avg is ~100 users/client) 100k to 10 million records per database Users need to search those records often (it's the best way to navigate their data) Possibly relevant info: Several new clients each week (any time during business hours) Multiple web servers and database servers (users can login via any web server) Let's stay agnostic of language or sql brand, since Lucene (and Solr) have a breadth of support For Example: Joel Spolsky said in Podcast #11 that his hosted web app product, FogBugz On-Demand, uses Lucene. He has thousands of on-demand clients. And each client gets their own database. They use an index per client and store it in the client's database. I'm not sure on the details. And I'm not sure if this is a serious mod to Lucene. The Question: How would you setup Lucene search so that each client can only search within its database? How would you setup the index(es)? Where do you store the index(es)? Would you need to add a filter to all search queries? If a client cancelled, how would you delete their (part of the) index? (this may be trivial--not sure yet) Possible Solutions: Make an index for each client (database) Pro: Search is faster (than one-index-for-all method). Indices are relative to the size of the client's data. Con: I'm not sure what this entails, nor do I know if this is beyond Lucene's scope. Have a single, gigantic index with a database_name field. Always include database_name as a filter. Pro: Not sure. Maybe good for tech support or billing dept to search all databases for info. Con: Search is slower (than index-per-client method). Flawed security if query filter removed. One last thing: I would also accept an answer that uses Solr (the extension of Lucene). Perhaps it's better suited for this problem. Not sure.

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  • Can I have a workspace that is both a git workspace and a svn workspace?

    - by Troy
    I have checked out now a local working copy of a codebase that lives in an svn repo. It's a big Java project that I use Eclipse to develop in. Eclipse of course builds everything on the fly, in it's own way with all the binaries ending up in [project root]/bin. That's perfectly fine with me, for development, but when the build runs on the build server, it looks quite a lot different (maven build, binaries end up in a different directory structure, etc). Sometimes I need to recreate the build server environment on my local development system to debug the build or what have you, so I usually end up downloading an entirely new working copy into a new workspace and running the build from there (prevents cluttering my development workspace with all the build artifacts and dirtying up the working copy). Of course sometimes I'm interested in running the full build on code that I don't want to check in yet, so I will manually copy over the "development" workspace onto the "build" workspace. Besides taking a lot of extra time copying a lot of files that I don't actually need (just overlaying the new over the old), this also screws up my svn metadata, meaning that I can't check in changes from that "build workspace" working copy, and I often end up having to re-download the code to get it back into a known state. So I'm thinking I make my svn working copy a local git repo, then "check out" the in-development code from the svn working copy/git master, into the local build workspace. Then I can build, revert my changes, have all the advantages of a version controlled working copy in the build workspace. Then if I need to make changes to the build, push those back into the git master (which is also a svn working copy), then check them into the main svn repo. |-------------| |main svn repo| <------- |---------------------| |-------------| |svn working copy | <------- |--------------------| | (svn dev workspace/ | | non-svn-versioned | | git master) | | build workspace | |---------------------| | (git working copy) | |--------------------| Just switching everything to git would obviously be better, but, big company, too many people using svn, too costly to change everything, etc. We're stuck with svn as the main repo for now. BTW, I know there is a maven plugin for Eclipse and everything, I'm mainly interested to know if there is a way to maintain a workspace that is both a git working copy and an svn working copy. Actually any distributed version control system would probably work (hg possibly?). Advice? How does everybody else handle this situation of having a to manage both a "development" build process and a "production" build process?

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  • mysql timeout - c/C++

    - by user1262876
    Guys i'm facing a problem with this code, the problem is the timeout by timeout i mean the time it takes the program to tell me if the server is connected or not. If i use my localhost i get the answer fast, but when i connect to outside my localhost it takes 50sc - 1.5 min to response and the program frezz until it done. HOw can i fix the frezzing, or make my own timeout, like if still waiting after 50sc, tell me connection failed and stop? please use codes as help, becouse i would understand it better, thanks for any help i get PS: USING MAC #include "mysql.h" #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> // Other Linker Flags: -lmysqlclient -lm -lz // just going to input the general details and not the port numbers struct connection_details { char *server; char *user; char *password; char *database; }; MYSQL* mysql_connection_setup(struct connection_details mysql_details) { // first of all create a mysql instance and initialize the variables within MYSQL *connection = mysql_init(NULL); // connect to the database with the details attached. if (!mysql_real_connect(connection,mysql_details.server, mysql_details.user, mysql_details.password, mysql_details.database, 0, NULL, 0)) { printf("Conection error : %s\n", mysql_error(connection)); exit(1); } return connection; } MYSQL_RES* mysql_perform_query(MYSQL *connection, char *sql_query) { // send the query to the database if (mysql_query(connection, sql_query)) { printf("MySQL query error : %s\n", mysql_error(connection)); exit(1); } return mysql_use_result(connection); } int main() { MYSQL *conn; // the connection MYSQL_RES *res; // the results MYSQL_ROW row; // the results row (line by line) struct connection_details mysqlD; mysqlD.server = (char*)"Localhost"; // where the mysql database is mysqlD.user = (char*)"root"; // the root user of mysql mysqlD.password = (char*)"123456"; // the password of the root user in mysql mysqlD.database = (char*)"test"; // the databse to pick // connect to the mysql database conn = mysql_connection_setup(mysqlD); // assign the results return to the MYSQL_RES pointer res = mysql_perform_query(conn, (char*) "SELECT * FROM me"); printf("MySQL Tables in mysql database:\n"); while ((row = mysql_fetch_row(res)) !=NULL) printf("%s - %s\n", row[0], row[1], row[2]); // <-- Rows /* clean up the database result set */ mysql_free_result(res); /* clean up the database link */ mysql_close(conn); return 0; }

