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  • Cannot create a row of size 8074 which is greater than the allowable maximum row size of 8060.

    - by Lieven Cardoen
    I have already asked a question about this, but the problems keeps on hitting me ;-) I have two tables that are identical. I want to add a xml column. In the first table this is no problem, but in the second table I get the sqlException (title). However, apart from the data in it, they are the same. So, can I get the sqlException because of data in the table? I have also tried to store the field off page with EXEC sp_tableoption 'dbo.PackageSessionNodesFinished', 'large value types out of row', 1 but without any succes. The same SqlException keeps coming. First table: PackageSessionNodes CREATE TABLE [dbo].[PackageSessionNodes]( [PackageSessionNodeId] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [PackageSessionId] [int] NOT NULL, [TreeNodeId] [int] NOT NULL, [Duration] [int] NULL, [Score] [float] NOT NULL, [ScoreMax] [float] NOT NULL, [Interactions] [xml] NOT NULL, [BrainTeaser] [bit] NULL, [DateCreated] [datetime] NULL, [CompletionStatus] [int] NOT NULL, [ReducedScore] [float] NOT NULL, [ReducedScoreMax] [float] NOT NULL, [ContentInteractions] [xml] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_PackageSessionNodes] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [PackageSessionNodeId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] Second table: PackageSessionNodesFinished CREATE TABLE [dbo].[PackageSessionNodesFinished]( [PackageSessionNodeFinishedId] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [PackageSessionId] [int] NOT NULL, [TreeNodeId] [int] NOT NULL, [Duration] [int] NULL, [Score] [float] NOT NULL, [ScoreMax] [float] NOT NULL, [Interactions] [xml] NOT NULL, [BrainTeaser] [bit] NULL, [DateCreated] [datetime] NULL, [CompletionStatus] [int] NOT NULL, [ReducedScore] [float] NOT NULL, [ReducedScoreMax] [float] NOT NULL, [ContentInteractions] [xml] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_PackageSessionNodesFinished] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [PackageSessionNodeFinishedId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] First script I tried to run (First two ALTER TABLE work fine, the third crashes on SqlException) ALTER TABLE dbo.PackageSessionNodes ADD ContentInteractions xml NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_PackageSessionNodes_ContentInteractions DEFAULT (('<contentinteractions/>')); ALTER TABLE dbo.PackageSessionNodes DROP CONSTRAINT DF_PackageSessionNodes_ContentInteractions ALTER TABLE dbo.PackageSessionNodesFinished ADD ContentInteractions xml NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_PackageSessionNodesFinished_ContentInteractions DEFAULT (('<contentinteractions/>')); ALTER TABLE dbo.PackageSessionNodesFinished DROP CONSTRAINT DF_PackageSessionNodesFinished_ContentInteractions Second script I tried to run with the same result as previous script: EXEC sp_tableoption 'dbo.PackageSessionNodes', 'large value types out of row', 1 ALTER TABLE dbo.PackageSessionNodes ADD ContentInteractions xml NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_PackageSessionNodes_ContentInteractions DEFAULT (('<contentinteractions/>')); ALTER TABLE dbo.PackageSessionNodes DROP CONSTRAINT DF_PackageSessionNodes_ContentInteractions EXEC sp_tableoption 'dbo.PackageSessionNodesFinished', 'large value types out of row', 1 ALTER TABLE dbo.PackageSessionNodesFinished ADD ContentInteractions xml NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_PackageSessionNodesFinished_ContentInteractions DEFAULT (('<contentinteractions/>')); ALTER TABLE dbo.PackageSessionNodesFinished DROP CONSTRAINT DF_PackageSessionNodesFinished_ContentInteractions Now, In PackageSessionNodes there are 234 records, in PackageSessionNodesFinished there are 4256946 records. Really would appreciate some help here as I'm stuck.

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  • Why is ELMAH creating 2 reports for each error?

    - by Chris F
    I have setup ELMAH to create an XML log as well as send an email every time it encounters and unhandled exception in my ASP.NET MVC web application. However, creates 2 xml files for every error and sends to emails, seemingly identical each time. How do I stop this? My relevant web.config configuration sections are below. I thought the duplicate registration system.web and system.webServer may be causing the issue, but that's not the case. <configSections> ... <sectionGroup name="elmah"> <section name="security" requirePermission="false" type="Elmah.SecuritySectionHandler, Elmah" /> <section name="errorLog" requirePermission="false" type="Elmah.ErrorLogSectionHandler, Elmah" /> <section name="errorMail" requirePermission="false" type="Elmah.ErrorMailSectionHandler, Elmah" /> <section name="errorFilter" requirePermission="false" type="Elmah.ErrorFilterSectionHandler, Elmah" /> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <elmah> <security allowRemoteAccess="no"></security> <errorLog type="Elmah.XmlFileErrorLog, Elmah" logPath="~/Logs" /> <errorMail from="[email protected]" to="[email protected]" cc="[email protected]" subject="ELMAH: Site Error" async="true" smtpPort="25" smtpServer="xx.xx.xx.xx" /> </elmah> <system.web> ... <httpHandlers> ... <add verb="POST,GET,HEAD" path="elmah.axd" type="Elmah.ErrorLogPageFactory, Elmah" /> </httpHandlers> <httpModules> ... <add name="ErrorLog" type="Elmah.ErrorLogModule, Elmah"/> <add name="ErrorMail" type="Elmah.ErrorMailModule, Elmah"/> </httpModules> </system.web> <!-- for IIS7 --> <system.webServer> ... <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> ... <add name="ErrorLog" type="Elmah.ErrorLogModule, Elmah"/> <add name="ErrorMail" type="Elmah.ErrorMailModule, Elmah"/> </modules> <handlers> ... <add verb="POST,GET,HEAD" path="elmah.axd" type="Elmah.ErrorLogPageFactory, Elmah" /> </handlers> </system.webServer>

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  • Why does filter: blur(0) still cause text to blur under Webkit?

