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• Recursive N-way merge/diff algorithm for directory trees?

  - by BobMcGee

  What algorithms or Java libraries are available to do N-way, recursive diff/merge of directories? I need to be able to generate a list of folder trees that have many identical files, and have subdirectories with many similar files. I want to be able to use 2-way merge operations to quickly remove as much redundancy as possible. Goals: Find pairs of directories that have many similar files between them. Generate short list of directory pairs that can be synchronized with 2-way merge to eliminate duplicates Should operate recursively (there may be nested duplicates of higher-level directories) Run time and storage should be O(n log n) in numbers of directories and files Should be able to use an embedded DB or page to disk for processing more files than fit in memory (100,000+). Optional: generate an ancestry and change-set between folders Optional: sort the merge operations by how many duplicates they can elliminate I know how to use hashes to find duplicate files in roughly O(n) space, but I'm at a loss for how to go from this to finding partially overlapping sets between folders and their children. EDIT: some clarification The tricky part is the difference between "exact same" contents (otherwise hashing file hashes would work) and "similar" (which will not). Basically, I want to feed this algorithm at a set of directories and have it return a set of 2-way merge operations I can perform in order to reduce duplicates as much as possible with as few conflicts possible. It's effectively constructing an ancestry tree showing which folders are derived from each other. The end goal is to let me incorporate a bunch of different folders into one common tree. For example, I may have a folder holding programming projects, and then copy some of its contents to another computer to work on it. Then I might back up and intermediate version to flash drive. Except I may have 8 or 10 different versions, with slightly different organizational structures or folder names. I need to be able to merge them one step at a time, so I can chose how to incorporate changes at each step of the way. This is actually more or less what I intend to do with my utility (bring together a bunch of scattered backups from different points in time). I figure if I can do it right I may as well release it as a small open source util. I think the same tricks might be useful for comparing XML trees though.

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• Understanding CLR 2.0 Memory Model

  - by Eloff

  Joe Duffy, gives 6 rules that describe the CLR 2.0+ memory model (it's actual implementation, not any ECMA standard) I'm writing down my attempt at figuring this out, mostly as a way of rubber ducking, but if I make a mistake in my logic, at least someone here will be able to catch it before it causes me grief. Rule 1: Data dependence among loads and stores is never violated. Rule 2: All stores have release semantics, i.e. no load or store may move after one. Rule 3: All volatile loads are acquire, i.e. no load or store may move before one. Rule 4: No loads and stores may ever cross a full-barrier (e.g. Thread.MemoryBarrier, lock acquire, Interlocked.Exchange, Interlocked.CompareExchange, etc.). Rule 5: Loads and stores to the heap may never be introduced. Rule 6: Loads and stores may only be deleted when coalescing adjacent loads and stores from/to the same location. I'm attempting to understand these rules. x = y y = 0 // Cannot move before the previous line according to Rule 1. x = y z = 0 // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load 0 store z Looking at this, it appears that the load 0 can be moved up to before load y, but the stores may not be re-ordered at all. Therefore, if a thread sees z == 0, then it also will see x == y. If y was volatile, then load 0 could not move before load y, otherwise it may. Volatile stores don't seem to have any special properties, no stores can be re-ordered with respect to each other (which is a very strong guarantee!) Full barriers are like a line in the sand which loads and stores can not be moved over. No idea what rule 5 means. I guess rule 6 means if you do: x = y x = z Then it is possible for the CLR to delete both the load to y and the first store to x. x = y z = y // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load y store z // could be re-ordered like this load y load y store x store z // rule 6 applied means this is possible? load y store x // but don't pop y from stack (or first duplicate item on top of stack) store z What if y was volatile? I don't see anything in the rules that prohibits the above optimization from being carried out. This does not violate double-checked locking, because the lock() between the two identical conditions prevents the loads from being moved into adjacent positions, and according to rule 6, that's the only time they can be eliminated. So I think I understand all but rule 5, here. Anyone want to enlighten me (or correct me or add something to any of the above?)

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• Under what circumstances is an SqlConnection automatically enlisted in an ambient TransactionScope T

  - by Triynko

  What does it mean for an SqlConnection to be "enlisted" in a transaction? Does it simply mean that commands I execute on the connection will participate in the transaction? If so, under what circumstances is an SqlConnection automatically enlisted in an ambient TransactionScope Transaction? See questions in code comments. My guess to each question's answer follows each question in parenthesis. Scenario 1: Opening connections INSIDE a transaction scope using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) using (SqlConnection conn = ConnectToDB()) { // Q1: Is connection automatically enlisted in transaction? (Yes?) // // Q2: If I open (and run commands on) a second connection now, // with an identical connection string, // what, if any, is the relationship of this second connection to the first? // // Q3: Will this second connection's automatic enlistment // in the current transaction scope cause the transaction to be // escalated to a distributed transaction? (Yes?) } Scenario 2: Using connections INSIDE a transaction scope that were opened OUTSIDE of it //Assume no ambient transaction active now SqlConnection new_or_existing_connection = ConnectToDB(); //or passed in as method parameter using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { // Connection was opened before transaction scope was created // Q4: If I start executing commands on the connection now, // will it automatically become enlisted in the current transaction scope? (No?) // // Q5: If not enlisted, will commands I execute on the connection now // participate in the ambient transaction? (No?) // // Q6: If commands on this connection are // not participating in the current transaction, will they be committed // even if rollback the current transaction scope? (Yes?) // // If my thoughts are correct, all of the above is disturbing, // because it would look like I'm executing commands // in a transaction scope, when in fact I'm not at all, // until I do the following... // // Now enlisting existing connection in current transaction conn.EnlistTransaction( Transaction.Current ); // // Q7: Does the above method explicitly enlist the pre-existing connection // in the current ambient transaction, so that commands I // execute on the connection now participate in the // ambient transaction? (Yes?) // // Q8: If the existing connection was already enlisted in a transaction // when I called the above method, what would happen? Might an error be thrown? (Probably?) // // Q9: If the existing connection was already enlisted in a transaction // and I did NOT call the above method to enlist it, would any commands // I execute on it participate in it's existing transaction rather than // the current transaction scope. (Yes?) }

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• Segmenting a double array of labels