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  • nodejs async.waterfall method

    - by user1513388
    Update 2 Complete code listing var request = require('request'); var cache = require('memory-cache'); var async = require('async'); var server = '172.16.221.190' var user = 'admin' var password ='Passw0rd' var dn ='\\VE\\Policy\\Objects' var jsonpayload = {"Username": user, "Password": password} async.waterfall([ //Get the API Key function(callback){ request.post({uri: 'http://' + server +'/sdk/authorize/', json: jsonpayload, headers: {'content_type': 'application/json'} }, function (e, r, body) { callback(null, body.APIKey); }) }, //List the credential objects function(apikey, callback){ var jsonpayload2 = {"ObjectDN": dn, "Recursive": true} request.post({uri: 'http://' + server +'/sdk/Config/enumerate?apikey=' + apikey, json: jsonpayload2, headers: {'content_type': 'application/json'} }, function (e, r, body) { var dns = []; for (var i = 0; i < body.Objects.length; i++) { dns.push({'name': body.Objects[i].Name, 'dn': body.Objects[i].DN}) } callback(null, dns, apikey); }) }, function(dns, apikey, callback){ // console.log(dns) var cb = []; for (var i = 0; i < dns.length; i++) { //Retrieve the credential var jsonpayload3 = {"CredentialPath": dns[i].dn, "Pattern": null, "Recursive": false} console.log(dns[i].dn) request.post({uri: 'http://' + server +'/sdk/credentials/retrieve?apikey=' + apikey, json: jsonpayload3, headers: {'content_type': 'application/json'} }, function (e, r, body) { // console.log(body) cb.push({'cl': body.Classname}) callback(null, cb, apikey); console.log(cb) }); } } ], function (err, result) { // console.log(result) // result now equals 'done' }); Update: I'm building a small application that needs to make multiple HTTP calls to a an external API and amalgamates the results into a single object or array. e.g. Connect to endpoint and get auth key - pass auth key to step 2 Connect to endpoint using auth key and get JSON results - create an object containing summary results and pass to step 3. Iterate over passed object summary results and call API for each item in the object to get detailed information for each summary line Create a single JSON data structure that contains the summary and detail information. The original question below outlines what I've tried so far! Original Question: Will the async.waterfall method support multiple callbacks? i.e. Iterate over an array thats passed from a previous item in the chain, then invoke multiple http requests each of which would have their own callbacks. e.g, sync.waterfall([ function(dns, key, callback){ var cb = []; for (var i = 0; i < dns.length; i++) { //Retrieve the credential var jsonpayload3 = {"Cred": dns[i].DN, "Pattern": null, "Recursive": false} console.log(dns[i].DN) request.post({uri: 'http://' + vedserver +'/api/cred/retrieve?apikey=' + key, json: jsonpayload3, headers: {'content_type': 'application/json'} }, function (e, r, body) { console.log(body) cb.push({'cl': body.Classname}) callback(null, cb, key); }); } }

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  • Using Selenium-IDE with a rich Javascript application?

    - by Darien
    Problem At my workplace, we're trying to find the best way to create automated-tests for an almost wholly javascript-driven intranet application. Right now we're stuck trying to find a good tradeoff between: Application code in reusable and nest-able GUI components. Tests which are easily created by the testing team Tests which can be recorded once and then automated Tests which do not break after small cosmetic changes to the site XPath expressions (or other possible expressions, like jQuery selectors) naively generated from Selenium-IDE are often non-repeatable and very fragile. Conversely, having the JS code generate special unique ID values for every important DOM-element on the page... well, that is its own headache, complicated by re-usable GUI components and IDs needing to be consistent when the test is re-run. What successes have other people had with this kind of thing? How do you do automated application-level testing of a rich JS interface? Limitations We are using JavascriptMVC 2.0, hopefully 3.0 soon so that we can upgrade to jQuery 1.4.x. The test-making folks are mostly trained to use Selenium IDE to directly record things. The test leads would prefer a page-unique HTML ID on each clickable element on the page... Training the testers to write or alter special expressions (such as telling them which HTML class-names are important branching points) is a no-go. We try to make re-usable javascript components, but this means very few GUI components can treat themselves (or what they contain) as unique. Some of our components already use HTML ID values in their operation. I'd like to avoid doing this anyway, but it complicates the idea of ID-based testing. It may be possible to add custom facilities (like a locator-builder or new locator method) to the Selenium-IDE installation testers use. Almost everything that goes on occurs within a single "page load" from a conventional browser perspective, even when items are saved Current thoughts I'm considering a system where a custom locator-builder (javascript code) for Selenium-IDE will talk with our application code as the tester is recording. In this way, our application becomes partially responsible for generating a mostly-flexible expression (XPath or jQuery) for any given DOM element. While this can avoid requiring more training for testers, I worry it may be over-thinking things.