    - by johnkavanagh
    I've come across a bug today that's taken far longer than I would like to admit to identify. Essentially: setting a filter: blur(0) (or the vendor-specific -webkit-filter) on an element should - I believe - mean that no form of blur is applied. However, having tested this today, it would appear that Webkit based browsers still blur the text within any element with either blur(0) or blur(0px) assigned to it. I've knocked together a quick Fiddle here: http://jsfiddle.net/f9rBE/ These are three identical dixs containing text (no custom fonts): This has absolutely nothing assigned Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Aliquam facilisis orci in quam venenatis, in tempus ipsum sagittis. Suspendisse potenti. Donec ullamcorper lacus vel odio accumsan, vel aliquam libero tempor. Praesent nec libero venenatis, ultrices arcu non, luctus quam. Morbi scelerisque sit amet turpis sit amet tincidunt. Praesent semper erat non purus pretium consequat. Aenean et iaculis turpis. Curabitur diam tellus, consectetur non massa et, commodo venenatis metus. One has no styles at all assigned, the other two have blur(0) and blur(0px): .no-blur{} .zero-px-blur{ -webkit-filter: blur(0px); -moz-filter: blur(0px); -o-filter: blur(0px); -ms-filter: blur(0px); filter: blur(0px); } .zero-blur{ -webkit-filter: blur(0); -moz-filter: blur(0); -o-filter: blur(0); -ms-filter: blur(0); filter: blur(0); } If you preview this under Chrome/Safari you'll see that the text in the second two are still blurred: A few things worth noting: This unintentional blurring occurs in Safari on iOS7 devices (both iPhones and iPads); It also occurs on Chrome and Safari under OSX; It doesn't happen under FireFox in OSX. Of course, this isn't supported at all in Firefox just yet so it's hard to tell whether the behaviour I'm seeing is intentional/expected behaviour, or whether this is a bug in Webkit? Is it possible that this is only prevalent in higher-density resolution devices (ie: retina MacBook/iPhone/iPad)? With this in mind, how do you actually overwrite an item that has blur applied to it to set it back to non-blurred?

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  • Best practices concerning view model and model updates with a subset of the fields

    - by Martin
    By picking MVC for developing our new site, I find myself in the midst of "best practices" being developed around me in apparent real time. Two weeks ago, NerdDinner was my guide but with the development of MVC 2, even it seems outdated. It's an thrilling experience and I feel privileged to be in close contact with intelligent programmers daily. Right now I've stumbled upon an issue I can't seem to get a straight answer on - from all the blogs anyway - and I'd like to get some insight from the community. It's about Editing (read: Edit action). The bulk of material out there, tutorials and blogs, deal with creating and view the model. So while this question may not spell out a question, I hope to get some discussion going, contributing to my decision about the path of development I'm to take. My model represents a user with several fields like name, address and email. All the names, in fact, on field each for first name, last name and middle name. The Details view displays all these fields but you can change only one set of fields at a time, for instance, your names. The user expands a form while the other fields are still visible above and below. So the form that is posted back contains a subset of the fields representing the model. While this is appealing to us and our layout concerns, for various reasons, it is to be shunned by serious MVC-developers. I've been reading about some patterns and best practices and it seems that this is not in key with the paradigm of viewmodel == view. Or have I got it wrong? Anyway, NerdDinner dictates using FormCollection och UpdateModel. All the null fields are happily ignored. Since then, the MVC-community has abandoned this approach to such a degree that a bug in MVC 2 was not discovered. UpdateModel does not work without a complete model in your formcollection. The view model pattern receiving most praise seems to be Dedicated view model that contains a custom view model entity and is the only one that my design issue could be made compatible with. It entails a tedious amount of mapping, albeit lightened by the use of AutoMapper and the ideas of Jimmy Bogard, that may or may not be worthwhile. He also proposes a 1:1 relationship between view and view model. In keeping with these design paradigms, I am to create a view and associated view for each of my expanding sets of fields. The view models would each be nearly identical, differing only in the fields which are read-only, the views also containing much repeated markup. This seems absurd to me. In future I may want to be able to display two, more or all sets of fields open simultaneously. I will most attentively read the discussion I hope to spark. Many thanks in advance.

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  • OSX/Darwin unresolved symbols when linking functions from <math.h>

    - by tbone
    I'm in the process of porting a large'ish (~1M LOC) project from a Window/Visual Studio environment to other platforms, the first of which happens to be Mac OS X. Originally the project was configured as Visual Studio solutions and projects, but now I'm using (the excellent) Premake (http://industriousone.com/premake) to generate project files for multiple platforms (VS, XCode, GMake). I configured, ported and built the first few projects without any significant problems, but having ported the math lib, I ran into this weird linking error that I haven't been able to resolve: Any functions used from math.h will fail to link (causing unresolved symbols). For reference, I'm using Premake v4.2.1 to generate projects for XCode v3.2.1, which is building using gcc v4.2 for the x86_64 architecture. (All this on 64-bit Snow Leopard) I've tried to persuade gcc to link and build everything against a 'known' SDK by adding -isysroot /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.6.sdk -mmacosx-version-min=10.6 to the build command line. Now under normal circumstances, adding -lm should take care of this, however in Darwin, those math libs are included in libSystem, which, as far as I can tell, gets implicitly linked by gcc/ld. I've tried creating a dummy project from within XCode which just runs: float f = log2(2.0)+log2f(3.f)+log1p(1.1)+log1pf(1.2f)+sin(8.0); std::cout << f << std::endl; and as expected, this builds just fine. However, if I put the same thing in the code inside the Premake generated project, all those math functions end up unresolved. Now comparing the linking command from the 'native' XCode project with my generated XCode project, they seem pretty identical (except that my generated project links other libs as well). 'Native' project: /Developer/usr/bin/g++-4.2 -arch x86_64 -dynamiclib -isysroot /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.6.sdk -Lsomepath -Fsomepath -filelist somefile -install_name somename -mmacosx-version-min=10.6 -single_module -compatibility_version 1 -current_version 1 -o somename Generated project: /Developer/usr/bin/g++-4.2 -arch x86_64 -dynamiclib -Lsomepath -Fsomepath -filelist somefile -install_name somename -isysroot /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.6.sdk -mmacosx-version-min=10.6 somelib.a somelib2.a somelib.dylib somelib2.dylib -single_module -compatibility_version 1 -current_version 1 -o somename Any help or hints about how to proceed would be most appreciated. Are there any gcc flags or other tools that can help me resolve this?

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  • Populate Multiple PDFs

    - by gmcalab
    I am using itextsharp to populate my PDFs. I have no issues with this. Basically what I am doing is getting the PDF and populating the fields in memory then passing back the MemoryStream to be displayed on a webpage. All this is working with a single document PDF. What I am trying to figure out now, is merging multiple PDFs into one MemoryStream. The part I cant figure out is, the documents I am populating are identical. So for example, I have a List<Person> that contains 5 persons. I want to fill out a PDF for each person and merge them all into one, in memory. Bare in mind I am going to fill out the same type of document for each person. The problem I am getting is that when I try to add a second copy of the same PDF to be filled out for the second iteration, it just overwrites the first populated PDF, since it's the same document, therefore not adding a second copy for the second Person at all. So basically if I had the 5 people, I would end up with a single page with the data of the 5th person, instead of a PDF with 5 like pages that contain the data of each person respectively. Here's some code... MemoryStream ms = ms = new MemoryStream(); PdfReader docReader = null; PdfStamper Stamper = null; List<Person> persons = new List<Person>() { new Person("Larry", "David"), new Person("Dustin", "Byfuglien"), new Person("Patrick", "Kane"), new Person("Johnathan", "Toews"), new Person("Marian", "Hossa") }; try { // Iterate thru all persons and populate a PDF for each foreach(var person in persons){ PdfCopyFields Copier = new PdfCopyFields(ms); Copier.AddDocument(GetReader("Person.pdf")); Copier.Close(); docReader = new PdfReader(ms.ToArray()); Stamper = new PdfStamper(docReader, ms); AcroFields Fields = Stamper.AcroFields; Fields.SetField("FirstName", person.FirstName); } }catch(Exception e){ // handle error }finally{ if (Stamper != null) { Stamper.Close(); } if (docReader != null) { docReader.Close(); } }