  - by Ami

  The Problem: I have a large double array populated with various labels. Each element (cell) in the double array contains a set of labels and some elements in the double array may be empty. I need an algorithm to cluster elements in the double array into discrete segments. A segment is defined as a set of pixels that are adjacent within the double array and one label that all those pixels in the segment have in common. (Diagonal adjacency doesn't count and I'm not clustering empty cells). |-------|-------|------| | Jane | Joe | | | Jack | Jane | | |-------|-------|------| | Jane | Jane | | | | Joe | | |-------|-------|------| | | Jack | Jane | | | Joe | | |-------|-------|------| In the above arrangement of labels distributed over nine elements, the largest cluster is the “Jane” cluster occupying the four upper left cells. What I've Considered: I've considered iterating through every label of every cell in the double array and testing to see if the cell-label combination under inspection can be associated with a preexisting segment. If the element under inspection cannot be associated with a preexisting segment it becomes the first member of a new segment. If the label/cell combination can be associated with a preexisting segment it associates. Of course, to make this method reasonable I'd have to implement an elaborate hashing system. I'd have to keep track of all the cell-label combinations that stand adjacent to preexisting segments and are in the path of the incrementing indices that are iterating through the double array. This hash method would avoid having to iterate through every pixel in every preexisting segment to find an adjacency. Why I Don't Like it: As is, the above algorithm doesn't take into consideration the case where an element in the double array can be associated with two unique segments, one in the horizontal direction and one in the vertical direction. To handle these cases properly, I would need to implement a test for this specific case and then implement a method that will both associate the element under inspection with a segment and then concatenate the two adjacent identical segments. On the whole, this method and the intricate hashing system that it would require feels very inelegant. Additionally, I really only care about finding the large segments in the double array and I'm much more concerned with the speed of this algorithm than with the accuracy of the segmentation, so I'm looking for a better way. I assume there is some stochastic method for doing this that I haven't thought of. Any suggestions?

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• How safe is my safe rethrow?

  - by gustafc

  (Late edit: This question will hopefully be obsolete when Java 7 comes, because of the "final rethrow" feature which seems like it will be added.) Quite often, I find myself in situations looking like this: do some initialization try { do some work } catch any exception { undo initialization rethrow exception } In C# you can do it like this: InitializeStuff(); try { DoSomeWork(); } catch { UndoInitialize(); throw; } For Java, there's no good substitution, and since the proposal for improved exception handling was cut from Java 7, it looks like it'll take at best several years until we get something like it. Thus, I decided to roll my own: (Edit: Half a year later, final rethrow is back, or so it seems.) public final class Rethrow { private Rethrow() { throw new AssertionError("uninstantiable"); } /** Rethrows t if it is an unchecked exception. */ public static void unchecked(Throwable t) { if (t instanceof Error) throw (Error) t; if (t instanceof RuntimeException) throw (RuntimeException) t; } /** Rethrows t if it is an unchecked exception or an instance of E. */ public static <E extends Exception> void instanceOrUnchecked( Class<E> exceptionClass, Throwable t) throws E, Error, RuntimeException { Rethrow.unchecked(t); if (exceptionClass.isInstance(t)) throw exceptionClass.cast(t); } } Typical usage: public void doStuff() throws SomeException { initializeStuff(); try { doSomeWork(); } catch (Throwable t) { undoInitialize(); Rethrow.instanceOrUnchecked(SomeException.class, t); // We shouldn't get past the above line as only unchecked or // SomeException exceptions are thrown in the try block, but // we don't want to risk swallowing an error, so: throw new SomeException("Unexpected exception", t); } private void doSomeWork() throws SomeException { ... } } It's a bit wordy, catching Throwable is usually frowned upon, I'm not really happy at using reflection just to rethrow an exception, and I always feel a bit uneasy writing "this will not happen" comments, but in practice it works well (or seems to, at least). What I wonder is: Do I have any flaws in my rethrow helper methods? Some corner cases I've missed? (I know that the Throwable may have been caused by something so severe that my undoInitialize will fail, but that's OK.) Has someone already invented this? I looked at Commons Lang's ExceptionUtils but that does other things. Edit: finally is not the droid I'm looking for. I'm only interested to do stuff when an exception is thrown. Yes, I know catching Throwable is a big no-no, but I think it's the lesser evil here compared to having three catch clauses (for Error, RuntimeException and SomeException, respectively) with identical code. Note that I'm not trying to suppress any errors - the idea is that any exceptions thrown in the try block will continue to bubble up through the call stack as soon as I've rewinded a few things.

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• Google OAuthGetRequestToken returns "signature_invalid"

  - by M Schenkel

  Trying for hours to get a request token using Google OAuthGetRequestToken but it always returns "signature_invalid". For a test I use the oAuth Playground to successfully request the token. Here are the results: Signature base string GET&https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Faccounts%2FOAuthGetRequestToken&oauth_callback%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fgooglecodesamples.com%252Foauth_playground%252Findex.php%26oauth_consumer_key%3Dwww.embeddedanalytics.com%26oauth_nonce%3D56aa884162ed21815a0406725c79cf79%26oauth_signature_method%3DRSA-SHA1%26oauth_timestamp%3D1321417095%26oauth_version%3D1.0%26scope%3Dhttps%253A%252F%252Fwww.google.com%252Fanalytics%252Ffeeds%252F Request/Response GET /accounts/OAuthGetRequestToken?scope=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Fanalytics%2Ffeeds%2F HTTP/1.1 Host: www.google.com Accept: */* Authorization: OAuth oauth_version="1.0", oauth_nonce="56aa884162ed21815a0406725c79cf79", oauth_timestamp="1321417095", oauth_consumer_key="www.embeddedanalytics.com", oauth_callback="http%3A%2F%2Fgooglecodesamples.com%2Foauth_playground%2Findex.php", oauth_signature_method="RSA-SHA1", oauth_signature="qRtorIaSFaQdOXW1u6eMQlY9LT2j7ThG5kgkcD6rDcW4MIvzluslFgYRNTuRvnaruraNpItjojtgsrK9deYRKoHBGOlU27SsWy6jECxKczcSECl3cVAcjk7dvbywFMDkgi1ZhTZ5Q%2BFoD60HoVQUYnGUbOO0jPXI48LfkiA5ZN4%3D" HTTP/1.1 200 OK Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8 Date: Wed, 16 Nov 2011 04:18:15 GMT Expires: Wed, 16 Nov 2011 04:18:15 GMT Cache-Control: private, max-age=0 X-Content-Type-Options: nosniff X-XSS-Protection: 1; mode=block Content-Length: 118 Server: GSE oauth_token=4%2FmO86qZzixayI2NoUc-hewC--D53R&oauth_token_secret=r0PReF9D83w1d6uP0nyQQm9c&oauth_callback_confirmed=true I am using Fiddler to trace my calls. It returns the Signature base string: GET&https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Faccounts%2FOAuthGetRequestToken&oauth_callback%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fgooglecodesamples.com%252Foauth_playground%252Findex.php%26oauth_consumer_key%3Dwww.embeddedanalytics.com%26oauth_nonce%3Dl9Jydzjyzt2fJfM3ltY5yrxxYy2uh1U7%26oauth_signature_method%3DRSA-SHA1%26oauth_timestamp%3D1321417107%26oauth_version%3D1.0%26scope%3Dhttps%253A%252F%252Fwww.google.com%252Fanalytics%252Ffeeds%252F Aside from the oauth_timestamp and oauth_nonce (which should be different), the base string are pretty much identical. Anyone know what I am doing wrong? Update 11/20/2011 Thinking it might be something wrong with my RSA-SHA signing, I have since tried HMAC-SHA. It gives the same results. I thought it might be beneficial to include the Fiddler results (I added carriage returns to have it format better). GET https://www.google.com/accounts/OAuthGetRequestToken? scope=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Fanalytics%2Ffeeds%2F HTTP/1.1 Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded Authorization: OAuth oauth_version="1.0", oauth_nonce="7C4C900EAACC9C7B62E399A91B81D8DC", oauth_timestamp="1321845418", oauth_consumer_key="www.embeddedanalytics.com", oauth_signature_method="HMAC-SHA1", oauth_signature="ows%2BbFTNSR8jVZo53rGBB8%2BfwFM%3D" Host: www.google.com Accept: */* Accept-Encoding: identity Response HTTP/1.1 400 Bad Request Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8 Date: Mon, 21 Nov 2011 03:16:57 GMT Expires: Mon, 21 Nov 2011 03:16:57 GMT Cache-Control: private, max-age=0 X-Content-Type-Options: nosniff X-XSS-Protection: 1; mode=block Content-Length: 358 Server: GSE signature_invalid base_string:GET&https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Faccounts%2FOAuthGetRequestToken &oauth_consumer_key%3Dwww.embeddedanalytics.com %26oauth_nonce%3D7C4C900EAACC9C7B62E399A91B81D8DC %26oauth_signature_method%3DHMAC-SHA1 %26oauth_timestamp%3D1321845418 %26oauth_version%3D1.0 %26scope%3Dhttps%253A%252F%252Fwww.google.com%252Fanalytics%252Ffeeds%252F

