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• SSL Authentication with Certificates: Should the Certificates have a hostname?

  - by sixtyfootersdude

  Summary JBoss allows clients and servers to authenticate using certificates and ssl. One thing that seems strange is that you are not required to give your hostname on the certificate. I think that this means if Server B is in your truststore, Sever B can pretend to be any server that they want. (And likewise: if Client B is in your truststore...) Am I missing something here? Authentication Steps (Summary of Wikipeida Page) Client Server ================================================================================================= 1) Client sends Client Hello ENCRIPTION: None - highest TLS protocol supported - random number - list of cipher suites - compression methods 2) Sever Hello ENCRIPTION: None - highest TLS protocol supported - random number - choosen cipher suite - choosen compression method 3) Certificate Message ENCRIPTION: None - 4) ServerHelloDone ENCRIPTION: None 5) Certificate Message ENCRIPTION: None 6) ClientKeyExchange Message ENCRIPTION: server's public key => only server can read => if sever can read this he must own the certificate - may contain a PreMasterSecerate, public key or nothing (depends on cipher) 7) CertificateVerify Message ENCRIPTION: clients private key - purpose is to prove to the server that client owns the cert 8) BOTH CLIENT AND SERVER: - use random numbers and PreMasterSecret to compute a common secerate 9) Finished message - contains a has and MAC over previous handshakes (to ensure that those unincripted messages did not get broken) 10) Finished message - samething Sever Knows The client has the public key for the sent certificate (step 7) The client's certificate is valid because either: it has been signed by a CA (verisign) it has been self-signed BUT it is in the server's truststore It is not a replay attack because presumably the random number (step 1 or 2) is sent with each message Client Knows The server has the public key for the sent certificate (step 6 with step 8) The server's certificate is valid because either: it has been signed by a CA (verisign) it has been self-signed BUT it is in the client's truststore It is not a replay attack because presumably the random number (step 1 or 2) is sent with each message Potential Problem Suppose the client's truststore has certs in it: Server A Server B (malicous) Server A has hostname www.A.com Server B has hostname www.B.com Suppose: The client tries to connect to Server A but Server B launches a man in the middle attack. Since server B: has a public key for the certificate that will be sent to the client has a "valid certificate" (a cert in the truststore) And since: certificates do not have a hostname feild in them It seems like Server B can pretend to be Server A easily. Is there something that I am missing?

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• Creating AST for shared and local variables

  - by Rizwan Abbasi

  Here is my grammar grammar simulator; options { language = Java; output = AST; ASTLabelType=CommonTree; } //imaginary tokens tokens{ SHARED; LOCALS; BOOL; RANGE; ARRAY; } parse : declaration+ ; declaration :variables ; variables : locals ; locals : (bool | range | array) ; bool :ID 'in' '[' ID ',' ID ']' ('init' ID)? -> ^(BOOL ID ID ID ID?) ; range : ID 'in' '[' INT '..' INT ']' ('init' INT)? -> ^(RANGE ID INT INT INT?) ; array :ID 'in' 'array' 'of' '[' INT '..' INT ']' ('init' INT)? -> ^(ARRAY ID INT INT INT?) ; ID : (('a'..'z' | 'A'..'Z'|'_')('a'..'z' | 'A'..'Z'|'0'..'9'|'_'))* ; INT : ('0'..'9')+ ; WHITESPACE : ('\t' | ' ' | '\r' | '\n' | '\u000C')+ {$channel = HIDDEN;} ; INPUT flag in [down, up] init down pc in [0..7] init 0 CA in array of [0..5] init 0 AST It is having a small problem. Variables (bool, range or array) can be of two abstract types 1. locals (each object will have it's own variable) 2. shared (think of static in java, same for all object) Now the requirements are changed. I want the user to input like this NEW INPUT domains: upDown [up,down] possibleStates [0-7] booleans [true,false] locals: pc in possibleStates init 0 flag in upDown init down flag1 in upDown init down map in array of booleans init false shared: pcs in possibleStates init 0 flag in upDown init down flag1 in upDown init down maps in array of booleans init false Again, all the variables can be of two types (of any domain sepecified) 1. Local 2. Shared In Domains: upDown [up,down] possibleStates [0-7] upDown, up, down and possibleStates are of type ID (ID is defined in my above grammar), 0 and 7 are of type INT Can any body help me how to convert my current grammar to meet new specifications.

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• Mercurial local repository backup

  - by Ricket

  I'm a big fan of backing things up. I keep my important school essays and such in a folder of my Dropbox. I make sure that all of my photos are duplicated to an external drive. I have a home server where I keep important files mirrored across two drives inside the server (like a software RAID 1). So for my code, I have always used Subversion to back it up. I keep the trunk folder with a stable copy of my application, but then I create a branch named with my username, and inside there is my working copy. I make very few changes between commits to that branch, with the understanding that the code in there is my backup. Now I'm looking into Mercurial, and I must admit I haven't truly used it yet so I may have this all wrong. But it seems to me that you have a server-side repository, and then you clone it to a working directory in the form of a local repository. Then as you work on something, you make commits to that local repository, and when things are in a state to be shared with others, you hg push to the parent repository on the server. Between pushes of stable, tested, bug-free code, where is the backup? After doing some thinking, I've come to the conclusion that it is not meant for backup purposes and it assumes you've handled that on your own. I guess I need to keep my Mercurial local repositories in my dropbox or some other backed-up location, since my in-progress code is not pushed to the server. Is this pretty much it, or have I missed something? If you use Mercurial, how do you backup your local repositories? If you had turned on your computer this morning and your hard drive went up in flames (or, more likely, the read head went bad, or the OS corrupted itself, ...), what would be lost? If you spent the past week developing a module, writing test cases for it, documenting and commenting it, and then a virus wipes your local repository away, isn't that the only copy? So then on the flip side, do you create a remote repository for every local repository and push to it all the time? How do you find a balance? How do you ensure your code is backed up? Where is the line between using Mercurial as backup, and using a local filesystem backup utility to keep your local repositories safe?