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  • My block is not retaining some of its objects

    - by Drew Crawford
    From the Blocks documentation: In a reference-counted environment, by default when you reference an Objective-C object within a block, it is retained. This is true even if you simply reference an instance variable of the object. I am trying to implement a completion handler pattern, where a block is given to an object before the work is performed and the block is executed by the receiver after the work is performed. Since I am being a good memory citizen, the block should own the objects it references in the completion handler and then they will be released when the block goes out of scope. I know enough to know that I must copy the block to move it to the heap since the block will survive the stack scope in which it was declared. However, one of my objects is getting deallocated unexpectedly. After some playing around, it appears that certain objects are not retained when the block is copied to the heap, while other objects are. I am not sure what I am doing wrong. Here's the smallest test case I can produce: typedef void (^ActionBlock)(UIView*); In the scope of some method: NSObject *o = [[[NSObject alloc] init] autorelease]; mailViewController = [[[MFMailComposeViewController alloc] init] autorelease]; NSLog(@"o's retain count is %d",[o retainCount]); NSLog(@"mailViewController's retain count is %d",[mailViewController retainCount]); ActionBlock myBlock = ^(UIView *view) { [mailViewController setCcRecipients:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"[email protected]",nil]]; [o class]; }; NSLog(@"mailViewController's retain count after the block is %d",[mailViewController retainCount]); NSLog(@"o's retain count after the block is %d",[o retainCount]); Block_copy(myBlock); NSLog(@"o's retain count after the copy is %d",[o retainCount]); NSLog(@"mailViewController's retain count after the copy is %d",[mailViewController retainCount]); I expect both objects to be retained by the block at some point, and I certainly expect their retain counts to be identical. Instead, I get this output: o's retain count is 1 mailViewController's retain count is 1 mailViewController's retain count after the block is 1 o's retain count after the block is 1 o's retain count after the copy is 2 mailViewController's retain count after the copy is 1 o (subclass of NSObject) is getting retained properly and will not go out of scope. However mailViewController is not retained and will be deallocated before the block is run, causing a crash.

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  • Fluent | Nhibernate multiple inheritance mapping?

    - by Broken Pipe
    I'm trying to map this classes: public interface IBusinessObject { Guid Id { get; set; } } public class Product { public virtual Guid Id { get; set; } public virtual int ProductTypeId { get; set; } } public class ProductWeSell : Product, IBusinessObject { } public class ProductWeDontSell : Product { } Using this Fluent mapping code: public class IBusinessObjectMap : ClassMap<IBusinessObject> { public IBusinessObjectMap() { Id(t => t.Id).GeneratedBy.Guid(); Table("BusinessObject"); } } public class ProductMap : ClassMap<Product> { public ProductMap() { Id(t => t.Id); DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn("ProductTypeId", "null").Nullable(); } } public class ProductWeSellMap : SubclassMap<ProductWeSell> { public ProductWeSellMap() { DiscriminatorValue(1); KeyColumn("Id"); } } public class ProductWeDontSellMap : SubclassMap<ProductWeDontSell> { public ProductWeDontSellMap() { DiscriminatorValue(2); KeyColumn("Id"); } } But I get {"Duplicate class/entity mapping ProductWeSell"} error. And if we take a look at generated HBM, indeed it's duplicated, but i have no idea how to write this mapping without duplicating it if it's possible at all. Produced hbm: <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" name="IBusinessObject" table="BusinessObject"> <joined-subclass name="ProductWeSell" table="ProductWeSell"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" discriminator-value="null" name="Product" table="Product"> <discriminator type="String"> <column name="ProductTypeId" not-null="false" /> </discriminator> <subclass name="ProductWeDontSell" discriminator-value="2" /> <subclass name="ProductWeSell" discriminator-value="1" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> So far I was unable to figure out how to map this using fluent Nhibernate (i haven't tried mapping this using hmb files). Any help appreciated Fluent or HBM files. The thing I'm trying to solve look identical to this topic: NHibernate inheritance mapping question

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  • Stringtemplate: is it ok to Apply Templates, in which HashMap uses, To Multi-Valued Attributes

    - by user1071830
    There is two template in my .stg file, and both of them apply on multi-value a HashMap. The HashMap is employed as an injected object. And I need those instance of HashMap can be injected for many times. My trouble is, when I switch to another template, ANTLR seems to consider the second HashMap as a List -- multipul objects and null value. Part of my .stg file shows as follows: tpl_hash(BAR, FOO) ::= << <FOO:foo(); separator="\n"> <BAR:bar(); separator="\n"> >> foo(nn) ::= << foo: <nn.name; null="NULL"> . <nn.national; null="NULL"> >> bar(mm) ::= << bar: <mm.name> @ <mm.national> >> Part of my .g file shows: HashMap hm = new HashMap(); hm.put("name", $name.text); hm.put("national", "German"); tpl_hash.add("FOO",new HashMap(hm)); HashMap hm2 = new HashMap(); hm2.put("name", $name.text); hm2.put("national", "German"); tpl_hash.add("BAR",new HashMap(hm2)); The result I expect is : bar: Kant @ German foo: Russell @ England But, I got: foo: NULL . NULL foo: NULL . NULL bar: @ bar: @ If we replace BAR with FOO, as is, keeping FOO and BAR with identical template, the output is right, like the following. bar: Russell @ German bar: Russell @ German In docs, "synchronized ST add (String name, Object value) in org.stringtemplate.v4.ST" said: "If you send in a List and then inject a single value element, add() copies original list and adds the new value." What about a HashMap? Does ANTLR consider the HashMap, key/value pair access, an object purposely, as a List and as multi-value injected by mistake? Thanks a lot in advance.