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  • Webservice for uploading data: security considerations

    - by Philip Daubmeier
    Hi everyone! Im not sure about what authentification method I should use for my webservice. I've searched on SO, and found nothing that helped me. Preliminary Im building an application that uploads data from a local database to a server (running my webservice), where all records are merged and stored in a central database. I am currently binary serializing a DataTable, that holds a small fragment of the local database, where all uninteresting stuff is already filtered out. The byte[] (serialized DataTable), together with the userid and a hash of the users password is then uploaded to the webservice via SOAP. The application together with the webservice already work exactly like intended. The Problem The issue I am thinking about is now: What is if someone just sniffs the network traffic, 'steals' the users id and password hash to send his own SOAP message with modified data that corrupts my database? Options The approaches to solving that problem, I already thought of, are: Using ssl + certificates for establishing the connection: I dont really want to use ssl, I would prefer a simpler solution. After all, every information that is transfered to the webservice can be seen on the website later on. What I want to say is: there is no secret/financial/business-critical information, that has to be hidden. I think ssl would be sort of an overkill for that task. Encrypting the byte[]: I think that would be a performance killer, considering that the goal of the excercise was simply to authenticate the user. Hashing the users password together with the data: I kind of like the idea: Creating a checksum from the data, concatenating that checksum with the password-hash and hashing this whole thing again. That would assure the data was sent from this specific user, and the data wasnt modified. The actual question So, what do you think is the best approach in terms of meeting the following requirements? Rather simple solution (As it doesnt have to be super secure; no secret/business-critical information transfered) Easily implementable retrospectively (Dont want to write it all again :) ) Doesnt impact to much on performance What do you think of my prefered solution, the last one in the list above? Is there any alternative solution I didnt mention, that would fit better? You dont have to answer every question in detail. Just push me in the right direction. I very much appreciate every well-grounded opinion. Thanks in advance!

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  • What do I need to distribute (keys, certs) for Python w/ SSL-socket connection?

    - by fandingo
    I'm trying to write a generic server-client application that will be able to exchange data amongst servers. I've read over quite a few OpenSSL documents, and I have successfully setup my own CA and created a cert (and private key) for testing purposes. I'm stuck with Python 2.3, so I can't use the standard "ssl" library. Instead, I'm stuck with PyOpenSSL, which doesn't seem bad, but there aren't many documents out there about it. My question isn't really about getting it working. I'm more confused about the certificates and where they need to go. Here are my two programs that do work: Server: #!/bin/env python from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER|SSL.VERIFY_FAIL_IF_NO_PEER_CERT, verify_cb) # ?????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('./Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('Dmgr-cert.pem') # ?????? ctx.load_verify_locations('./CAcert.pem') server = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) server.bind(('', 50000)) server.listen(3) a, b = server.accept() c = a.recv(1024) print(c) Client: from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER, verify_cb) # ?????????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/private/Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/Dmgr-cert.pem') # ????????? ctx.load_verify_locations('/home/justin/code/work/CA/CAcert.pem') sock = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) sock.connect(('10.0.0.3', 50000)) a = Tester(2, 2) b = pickle.dumps(a) sock.send("Hello, world") sock.flush() sock.send(b) sock.shutdown() sock.close() I found this information from ftp://ftp.pbone.net/mirror/ftp.pld-linux.org/dists/2.0/PLD/i586/PLD/RPMS/python-pyOpenSSL-examples-0.6-2.i586.rpm which contains some example scripts. As you might gather, I don't fully understand the sections between the " # ????????." I don't get why the certificate and private key are needed on both the client and server. I'm not sure where each should go, but shouldn't I only need to distribute one part of the key (probably the public part)? It undermines the purpose of having asymmetric keys if you still need both on each server, right? I tried alternating removing either the pkey or cert on either box, and I get the following error no matter which I remove: OpenSSL.SSL.Error: [('SSL routines', 'SSL3_READ_BYTES', 'sslv3 alert handshake failure'), ('SSL routines', 'SSL3_WRITE_BYTES', 'ssl handshake failure')] Could someone explain if this is the expected behavior for SSL. Do I really need to distribute the private key and public cert to all my clients? I'm trying to avoid any huge security problems, and leaking private keys would tend to be a big one... Thanks for the help!

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  • When may I ask a question to fellow developers? (Rules before asking questions).

