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  • How to pass operators as parameters

    - by Rodion Ingles
    I have to load an array of doubles from a file, multiply each element by a value in a table (different values for different elements), do some work on it, invert the multiplication (that is, divide) and then save the data back to file. Currently I implement the multiplication and division process in two separate methods. Now there is some extra work behind the scenes but apart from the specific statements where the multiplication/division occurs, the rest of the code is identical. As you can imagine, with this approach you have to be very careful making any changes. The surrounding code is not trivial, so its either a case of manually editing each method or copying changes from one method to the other and remembering to change the * and / operators. After too many close calls I am fed up of this and would like to make a common function which implements the common logic and two wrapper functions which pass which operator to use as a parameter. My initial approach was to use function pointers: MultiplyData(double data) { TransformData(data, &(operator *)); } DivideData(double data) { TransformData(data, &(operator /)); } TransformData(double data, double (*func)(double op1, double op2)) { /* Do stuff here... */ } However, I can't pass the operators as pointers (is this because it is an operator on a native type?), so I tried to use function objects. Initially I thought that multiplies and divides functors in <functional> would be ideal: MultiplyData(double data) { std::multiplies<double> multFunct; TransformData(data, &multFunct); } DivideData(double data) { std::divides<double> divFunct; TransformData(data, &divFunct); } TransformData(double data, std::binary_function<double, double, double> *funct) { /* Do stuff here... */ } As you can see I was trying to use a base class pointer to pass the functor polymorphically. The problem is that std::binary_function does not declare an operator() member for the child classes to implement. Is there something I am missing, or is the solution to implement my own functor heirarchy (which really seems more trouble than it is worth)?

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  • How to assign WPF resources to other resource tags

    - by Tom
    This is quite obscure, I may just be missing something extremely simple. Scenario 1 Lets say I create a gradient brush, like this in my <Window.Resources> section: <LinearGradientBrush x:Key="GridRowSelectedBackBrushGradient" StartPoint="0,0" EndPoint="0,1"> <GradientStop Color="#404040" Offset="0.0" /> <GradientStop Color="#404040" Offset="0.5" /> <GradientStop Color="#000000" Offset="0.6" /> <GradientStop Color="#000000" Offset="1.0" /> </LinearGradientBrush> Then much later on, I want to override the HighlightBrushKey for a DataGrid. I have basically done it like this (horrible); <LinearGradientBrush x:Key="{x:Static SystemColors.HighlightBrushKey}" GradientStops="{Binding Source={StaticResource GridRowSelectedBackBrushGradient}, Path=GradientStops}" StartPoint="{Binding Source={StaticResource GridRowSelectedBackBrushGradient}, Path=StartPoint}" EndPoint="{Binding Source={StaticResource GridRowSelectedBackBrushGradient}, Path=EndPoint}" /> This is obviously not the most slick way of referencing a resource. I also came up with the following problem, which is almost identical. Scenario 2 Say I created two colors in my <Window.Resources> markup, like so: <SolidColorBrush x:Key="DataGridRowBackgroundBrush" Color="#EAF2FB" /> <SolidColorBrush x:Key="DataGridRowBackgroundAltBrush" Color="#FFFFFF" /> Then later on, I want to supply them in an Array, which feeds the ConverterParameter on a Binding so I can supply the custom Converter with my static resource instances: <Setter Property="Background"> <Setter.Value> <Binding RelativeSource="{RelativeSource Mode=Self}" Converter="{StaticResource BackgroundBrushConverter}"> <Binding.ConverterParameter> <x:Array Type="{x:Type Brush}"> <SolidColorBrush Color="{Binding Source={StaticResource DataGridRowBackgroundBrush}, Path=Color}" /> <SolidColorBrush Color="{Binding Source={StaticResource DataGridRowBackgroundAltBrush}, Path=Color}" /> </x:Array> </Binding.ConverterParameter> </Binding> </Setter.Value> </Setter> What I've done is attempt to rereference an existing resource, but in my efforts I've actually recreated the resource, and bound the properties so they match. Again, this is not ideal. Because I've now hit this problem at least twice, is there a better way? Thanks, Tom

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  • Spring's JdbcDaoSupport (using MySQL Connector/J) fails after executing sql that adds FK