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  • UIScrollView works as expected but scrollRectToVisible: does nothing

    - by mahboudz
    HI. I have used UIScrollView before, and am using it now, and never had a problem. I'm now adding it to an old app, and while it works as expected (I can look at the contents, scroll around with my finger, all the bounds and sizes are setup right so there is no empty space in the content, etc.), I just can't get scrollToRectVisible to work. I have even simplified the call so that it merely moves to the 0,0 position: [scrollView scrollRectToVisible:CGRectMake(0, 0, 10, 10) animated:YES]; or move it to 0,200: [scrollView scrollRectToVisible:CGRectMake(0, 200, 10, 10) animated:YES]; I even made a quick app to test this and I can get scrollRectToVisible to work there as I expect. But in my old app, I can't seem to make it do anything. I can make the scrollView scroll with setContentOffset:, but that's not what I want. This scrollView and its contents are defined in the nib by IB and used with an IBOutlet. The only code I am using in my app to handle the scrollView is [scrollView setContentSize:CGSizeMake(scrollView.contentSize.width, imageView.frame.size.height)]; (I'm only interested in vertical scrolling not horizontal). Has anyone run into a problem like this? I have compared the scrollView attributes in both apps and they are identical. ADDENDUM: My scrollViews frame is: 0.000000 0.000000 480.000000 179.000000 My scrollViews contentSize is: 0.000000 324.000000 It still acts like the rect I want to scroll to is already visible and no scrolling is needed. Not sure if that is what is happening. This is just the darnest thing. Seems like such an easy thing to resolve... ADDENDUM #2: This is how I am making do without scrollRectToVisible: CGPoint point = myRect.origin; if (![clefScrollView pointInside:point withEvent:nil]) { point.x = 0; if (point.y > clefScrollView.contentSize.height - clefScrollView.bounds.size.height) point.y = clefScrollView.contentSize.height - clefScrollView.bounds.size.height; [clefScrollView setContentOffset:point animated: YES]; } Everything else about this scrollView works as expected, but scrollRectToVisible. WHY?!? Any wild guesses?

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  • Can I create a custom roleprovider through a WCF service?

    - by RJ
    I have a web application that accesses a database through a wcf service. The idea is to abstract the data from the web application using the wcf service. All that works fine but I am also using the built in roleprovider using the SqlRoleManager which does access the aspnetdb database directly. I would like to abstract the roleprovider by creating a custom roleprovider in a wcf service and then accessing it through the wcf service. I have created the custom role provider and it works fine but now I need to place it in a wcf service. So before I jump headlong into trying to get this to work through the WCF service, I created a second class in the web application that accessed the roleprovider class and changed my web config roleprovider parameters to use that class. So my roleprovider class is called, "UcfCstRoleProvider" and my web.config looks like this: <roleManager enabled="true" defaultProvider="UcfCstRoleProvider"> <providers> <add name="UcfCstRoleProvider" type="Ucf.Security.Wcf.WebTests.UcfCstRoleProvider, Ucf.Security.Wcf.WebTests" connectionStringName="SqlRoleManagerConnection" applicationName="SMTP" /> </providers> </roleManager> My class starts like this: public class UcfCstRoleProvider : RoleProvider { private readonly WindowsTokenRoleProvider _roleProxy = new WindowsTokenRoleProvider(); public override string ApplicationName { get { return _roleProxy.ApplicationName; } set { _roleProxy.ApplicationName = value; } } As I said, this works fine. So the second class is called BlRoleProvider that has identical properties and parameters as the roleprovide but does not implement RoleProvider. I changed the web.config to point to this class like this: <roleManager enabled="true" defaultProvider="BlRoleProvider"> <providers> <add name="UcfCstRoleProvider" type="Ucf.Security.Wcf.WebTests.BlRoleProvider, Ucf.Security.Wcf.WebTests" connectionStringName="SqlRoleManagerConnection" applicationName="SMTP" /> </providers> </roleManager> But I get this error. "Provider must implement the class 'System.Web.Security.RoleProvider'." I hope I have explained well enough to show what I am trying to do. If I can get the roleprovider to work through another class in the same application, I am sure it will work through the WCF service but how do I get past this error? Or maybe I took a wrong turn and there is a better way to do what I want to do??

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  • Pattern Recognition for image comparision in .net

    - by vinod R
    hi Can anybody share code or algorithm(using pattern recognition) for image comparision in .net . I need to compare 2 images of different resolution and textures and the find the difference . Now i have code to find the difference between 2 images using C# // Load the images. Bitmap bm1 = (Bitmap) (Image.FromFile(txtFile1.Text)); Bitmap bm2 = (Bitmap) (Image.FromFile(txtFile2.Text)); // Make a difference image. int wid = Math.Min(bm1.Width, bm2.Width); int hgt = Math.Min(bm1.Height, bm2.Height); Bitmap bm3 = new Bitmap(wid, hgt); // Create the difference image. bool are_identical = true; int r1; int g1; int b1; int r2; int g2; int b2; int r3; int g3; int b3; Color eq_color = Color.Transparent; Color ne_color = Color.Transparent; for (int x = 0; x <= wid - 1; x++) { for (int y = 0; y <= hgt - 1; y++) { if (bm1.GetPixel(x, y).Equals(bm2.GetPixel(x, y))) { bm3.SetPixel(x, y, eq_color); } else { bm1.SetPixel(x, y, ne_color); are_identical = false; } } } // Display the result. picResult.Image = bm1; Bitmap Logo = new Bitmap(picResult.Image); Logo.MakeTransparent(Logo.GetPixel(1, 1)); picResult.Image = (Image)Logo; //this.Cursor = Cursors.Default; if ((bm1.Width != bm2.Width) || (bm1.Height != bm2.Height)) { are_identical = false; } if (are_identical) { MessageBox.Show("The images are identical"); } else { MessageBox.Show("The images are different"); } //bm1.Dispose() // bm2.Dispose() BUT this compare if the 2 images are of same resolution and size.if some shadow is there on one image(but the 2 images are same) it shows the difference between the image..so i am trying to compare using pattern recognition. Thanks in advance

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  • Odd ActiveRecord model dynamic initialization bug in production

    - by qfinder
    I've got an ActiveRecord (2.3.5) model that occasionally exhibits incorrect behavior that appears to be related to a problem in its dynamic initialization. Here's the code: class Widget < ActiveRecord::Base extend ActiveSupport::Memoizable serialize :settings VALID_SETTINGS = %w(show_on_sale show_upcoming show_current show_past) VALID_SETTINGS.each do |setting| class_eval %{ def #{setting}=(val); self.settings[:#{setting}] = (val == "1"); end def #{setting}; self.settings[:#{setting}]; end } end def initialize_settings self.settings ||= { :show_on_sale => true, :show_upcoming => true } end after_initialize :initialize_settings # All the other stuff the model does end The idea was to use a single record field (settings) to persist a bunch of configuration data for this object, but allow all the settings to seamlessly work with form helpers and the like. (Why this approach makes sense here is a little out of scope, but let's assume that it does.) Net-net, Widget should end up with instance methods (eg #show_on_sale= #show_on_sale) for all the entires in the VALID_SETTINGS array. Any default values should be specified in initialize_settings. And indeed this works, mostly. In dev and staging, no problems at all. But in production, the app sometimes ends up in a state where a) any writes to the dynamically generated setters fail and b) none of the default values appear to be set - although my leading theory is that the dynamically generated reader methods are just broken. The code, db, and environment is otherwise identical between the three. A typical error message / backtrace on the fail looks like: IndexError: index 141145 out of string (eval):2:in []=' (eval):2:inshow_on_sale=' [GEM_ROOT]/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2746:in send' [GEM_ROOT]/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2746:inattributes=' [GEM_ROOT]/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2742:in each' [GEM_ROOT]/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2742:inattributes=' [GEM_ROOT]/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2634:in `update_attributes!' ...(then controller and all the way down) Ideas or theories as to what might be going on? My leading theory is that something is going wrong in instance initialization wherein the class instance variable settings is ending up as a string rather than a hash. This explains both the above setter failure (:show_on_sale is being used to index into the string) and the fact that getters don't work (an out of bounds [] call on a string just returns nil). But then how and why might settings occasionally end up as a string rather than hash?