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• Repeating fields in similar database tables

  - by user1738833

  I have been tasked with working on a database that I have never seen before and I'm looking at the DB structure. Some of the central and most heavily queried and joined tables look like virtual duplicates of each other. Here's a massively simplified representation of the situation, with business-sensitive information changed, listing hypothetical table names and fields: TopLevelGroup: PK_TLGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK SubGroup: PK_SubGroupId, FK_ParentTopLevelGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK SubSubGroup: PK_SubSUbGroupId, FK_ParentSubGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK I haven't listed the types of the fields as I don't think it's particularly important to the situation. In addition, it's worth saying that rather than four repeated fields as in the example above, I'm looking at 86 repeated fields. For the most part, those fields genuinely do represent "facts" about the primary table entity, so it's not automatically wrong for that reason. In addition, the "groups" represented here have a property inheritance relationship. If DisplaysXOnBill is NULL in the SubSubGroup, it takes the value of DisplaysXOnBillfrom it's parent, the SubGroup, and so-on up to the TopLevelGroup. Further, the requirements will never require that the model extends beyond three levels, so there is no need for flexibility in that area. Is there a design smell from several tables which describe very similar entities having almost identical fields? If so, what might be a better design of the example above? I'm using the phrase "design smell" to indicate a possible problem. Of course, in any given situation, a particular design might well be the best solution. I'm looking for a more general answer - wondering what might be wrong with this design and what might be the better design were that the case. Possibly related, but not primary questions: Is this database schema in a reasonably normal form (e.g. to 3NF), insofar as can be told from the information I've provided. I can't see a problem with the requirements of 2NF and 3NF, except in their inheriting the requirements of 1NF. Is 1NF satisfied though? Are repeating groups allowed in different tables? Is there a best-practice method for implementing the inheritance relationship in a database as I require? The method above feels clunky to me because any query on the SubSubGroup necessarily needs to join onto the SubGroup and the TopLevelGroup tables to collect inherited facts, which can make even trivial joins requiring facts from the SubSubGroup table rather long-winded. There are, of course, political considerations to making a relatively large change like this. For the purpose of this question, I'm happy to ignore that fact in the interests of keeping the answers ring-fenced to the technical problem.

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• Java - Is Set.contains() broken on OpenJDK 6?

  - by Peter

  Hey, I've come across a really strange problem. I have written a simple Deck class which represents a standard 52 card deck of playing cards. The class has a method missingCards() which returns the set of all cards which have been drawn from the deck. If I try and compare two identical sets of missing cards using .equals() I'm told they are different, and if I check to see if a set contains an element that I know is there using .contains() I am returned false. Here is my test code: public void testMissingCards() { Deck deck = new Deck(true); Set<Card> drawnCards = new HashSet<Card>(); drawnCards.add(deck.draw()); drawnCards.add(deck.draw()); drawnCards.add(deck.draw()); Set<Card> missingCards = deck.missingCards(); System.out.println(drawnCards); System.out.println(missingCards); Card c1 = null; for (Card c : drawnCards){ c1 = c; } System.out.println("C1 is "+c1); for (Card c : missingCards){ System.out.println("C is "+c); System.out.println("Does c1.equal(c) "+c1.equals(c)); System.out.println("Does c.equal(c1) "+c.equals(c1)); } System.out.println("Is c1 in missingCards "+missingCards.contains(c1)); assertEquals("Deck confirm missing cards",drawnCards,missingCards); } (Edit: Just for clarity I added the two loops after I noticed the test failing. The first loop pulls out a card from drawnCards and then this card is checked against every card in missingCards - it always matches one, so that card must be contained in missingCards. However, missingCards.contains() fails) And here is an example of it's output: [5C, 2C, 2H] [2C, 5C, 2H] C1 is 2H C is 2C Does c1.equal(c) false Does c.equal(c1) false C is 5C Does c1.equal(c) false Does c.equal(c1) false C is 2H Does c1.equal(c) true Does c.equal(c1) true Is c1 in missingCards false I am completely sure that the implementation of .equals on my card class is correct and, as you can see from the output it does work! What is going on here? Cheers, Pete

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• Criteria query returns hydrated object in SQLite but not SqlServer