    - by Zwei Steinen
    I assigned a quite simple task to one junior developer today, and he kept pinging me EVERY 5 minutes for HOURS, asking STEP BY STEP, what to do. Whenever something went wrong, he simply copy&pasted the log and basically wrote, "An exception occurred. What should I do?" So I finally had to tell him, "If you want to be a developer, please start thinking a little bit. Read the error message. That's what they are for!". I also however, tell junior developers to ask questions before spending too much time trying to solve it themselves. This might sound contradictory, but I feel there is some kind of an implicit rule that distinguishes questions that should be asked fairly quickly and that should not (and I try to follow those rules when I ask questions..) So my question is, do you have any rules that you follow, or expect others to follow on asking questions? If so, what are they? Let me start with my own. If you have struggled for more than 90 min, you may ask that question (exceptions exists). If you haven't struggled for more than 15 min, you may not ask that question (if you are sure that the answer can not be found within 15 min, this rule does not have to apply). If it is completely out of your domain and you do not plan to learn that domain, you may ask that question after 15 min (e.g. if I am a java programmer and need to back up the DB, I may ask the DBA what procedure to follow after googling for 15 min). If it is a "local" question, whose answer is difficult to derive or for which resources is difficult to get (e.g. asking an colleague "what method xxx does" etc.), you may ask that question after 15 min. If the answer for it is difficult to derive, and you know that the other person knows the answer, you may ask the question after 15 min (e.g. asking a hibernate expert "What do I need to change else to make this work?". If the process to derive the answer is interesting and is a good learning opportunity, you may ask for hints but you may not ask for answers! What are your rules?

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  • Cocoa's newbie question: is it possible to bind a NSTableView's selection to another tableview's selection?

    - by cocoaOverloaded
    http://img651.imageshack.us/img651/6999/modelsf.jpg Let'say, I've 2 entities in the Core Data's Model file, one being all "transactions" ever done by X company. The "transactions" entity has among other properties, a "DATE" property and a to-one relationship "COMPANY"(specifying the company with which X company has done that particular transaction). The other entity:"companies" of course contains all the companies' info ,with which X company has done transaction. The "companies" entity has a to-many relationships "TRANSACTIONS" which is an inverse relationship to "transactions" entity's "COMPANY" relationship. So within IB, I created a NSTableView(with its own NSArrayController) showing all the transactions on a particular Date (with the help of NSPredicate). Then I create another table view showing the to-many relationship "TRANSACTIONS" of the company of the selected transaction in the first table view(which shows transactions on a particular date). The 2nd table view's NSArrayController binding is like this: ** bind to: "name of the first tableview's controller", Controller Key: selection, Model Key Path:COMPANY.TRANSACTIONS(the to-many relationship in the "companies" entity)** Everythings work fine up to this moment, the 2nd tableview shows all the transactions X company has done with the company of the selected transactions in the 1st table view. But I have a group of textfields showing details of a particular transactions. Binding the these textfields with the controller of the 1st table view(the one showing transactions on a particular date) is pretty straightforward. But what I want to do are: 1/ Look up the transactions on a particular date in the first table view, select any one of them 2/ Then, check all previous transactions of the company of that transaction( selected in the first table view) from the 2nd table view 3/ Select any previous transactions and check the details of the transaction from that group of textfields So naturally I should have bind the textfields' gp to the 2nd table view's controller. But I found the default selected row in the 2nd table view(the one show all previous transactions of a company) wasn't the transaction I've selected in the 1st tableView for a particular date. Of course, i can manually select that transaction in the 2nd table view again.... So I just want to know if it's possible to have the 2nd table view automatically select the transaction according to the transaction I've selected in the 1st table view thr binding?? After hours of googling, I solved the problem by implementing the tableview Delegate protocol: - (void)tableViewSelectionDidChange:(NSNotification *)aNotification { if (["nameOf1stTableView" selectedRow] > -1) { NSArray *objsArray = ["nameOf2ndTableView'sController" arrangedObjects]; for (id obj in objsArray) { if ([[obj valueForKey:@"DATE"] isEqualToDate: ["nameOf1stTableView'sController".selection valueForKey:@"DATE"]]) { ["nameOf2ndTableView" selectRowIndexes:[NSIndexSet indexSetWithIndex:[objsArray indexOfObject:obj]] byExtendingSelection:NO]; } } } } But,this just look too cumbersome... can it be done with binding alone? Thanks in Advance,

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  • Send invitation to any user of google chats (is it possible?)