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  • Floating point vs integer calculations on modern hardware

    - by maxpenguin
    I am doing some performance critical work in C++, and we are currently using integer calculations for problems that are inherently floating point because "its faster". This causes a whole lot of annoying problems and adds a lot of annoying code. Now, I remember reading about how floating point calculations were so slow approximately circa the 386 days, where I believe (IIRC) that there was an optional co-proccessor. But surely nowadays with exponentially more complex and powerful CPUs it makes no difference in "speed" if doing floating point or integer calculation? Especially since the actual calculation time is tiny compared to something like causing a pipeline stall or fetching something from main memory? I know the correct answer is to benchmark on the target hardware, what would be a good way to test this? I wrote two tiny C++ programs and compared their run time with "time" on Linux, but the actual run time is too variable (doesn't help I am running on a virtual server). Short of spending my entire day running hundreds of benchmarks, making graphs etc. is there something I can do to get a reasonable test of the relative speed? Any ideas or thoughts? Am I completely wrong? The programs I used as follows, they are not identical by any means: #include <iostream> #include <cmath> #include <cstdlib> #include <time.h> int main( int argc, char** argv ) { int accum = 0; srand( time( NULL ) ); for( unsigned int i = 0; i < 100000000; ++i ) { accum += rand( ) % 365; } std::cout << accum << std::endl; return 0; } Program 2: #include <iostream> #include <cmath> #include <cstdlib> #include <time.h> int main( int argc, char** argv ) { float accum = 0; srand( time( NULL ) ); for( unsigned int i = 0; i < 100000000; ++i ) { accum += (float)( rand( ) % 365 ); } std::cout << accum << std::endl; return 0; } Thanks in advance!

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  • crash in calloc

    - by mmd
    I'm trying to debug a program I wrote. I ran it inside gdb and I managed to catch a SIGABRT from inside calloc(). I'm completely confused about how this can arise. Can it be a bug in gcc or even libc?? More details: My program uses OpenMP. I ran it through valgrind in single-threaded mode with no errors. I also use mmap() to load a 40GB file, but I doubt that is relevant. Inside gdb, I'm running with 30 threads. Several identical runs (same input&CL) finished correctly, until the problematic one that I caught. On the surface this suggests there might be a race condition of some type. However, the SIGABRT comes from calloc() which is out of my control. Here is some relevant gdb output: (gdb) info threads [...] * 11 Thread 0x7ffff0056700 (LWP 73449) 0x00007ffff6a948a5 in raise () from /lib64/libc.so.6 [...] (gdb) thread 11 [Switching to thread 11 (Thread 0x7ffff0056700 (LWP 73449))]#0 0x00007ffff6a948a5 in raise () from /lib64/libc.so.6 (gdb) bt #0 0x00007ffff6a948a5 in raise () from /lib64/libc.so.6 #1 0x00007ffff6a96085 in abort () from /lib64/libc.so.6 #2 0x00007ffff6ad1fe7 in __libc_message () from /lib64/libc.so.6 #3 0x00007ffff6ad7916 in malloc_printerr () from /lib64/libc.so.6 #4 0x00007ffff6adb79f in _int_malloc () from /lib64/libc.so.6 #5 0x00007ffff6adbdd6 in calloc () from /lib64/libc.so.6 #6 0x000000000040e87f in my_calloc (re=0x7fff2867ef10, st=0, options=0x632020) at gmapper/../gmapper/../common/my-alloc.h:286 #7 read_get_hit_list_per_strand (re=0x7fff2867ef10, st=0, options=0x632020) at gmapper/mapping.c:1046 #8 0x000000000041308a in read_get_hit_list (re=<value optimized out>, options=0x632010, n_options=1) at gmapper/mapping.c:1239 #9 handle_read (re=<value optimized out>, options=0x632010, n_options=1) at gmapper/mapping.c:1806 #10 0x0000000000404f35 in launch_scan_threads (.omp_data_i=<value optimized out>) at gmapper/gmapper.c:557 #11 0x00007ffff7230502 in ?? () from /usr/lib64/libgomp.so.1 #12 0x00007ffff6dfc851 in start_thread () from /lib64/libpthread.so.0 #13 0x00007ffff6b4a11d in clone () from /lib64/libc.so.6 (gdb) f 6 #6 0x000000000040e87f in my_calloc (re=0x7fff2867ef10, st=0, options=0x632020) at gmapper/../gmapper/../common/my-alloc.h:286 286 res = calloc(size, 1); (gdb) p size $2 = 814080 (gdb) The function my_calloc() is just a wrapper, but the problem is not in there, as the real calloc() call looks legit. These are the limits set in the shell: $ ulimit -a core file size (blocks, -c) 0 data seg size (kbytes, -d) unlimited scheduling priority (-e) 0 file size (blocks, -f) unlimited pending signals (-i) 2067285 max locked memory (kbytes, -l) 64 max memory size (kbytes, -m) unlimited open files (-n) 1024 pipe size (512 bytes, -p) 8 POSIX message queues (bytes, -q) 819200 real-time priority (-r) 0 stack size (kbytes, -s) 10240 cpu time (seconds, -t) unlimited max user processes (-u) 1024 virtual memory (kbytes, -v) unlimited file locks (-x) unlimited The program is not out of memory, it's using 41GB on a machine with 256GB available: $ top -b -n 1 | grep gmapper 73437 user 20 0 41.5g 16g 15g T 0.0 6.6 55:17.24 gmapper-ls $ free -m total used free shared buffers cached Mem: 258437 195567 62869 0 82 189677 -/+ buffers/cache: 5807 252629 Swap: 0 0 0 I compiled using gcc (GCC) 4.4.6 20120305 (Red Hat 4.4.6-4), with flags -g -O2 -DNDEBUG -mmmx -msse -msse2 -fopenmp -Wall -Wno-deprecated -D__STDC_FORMAT_MACROS -D__STDC_LIMIT_MACROS.