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• GLKit Memory Leak copywithZone

  - by TommyT39

  Running the instruments utility against the game I'm writing shows a bunch of memory leaks related to copy with Zone when I cycle through an array and draw some simple cube objects. Im not sure the best way to track this down as I'm new to OpenGL programming. My program is using ARC and is set to build for IOS 5. I am initializing GLKit to use OPenGl 2.0 and using the BafeEffect so I don't have to write my own shaders etc.. This shouldn't be rocket science. Im guessing that I must be not releasing something within the draw function. Below is the code to my draw function. Could you guys take a look and see if anything stands out as the problem? One other thing to note is that I'm using 15 different textures, the cubes can be 1 of 15 different ones. I have a property set on the cube class for the texture and I set it as I create the cube in there array. But I do load all 15 when my programs view did load starts.They are small .jps files that are less than 75k each and each cube uses the same texture all the way around so shouldn't be too big of an issue. Here is the code to my draw function: - (void)draw { GLKMatrix4 xRotationMatrix = GLKMatrix4MakeXRotation(rotation.x); GLKMatrix4 yRotationMatrix = GLKMatrix4MakeYRotation(rotation.y); GLKMatrix4 zRotationMatrix = GLKMatrix4MakeZRotation(rotation.z); GLKMatrix4 scaleMatrix = GLKMatrix4MakeScale(scale.x, scale.y, scale.z); GLKMatrix4 translateMatrix = GLKMatrix4MakeTranslation(position.x, position.y, position.z); GLKMatrix4 modelMatrix = GLKMatrix4Multiply(translateMatrix,GLKMatrix4Multiply(scaleMatrix,GLKMatrix4Multiply(zRotationMatrix, GLKMatrix4Multiply(yRotationMatrix, xRotationMatrix)))); GLKMatrix4 viewMatrix = GLKMatrix4MakeLookAt(0, 0, 1, 0, 0, -5, 0, 1, 0); effect.transform.modelviewMatrix = GLKMatrix4Multiply(viewMatrix, modelMatrix); effect.transform.projectionMatrix = GLKMatrix4MakePerspective(0.125*M_TAU, 1.0, 2, 0); effect.texture2d0.name = wallTexture.name; [effect prepareToDraw]; glEnable(GL_DEPTH_TEST); glEnable(GL_CULL_FACE); glEnableVertexAttribArray(GLKVertexAttribPosition); glVertexAttribPointer(GLKVertexAttribPosition, 3, GL_FLOAT, GL_FALSE, 0, triangleVertices); glEnableVertexAttribArray(GLKVertexAttribTexCoord0); glVertexAttribPointer(GLKVertexAttribTexCoord0, 2, GL_FLOAT, GL_FALSE, 0, textureCoordinates); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLES, 0, 18); glDisableVertexAttribArray(GLKVertexAttribPosition); glDisableVertexAttribArray(GLKVertexAttribTexCoord0); }

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• Scalable Database Tagging Schema

  - by Longpoke

  EDIT: To people building tagging systems. Don't read this. It is not what you are looking for. I asked this when I wasn't aware that RDBMS all have their own optimization methods, just use a simple many to many scheme. I have a posting system that has millions of posts. Each post can have an infinite number of tags associated with it. Users can create tags which have notes, date created, owner, etc. A tag is almost like a post itself, because people can post notes about the tag. Each tag association has an owner and date, so we can see who added the tag and when. My question is how can I implement this? It has to be fast searching posts by tag, or tags by post. Also, users can add tags to posts by typing the name into a field, kind of like the google search bar, it has to fill in the rest of the tag name for you. I have 3 solutions at the moment, but not sure which is the best, or if there is a better way. Note that I'm not showing the layout of notes since it will be trivial once I get a proper solution for tags. Method 1. Linked list tagId in post points to a linked list in tag_assoc, the application must traverse the list until flink=0 post: id, content, ownerId, date, tagId, notesId tag_assoc: id, tagId, ownerId, flink tag: id, name, notesId Method 2. Denormalization tags is simply a VARCHAR or TEXT field containing a tab delimited array of tagId:ownerId. It cannot be a fixed size. post: id, content, ownerId, date, tags, notesId tag: id, name, notesId Method 3. Toxi (from: http://www.pui.ch/phred/archives/2005/04/tags-database-schemas.html, also same thing here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/20856/how-do-you-recommend-implementing-tags-or-tagging) post: id, content, ownerId, date, notesId tag_assoc: ownerId, tagId, postId tag: id, name, notesId Method 3 raises the question, how fast will it be to iterate through every single row in tag_assoc? Methods 1 and 2 should be fast for returning tags by post, but for posts by tag, another lookup table must be made. The last thing I have to worry about is optimizing searching tags by name, I have not worked that out yet. I made an ASCII diagram here: http://pastebin.com/f1c4e0e53

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• Multiple instances of this carousel on a single page - can't get it to work