  - by Berryl

  I have a method that returns a resource fully hydrated when the db is SQLite but when the identical code is used by SqlServer the object is not fully hydrated. I'll explain that with the code after some brief background. I my domain various otherwise unrelated things like an Employee or a Machine can be used as a Resource that can be allocated to. In the object model an example of this would be: /// <summary>Wraps a <see cref="StaffMember"/> in a <see cref="ResourceBase"/>. </summary> public class StaffMemberResource : ResourceBase { public virtual StaffMember StaffMember { get; private set; } public StaffMemberResource(StaffMember staffMember) { Check.RequireNotNull<StaffMember>(staffMember); base.BusinessId = staffMember.Number.ToString(); base.Name = staffMember.Name.ToString(); base.OrganizationName = staffMember.Department.Name; StaffMember = staffMember; } [UsedImplicitly] protected StaffMemberResource() { } } And in the db tables, there is a table per class inheritance where the ResourceBase has a discriminator and the id of the actual resource (ie, StaffMember) StaffMember - 1 ---- M- ResourceBase - 1 ----- M - Allocation The Code public override StaffMemberResource BuildResource(IActivityService activityService) { var sessionFactory = _GetSessionFactory(); var session = sessionFactory.GetCurrentSession(); StaffMemberResource result; using (var tx = session.BeginTransaction()) { var propertyName = ExprHelper.GetPropertyName<StaffMember>(x => x.Number); var staff = session.CreateCriteria<StaffMember>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq(propertyName, new EmployeeNumber(_testData.Resource_1.BusinessId))) .UniqueResult<StaffMember>(); if (staff == null) { ... build up a staff member result = new StaffMemberResource(staff); } else { ////////// var property = ExprHelper.GetPropertyName<StaffMemberResource>(x => x.StaffMember); result = session.CreateCriteria<StaffMemberResource>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq(property, staff)) .UniqueResult<StaffMemberResource>(); } /////////// tx.Commit(); } return result; } It's that second criteria query that works "properly" with SQLite but not with SqlServer. By properly I mean that the employee numer is translated into a ResourceBase.BusinessId, Name is flattened out into a ResourceBase.Name, etc. Does anyone know why this might be? Cheers, Berryl

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• Magento: add product twice to cart, with different attributes!

  - by Peter

  Hello all, i have been working with this for a whole day but i cannot find any solution: I have a product (lenses), which has identical attributes, but user can choose one attribute set for one eye and another attribute set for another. On the frontend i got it ok, see it here: http://connecta.si/clarus/index.php/featured/acuvue-oasys-for-astigmatism.html So the user can select attributes for left or right eye, but it is the same product. I build a function, wich should take a product in a cart (before save), add other set of attributes, so there should be two products in the cart. What happens is there are two products, but with the same set of attributes??? Here is the snippet of the function: $req = Mage::app()-getRequest(); $request[’qty’] = 1; $request[’product’] = 15; $request[’uenc’] = $req-get(’uenc’); $request[’options’][1] = 1; $request[’options’][3] = 5; $request[’options’][2] = 3; $reqo = new Varien_Object($request); $newitem = $quote-addProduct($founditem-getProduct(), $reqo); //add another one ------------------------------------------ $request[’qty’] = 1; $request[’product’] = 15; $request[’uenc’] = $req-get(’uenc’); $request[’options’][1] = 2; $request[’options’][3] = 6; $request[’options’][2] = 4; $reqo = new Varien_Object($request); $newitem = $quote-addProduct($founditem-getProduct(), $reqo); Or another test, with some other functions (again, product added, with 2 quantity , but same attributes...): $req = Mage::app()-getRequest(); $request[’qty’] = 1; $request[’product’] = 15; $request[’uenc’] = $req-get(’uenc’); $request[’options’][1] = 2; $request[’options’][3] = 6; $request[’options’][2] = 4; $product = $founditem-getProduct(); $cart = Mage::getSingleton(’checkout/cart’); //delete all first… $cart-getItems()-clear()-save(); $reqo = new Varien_Object($request); $cart-addProduct($founditem-getProduct(), $reqo); $cart-getItems()-save(); $request[’options’][1] = 1; $request[’options’][3] = 5; $request[’options’][2] = 3; $reqo = new Varien_Object($request); $cart-addProduct($founditem-getProduct(), $reqo); $cart-getItems()-save(); i really dont know what more to do, please any advice, this is my first module in magento… thank you, Peter

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• When is ¦ not equal to ¦?

  - by Trey Jackson

  Background. I'm working with netlists, and in general, people specify different hierarchies by using /. However, it's not illegal to actually use a / as a part of an instance name. For example, X1/X2/X3/X4 might refer to instance X4 inside another instance named X1/X2/X3. Or it might refer an instance named X3/X4 inside an instance named X2 inside an instance named X1. Got it? There's really no "regular" character that cannot be used as a part of an instance name, so you resort to a non-printable one, or ... perhaps one outside of the standard 0..127 ASCII chars. I thought I'd try (decimal) 166, because for me it shows up as the pipe: ¦. So... I've got some C++ code which constructs the path name using ¦ as the hierarchical separator, so the path above looks like X1¦X2/X3¦X4. Now the GUI is written in Tcl/Tk, and to properly translate this into human readable terms I need to do something like the following: set path [getPathFromC++] ;# returns X1¦X2/X3¦X4 set humanreadable [join [split $path ¦] /] Basically, replace the ¦ with / (I could also accomplish this with [string map]). Now, the problem is, the ¦ in the string I get from C++ doesn't match the ¦ I can create in Tcl. i.e. This fails: set path [getPathFromC++] ;# returns X1¦X2/X3¦X4 string match $path [format X1%cX2/X3%cX4 166 166] Visually, the two strings look identical, but string match fails. I even tried using scan to see if I'd mixed up the bit values. But set path [getPathFromC++] ;# returns X1¦X2/X3¦X4 set path2 [format X1%cX2/X3%cX4 166 166] for {set i 0} {$i < [string length $path]} {incr i} { set p [string range $path $i $i] set p2 [string range $path2 $i $i] scan %c $p c scan %c $p2 c2 puts [list $p $c :::: $p2 $c2 equal? [string equal $c $c2]] } Produces output which looks like everything should match, except the [string equal] fails for the ¦ characters with a print line: ¦ 166 :::: ¦ 166 equal? 0 For what it's worth, the character in C++ is defined as: const char SEPARATOR = 166; Any ideas why a character outside the regular ASCII range would fail like this? When I changed the separator to (decimal) 28 (^\), things worked fine. I just don't want to get bit by a similar problem on a different platform. (I'm currently using Redhat Linux).

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• Internet Explorer buggy when accessing a custom weblogic provider

  - by James

  I've created a custom Weblogic Security Authentication Provider on version 10.3 that includes a custom login module to validate users. As part of the provider, I've implemented the ServletAuthenticationFilter and added one filter. The filter acts as a common log on page for all the applications within the domain. When we access any secured URLs by entering them in the address bar, this works fine in IE and Firefox. But when we bookmark the link in IE an odd thing happens. If I click the bookmark, you will see our log on page, then after you've successfully logged into the system the basic auth page will display, even though the user is already authenticated. This never happens in Firefox, only IE. It's also intermittent. 1 time out of 5 IE will correctly redirect and not show the basic auth window. Firefox and Opera will correctly redirect everytime. We've captured the response headers and compared the success and failures, they are identical. final boolean isAuthenticated = authenticateUser(userName, password, req); // Send user on to the original URL if (isAuthenticated) { res.sendRedirect(targetURL); return; } As you can see, once the user is authenticated I do a redirect to the original URL. Is there a step I'm missing? The authenticateUser() method is taken verbatim from an example in Oracle's documents. private boolean authenticateUser(final String userName, final String password, HttpServletRequest request) { boolean results; try { ServletAuthentication.login(new CallbackHandler() { @Override public void handle(Callback[] callbacks) throws IOException, UnsupportedCallbackException { for (Callback callback : callbacks) { if (callback instanceof NameCallback) { NameCallback nameCallback = (NameCallback) callback; nameCallback.setName(userName); } if (callback instanceof PasswordCallback) { PasswordCallback passwordCallback = (PasswordCallback) callback; passwordCallback.setPassword(password.toCharArray()); } } } }, request); results = true; } catch (LoginException e) { results = false; } return results; I am asking the question here because I don't know if the issue is with the Weblogic config or the code. If this question is more suited to ServerFault please let me know and I will post there. It is odd that it works everytime in Firefox and Opera but not in Internet Explorer. I wish that not using Internet Explorer was an option but it is currently the company standard. Any help or direction would be appreciated. I have tested against IE 6 & 8 and deployed the custom provider on 3 different environments and I can still reproduce the bug.