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  • Are "EXC_BREAKPOINT (SIGTRAP)" exceptions caused by debugging breakpoints?

    - by Dennis
    I have a multithreaded app that is very stable on all my test machines and seems to be stable for almost every one of my users (based on no complaints of crashes). The app crashes frequently for one user, though, who was kind enough to send crash reports. All the crash reports (~10 consecutive reports) look essentially identical: Date/Time: 2010-04-06 11:44:56.106 -0700 OS Version: Mac OS X 10.6.3 (10D573) Report Version: 6 Exception Type: EXC_BREAKPOINT (SIGTRAP) Exception Codes: 0x0000000000000002, 0x0000000000000000 Crashed Thread: 0 Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread Thread 0 Crashed: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x90ab98d4 __CFBasicHashRehash + 3348 1 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x90adf610 CFBasicHashRemoveValue + 1264 2 com.apple.CoreText 0x94e0069c TCFMutableSet::Intersect(__CFSet const*) const + 126 3 com.apple.CoreText 0x94dfe465 TDescriptorSource::CopyMandatoryMatchableRequest(__CFDictionary const*, __CFSet const*) + 115 4 com.apple.CoreText 0x94dfdda6 TDescriptorSource::CopyDescriptorsForRequest(__CFDictionary const*, __CFSet const*, long (*)(void const*, void const*, void*), void*, unsigned long) const + 40 5 com.apple.CoreText 0x94e00377 TDescriptor::CreateMatchingDescriptors(__CFSet const*, unsigned long) const + 135 6 com.apple.AppKit 0x961f5952 __NSFontFactoryWithName + 904 7 com.apple.AppKit 0x961f54f0 +[NSFont fontWithName:size:] + 39 (....more text follows) First, I spent a long time investigating [NSFont fontWithName:size:]. I figured that maybe the user's fonts were screwed up somehow, so that [NSFont fontWithName:size:] was requesting something non-existent and failing for that reason. I added a bunch of code using [[NSFontManager sharedFontManager] availableFontNamesWithTraits:NSItalicFontMask] to check for font availability in advance. Sadly, these changes didn't fix the problem. I've now noticed that I forgot to remove some debugging breakpoints, including _NSLockError, [NSException raise], and objc_exception_throw. However, the app was definitely built using "Release" as the active build configuration. I assume that using the "Release" configuration prevents setting of any breakpoints--but then again I am not sure exactly how breakpoints work or whether the program needs to be run from within gdb for breakpoints to have any effect. My questions are: could my having left the breakpoints set be the cause of the crashes observed by the user? If so, why would the breakpoints cause a problem only for this one user? If not, has anybody else had similar problems with [NSFont fontWithName:size:]? I will probably just try removing the breakpoints and sending back to the user, but I'm not sure how much currency I have left with that user. And I'd like to understand more generally whether leaving the breakpoints set could possibly cause a problem (when the app is built using "Release" configuration).

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  • Verify Authenticode signature as being from our company for automatic updater

    - by James Johnston
    I am implementing an automatic update feature and need some advice on how to do this securely using best practices. I would like to use the downloaded file's Authenticode signature to verify that it is safe to run (i.e. originates from our company and hasn't been tampered with). My question is very similar to question #2008519. The bottom-line question: what's the best, most secure way to check Authenticode signatures for an automatic update feature? What fields in the certificate should be checked? Requirements being: (1) check signature is valid, (2) check it's my signature, (3) old clients can still update when my certificate expires and I get a new one. Here's some background information / ideas from my research: I believe this could be broken into two steps: Verify that the signature is valid. I believe this should be easy using WinVerifyTrust as outlined in http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa382384(VS.85).aspx - I don't expect problems here. Verify that the signature corresponds to our company, and not another company. This seems to be a more difficult question to answer: One possibility is to check some of the strings in the signature. Could be obtained via code at MS KB article #323809, but this article doesn't make recommendations on what fields should be checked for this type of application (or any other, for that matter). Question #1072540 also illustrates how to get some certificate info, but again doesn't recommend what fields to actually check. My concern is that the strings might not be the best check: what if another person is able to obtain a certificate with the same name, for example? Or if there's a valid reason for us to change the strings in the future? The person at question #2008519 has a very similar requirement. His need for a "TrustedByUs" function is identical to mine. However, he goes about doing the check by comparing public keys. While this would work in the short-term, it seems like it won't work for an automatic update feature. This is because code signing certificates are only valid for 2 - 3 years max. Therefore, in the future, when we buy a new certificate in 2 years, the old clients wouldn't be able to update any more due to the change in public key.

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  • javascript select box hanging on second select in ie7

    - by bsandrabr
    I have a drop down select box inside a div. When the user clicks on change, a dropdown box appears next to the change/submit button and the user makes a selection which then updates the db and the selection appears instead of the dropdown. All works fine in IE8 and firefox but in IE7 it allows one selection (there are several identical dropdowns) but the second time a selection is made it hangs on please wait. This is the relevant code <td width=200> <input type="button" onclick="startChanging(this)" value="Change" /></td> <script type="text/javascript"> var selectBox, isEditing = false; var recordvalue; if( window.XMLHttpRequest ) { recordvalue = new XMLHttpRequest(); } else if( window.ActiveXObject ) { try { recordvalue = new ActiveXObject('Microsoft.XMLHTTP'); } catch(e) {} } window.onload = function () { selectBox = document.getElementById('changer'); selectBox.id = ''; selectBox.parentNode.removeChild(selectBox); }; function startChanging(whatButton) { if( isEditing && isEditing != whatButton ) { return; } //no editing of other entries if( isEditing == whatButton ) { changeSelect(whatButton); return; } //this time, act as "submit" isEditing = whatButton; whatButton.value = 'Submit'; var theRow = whatButton.parentNode.parentNode; var stateCell = theRow.cells[3]; //the cell that says "present" stateCell.className = 'editing'; //so you can use CSS to remove the background colour stateCell.replaceChild(selectBox,stateCell.firstChild); //PRESENT is replaced with the select input selectBox.selectedIndex = 0; } function changeSelect(whatButton) { isEditing = true; //don't allow it to be clicked until submission is complete whatButton.value = 'Change'; var stateCell = selectBox.parentNode; var theRow = stateCell.parentNode; var editid = theRow.cells[0].firstChild.firstChild.nodeValue; //text inside the first cell var value = selectBox.firstChild.options[selectBox.firstChild.selectedIndex].value; //the option they chose selectBox.parentNode.replaceChild(document.createTextNode('Please wait...'),selectBox); if( !recordvalue ) { //allow fallback to basic HTTP location.href = 'getupdate.php?id='+editid+'&newvalue='+value; } else { recordvalue.onreadystatechange = function () { if( recordvalue.readyState != 4 ) { return; } if( recordvalue.status >= 300 ) { alert('An error occurred when trying to update'); } isEditing = false; newState = recordvalue.responseText.split("|"); stateCell.className = newState[0]; stateCell.firstChild.nodeValue = newState[1] || 'Server response was not correct'; }; recordvalue.open('GET', "getupdate.php?id="+editid+"&newvalue="+value, true); recordvalue.send(null); } } </script> If anyone has any idea why this is happening I'd be very grateful