  - by Andy

  This code comes from a tutorial so it's not originally my own work. What I am trying to do is implement this several times on a single page. I have tried and so far failed - by numbering the id "carousel" and so forth. Any help would be seriously appreciated. I'm tearing my hair out. http://jsfiddle.net/AndyMP/zcKDV/5/ For completeness.. this is the carousel JQuery as it stands. //rotation speed and timer var speed = 5000; var run = setInterval('rotate()', speed); //grab the width and calculate left value var item_width = $('#slides li').outerWidth(); var left_value = item_width * (-1); //move the last item before first item, just in case user click prev button $('#slides li:first').before($('#slides li:last')); //set the default item to the correct position $('#slides ul').css({'left' : left_value}); //if user clicked on prev button $('#prev').click(function() { //get the right position var left_indent = parseInt($('#slides ul').css('left')) + item_width; //slide the item $('#slides ul').animate({'left' : left_indent}, 200,function(){ //move the last item and put it as first item $('#slides li:first').before($('#slides li:last')); //set the default item to correct position $('#slides ul').css({'left' : left_value}); }); //cancel the link behavior return false; }); //if user clicked on next button $('#next').click(function() { //get the right position var left_indent = parseInt($('#slides ul').css('left')) - item_width; //slide the item $('#slides ul').animate({'left' : left_indent}, 200, function () { //move the first item and put it as last item $('#slides li:last').after($('#slides li:first')); //set the default item to correct position $('#slides ul').css({'left' : left_value}); }); //cancel the link behavior return false; }); //if mouse hover, pause the auto rotation, otherwise rotate it $('#slides').hover( function() { clearInterval(run); }, function() { run = setInterval('rotate()', speed); } ); //a simple function to click next link //a timer will call this function, and the rotation will begin :) function rotate() { $('#next').click(); }

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• How to adjust microphone gain from C# (needs to work on XP & W7)...

  - by Ed

  First, note that I know there are a few questions like this already posted; however they don't seem to address the problem adequately. I have a C# application, with all the pInvoke hooks to talk to the waveXXX API, and I'm able to do capture and play back of audio with that. I'm also able to adjust speaker (WaveOut) volume with that API. The problem is that for whatever reason, that API does not allow me to adjust microphone (WaveIn) volume. So, I managed to find some mixer code that I've also pulled in and access through pInvoke and that allows me to adjust microphone volume, but only on my W7 PC. The mixer code I started with comes from here: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/isvvba/thread/05dc2d35-1d45-4837-8e16-562ee919da85 and it works, but is written to adjust speaker volume. I added the SetMicVolume method shown here... public static void SetMicVolume(int mxid, int percentage) { bool rc; int mixer, vVolume; MIXERCONTROL volCtrl = new MIXERCONTROL(); int currentVol; mixerOpen(out mixer, mxid, 0, 0, MIXER_OBJECTF_WAVEIN); int type = MIXERCONTROL_CONTROLTYPE_VOLUME; rc = GetVolumeControl(mixer, MIXERLINE_COMPONENTTYPE_SRC_MICROPHONE, type, out volCtrl, out currentVol); if (rc == false) { mixerClose(mixer); mixerOpen(out mixer, 0, 0, 0, 0); rc = GetVolumeControl(mixer, MIXERLINE_COMPONENTTYPE_SRC_MICROPHONE, type, out volCtrl, out currentVol); if (rc == false) throw new Exception("SetMicVolume/GetVolumeControl() failed"); } vVolume = ((int)((float)(volCtrl.lMaximum - volCtrl.lMinimum) / 100.0F) * percentage); rc = SetVolumeControl(mixer, volCtrl, vVolume); if (rc == false) throw new Exception("SetMicVolume/SetVolumeControl() failed"); mixerClose(mixer); } Note the "second attempt" to call GetVolumeControl(). This is done because on XP, in the first call to GetVolumeControl (refer to site above for that code), the call to mixerGetLineControlsA() fails with XP systems returning MIXERR_INVALCONTROL. Then, with this second attempt using mixerOpen(out mixer, 0, 0, 0, 0), the code doesn't return a failure but the mic gain is unaffected. Note, as I said above, this works on W7 (the second attempt is never executed because it doesn't fail using mixerOpen(out mixer, mxid, 0, 0, MIXER_OBJECTF_WAVEIN)). I admit to not having a good grasp on the mixer API, so that's what I'm looking into now; however if anyone has a clue why this would work on W7, but not XP, I'd sure like to hear it. Meanwhile, if I figure it out before I get a response, I'll post my own answer...

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• Set a specific stylesheet based on session variable in javascript

  - by user2371301

  I have an option for a user to select his/her own theme while logged into the system and this theme is set in a MYSQL Database and called each time the user logs in, this is called by: <?php $_SESSION['SESS_THEME_NAME']; ?> Now, I had this working in a PHP file but I need it to work in Javascript instead unfortunately. And I need some help. I looked at the code using the developers tools on Google Chrome and looks like the above code is not resolving within the javascript file. Which makes sense because you can't access session variables within a javascript file (as I found by searching Google.) The code is basically supposed to set the specific stylesheet based on the value extracted from the MYSQL database. So if the database says Default the script needs to tell the webpage to use the default.css file. And so on and so forth. My attempt at writing this is as follows: var themName="<?php $_SESSION['SESS_THEME_NAME']; ?>"; if (themeName == "Default") { document.write("<link re='stylesheet' type='text/css' href='css/mws-theme.css'>"); }; if (themeName == "Army") { document.write("<link rel='stylesheet' type='text/css' href='css/mws-theme-army.css'>"); }; if (themeName == "Rocky Mountains") { document.write("<link rel='stylesheet' type='text/css' href='css/mws-theme-rocky.css'>"); }; if (themeName == "Chinese Temple") { document.write("<link rel='stylesheet' type='text/css' href='css/mws-theme-chinese.css'>"); }; if (themeName == "Boutique") { document.write("<link rel='stylesheet' type='text/css' href='css/mws-theme-boutique.css'>"); }; if (themeName == "Toxic") { document.write("<link rel='stylesheet' type='text/css' href='css/mws-theme-toxic.css'>"); }; if (themeName == "Aquamarine") { document.write("<link rel='stylesheet' type='text/css' href='css/mws-theme-aquamarine.css'>"); }; Any help once so ever would be awesome and much much appreciated! I am reaching a deadline :/