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• Gradual memory leak in loop over contents of QTMovie

  - by Benji XVI

  I have a simple foundation tool that exports every frame of a movie as a .tiff file. Here is the relevant code: NSString* movieLoc = [NSString stringWithCString:argv[1]]; QTMovie *sourceMovie = [QTMovie movieWithFile:movieLoc error:nil]; int i=0; while (QTTimeCompare([sourceMovie currentTime], [sourceMovie duration]) != NSOrderedSame) { // save image of movie to disk NSAutoreleasePool *arp = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSString *filePath = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"/somelocation_%d.tiff", i++]; NSData *currentImageData = [[sourceMovie currentFrameImage] TIFFRepresentation]; [currentImageData writeToFile:filePath atomically:NO]; NSLog(@"%@", filePath); [sourceMovie stepForward]; [arp release]; } [pool drain]; return 0; As you can see, in order to prevent very large memory buildups with the various transparently-autoreleased variables in the loop, we create, and flush, an autoreleasepool with every run through the loop. However, over the course of stepping through a movie, the amount of memory used by the program still gradually increases. Instruments is not detecting any memory leaks per se, but the object trace shows certain General Data blocks to be increasing in size. [Edited out reference to slowdown as it doesn't seem to be as much of a problem as I thought.] Edit: let's knock out some parts of the code inside the loop & see what we find out... Test 1 while (banana) { NSAutoreleasePool *arp = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSString *filePath = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"/somelocation_%d.tiff", i++]; NSLog(@"%@", filePath); [sourceMovie stepForward]; [arp release]; } Here we simply loop over the whole movie, creating the filename and logging it. Memory characteristics: remains at 15MB usage for the duration. Test 2 while (banana) { NSAutoreleasePool *arp = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSImage *image = [sourceMovie currentFrameImage]; [sourceMovie stepForward]; [arp release]; } Here we add back in the creation of the NSImage from the current frame. Memory characteristics: gradually increasing memory usage. RSIZE is at 60MB by frame 200; 75MB by f300. Test 3 while (banana) { NSAutoreleasePool *arp = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSImage *image = [sourceMovie currentFrameImage]; NSData *imageData = [image TIFFRepresentation]; [sourceMovie stepForward]; [arp release]; } We've added back in the creation of an NSData object from the NSImage. Memory characteristics: Memory usage is again increasing: 62MB at f200; 75MB at f300. In other words, largely identical. It looks like a memory leak in the underlying system QTMovie uses to do currentFrameImage, to me.

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• translating specifications into query predicates

  - by Jeroen

  I'm trying to find a nice and elegant way to query database content based on DDD "specifications". In domain driven design, a specification is used to check if some object, also known as the candidate, is compliant to a (domain specific) requirement. For example, the specification 'IsTaskDone' goes like: class IsTaskDone extends Specification<Task> { boolean isSatisfiedBy(Task candidate) { return candidate.isDone(); } } The above specification can be used for many purposes, e.g. it can be used to validate if a task has been completed, or to filter all completed tasks from a collection. However, I want to re-use this, nice, domain related specification to query on the database. Of course, the easiest solution would be to retrieve all entities of our desired type from the database, and filter that list in-memory by looping and removing non-matching entities. But clearly that would not be optimal for performance, especially when the entity count in our db increases. Proposal So my idea is to create a 'ConversionManager' that translates my specification into a persistence technique specific criteria, think of the JPA predicate class. The services looks as follows: public interface JpaSpecificationConversionManager { <T> Predicate getPredicateFor(Specification<T> specification, Root<T> root, CriteriaQuery<?> cq, CriteriaBuilder cb); JpaSpecificationConversionManager registerConverter(JpaSpecificationConverter<?, ?> converter); } By using our manager, the users can register their own conversion logic, isolating the domain related specification from persistence specific logic. To minimize the configuration of our manager, I want to use annotations on my converter classes, allowing the manager to automatically register those converters. JPA repository implementations could then use my manager, via dependency injection, to offer a find by specification method. Providing a find by specification should drastically reduce the number of methods on our repository interface. In theory, this all sounds decent, but I feel like I'm missing something critical. What do you guys think of my proposal, does it comply to the DDD way of thinking? Or is there already a framework that does something identical to what I just described?

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• Generic linked list in c++

  - by itsaboy

  I have been struggling for too long a time now with a rather simple question about how to create a generic linked list in c++. The list should be able contain several types of structs, but each list will only contain one type of struct. The problem arises when I want to implement the getNode() function [see below], because then I have to specify which of the structs it should return. I have tried to substitute the structs with classes, where the getNode function returns a base class that is inherited by all the other classes, but it still does not do the trick, since the compiler does not allow the getNode function to return anything but the base class then. So here is some code snippet: typedef struct struct1 { int param1; (...) } struct1; typedef struct struct2 { double param1; (...) } struct2; typedef struct node { struct1 data; node* link; } node; class LinkedList { public: node *first; int nbrOfNodes; LinkedList(); void addNode(struct1); struct1 getNode(); bool isEmpty(); }; LinkedList::LinkedList() { first = NULL; nbrOfNodes = 0; } void LinkedList::addNode(struct1 newData) { if (nbrOfNodes == 0) { first = new node; first->data = newData; } else { node *it = first; for (int i = 0; i < nbrOfNodes; i++) { it = it->link; } node *newNode = new node; newNode->data = newData; it->link = newNode; } nbrOfNodes++; } bool LinkedList::isEmpty() { return !nbrOfNodes; } struct1 LinkedList::getNode() { param1 returnData = first->data; node* deleteNode = first; nbrOfNodes--; if (nbrOfNodes) first = deleteNode->link; delete deleteNode; return returnData; } So the question, put in one sentence, is as follows: How do I adjust the above linked list class so that it can also be used for struct2, without having to create a new almost identical list class for struct2 objects? As I said above, each instance of LinkedList will only deal with either struct1 or struct2. Grateful for hints or help