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  • sqlite3_prepare_v2 throws SQLITE_ERROR in iPhone code

    - by incognitii
    I have a piece of code that used to work, and other iterations of it that DO work within the same app, and have compared code, and they are identical in structure. This is driving me INSANE!!!!!! In this instance, sqlite3_prepare_v2 is throwing one of those useless SQLITE_ERROR exceptions. Apparently, it can FIND the database, and OPEN the database, but it can't prepare a statement for it. Does ANYONE have any ideas? I'm desperate here. second_maindatabaseName = @"database.db"; NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDir = [documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; second_maindatabasePath = [documentsDir stringByAppendingPathComponent:second_maindatabaseName]; // Setup the database object sqlite3 *database; // Init the entry requirements Array BOOL success; NSFileManager *fileManager = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; success = [fileManager fileExistsAtPath:second_maindatabasePath]; if(!success) { NSString *databasePathFromApp = [[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByAppendingPathComponent:second_maindatabaseName]; [fileManager copyItemAtPath:databasePathFromApp toPath:second_maindatabasePath error:nil]; [fileManager release]; } if(sqlite3_open([second_maindatabasePath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { NSUserDefaults *defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; value1 = [defaults stringForKey:kConst1]; value2 = [defaults stringForKey:kConst2]; value3 = [defaults stringForKey:kConst3]; value4 = [defaults stringForKey:kConst4]; const char *sqlStatement = "SELECT * FROM myTable WHERE Field1 = ? AND Field2 = ? AND Field3 = ? AND Field4 = ?"; sqlite3_stmt *compiledStatement; int error_code = sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sqlStatement, -1, &compiledStatement, NULL); if(error_code == SQLITE_OK) { // Loop through the results and add them to the feeds array sqlite3_bind_text(compiledStatement,1,[value1 UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(compiledStatement,2,[value2 UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(compiledStatement,3,[value3 UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); sqlite3_bind_text(compiledStatement,4,[value4 UTF8String],-1,SQLITE_TRANSIENT); while(sqlite3_step(compiledStatement) == SQLITE_ROW) { // Read the data from the result row NSString *aNewValue = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 1)]; } } sqlite3_finalize(compiledStatement); } sqlite3_close(database);

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  • Can simple javascript inheritance be simplified even further?

    - by Will
    John Resig (of jQuery fame) provides a concise and elegant way to allow simple JavaScript inheritance. It was so short and sweet, in fact, that it inspired me to try and simplify it even further (see code below). I've modified his original function such that it still passes all his tests and has the potential advantage of: readability (50% less code) simplicity (you don't have to be a ninja to understand it) performance (no extra wrappers around super/base method calls) consistency with C#'s base keyword Because this seems almost too good to be true, I want to make sure my logic doesn't have any fundamental flaws/holes/bugs, or if anyone has additional suggestions to improve or refute the code (perhaps even John Resig could chime in here!). Does anyone see anything wrong with my approach (below) vs. John Resig's original approach? if (!window.Class) { window.Class = function() {}; window.Class.extend = function(members) { var prototype = new this(); for (var i in members) prototype[i] = members[i]; prototype.base = this.prototype; function object() { if (object.caller == null && this.initialize) this.initialize.apply(this, arguments); } object.constructor = object; object.prototype = prototype; object.extend = arguments.callee; return object; }; } And the tests (below) are nearly identical to the original ones except for the syntax around base/super method calls (for the reason enumerated above): var Person = Class.extend( { initialize: function(isDancing) { this.dancing = isDancing; }, dance: function() { return this.dancing; } }); var Ninja = Person.extend( { initialize: function() { this.base.initialize(false); }, dance: function() { return this.base.dance(); }, swingSword: function() { return true; } }); var p = new Person(true); alert("true? " + p.dance()); // => true var n = new Ninja(); alert("false? " + n.dance()); // => false alert("true? " + n.swingSword()); // => true alert("true? " + (p instanceof Person && p instanceof Class && n instanceof Ninja && n instanceof Person && n instanceof Class));

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  • Referencing both an old version and new version of the same DLL (VB.Net)

    - by ckittel
    Consider the following situation: WidgetCompany produced a .NET DLL in 2006 called Widget.dll, version 1.0. I consumed this Widget.dll file throughout my VB.Net application. Over time, WidgetCompany has been updating Widget.dll, I never bothered to keep up, continuing to ship version 1.0 of Widget.dll with my software. It's now 2010, my project is now a VB.Net 3.5 application and WidgetCompany has come out with Widget.dll version 3.0. It looks and functions almost identical to Widget.dll version 1.0, using all the same namespaces and type names from before. However, Widget.dll version 3.0 has many run-time breaking changes since 1.0 and I cannot simply cut over to the new version; however, I don't want to continue developing against the 1.0 version and therefore keep digging myself deeper in the hole. What I want to do is do all new development in my project with Widget.dll version 3.0, whilst keeping Widget.dll version 1.0 around until I find time to convert all of my 1.0 consumption to the newer 3.0 code. Now, for starters, I obviously cannot simply reference both Widget.dll (Ver 1.0) and Widget.dll (Ver 3.0) in Visual Studio. Doing so gives me the following message: "A reference to 'Widget.dll' could not be added. A reference to the component 'Widget' already exists in the project." To work around that, I can simply rename version 3.0 Widget.dll to Widget.3.dll. But this is where I'm stuck. Any attempts to reference types found in "the dll" leads to ambiguity and the compiler obviously doesn't have any clue as to what I really want in this or that case. Is there something I can do that gives a DLL a new "root" Namespace or something? For example, if I could say "Widget.dll has a new root namespace of Legacy" then I could update existing code to reference the types found in Legacy.<RootNamespace> namespace while all new code could simply reference types from the <RootNamespace> namespace. Pipe dream or reality? Are there other solutions to situations this (besides "don't get in this situation in the first place")?