    - by Gizzo
    Hi I try to realize simple code on perl which should just get/send messages from/to gtalk accounts. I use Net::XMPP::* modules. All works just fine for users, who are my friends (in my "buddy" list). But i can't send message to unknown user. I know, that for this case i must send an invitation first, but Net::XMPP::* don't provide this possibility. There is only one way to invite person - construct my own xml according to "XEP-0155 Stanza Session Negotiation" protocol. But this doesn't work correct. When i send xml to server, it returns error "service-unavailable". I send: <message to='[email protected]'> <sxde xmlns='http://jabber.org/protocol/sxde' xmlns:sxde='http://jabber.org/protocol/sxde#metadata' session='0AEF4278DC4B6577' id='b'> <negotiation> <invitation> <feature var='http://jabber.org/protocol/whiteboard' /> </invitation> </negotiation> </sxde> </message> before my message. ANSWER: <message from='' to='[email protected]/TALKCDDCCE63' type='error'> <sxde id='b' session='0AEF4278DC4B6577' xmlns='http://jabber.org/protocol/sxde' xmlns:sxde='http://jabber.org/protocol/sxde#metadata'> <negotiation> <invitation> <feature var='http://jabber.org/protocol/whiteboard'/> </invitation> </negotiation> </sxde> <nos:x value='disabled' xmlns:nos='google:nosave'/> <arc:record otr='false' xmlns:arc='http://jabber.org/protocol/archive'/> <error code='503' type='cancel'> <service-unavailable xmlns='urn:ietf:params:xml:ns:xmpp-stanzas'/> </error> </message> Maybe i lost smth or should send another info before (or after..) ? Or maybe there are another way to send message without any invitation? Thanks in advance

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  • Weird Datagrid / paint behaviour

    - by Shane.C
    The scenario: A method sends out a broadcast packet, and returned packets that are validated are deemed okay to be added as a row in my datagrid (The returned packets are from devices i want to add into my program). So for each packet returned, containing information about a device, i create a new row. This is done by first sending packets out, creating rows and adding them to a list of rows that are to be added, and then after 5 seconds (In which case all packets would have returned by then) i add the rows. Here's a few snippets of code. Here for each returned packet, i create a row and add it to a list; DataRow row = DGSource.NewRow(); row["Name"] = deviceName; row["Model"] = deviceModel; row["Location"] = deviceLocation; row["IP"] = finishedIP; row["MAC"] = finishedMac; row["Subnet"] = finishedSubnet; row["Gateway"] = finishedGateway; rowsToAdd.Add(row); Then when the timer elapses; void timerToAddRows_Elapsed(object sender, System.Timers.ElapsedEventArgs e) { timerToAddRows.Enabled = false; try { int count = 0; foreach (DataRow rowToAdd in rowsToAdd) { DGSource.Rows.Add(rowToAdd); count++; } rowsToAdd.Clear(); DGAutoDevices.InvokeEx(f => DGAutoDevices.Refresh()); lblNumberFound.InvokeEx(f => lblNumberFound.Text = count + " new devices found."); } catch { } } So at this point, each row has been added, and i call the re paint, by doing refresh. (Note: i've also tried refreshing the form itself, no avail). However, when the datagrid shows the rows, the scroll bar / datagrid seems to have weird behavour..for example i can't highlight anything with clicks (It's set to full row selection), and the scroll bar looks like so; Calling refresh doesn't work, although if i resize the window even 1 pixel, or minimize and maximise, the problem is solved. Other things to note : The method that get's the packets and adds the rows to the list, and then from the list to the datagrid runs in it's own thread. Any ideas as to something i might be missing here?

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  • C# drawing and invalidating 2 lines to meet

    - by BlueMonster
    If i have 2 lines on a page as such: e.Graphics.DrawLine(blackPen, w, h, h, w); e.Graphics.DrawLine(blackPen, w2, h2, h2, w2); how would i animate the first line to reach the second line's position? I have the following method which calculates the distance between two points (i'm assuming i would use this?) public int Distance2D(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2) { // ______________________ //d = &#8730; (x2-x1)^2 + (y2-y1)^2 // //Our end result int result = 0; //Take x2-x1, then square it double part1 = Math.Pow((x2 - x1), 2); //Take y2-y1, then sqaure it double part2 = Math.Pow((y2 - y1), 2); //Add both of the parts together double underRadical = part1 + part2; //Get the square root of the parts result = (int)Math.Sqrt(underRadical); //Return our result return result; } How would i re-draw the line (on a timer) to reach the second line's position? I've looked a lot into XAML (story-boarding) and such - but i want to know how to do this on my own. Any ideas? I know i would need a method which runs in a loop re-drawing the line after moving the position a tid bit. I would have to call Invalidate() in order to make the line appear as though it's moving... but how would i do this? how would i move that line slowly over to the other line? I'm pretty sure i'd have to use double buffering if i'm doing this as well... as such: SetStyle(ControlStyles.DoubleBuffer | ControlStyles.AllPaintingInWmPaint | ControlStyles.UserPaint, true); This doesn't quiet work, i'm not quiet sure how to fix it. Any ideas? protected override void OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { Distance2D(w, h, w2, h2); if (w2 != w && h2 != h) { e.Graphics.DrawLine(blackPen, (w * (int)frame), (h * (int)frame), (h * (int)frame), (w * (int)frame)); e.Graphics.DrawLine(blackPen, w2, h2, h2, w2); } else { t.Abort(); } base.OnPaint(e); } public void MoveLine() { for (int i = 0; i < 126; i++) { frame += .02; Invalidate(); Thread.Sleep(30); } } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { t = new Thread(new ThreadStart(MoveLine)); t.Start(); }