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• dynamic module creation

  - by intuited

  I'd like to dynamically create a module from a dictionary, and I'm wondering if adding an element to sys.modules is really the best way to do this. EG context = { a: 1, b: 2 } import types test_context_module = types.ModuleType('TestContext', 'Module created to provide a context for tests') test_context_module.__dict__.update(context) import sys sys.modules['TestContext'] = test_context_module My immediate goal in this regard is to be able to provide a context for timing test execution: import timeit timeit.Timer('a + b', 'from TestContext import *') It seems that there are other ways to do this, since the Timer constructor takes objects as well as strings. I'm still interested in learning how to do this though, since a) it has other potential applications; and b) I'm not sure exactly how to use objects with the Timer constructor; doing so may prove to be less appropriate than this approach in some circumstances. EDITS/REVELATIONS/PHOOEYS/EUREKAE: I've realized that the example code relating to running timing tests won't actually work, because import * only works at the module level, and the context in which that statement is executed is that of a function in the testit module. In other words, the globals dictionary used when executing that code is that of main, since that's where I was when I wrote the code in the interactive shell. So that rationale for figuring this out is a bit botched, but it's still a valid question. I've discovered that the code run in the first set of examples has the undesirable effect that the namespace in which the newly created module's code executes is that of the module in which it was declared, not its own module. This is like way weird, and could lead to all sorts of unexpected rattlesnakeic sketchiness. So I'm pretty sure that this is not how this sort of thing is meant to be done, if it is in fact something that the Guido doth shine upon. The similar-but-subtly-different case of dynamically loading a module from a file that is not in python's include path is quite easily accomplished using imp.load_source('NewModuleName', 'path/to/module/module_to_load.py'). This does load the module into sys.modules. However this doesn't really answer my question, because really, what if you're running python on an embedded platform with no filesystem? I'm battling a considerable case of information overload at the moment, so I could be mistaken, but there doesn't seem to be anything in the imp module that's capable of this. But the question, essentially, at this point is how to set the global (ie module) context for an object. Maybe I should ask that more specifically? And at a larger scope, how to get Python to do this while shoehorning objects into a given module?

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• How to salvage SQL server 2008 query from KILLED/ROLLBACK state without waiting half a day?

  - by littlegreen

  I have a stored procedure that inserts batches of millions of rows, emerging from a certain query, into an SQL database. It has one parameter selecting the batch; when this parameter is omitted, it will gather a list of batches and recursively call itself, in order to iterate over batches. In (pseudo-)code, it looks something like this: CREATE PROCEDURE spProcedure AS BEGIN IF @code = 0 BEGIN ... WHILE @@Fetch_Status=0 BEGIN EXEC spProcedure @code FETCH NEXT ... INTO @code END END ELSE BEGIN -- Disable indexes ... INSERT INTO table SELECT (...) -- Enable indexes ... Now it can happen that this procedure is slow, for whatever reason: it can't get a lock, one of the indexes it uses is misdefined or disabled. In that case, I want to be able kill the procedure, truncate and recreate the resulting table, and try again. However, when I try and kill the procedure, the process frequently oozes into a KILLED/ROLLBACK state from which there seems to be no return. From Google I have learned to do an sp_lock, find the spid, and then kill it with KILL <spid>. But when I try to kill it, it tells me SPID 75: transaction rollback in progress. Estimated rollback completion: 0%. Estimated time remaining: 554 seconds. I did find a forum message hinting that another spid should be killed before the other one can start a rollback. But that didn't work for me either, plus I do not understand, why that would be the case... could it be because I am recursively calling my own stored procedure? (But it should be having the same spid, right?) In any case, my process is just sitting there, being dead, not responding to kills, and locking the table. This is very frustrating, as I want to go on developing my queries, not waiting hours on my server sitting dead while pretending to be finishing a supposed rollback. Is there some way in which I can tell the server not to store any rollback information for my query? Or not to allow any other queries to interfere with the rollback, so that it will not take so long? Or how to rewrite my query in a better way, or how kill the process successfully without restarting the server?

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• Specializating a template function that takes a universal reference parameter

  - by David Stone

  How do I specialize a template function that takes a universal reference parameter? foo.hpp: template<typename T> void foo(T && t) // universal reference parameter foo.cpp template<> void foo<Class>(Class && class) { // do something complicated } Here, Class is no longer a deduced type and thus is Class exactly; it cannot possibly be Class &, so reference collapsing rules will not help me here. I could perhaps create another specialization that takes a Class & parameter (I'm not sure), but that implies duplicating all of the code contained within foo for every possible combination of rvalue / lvalue references for all parameters, which is what universal references are supposed to avoid. Is there some way to accomplish this? To be more specific about my problem in case there is a better way to solve it: I have a program that can connect to multiple game servers, and each server, for the most part, calls everything by the same name. However, they have slightly different versions for a few things. There are a few different categories that these things can be: a move, an item, etc. I have written a generic sort of "move string to move enum" set of functions for internal code to call, and my server interface code has similar functions. However, some servers have their own internal ID that they communicate with, some use strings, and some use both in different situations. Now what I want to do is make this a little more generic. I want to be able to call something like ServerNamespace::server_cast<Destination>(source). This would allow me to cast from a Move to a std::string or ServerMoveID. Internally, I may need to make a copy (or move from) because some servers require that I keep a history of messages sent. Universal references seem to be the obvious solution to this problem. The header file I'm thinking of right now would expose simply this: namespace ServerNamespace { template<typename Destination, typename Source> Destination server_cast(Source && source); } And the implementation file would define all legal conversions as template specializations.