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  • Issues in Ada Concurrency

    - by Arkapravo
    Hi I need some help and also some insight. This is a program in Ada-2005 which has 3 tasks. The output is 'z'. If the 3 tasks do not happen in the order of their placement in the program then output can vary from z = 2, z = 1 to z = 0 ( That is easy to see in the program, mutual exclusion is attempted to make sure output is z = 2). WITH Ada.Text_IO; USE Ada.Text_IO; WITH Ada.Integer_Text_IO; USE Ada.Integer_Text_IO; WITH System; USE System; procedure xyz is x : Integer := 0; y : Integer := 0; z : Integer := 0; task task1 is pragma Priority(System.Default_Priority + 3); end task1; task task2 is pragma Priority(System.Default_Priority + 2); end task2; task task3 is pragma Priority(System.Default_Priority + 1); end task3; task body task1 is begin x := x + 1; end task1; task body task2 is begin y := x + y; end task2; task body task3 is begin z := x + y + z; end task3; begin Put(" z = "); Put(z); end xyz; I first tried this program (a) without pragmas, the result : In 100 tries, occurence of 2: 86, occurence of 1: 10, occurence of 0: 4. Then (b) with pragmas, the result : In 100 tries, occurence of 2: 84, occurence of 1 : 14, occurence of 0: 2. Which is unexpected as the 2 results are nearly identical. Which means pragmas or no pragmas the output has same behavior. Those who are Ada concurrency Gurus please shed some light on this topic. Alternative solutions with semaphores (if possible) is also invited. Further in my opinion for a critical process (that is what we do with Ada), with pragmas the result should be z = 2, 100% at all times, hence or otherwise this program should be termed as 85% critical !!!! (That should not be so with Ada)

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  • NHibernate (3.1.0.4000) NullReferenceException using Query<> and NHibernate Facility

    - by TigerShark
    I have a problem with NHibernate, I can't seem to find any solution for. In my project I have a simple entity (Batch), but whenever I try and run the following test, I get an exception. I've triede a couple of different ways to perform a similar query, but almost identical exception for all (it differs in which LINQ method being executed). The first test: [Test] public void QueryLatestBatch() { using (var session = SessionManager.OpenSession()) { var batch = session.Query<Batch>() .FirstOrDefault(); Assert.That(batch, Is.Not.Null); } } The exception: System.NullReferenceException : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at NHibernate.Linq.NhQueryProvider.PrepareQuery(Expression expression, ref IQuery query, ref NhLinqExpression nhQuery) at NHibernate.Linq.NhQueryProvider.Execute(Expression expression) at System.Linq.Queryable.FirstOrDefault(IQueryable`1 source) The second test: [Test] public void QueryLatestBatch2() { using (var session = SessionManager.OpenSession()) { var batch = session.Query<Batch>() .OrderBy(x => x.Executed) .Take(1) .SingleOrDefault(); Assert.That(batch, Is.Not.Null); } } The exception: System.NullReferenceException : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at NHibernate.Linq.NhQueryProvider.PrepareQuery(Expression expression, ref IQuery query, ref NhLinqExpression nhQuery) at NHibernate.Linq.NhQueryProvider.Execute(Expression expression) at System.Linq.Queryable.SingleOrDefault(IQueryable`1 source) However, this one is passing (using QueryOver<): [Test] public void QueryOverLatestBatch() { using (var session = SessionManager.OpenSession()) { var batch = session.QueryOver<Batch>() .OrderBy(x => x.Executed).Asc .Take(1) .SingleOrDefault(); Assert.That(batch, Is.Not.Null); Assert.That(batch.Executed, Is.LessThan(DateTime.Now)); } } Using the QueryOver< API is not bad at all, but I'm just kind of baffled that the Query< API isn't working, which is kind of sad, since the First() operation is very concise, and our developers really enjoy LINQ. I really hope there is a solution to this, as it seems strange if these methods are failing such a simple test. EDIT I'm using Oracle 11g, my mappings are done with FluentNHibernate registered through Castle Windsor with the NHibernate Facility. As I wrote, the odd thing is that the query works perfectly with the QueryOver< API, but not through LINQ.

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  • How do I de-duplicate a list of nodes in XSLT - and return the last node encountered?

    - by Broam
    I've seen lots of "de-duplicate this xml" questions but everyone wants the first node or the nodes are identical. I have a bit of a bigger puzzle. I have a list of articles in XML, a relevant snippet is shown: <item><key>Article1</key><stamp>100</stamp></item> <item><key>Article1</key><stamp>130</stamp></item> <item><key>Article2</key><stamp>800</stamp></item> <item><key>Article1</key><stamp>180</stamp></item> <item><key>Article3</key><stamp>900</stamp></item> <item><key>Article3</key><stamp>950</stamp></item> <item><key>Article4</key><stamp>990</stamp></item> <item><key>Article5</key><stamp>999</stamp></item> I'd like a list of nodes where the keys are unique and where the last instance is returned, not the first: Stamp (integer) is always increasing for elements of a particular key. Ideally I'd like "largest stamp" but they're always in order so the shortcut is ok. Desired result: (Order doesn't really matter.) <item><key>Article2</key><stamp>800</stamp></item> <item><key>Article1</key><stamp>180</stamp></item> <item><key>Article3</key><stamp>950</stamp></item> <item><key>Article4</key><stamp>990</stamp></item> <item><key>Article5</key><stamp>999</stamp></item> I'm somewhat confused on how to get this list. Any ideas? I'm using the Saxon processor if it matters.

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  • Why does SFINAE not apply to this?

    - by Simon Buchan
    I'm writing some simple point code while trying out Visual Studio 10 (Beta 2), and I've hit this code where I would expect SFINAE to kick in, but it seems not to: template<typename T> struct point { T x, y; point(T x, T y) : x(x), y(y) {} }; template<typename T, typename U> struct op_div { typedef decltype(T() / U()) type; }; template<typename T, typename U> point<typename op_div<T, U>::type> operator/(point<T> const& l, point<U> const& r) { return point<typename op_div<T, U>::type>(l.x / r.x, l.y / r.y); } template<typename T, typename U> point<typename op_div<T, U>::type> operator/(point<T> const& l, U const& r) { return point<typename op_div<T, U>::type>(l.x / r, l.y / r); } int main() { point<int>(0, 1) / point<float>(2, 3); } This gives error C2512: 'point<T>::point' : no appropriate default constructor available Given that it is a beta, I did a quick sanity check with the online comeau compiler, and it agrees with an identical error, so it seems this behavior is correct, but I can't see why. In this case some workarounds are to simply inline the decltype(T() / U()), to give the point class a default constructor, or to use decltype on the full result expression, but I got this error while trying to simplify an error I was getting with a version of op_div that did not require a default constructor*, so I would rather fix my understanding of C++ rather than to just do what works. Thanks! *: the original: template<typename T, typename U> struct op_div { static T t(); static U u(); typedef decltype(t() / u()) type; }; Which gives error C2784: 'point<op_div<T,U>::type> operator /(const point<T> &,const U &)' : could not deduce template argument for 'const point<T> &' from 'int', and also for the point<T> / point<U> overload.

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