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  • Suggest an alternative way to organize/build a database solution.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    We are using Visual Studio 2010, but this was first conceived with VS2003. I will forward the best suggestions to my team. The current setup almost makes me vomit. It is a C# solution with most projects containing .sql files. Because we support Microsoft, Oracle, and Sybase, and so home-brewed a pre-processor, much like C preprocessor, except that substitutions are performed by a home-brewed C# program without using yacc and tools like that. #ifdefs are used for conditional macro definitions, and yeah - macros are the way this is done. A macro can expand to another macro or two, but this should eventually terminate. Only macros have #ifdef in them - the rest of the SQL-like code just uses these macros. Now, the various configurations: Debug, MNDebug, MNRelease, Release, SQL_APPLY_ALL, SQL_APPLY_MSFT, SQL_APPLY_ORACLE, SQL_APPLY_SYBASE, SQL_BUILD_OUTPUT_ALL, SQL_COMPILE, as well as 2 more. Also: Any CPU, Mixed Platforms, Win32. What drives me nuts is having to configure it correctly as well as choosing the right one out of 12 x 3 = 36 configurations as well as having to substitute database name depending on the type of database: config, main, or gateway. I am thinking that configuration should be reduced to just Debug, Release, and SQL_APPLY. Also, using 0, 1, and 2 seems so 80s ... Finally, I think my intention to build or not to build 3 types of databases for 3 types of vendors should be configured with just a tic tac toe board like: XOX OOX XXX In this case it would mean build MSFT+CONFIG, all SYBASE, and all GATEWAY. Still, the overall thing which uses a text file and a pre-processor and many configurations seems incredibly clunky. It is year 2010 now and someone out there is bound to have a very clean and/or creative tool/solution. The only pro would be that the existing collection of macros has been well tested. Have you ever had to write SQL that would work for several vendors? How did you do it? SqlVars.txt (Every one of 30 users makes a copy of a template and modifies this to suit their needs): // This is the default parameters file and should not be changed. // You can overwrite any of these parameters by copying the appropriate // section to override into SqlVars.txt and providing your own information. //Build types are 0-Config, 1-Main, 2-Gateway BUILD_TYPE=1 REMOVE_COMMENTS=1 // Login information used when applying to a Microsoft SQL server database SQL_APPLY_MSFT_version=SQL2005 SQL_APPLY_MSFT_database=msftdb SQL_APPLY_MSFT_server=ABC SQL_APPLY_MSFT_user=msftusr SQL_APPLY_MSFT_password=msftpwd // Login information used when applying to an Oracle database SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_version=ORACLE10g SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_server=oradb SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_user=orausr SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_password=orapwd // Login information used when applying to a Sybase database SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_version=SYBASE125 SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_database=sybdb SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_server=sybdb SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_user=sybusr SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_password=sybpwd ... (THIS GOES ON)

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  • Calling managed code from unmanaged win32 assembly dll - crash

    - by JustGreg
    I'm developing a serial port dll in win32 assembly (MASM32). It has its own thread checking multiple events and at a specified buffer treshold it'd notify the managed main application by calling a callback function. It just a call with no arguments/return value. At startup the main application stores the callback function's address by calling a function in the dll: pCallBackFunction dd 0 SetCallBackPointer proc pcb:DWORD mov eax, pcb mov pCallBackFunction, eax call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction ; verify it immediately ret SetCallBackPointer endp The upper function immediately calls back the managed application callback routine for verification purposes. It is working fine. However, when I place the call instruction to other functions in the dll it crashes the application. It doesn't matter if the call is in a simple function or in the threadproc of the dll. For example: OpenPort proc pn:byte,br:dword, inputbuffersize: dword, outputbuffersize:dword, tresholdsize: dword LOCAL dcb: DCB LOCAL SerialTimeOuts: COMMTIMEOUTS call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction xor eax, eax mov al, pn mov [com_port+3],al etc. etc. will crash at call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction always. Since I call SetCallBackPointer first to store a valid address in pCallBackFunction, it should have a valid address. My managed app is written in C# and the relevant part is: public partial class Form1 : Form { public delegate void CallBackDelegate(); public static CallBackDelegate mydelegate; [DllImport("serialport.dll")] private static extern void SetCallBackPointer(CallBackDelegate Delegate); [DllImport("serialport.dll")] public static extern int OpenPort(byte com, uint br, uint inbufsize, uint outbufsize, uint treshsize); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); mydelegate =new CallBackDelegate(CallbackFunction); SetCallBackPointer(mydelegate); unsafe { int sysstat; int hResult; hResult = OpenPort(Convert.ToByte('5'), 9600, 306, 4, 4); } } public static void CallbackFunction() { MessageBox.Show( "CallBack Function Called by Windows DLL"); } The VS debugger reported that the dll had tried to read/write from/to a protected memory address. But when calling SetCallBackPointer there is no such problem. What am I doing wrong here? Any tips would be great!