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• Releasing the keyboard stops shake events. Why?

  - by Moshe

  1) How do I make a UITextField resign the keyboard and hide it? The keyboard is in a dynamically created subview whose superview looks for shake events. Resigning first responder seems to break the shake event handler. 2) how do you make the view holding the keyboard transparent, like see through glass? I have seen this done before. This part has been taken care of thanks guys. As always, code samples are appreciated. I've added my own to help explain the problem. EDIT: Basically, - (void)motionBegan:(UIEventSubtype)motion withEvent:(UIEvent *)event; gets called in my main view controller to handle shaking. When a user taps on the "edit" icon (a pen, in the bottom of the screen - not the traditional UINavigationBar edit button), the main view adds a subview to itself and animates it on to the screen using a custom animation. This subview contains a UINavigationController which holds a UITableView. The UITableView, when a cell is tapped on, loads a subview into itself. This second subview is the culprit. For some reason, a UITextField in this second subview is causing problems. When a user taps on the view, the main view will not respond to shakes unless the UITextField is active (in editing mode?). Additional info: My Motion Event Handler: - (void)motionBegan:(UIEventSubtype)motion withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { NSLog(@"%@", [event description]); SystemSoundID SoundID; NSString *soundFile = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"shake" ofType:@"aif"]; AudioServicesCreateSystemSoundID((CFURLRef)[NSURL fileURLWithPath:soundFile], &SoundID); AudioServicesPlayAlertSound(SoundID); [self genRandom:TRUE]; } The genRandom: Method: /* Generate random label and apply it */ -(void)genRandom:(BOOL)deviceWasShaken{ if(deviceWasShaken == TRUE){ decisionText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat: (@"%@", [shakeReplies objectAtIndex:(arc4random() % [shakeReplies count])])]; }else{ SystemSoundID SoundID; NSString *soundFile = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"string" ofType:@"aif"]; AudioServicesCreateSystemSoundID((CFURLRef)[NSURL fileURLWithPath:soundFile], &SoundID); AudioServicesPlayAlertSound(SoundID); decisionText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat: (@"%@", [pokeReplies objectAtIndex:(arc4random() % [pokeReplies count])])]; } } shakeReplies and pokeReplies are both NSArrays of strings. One is used for when a certain part of the screen is poked and one is for when the device is shaken. The app will randomly choose a string from the NSArray and display onscreen. For those of you who work graphically, here is a diagram of the view hierarchy: Root View -> UINavigationController -> UITableView -> Edit View -> Problem UITextfield

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• C++ - Breaking code implementation into different parts

  - by Kotti

  Hi! The question plot (a bit abstract, but answering this question will help me in my real app): So, I have some abstract superclass for objects that can be rendered on the screen. Let's call it IRenderable. struct IRenderable { // (...) virtual void Render(RenderingInterface& ri) = 0; virtual ~IRenderable() { } }; And suppose I also have some other objects that derive from IRenderable, e.g. Cat and Dog. So far so good. I add some Cat and Dog specific methods, like SeekForWhiskas(...) and Bark(...). After that I add specific Render(...) method for them, so my code looks this way: class Cat : public IRenderable { public: void SeekForWhiskas(...) { // Implementation could be here or moved // to a source file (depends on me wanting // to inline it or not) } virtual void Render(...) { // Here comes the rendering routine, that // is specific for cats SomehowDrawAppropriateCat(...); } }; class Dog : public IRenderable { public: void Bark(...) { // Same as for 'SeekForWhiskas(...)' } virtual void Render(...) { // Here comes the rendering routine, that // is specific for dogs DrawMadDog(...); } }; And then somewhere else I can do drawing the way that an appropriate rendering routine is called: IRenderable* dog = new Dog(); dog->Render(...); My question is about logical wrapping of such kind of code. I want to break apart the code, that corresponds to rendering of the current object and it's own methods (Render and Bark in this example), so that my class implementation doesn't turn into a mess (imagine that I have 10 methods like Bark and of course my Render method doesn't fit in their company and would be hard to find). Two ways of making what I want to (as far as I know) are: Making appropriate routines that look like RenderCat(Cat& cat, RenderInterface* ri), joining them to render namespace and then the functions inside a class would look like virtual void Render(...) { RenderCat(*this, ...); }, but this is plain stupid, because I'll lose access to Cat's private members and friending these functions looks like a total design disaster. Using visitor pattern, but this would also mean I have to rebuild my app's design and looks like an inadequate way to make my code complicated from the very beginning. Any brilliant ideas? :)

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• Converting Multiple files to zip and saving them in ownCloud

  - by user1055380

  I wanted to convert an array with some css, js and html files into a zip file and save them in ownCloud (it has it's own framework but it's knowledge is not required.) What I am saving is an infinite loop of zip files, as in, a zip inside a zip so I can't even check that the code is working correctly or not. Please help. Here is the link to the code. <?php /* creates a compressed zip file */ $filename = $_GET["filename"]; function create_zip($files = array(),$destination = '',$overwrite = false) { //if the zip file already exists and overwrite is false, return false if(file_exists($destination) && !$overwrite) { return false; } //vars $valid_files = array(); //if files were passed in... if(is_array($files)) { //cycle through each file foreach($files as $file => $local) { //make sure the file exists if(file_exists($file)) { $valid_files[$file] = $local; } } } //if we have good files... if(count($valid_files)) { //create the archive $zip = new ZipArchive(); if($zip->open($destination,$overwrite ? ZIPARCHIVE::OVERWRITE : ZIPARCHIVE::CREATE) !== true) { return false; } //add the files foreach($valid_files as $file => $local) { $zip->addFile($file, $local); } //debug //echo 'The zip archive contains ',$zip->numFiles,' files with a status of ',$zip->status; //close the zip -- done! $zip->close(); //check to make sure the file exists return file_exists($destination); } else { return false; } } $files_to_zip = array( 'apps/impressionist/css/mappingstyle.css' => '/css/mappingstyle.css', 'apps/impressionist/css/style.css' => '/css/style.css', 'apps/impressionist/js/jquery.js' => '/scripts/jquery.js', 'apps/impressionist/js/impress.js' => '/scripts/impress.js', realpath('apps/impressionist/output/'.$filename.'.html') => $filename.'.html' ); //if true, good; if false, zip creation failed $result = create_zip($files_to_zip, $filename.'.zip'); $save_file = OC_App::getStorage('impressionist'); $save_file ->file_put_contents($filename.'.zip',$files_to_zip); ?>