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• Can't access font resource in Silverlight class library

  - by Matt

  I have a reasonably large Silveright 3.0 project on the go, and I'm having issues accessing a couple of custom font resources from within one of the assemblies. I've got a working test solution where I have added a custom font as a resource, and can access it fine from XAML using: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> The test solution consists of the TestProject.Application and the TestProject.Application.Web projects, with all the fun and games obviously in the TestProject.Application project However, when I try this in my main solution, the fonts refuse to show in the correct type face (instead showing in the default font). There's no difference in the way the font has been added to project between the test solution and the main solution, and the XAML is identical. However, there is a solution layout difference. In the main solution, as well as having a MainApp.Application and MainApp.Application.Web project, I also have a MainApp.Application.ViewModel project and a MainApp.Application.Views project, and the problem piece of XAML is the in the MainApp.Application.Views project (not the .Application project like the test solution). I've tried putting the font into either the .Application or .Application.Views project, tried changing the Build Action to Content, Embedded Resource etc, all to no avail. So, is there an issue accessing font resources from a child assembly that I don't know about, or has anyone successfully done this? My long term need will be to have the valid custom fonts being stored as resources in a separate .Application.FontLibrary assembly that will be on-demand downloaded and cached, and the XAML controls in the .Application.Views project will need to reference this FontLibrary assembly to get the valid fonts. I've also tried xcreating this separate font library assembly, and I can't seem to get the fonts from the second assembly. As some additional information, I've also tried the following font referencing approaches: <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> <TextBlock Text="Test" FontFamily="pack:application,,,/MainApp.Application.Views;component/FontName.ttf#Font Name" /> And a few similar variants with different assembly references/sub directories/random semi colons. And so far nothing works... anyone struck this (and preferably solved it)?

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• approximating log10[x^k0 + k1]

  - by Yale Zhang

  Greetings. I'm trying to approximate the function Log10[x^k0 + k1], where .21 < k0 < 21, 0 < k1 < ~2000, and x is integer < 2^14. k0 & k1 are constant. For practical purposes, you can assume k0 = 2.12, k1 = 2660. The desired accuracy is 5*10^-4 relative error. This function is virtually identical to Log[x], except near 0, where it differs a lot. I already have came up with a SIMD implementation that is ~1.15x faster than a simple lookup table, but would like to improve it if possible, which I think is very hard due to lack of efficient instructions. My SIMD implementation uses 16bit fixed point arithmetic to evaluate a 3rd degree polynomial (I use least squares fit). The polynomial uses different coefficients for different input ranges. There are 8 ranges, and range i spans (64)2^i to (64)2^(i + 1). The rational behind this is the derivatives of Log[x] drop rapidly with x, meaning a polynomial will fit it more accurately since polynomials are an exact fit for functions that have a derivative of 0 beyond a certain order. SIMD table lookups are done very efficiently with a single _mm_shuffle_epi8(). I use SSE's float to int conversion to get the exponent and significand used for the fixed point approximation. I also software pipelined the loop to get ~1.25x speedup, so further code optimizations are probably unlikely. What I'm asking is if there's a more efficient approximation at a higher level? For example: Can this function be decomposed into functions with a limited domain like log2((2^x) * significand) = x + log2(significand) hence eliminating the need to deal with different ranges (table lookups). The main problem I think is adding the k1 term kills all those nice log properties that we know and love, making it not possible. Or is it? Iterative method? don't think so because the Newton method for log[x] is already a complicated expression Exploiting locality of neighboring pixels? - if the range of the 8 inputs fall in the same approximation range, then I can look up a single coefficient, instead of looking up separate coefficients for each element. Thus, I can use this as a fast common case, and use a slower, general code path when it isn't. But for my data, the range needs to be ~2000 before this property hold 70% of the time, which doesn't seem to make this method competitive. Please, give me some opinion, especially if you're an applied mathematician, even if you say it can't be done. Thanks.

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• Cannot Call WordPress Plugin Files Under wp-content

  - by Volomike

  I have a client who has many blog customers. Each of these WordPress blogs calls a plugin that provides a product link. The way that link is composed looks like this: {website}/wp-content/plugins/prodx/product?id=432320 This works fine on all blogs except two. On those two, when you try to call the URL, you get a 404. So, I disabled all plugins except prodx and reverted the theme to default (Kubrick), thinking perhaps a plugin intercept with add_action() API was doing this, such as intercepting URLs and redirecting them. However, this did not help. So, I upgraded the WordPress to the latest version. Again, didn't fix. So, I checked permissions, comparing with a blog that worked just fine. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced the .htaccess, using one from a working blog. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced all the files using some from a working blog that was identical to this one, and then restored the wp-config.php file back so that it talked to the right blog database. Again, didn't fix. Again I checked permissions meticulously, comparing to a perfectly working blog. Again, didn't fix. So, I created a test.php that looks like so: <?php print_r($_GET); echo "hello world"; I then copied it into another plugin folder and used my browser to get to it -- again, 404. So I copied it into the root of wp-content/plugins and tried to call it there -- again, 404. So I copied it into wp-content -- again, 404. Last, I copied it into the root of the WordPress blog website, and this time, it worked! Doesn't make sense. I started to think that perhaps something was going on with /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf for this customer, but the only thing I saw different in their for this customer was the IP address was different than the customer's blog that worked. Each customer gets their own IP in this environment my client has built. My client sysop is baffled too. What do you think is going on? Is there something wrong in the WP database for this customer? Is there something wrong in httpd.conf?

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• libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib is missing in iOS 4.2.1 development SDK

  - by Kalle

  Note: creating a symbolic link to use the 4.2 lib seems to work fine -- maybe cd /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/4.2.1\ \(8C148\)/Symbols/ sudo ln -s ../../4.2 (8C134)/Symbols/Developer Request: See end of this question! After upgrading from 4.2.0 (beta, I believe) to 4.2.1, the libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib file is missing, which results in: warning: Unable to read symbols for /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/4.2.1 (8C148)/Symbols/Developer/usr/lib/libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib (file not found). which I guess isn't good. Looking at the directory in question I note: .../DeviceSupport/4.2 (8C134)/Symbols/Developer/usr/lib/libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib but .../DeviceSupport/4.2.1 (8C148)/Symbols/System/ .../DeviceSupport/4.2.1 (8C148)/Symbols/usr/ the above two dirs make up all the content in the 4.2.1 folder. No "Developer" folder. Checking the /usr/ dir there, I find no libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib file in the lib dir either, so ln -s'ing isn't an option. Worth mentioning: after the upgrade, I plugged the iPad in and had to click "Use for development" in Xcode organizer. Doing so, I got a message about symbols missing for that version, and Xcode proceeded to generate such, then failed. I restored the iPad and did "Use for development" again, and nothing about missing symbols appeared... Update: deletion of /Developer and reinstallation of Xcode from scratch does not fix this issue. Update 2: I just realized that after the reinstall of Xcode, .../DeviceSupport/4.2 (8C134)/Symbols is now a symbolic link, lrwxr-xr-x 1 root admin 36 Dec 3 17:17 Symbols -> ../../Developer/SDKs/iPhoneOS4.2.sdk And the directory in question has the appropriate files. Maybe this is simply a matter of linking the 4.2.1 dir in the same fashion? I'll try that and see if Xcode freaks out. If someone who has this file could provide a md5 sum that would be splendid. This is what it says for me: $ md5 /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/4.2\ \(8C134\)/Symbols/Developer/usr/lib/libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib MD5 (/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/4.2 (8C134)/Symbols/Developer/usr/lib/libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib) = 08f93a0a2e3b03feaae732691f112688 If the MD5 sum is identical to the output of $ md5 /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/4.2.1\ \(8C148\)/Symbols/Developer/usr/lib/libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib then we're all set.