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  • 'Timeout Expired' error against local SQL Express on only 2 LINQ Methods...

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I am going to sum up my problem first and then offer massive details and what I have already tried. Summary: I have an internal winform app that uses Linq 2 Sql to connect to a local SQL Express database. Each user has there own DB and the DB stay in sync through Merge Replication with a Central DB. All DB's are SQL 2005(sp2or3). We have been using this app for over 5 months now but recently our users are getting a Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Detailed: The strange part is they get that in two differnt locations(2 differnt LINQ Methods) and only the first time they fire in a given time period(~5mins). One LINQ method is pulling all records that match a FK ID and then Manipulating them to form a Heirarchy View for a TreeView. The second is pulling all records that match a FK ID and dumping them into a DataGridView. The only things I can find in common with the 2 are that the first IS an IEnumerable and the second converts itself from IQueryable - IEnumerable - DataTable... I looked at the query's in Profiler and they 'seemed' normal. They are not very complicated querys. They are only pulling back 10 - 90 records, from one table. Any thoughts, suggestions, hints whatever would be greatly appreciated. I am at my wit's end on this.... public IList<CaseNoteTreeItem> GetTreeViewDataAsList(int personID) { var myContext = MatrixDataContext.Create(); var caseNotesTree = from cn in myContext.tblCaseNotes where cn.PersonID == personID orderby cn.ContactDate descending, cn.InsertDate descending select new CaseNoteTreeItem { CaseNoteID = cn.CaseNoteID, NoteContactDate = Convert.ToDateTime(cn.ContactDate). ToShortDateString(), ParentNoteID = cn.ParentNote, InsertUser = cn.InsertUser, ContactDetailsPreview = cn.ContactDetails.Substring(0, 75) }; return caseNotesTree.ToList<CaseNoteTreeItem>(); } AND THIS ONE public static DataTable GetAllCNotes(int personID) { using (var context = MatrixDataContext.Create()) { var caseNotes = from cn in context.tblCaseNotes where cn.PersonID == personID orderby cn.ContactDate select new { cn.ContactDate, cn.ContactDetails, cn.TimeSpentUnits, cn.IsCaseLog, cn.IsPreEnrollment, cn.PresentAtContact, cn.InsertDate, cn.InsertUser, cn.CaseNoteID, cn.ParentNote }; return caseNotes.ToList().CopyLinqToDataTable(); } }

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  • sifr menu list problems, height of object calculated wrong

    - by armyofda12mnkeys
    I am using Drupal and have sifr set on list items, and also a, a:hover are set via Drupal so that the links hover. I looked at the sifr3-rules.js file drupal's render module creates and it looks good. and in fact my other sifr items look fine... But the list item ones are goofing for some reason... There is extra space below the list, so if i have a list item, and inside of that, I have a unordered list with more list items, the Flash Object made in the 1st li (which will cover the rest of the sublist items too), is too bid so you see space under the children until the next parent li comes up. (so looks like extra bottom padding on that portion of the list in IE8... in FF almost similar but each subitem has space at bottom... with javascript turned off, you see the list items look fine by themselves).... Also if the parent list item is shorter than the sub list items text, the width for the flash object is set only as long as the first list item, and therefore cuts off the rest the sublist item's text. Any idea how to resolve any of these? Only unusual thing i see i am doing is setting forceSingleLine and preventWrap (which dont make a difference if taken off). ****Edit, I may just try to figure out how to get Drupal's menu-block module to output a around my hyperlinks in the list items... then i can target the div's with my rule (and the a,a:hover rules will apply), so each menu item gets its own sifr object instead of sifr3 trying to figure out how to do the lists and sublists. Very useful to me is anyone knows a way to target a hyperlink (<a> tag) and also allow a:hover rules. I know how to do it with pretend another tag that includes hyperlinks, like if i had <h2><a>sometitle</a></h2>, i could have a rule for h2, but then use the a, a:hover rules in the sifr3-rules.js file to target that. so i would need a way to target the hyperlink in the list, but also apply a :hover to it (not sure if this can be done since its not underneith for example the h2 tag).

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  • What is the best way to reduce code and loop through a hierarchial commission script?