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• HTML-like GUI Framework in Java

  - by wintermute

  I was recently brought onto a project where we are developing a lot GUI elements for BlackBerry devices. The standard RIM APIs are pretty basic, almost never do what is required and are difficult or impossible to extend, so we end up re-implementing chunks of it. Currently the code we have isn't super organized and factored so there are lots of little tricks that get implemented over and over again. I had a thought about how to aid development efforts on this platform and wanted to see if the community could tell me if I'm still sane or if I've gone totally nuts. By far, the biggest organizational problem I've run into is making sure that each screen is laid out properly with proper padding and such. The current approach is to manually keep track of padding like so: protected void sublayout(int width, int height) { final int padding = 5; int y = padding; int x = padding; layoutChild(_someChild, width - padding * 2, height / 3 - padding * 2); setPositionChild(_someChild, x, y); y += _someChild.getHeight() + padding; // Calculate where to start drawing next. /* ... snipped ... */ } As you can see, positioning elements on a screen is a nightmare due to the tedium. I have investigated other GUI frameworks but, for a variety of reasons, it is difficult to find one that suites our purposes. One potential solution that came to me is to create a GUI framework who's API resembles HTML/CSS. This would allow for things like padding, margins, borders and colours to be handled through a sort of CSS API while the content would be organized using the HTML part of the API. It might look something like this: public class OptionsScreen extends Document { public OptionsScreen() { // You would set the style (like CSS style) through the constructor. Div content = new Div(new Style(new Padding(5), Color.BLACK)); // Then build up a tree of elements which can each have their own style's. // Each element knows how to draw itself, but it doesn't have to worry about // manually handling things like padding. // content.addChild(new P("This is a paragraph", new Style(new Padding(), Color.RED))); Ul list = new Ul(); list.addChild(new Li("item 1")); list.addChild(new Li("item 2")); content.addChild(list); addChild(content); } } I can imagine this making it easier to customize the UI of our app (which is very important) with different fonts, colours and layouts. Does this idea belong on The Daily WTF or do you think there is some promise?

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• How can I reduce the number of loops in this VIEW in Rails when using :collection?

  - by Angela

  I am using the :collection to go through all the Contacts that are part of a given Campaign. But within that Campaign I check for three different Models (each with their own partial). Feels like I am going through the list of Contacts 3x. How can I make this alot leaner? <h2>These are past due:</h2> <% @campaigns.each do |campaign| %> <h3>Campaign: <%= link_to campaign.name, campaign %></h3> <strong>Emails in this Campaign:</strong> <% for email in campaign.emails %> <h4><%= link_to email.title, email %> <%= email.days %> days</h4> <% @contacts= campaign.contacts.find(:all, :order => "date_entered ASC" )%> <!--contacts collection--> <!-- render the information for each contact --> <%= render :partial => "contact_email", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:email => email} %> <% end %> Calls in this Campaign: <% for call in campaign.calls %> <h4><%= link_to call.title, call %> <%= call.days %> days</h4> <% @contacts= campaign.contacts.find(:all, :order => "date_entered ASC" )%> <!--contacts collection--> <!-- render the information for each contact --> <%= render :partial => "contact_call", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:call => call} %> <% end %> Letters in this Campaign: <% for letter in campaign.letters %> <h4><%= link_to letter.title, letter %> <%= letter.days %> days</h4> <% @contacts= campaign.contacts.find(:all, :order => "date_entered ASC" )%> <!--contacts collection--> <!-- render the information for each contact --> <%= render :partial => "contact_letter", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:letter => letter} %> <% end %> <% end %>

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• Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

  - by M. McKenzie

  Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

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• Asp.net Mvc - Kigg: Maintain User object in HttpContext.Items between requests.

  - by Pickels

  Hallo, first I want to say that I hope this doesn't look like I am lazy but I have some trouble understanding a piece of code from the following project. http://kigg.codeplex.com/ I was going through the source code and I noticed something that would be usefull for my own little project I am making. In their BaseController they have the following code: private static readonly Type CurrentUserKey = typeof(IUser); public IUser CurrentUser { get { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(CurrentUserName)) { IUser user = HttpContext.Items[CurrentUserKey] as IUser; if (user == null) { user = AccountRepository.FindByClaim(CurrentUserName); if (user != null) { HttpContext.Items[CurrentUserKey] = user; } } return user; } return null; } } This isn't an exact copy of the code I adjusted it a little to my needs. This part of the code I still understand. They store their IUser in HttpContext.Items. I guess they do it so that they don't have to call the database eachtime they need the User object. The part that I don't understand is how they maintain this object in between requests. If I understand correctly the HttpContext.Items is a per request cache storage. So after some more digging I found the following code. internal static IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object> GetInstances(HttpContextBase httpContext) { IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object> instances; if (httpContext.Items.Contains(Key)) { instances = (IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>) httpContext.Items[Key]; } else { lock (httpContext.Items) { if (httpContext.Items.Contains(Key)) { instances = (IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>) httpContext.Items[Key]; } else { instances = new Dictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>(); httpContext.Items.Add(Key, instances); } } } return instances; } This is the part where some magic happens that I don't understand. I think they use Unity to do some dependency injection on each request? In my project I am using Ninject and I am wondering how I can get the same result. I guess InRequestScope in Ninject is the same as UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager? I am also wondering which class/method they are binding to which interface? Since the HttpContext.Items get destroyed each request how do they prevent losing their user object? Anyway it's kinda a long question so I am gradefull for any push in the right direction. Kind regards, Pickels