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• Infinite loop when adding a row to a list in a class in python3

  - by Margaret

  I have a script which contains two classes. (I'm obviously deleting a lot of stuff that I don't believe is relevant to the error I'm dealing with.) The eventual task is to create a decision tree, as I mentioned in this question. Unfortunately, I'm getting an infinite loop, and I'm having difficulty identifying why. I've identified the line of code that's going haywire, but I would have thought the iterator and the list I'm adding to would be different objects. Is there some side effect of list's .append functionality that I'm not aware of? Or am I making some other blindingly obvious mistake? class Dataset: individuals = [] #Becomes a list of dictionaries, in which each dictionary is a row from the CSV with the headers as keys def field_set(self): #Returns a list of the fields in individuals[] that can be used to split the data (i.e. have more than one value amongst the individuals def classified(self, predicted_value): #Returns True if all the individuals have the same value for predicted_value def fields_exhausted(self, predicted_value): #Returns True if all the individuals are identical except for predicted_value def lowest_entropy_value(self, predicted_value): #Returns the field that will reduce <a href="http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Entropy_%28information_theory%29">entropy</a> the most def __init__(self, individuals=[]): and class Node: ds = Dataset() #The data that is associated with this Node links = [] #List of Nodes, the offspring Nodes of this node level = 0 #Tree depth of this Node split_value = '' #Field used to split out this Node from the parent node node_value = '' #Value used to split out this Node from the parent Node def split_dataset(self, split_value): fields = [] #List of options for split_value amongst the individuals datasets = {} #Dictionary of Datasets, each one with a value from fields[] as its key for field in self.ds.field_set()[split_value]: #Populates the keys of fields[] fields.append(field) datasets[field] = Dataset() for i in self.ds.individuals: #Adds individuals to the datasets.dataset that matches their result for split_value datasets[i[split_value]].individuals.append(i) #<---Causes an infinite loop on the second hit for field in fields: #Creates subnodes from each of the datasets.Dataset options self.add_subnode(datasets[field],split_value,field) def add_subnode(self, dataset, split_value='', node_value=''): def __init__(self, level, dataset=Dataset()): My initialisation code is currently: if __name__ == '__main__': filename = (sys.argv[1]) #Takes in a CSV file predicted_value = "# class" #Identifies the field from the CSV file that should be predicted base_dataset = parse_csv(filename) #Turns the CSV file into a list of lists parsed_dataset = individual_list(base_dataset) #Turns the list of lists into a list of dictionaries root = Node(0, Dataset(parsed_dataset)) #Creates a root node, passing it the full dataset root.split_dataset(root.ds.lowest_entropy_value(predicted_value)) #Performs the first split, creating multiple subnodes n = root.links[0] n.split_dataset(n.ds.lowest_entropy_value(predicted_value)) #Attempts to split the first subnode.

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• Is there a way to split a widescreen monitor in to two or more virtual monitors?

  - by Mike Thompson

  Like most developers I have grown to love dual monitors. I won't go into all the reasons for their goodness; just take it as a given. However, they are not perfect. You can never seem to line them up "just right". You always end up with the monitors at slight funny angles. And of course the bezel always gets in the way. And this is with identical monitors. The problem is much worse with different monitors -- VMWare's multi monitor feature won't even work with monitors of differnt resolutions. When you use multiple monnitors, one of them becomes your primary monitor of focus. Your focus may flip from one monitor to the other, but at any point in time you are usually focusing on only one monitor. There are exceptions to this (WinDiff, Excel), but this is generally the case. I suggest that having a single large monitor with all the benefits of multiple smaller monitors would be a better solution. Wide screen monitors are fantastic, but it is hard to use all the space efficiently. If you are writing code you are generally working on the left-hand side of the window. If you maximize an editor on a wide-screen monitor the right-hand side of the window will be a sea of white. Programs like WinSplit Revolution will help to organise your windows, but this is really just addressing the symptom, not the problem. Even with WinSplit Revolution, when you maximise a window it will take up the whole screen. You can't lock a window into a specific section of the screen. This is where virtual monitors comes in. What would be really nice is a video driver that sits on top of the existing driver, but allows a single monitor to be virtualised into multiple monitors. Control Panel would see your single physical monitor as two or more virtual monitors. The software could even support a virtual bezel to emphasise what is happening, or you could opt for seamless mode. Programs like WinSplit Revolution and UltraMon would still work. This virtual video driver would allow you to slice & dice your physical monitor into as many virtual monitors as you want. Does anybody know if such software exists? If not, are there any budding Windows display driver guru's out there willing to take up the challenge? I am not after the myriad of virtual desktop/window manager programs that are available. I get frustrated with these programs. They seem good at first but they usually have some strange behaviour and don't work well with other programs (such as WinSplit Revolution). I want the real thing!

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• Throwing cats out of windows

  - by AndrewF

  Imagine you're in a tall building with a cat. The cat can survive a fall out of a low story window, but will die if thrown from a high floor. How can you figure out the longest drop that the cat can survive, using the least number of attempts? Obviously, if you only have one cat, then you can only search linearly. First throw the cat from the first floor. If it survives, throw it from the second. Eventually, after being thrown from floor f, the cat will die. You then know that floor f-1 was the maximal safe floor. But what if you have more than one cat? You can now try some sort of logarithmic search. Let's say that the build has 100 floors and you have two identical cats. If you throw the first cat out of the 50th floor and it dies, then you only have to search 50 floors linearly. You can do even better if you choose a lower floor for your first attempt. Let's say that you choose to tackle the problem 20 floors at a time and that the first fatal floor is #50. In that case, your first cat will survive flights from floors 20 and 40 before dying from floor 60. You just have to check floors 41 through 49 individually. That's a total of 12 attempts, which is much better than the 50 you would need had you attempted to use binary elimination. In general, what's the best strategy and it's worst-case complexity for an n-storied building with 2 cats? What about for n floors and m cats? Assume that all cats are equivalent: they will all survive or die from a fall from a given window. Also, every attempt is independent: if a cat survives a fall, it is completely unharmed. This isn't homework, although I may have solved it for school assignment once. It's just a whimsical problem that popped into my head today and I don't remember the solution. Bonus points if anyone knows the name of this problem or of the solution algorithm.