    - by JM4
    I have a script which currently "works" but is nearly 3600 lines of code and makes well over 50 database calls within a single script. From my experience, there is no way to really "loop" the script and minimize it because each call to the database is a subquery of the ones before based on referral ids. Perhaps I can give a very simple example of what I am trying to accomplish and see if anybody has experience with something similar. In my example, there are three tables: Table 1 - Sellers ID | Comm_level | Parent ----------------------------------- 1 | 4 | NULL 2 | 3 | 1 3 | 2 | 1 4 | 2 | 2 5 | 2 | 2 6 | 1 | 3 Where ID is the id of one of our sales agents, comm_level will determine what his commission percentage is for each product he sells, parent indicates the ID for whom recruited that particular agent. In the example above, 1 is the top agent, he recruited two agents, 2 and 3. 2 recruited two agents, 4 and 5. 3 recruited one agent, 6. NOTE: An agent can NEVER recruit anybody equal to or higher than their own level. Table 2 - Commissions Level | Item 1 | Item 2 | Item 3 ----------------------------------------------------- 4 | .5 | .4 | .3 3 | .45 | .35 | .25 2 | .4 | .3 | .2 1 | .35 | .25 | .15 This table lays out the commission percentages for each agent based on their actual comm_level (if an agent is at a level 4, he will receive 50% on every item 1 sold, 40% on every item 2, 30% on every item 3 and so on. Table 3 - Items Sold ID | Item --------------------- 4 | item_1 4 | item_2 1 | item_1 2 | item_3 6 | item_2 1 | item_3 This table pairs the actual item sold with the seller who sold the item. When generating the commission report, calculating individual values is very simple. Calculating their commission based on their sub_sellers however is very difficult. In this example, Seller ID 1 gets a piece of every single item sold. The commission percentages indicate individual sales or the height of their commission. For example: When seller ID 6 sold one of item_2 above, the tree for commissions will look like the following: -ID 6 - 25% of cost(item_1) -ID 3 - 5% of cost(item_1) - (30% is his comm - 25% comm of seller id 6) -ID 1 - 10% of cost(item_1) - (40% is his comm - 30% of seller id 3) This must be calculated for every agent in the system from the top down (hence the DB calls within while loops throughout my enormous script). Anybody have a good suggestion or samples they may have used in the past?

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  • Model self referential collections in Rails

    - by Najitaka
    I have written an application for an online clothing store in Rails 2.3.5. I want to show related Products when a customer views the Product Detail page. For example, if the customer views the detail page for a suit, I'd like to display the accessory products that match the dress such as a vest, shoes, and belt. I have named the related products an Ensemble. However, the vest, shoes, and belts are also Products which is what has me struggling. I have it working as follows but I know it's not the Rails way. I have a Products table for all of the products. Not important here but I also have a ProductDetails table. I have an Ensembles table that has the following columns: product_id - the main or origination product, the one displayed on the detail page outfit_id - the related or accessory product In setting up the data, on the Products list, for each Product I have an Ensemble link. This link takes you to the index action in the Ensembles controller. Using the id from the "main" Product, I find all of the associated Ensemble rows by product_id or I create a new ensemble and assign the id from the main product as the product_id. I'd like to just be able to do @product.related_products to get an Ensemble collection. Also on the index page I list the columns of the main product so the user can be sure their main product was the one they selected from the list. I also have a select list of the other products, with an Add to Ensemble action. Finally on the same index page, I have a table that displays the products that are already in the ensemble and in that list each row has a destroy link to remove a particular product from the ensemble. It would be nice if given a single Ensemble row @ensemble I could do @ensemble.product to get the Product related to the outfit_id of the ensemble row. I've got it working without associations but I have to run queries in the controller to build my own @product, @ensemble, and @ensembles collections. Also the only way I found to destroy an ensemble row is by Ensemble.connection.delete(sql to delete), simple @ensemble.destroy doesn't work. Anyone know how I would set up the associations or have a link to a site explaining a similar setup. None of the examples I found use the same table. They have A related to B through C. I want A related to other A through B.

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  • pagerAnchorBuilder - trying to add classes

    - by Bert Murphy
    I'm using Cycle2 to build a carousel gallery and I've run into a little problem regarding styling the pager buttons. What I've gathered is that Cycle2 creates its own pager span tags for each slide which is a bummer becaus I've already styled my the sub-nav markup. This should be a minor issue as long as I can assign individual classes to the spans and change my css accordingly. However, I can't get this to work. TLDR: I was hoping that I could use pagerAnchorBuilder to create individual classes for each span. I can't. Help. The original markup (pre Cycle2) looks like the following: <div id ="sub-nav" class="sub-nav"> <ul> <li><a id="available" class="available" href="#"></a></li> <li><a id="reliable" class="reliable" href="#"></a></li> <li><a id="use" class="use" href="#"></a></li> <li><a id="reports" class="reports" href="#"></a></li> <li class="last"><a id="software" class="software" href="#"></a></li> </ul> </div> With Cycle2 it looks like this (note the addition of the span tags) <div id ="sub-nav" class="sub-nav"> <ul> <li><a id="available" class="available" href="#"></a></li> <li><a id="reliable" class="reliable" href="#"></a></li> <li><a id="use" class="use" href="#"></a></li> <li><a id="reports" class="reports" href="#"></a></li> <li class="last"><a id="software" class="software" href="#"></a></li> </ul> <span class="cycle-pager-active">•</span><span>•</span><span>•</span><span>•</span><span>•</span></nav> </div> Cycle2 $('#sliding-gallery ul').cycle({ fx: 'carousel', carouselVisible: 1, speed: 'fast', timeout: 10000, slides: '>li', next: '.next', prev: '.prev', pager: '.sub-nav', pagerAnchorBuilder: function(idx, slide) { return '.sub-nav span:eq(' + idx + ')'; } });

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