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• Mixing .NET versions between website and virtual directories and the "server application unavailable" error Message

  - by Doug Chamberlain

  Backstory Last month our development team created a new asp.net 3.5 application to place out on our production website. Once we had the work completed, we requested from the group that manages are server to copy the app out to our production site, and configure the virtual directory as a new application. On 12/27/2010, two public 'Gineau Pigs' were selected to use the app, and it worked great. On 12/30/2010, We received notification by internal staff, that when that staff member tried to access the application (this was the Business Process Owner) they recieved the 'Server Application Unavailable' message. When I called the group that does our server support, I was told that it probably failed, because I didn't close the connections in my code. However, the same group went in and then created a separate app pool for this Extension Request application. It has had no issues since. I did a little googling, since I do not like being blamed for things. I found that the 'Server Application Unavailable' message will also appear when you have multiple applications using different frameworks and you do not put them in different application pools. Technical Details - Tree of our website structure Main Website <-- ASP Classic +-Virtual Directory(ExtensionRequest) <-- ASP 3.5 From our server support group: 'Reviewed server logs and website setup in IIS. Had to reset the application pool as it was not working properly. This corrected the website and it is now back online. We went ahead and created a application pool for the extension web so it is isolated from the main site pool. In the past we have seen other application do this when there is a connection being left open and the pool fills up. Would recommend reviewing site code to make sure no connections are being left open.' The Real Question: What really caused the failure? Isn't the connection being left open issue an ASP Classic issue? Wouldn't the ExtensionRequest application have to be used (more than twice) in the first place to have the connections left open? Is it more likely the failure is caused by them not bothering to setup the new Application in it's own App Pool in the first place? Sorry for the long windedness

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• Wordpress pages address rewrite

  - by kemp

  UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

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• Paging & Sorting grids with ASP.Net MVC

  - by Scott Ivey

  I'm new to MVC, and am not following how you'd do paging and sorting on a grid. I'm used to using the asp.Net GridView control with an ObjectDataSource pointed at objects in our business layer - and in that case the ODS handles all of the paging & sorting using the methods that our ORM generates on the objects. I've looked at using the same ORM with MVC - and things work out fine there - i just loop thru the collections to build the table on the page - but without the ODS to handle the paging & sorting, i'm confused as to how I'd handle that. Would I have a separate controller for the paging and sorting? I'm not sure what the best practices are for this scenario, so if someone can point me in the right direction it would be much appreciated. Edit: Ok, so I understand that I need to roll my own - but where do I start? I've created a CustomerController, and a view that displays a table of customers that looks like below - and I want to sort on FirstName or LastName columns. My Model has a Sort() method on it that'll take a string sort expression in the format that would be used by a GridView/ODS pair. Would I create a new Action on my CustomerController called Sort, and put an ActionLink in my header? <table> <tr> <th> First Name </th> <th> Last Name </th> </tr> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.FirstName) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.LastName) %> </td> </tr> <% } %> </table>

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• Spring's JdbcDaoSupport (using MySQL Connector/J) fails after executing sql that adds FK

  - by John

  I am using Spring's JdbcDaoSupport class with a DriverManagerDataSource using the MySQL Connector/J 5.0 driver (driverClassName=com.mysql.jdbc.driver). allowMultiQueries is set to true in the url. My application is an in-house tool we recently developed that executes sql scripts in a directory one-by-one (allows us to re-create our schema and reference table data for a given date, etc, but I digress). The sql scripts sometime contain multiple statements (hence allowMultiQueries), so one script can create a table, add indexes for that table, etc. The problem happens when including a statement to add a foreign key constraint in one of these files. If I have a file that looks like... --(column/constraint names are examples) CREATE TABLE myTable ( fk1 BIGINT(19) NOT NULL, fk2 BIGINT(19) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (fk1, fk2) ); ALTER TABLE myTable ADD CONSTRAINT myTable_fk1 FOREIGN KEY (fk1) REFERENCES myOtherTable (id) ; ALTER TABLE myTable ADD CONSTRAINT myTable_fk2 FOREIGN KEY (fk2) REFERENCES myOtherOtherTable (id) ; then JdbcTemplate.execute throws an UncategorizedSqlException with the following error message and stack trace: Exception in thread "main" org.springframework.jdbc.UncategorizedSQLException: StatementCallback; uncategorized SQLException for SQL [ THE SQL YOU SEE ABOVE LISTED HERE ]; SQL state [HY000]; error code [1005]; Can't create table 'myDatabase.myTable' (errno: 150); nested exception is java.sql.SQLException: Can't create table 'myDatabase.myTable' (errno: 150) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:83) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:80) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:80) and the table and foreign keys are not inserted. Also, especially weird: if I take the foreign key statements out of the script I showed above and then place them in their own script that executes after (so I now have 1 script with just the create table statement, and 1 script with the add foreign key statements that executes after that) then what happens is: tool executes create table script, works fine, table is created tool executes add fk script, throws the same exception as seen above (except errno=121 this time), but the FKs actually get added (!!!) In other words, when the create table/FK statements are in the same script then the exception is thrown and nothing is created, but when they are different scripts a nearly identical exception is thrown but both things get created. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Please let me know if you'd like me to clarify anything more.