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• Click on notification starts activity twice

  - by Karussell

  I'm creating a notification from a service with the following code: NotificationManager notificationManager = (NotificationManager) ctx .getSystemService(Context.NOTIFICATION_SERVICE); CharSequence tickerText = "bla ..."; long when = System.currentTimeMillis(); Notification notification = new Notification(R.drawable.icon, tickerText, when); Intent notificationIntent = new Intent(ctx, SearchActivity.class). putExtra(SearchActivity.INTENT_SOURCE, MyNotificationService.class.getSimpleName()); PendingIntent contentIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(ctx, 0, notificationIntent, 0); notification.setLatestEventInfo(ctx, ctx.getString(R.string.app_name), tickerText, contentIntent); notification.flags |= Notification.FLAG_AUTO_CANCEL; notificationManager.notify(1, notification); The logs clearly says that the the method startActivity is called twice times: 04-02 23:48:06.923: INFO/ActivityManager(2466): Starting activity: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEARCH cmp=com.xy/.SearchActivity bnds=[0,520][480,616] (has extras) } 04-02 23:48:06.923: WARN/ActivityManager(2466): startActivity called from non-Activity context; forcing Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK for: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEARCH cmp=com.xy/.SearchActivity bnds=[0,520][480,616] (has extras) } 04-02 23:48:06.958: INFO/ActivityManager(2466): Starting activity: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEARCH cmp=com.xy/.SearchActivity bnds=[0,0][480,96] (has extras) } 04-02 23:48:06.958: WARN/ActivityManager(2466): startActivity called from non-Activity context; forcing Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK for: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEARCH cmp=com.xy/.SearchActivity bnds=[0,0][480,96] (has extras) } 04-02 23:48:07.087: INFO/notification(5028): onStartCmd: received start id 2: Intent { cmp=com.xy/.NotificationService } 04-02 23:48:07.310: INFO/notification(5028): onStartCmd: received start id 3: Intent { cmp=com.xy/.NotificationService } 04-02 23:48:07.392: INFO/ActivityManager(2466): Displayed activity com.xy/.SearchActivity: 462 ms (total 462 ms) 04-02 23:48:07.392: INFO/ActivityManager(2466): Displayed activity com.xy/.SearchActivity: 318 ms (total 318 ms) Why are they started twice? There are two identical questions on stackoverflow: here and here. But they do not explain what the initial issue could be and they do not work for me. E.g. changing to launchMode singleTop is not appropriated for me and it should work without changing launchMode according to the official docs (see Invoking the search dialog). Nevertheless I also tried to add the following flags to notificationIntent Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_CLEAR_TOP | PendingIntent.FLAG_UPDATE_CURRENT but the problem remains the same.

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• Deserialization error in a new environment

  - by cerhart

  I have a web application that calls a third-party web service. When I run it locally, I have no problems, but when I move it to my production environment, I get the following error: There is an error in XML document (2, 428). Stack: at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle, XmlDeserializationEvents events) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(SoapClientMessage message, WebResponse response, Stream responseStream, Boolean asyncCall) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at RMXClasses.RMXContactService.ContactService.getActiveSessions(String user, String pass) in C:\Users\hp\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\ReklamStore\RMXClasses\Web References\RMXContactService\Reference.cs:line 257 at I have used the same web config file from the production environment but it still works locally. My local machine is a running vista home edition and the production environment is windows server 2003. The application is written in asp.net 3.5, wierdly under the asp.net config tab in iis, 3.5 doesn't show up in the drop down list, although that version of the framework is installed. The error is not being thrown in my code, it happens during serialization. I called the method on the proxy, I have checked the arguments and they are OK. I have also logged the SOAP request and response, and they both look OK as well. I am really at a loss here. Any ideas? SOAP log: This is the soap response that the program seems to have trouble parsing only on server 2003. On my machine the soap is identical, and yet it parses with no problems. SoapResponse BeforeDeserialize; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:ns1="urn:ContactService" xmlns:ns2="http://api.yieldmanager.com/types" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"><SOAP-ENV:Body><ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse> <sessions SOAP-ENC:arrayType="ns2:session[1]" xsi:type="ns2:array_of_session"> <item xsi:type="ns2:session"> <token xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx1ae12517584b</token> <creation_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</creation_time> <modification_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</modification_time> <ip_address xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxx</ip_address> <contact_id xsi:type="xsd:long">xxxxxx</contact_id></item></sessions> </ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse></SOAP-ENV:Body></SOAP-ENV:Envelope>

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• Equivalent of System.Windows.Forms.Cursor in Web Application

  - by Vishwa

  Hi I have a code in windows application now i am trying to implement in web Application but it is showimg that it ths no cursor class (System.Windows.Forms.Cursor )so..wat is the equivalent in web application. Here is my code private void btnGo_Click(System.Object sender, System.EventArgs e) { this.Cursor = Cursors.WaitCursor; Application.DoEvents(); // Load the images. Bitmap bm1 = (Bitmap) (Image.FromFile(txtFile1.Text)); Bitmap bm2 = (Bitmap) (Image.FromFile(txtFile2.Text)); // Make a difference image. int wid = Math.Min(bm1.Width, bm2.Width); int hgt = Math.Min(bm1.Height, bm2.Height); Bitmap bm3 = new Bitmap(wid, hgt); // Create the difference image. bool are_identical = true; int r1; int g1; int b1; int r2; int g2; int b2; int r3; int g3; int b3; Color eq_color = Color.White; Color ne_color = Color.Transparent; for (int x = 0; x <= wid - 1; x++) { for (int y = 0; y <= hgt - 1; y++) { if (bm1.GetPixel(x, y).Equals(bm2.GetPixel(x, y))) { bm3.SetPixel(x, y, eq_color); } else { bm1.SetPixel(x, y, ne_color); are_identical = false; } } } // Display the result. picResult.Image = bm1; Bitmap Logo = new Bitmap(picResult.Image); Logo.MakeTransparent(Logo.GetPixel(1, 1)); picResult.Image = (Image)Logo; this.Cursor = Cursors.Default; if ((bm1.Width != bm2.Width) || (bm1.Height != bm2.Height)) { are_identical = false; } if (are_identical) { MessageBox.Show("The images are identical"); } else { MessageBox.Show("The images are different"); } //bm1.Dispose() // bm2.Dispose() }

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