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• Rewriting Live TCP/IP (Layer 4) (i.e. Socket Layer) Streams

  - by user213060

  I have a simple problem which I'm sure someone here has done before... I want to rewrite Layer 4 TCP/IP streams (Not lower layer individual packets or frames.) Ettercap's etterfilter command lets you perform simple live replacements of Layer 4 TCP/IP streams based on fixed strings or regexes. Example ettercap scripting code: if (ip.proto == TCP && tcp.dst == 80) { if (search(DATA.data, "gzip")) { replace("gzip", " "); msg("whited out gzip\n"); } } if (ip.proto == TCP && tcp.dst == 80) { if (search(DATA.data, "deflate")) { replace("deflate", " "); msg("whited out deflate\n"); } } http://ettercap.sourceforge.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=2833 I would like to rewrite streams based on my own filter program instead of just simple string replacements. Anyone have an idea of how to do this? Is there anything other than Ettercap that can do live replacement like this, maybe as a plugin to a VPN software or something? I would like to have a configuration similar to ettercap's silent bridged sniffing configuration between two Ethernet interfaces. This way I can silently filter traffic coming from either direction with no NATing problems. Note that my filter is an application that acts as a pipe filter, similar to the design of unix command-line filters: >[eth0] <----------> [my filter] <----------> [eth1]< What I am already aware of, but are not suitable: Tun/Tap - Works at the lower packet layer, I need to work with the higher layer streams. Ettercap - I can't find any way to do replacements other than the restricted capabilities in the example above. Hooking into some VPN software? - I just can't figure out which or exactly how. libnetfilter_queue - Works with lower layer packets, not TCP/IP streams. Again, the rewriting should occur at the transport layer (Layer 4) as it does in this example, instead of a lower layer packet-based approach. Exact code will help immensely! Thanks!

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• Efficient algorithm to distribute work?

  - by Zwei Steinen

  It's a bit complicated to explain but here we go. We have problems like this (code is pseudo-code, and is only for illustrating the problem. Sorry it's in java. If you don't understand, I'd be glad to explain.). class Problem { final Set<Integer> allSectionIds = { 1,2,4,6,7,8,10 }; final Data data = //Some data } And a subproblem is: class SubProblem { final Set<Integer> targetedSectionIds; final Data data; SubProblem(Set<Integer> targetedSectionsIds, Data data){ this.targetedSectionIds = targetedSectionIds; this.data = data; } } Work will look like this, then. class Work implements Runnable { final Set<Section> subSections; final Data data; final Result result; Work(Set<Section> subSections, Data data) { this.sections = SubSections; this.data = data; } @Override public void run(){ for(Section section : subSections){ result.addUp(compute(data, section)); } } } Now we have instances of 'Worker', that have their own state sections I have. class Worker implements ExecutorService { final Map<Integer,Section> sectionsIHave; { sectionsIHave = {1:section1, 5:section5, 8:section8 }; } final ExecutorService executor = //some executor. @Override public void execute(SubProblem problem){ Set<Section> sectionsNeeded = fetchSections(problem.targetedSectionIds); super.execute(new Work(sectionsNeeded, problem.data); } } phew. So, we have a lot of Problems and Workers are constantly asking for more SubProblems. My task is to break up Problems into SubProblem and give it to them. The difficulty is however, that I have to later collect all the results for the SubProblems and merge (reduce) them into a Result for the whole Problem. This is however, costly, so I want to give the workers "chunks" that are as big as possible (has as many targetedSections as possible). It doesn't have to be perfect (mathematically as efficient as possible or something). I mean, I guess that it is impossible to have a perfect solution, because you can't predict how long each computation will take, etc.. But is there a good heuristic solution for this? Or maybe some resources I can read up before I go into designing? Any advice is highly appreciated!

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• How to download file into string with progress callback?

  - by Kaminari

  I would like to use the WebClient (or there is another better option?) but there is a problem. I understand that opening up the stream takes some time and this can not be avoided. However, reading it takes a strangely much more amount of time compared to read it entirely immediately. Is there a best way to do this? I mean two ways, to string and to file. Progress is my own delegate and it's working good. FIFTH UPDATE: Finally, I managed to do it. In the meantime I checked out some solutions what made me realize that the problem lies elsewhere. I've tested custom WebResponse and WebRequest objects, library libCURL.NET and even Sockets. The difference in time was gzip compression. Compressed stream lenght was simply half the normal stream lenght and thus download time was less than 3 seconds with the browser. I put some code if someone will want to know how i solved this: (some headers are not needed) public static string DownloadString(string URL) { WebClient client = new WebClient(); client.Headers["User-Agent"] = "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US) AppleWebKit/532.5 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/4.1.249.1045 Safari/532.5"; client.Headers["Accept"] = "application/xml,application/xhtml+xml,text/html;q=0.9,text/plain;q=0.8,image/png,*/*;q=0.5"; client.Headers["Accept-Encoding"] = "gzip,deflate,sdch"; client.Headers["Accept-Charset"] = "ISO-8859-2,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.3"; Stream inputStream = client.OpenRead(new Uri(URL)); MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); const int size = 32 * 4096; byte[] buffer = new byte[size]; if (client.ResponseHeaders["Content-Encoding"] == "gzip") { inputStream = new GZipStream(inputStream, CompressionMode.Decompress); } int count = 0; do { count = inputStream.Read(buffer, 0, size); if (count > 0) { memoryStream.Write(buffer, 0, count); } } while (count > 0); string result = Encoding.Default.GetString(memoryStream.ToArray()); memoryStream.Close(); inputStream.Close(); return result; } I think that asyncro functions will be almost the same. But i will simply use another thread to fire this function. I dont need percise progress indication.

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