    - by John
    I am using Spring's JdbcDaoSupport class with a DriverManagerDataSource using the MySQL Connector/J 5.0 driver (driverClassName=com.mysql.jdbc.driver). allowMultiQueries is set to true in the url. My application is an in-house tool we recently developed that executes sql scripts in a directory one-by-one (allows us to re-create our schema and reference table data for a given date, etc, but I digress). The sql scripts sometime contain multiple statements (hence allowMultiQueries), so one script can create a table, add indexes for that table, etc. The problem happens when including a statement to add a foreign key constraint in one of these files. If I have a file that looks like... --(column/constraint names are examples) CREATE TABLE myTable ( fk1 BIGINT(19) NOT NULL, fk2 BIGINT(19) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (fk1, fk2) ); ALTER TABLE myTable ADD CONSTRAINT myTable_fk1 FOREIGN KEY (fk1) REFERENCES myOtherTable (id) ; ALTER TABLE myTable ADD CONSTRAINT myTable_fk2 FOREIGN KEY (fk2) REFERENCES myOtherOtherTable (id) ; then JdbcTemplate.execute throws an UncategorizedSqlException with the following error message and stack trace: Exception in thread "main" org.springframework.jdbc.UncategorizedSQLException: StatementCallback; uncategorized SQLException for SQL [ THE SQL YOU SEE ABOVE LISTED HERE ]; SQL state [HY000]; error code [1005]; Can't create table 'myDatabase.myTable' (errno: 150); nested exception is java.sql.SQLException: Can't create table 'myDatabase.myTable' (errno: 150) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:83) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:80) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:80) and the table and foreign keys are not inserted. Also, especially weird: if I take the foreign key statements out of the script I showed above and then place them in their own script that executes after (so I now have 1 script with just the create table statement, and 1 script with the add foreign key statements that executes after that) then what happens is: tool executes create table script, works fine, table is created tool executes add fk script, throws the same exception as seen above (except errno=121 this time), but the FKs actually get added (!!!) In other words, when the create table/FK statements are in the same script then the exception is thrown and nothing is created, but when they are different scripts a nearly identical exception is thrown but both things get created. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Please let me know if you'd like me to clarify anything more.

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  • Marshalling non-Blittable Structs from C# to C++

    - by Greggo
    I'm in the process of rewriting an overengineered and unmaintainable chunk of my company's library code that interfaces between C# and C++. I've started looking into P/Invoke, but it seems like there's not much in the way of accessible help. We're passing a struct that contains various parameters and settings down to unmanaged codes, so we're defining identical structs. We don't need to change any of those parameters on the C++ side, but we do need to access them after the P/Invoked function has returned. My questions are: What is the best way to pass strings? Some are short (device id's which can be set by us), and some are file paths (which may contain Asian characters) Should I pass an IntPtr to the C# struct or should I just let the Marshaller take care of it by putting the struct type in the function signature? Should I be worried about any non-pointer datatypes like bools or enums (in other, related structs)? We have the treat warnings as errors flag set in C++ so we can't use the Microsoft extension for enums to force a datatype. Is P/Invoke actually the way to go? There was some Microsoft documentation about Implicit P/Invoke that said it was more type-safe and performant. For reference, here is one of the pairs of structs I've written so far: C++ /** Struct used for marshalling Scan parameters from managed to unmanaged code. */ struct ScanParameters { LPSTR deviceID; LPSTR spdClock; LPSTR spdStartTrigger; double spinRpm; double startRadius; double endRadius; double trackSpacing; UINT64 numTracks; UINT32 nominalSampleCount; double gainLimit; double sampleRate; double scanHeight; LPWSTR qmoPath; //includes filename LPWSTR qzpPath; //includes filename }; C# /// <summary> /// Struct used for marshalling scan parameters between managed and unmanaged code. /// </summary> [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct ScanParameters { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string deviceID; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string spdClock; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string spdStartTrigger; public Double spinRpm; public Double startRadius; public Double endRadius; public Double trackSpacing; public UInt64 numTracks; public UInt32 nominalSampleCount; public Double gainLimit; public Double sampleRate; public Double scanHeight; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string qmoPath; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string qzpPath; }

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  • Storing a NTFS Security Descriptor in C

    - by Doori Bar
    My goal is to store a NTFS Security Descriptor in its identical native state. The purpose is to restore it on-demand. I managed to write the code for that purpose, I was wondering if anybody mind to validate a sample of it? (The for loop represents the way I store the native descriptor) This sample only contains the flag for "OWNER", but my intention is to apply the same method for all of the security descriptor flags. I'm just a beginner, would appreciate the heads up. Thanks, Doori Bar #define _WIN32_WINNT 0x0501 #define WINVER 0x0501 #include <stdio.h> #include <windows.h> #include "accctrl.h" #include "aclapi.h" #include "sddl.h" int main (void) { DWORD lasterror; PSECURITY_DESCRIPTOR PSecurityD1, PSecurityD2; HANDLE hFile; PSID owner; LPTSTR ownerstr; BOOL ownerdefault; int ret = 0; unsigned int i; hFile = CreateFile("c:\\boot.ini", GENERIC_READ | ACCESS_SYSTEM_SECURITY, FILE_SHARE_READ, NULL, OPEN_EXISTING, FILE_FLAG_BACKUP_SEMANTICS, NULL); if (hFile == INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) { fprintf(stderr,"CreateFile() failed. Error: INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE\n"); return 1; } lasterror = GetSecurityInfo(hFile, SE_FILE_OBJECT, OWNER_SECURITY_INFORMATION , &owner, NULL, NULL, NULL, &PSecurityD1); if (lasterror != ERROR_SUCCESS) { fprintf(stderr,"GetSecurityInfo() failed. Error: %lu;\n", lasterror); ret = 1; goto ret1; } ConvertSidToStringSid(owner,&ownerstr); printf("ownerstr of PSecurityD1: %s\n", ownerstr); /* The for loop represents the way I store the native descriptor */ PSecurityD2 = malloc( GetSecurityDescriptorLength(PSecurityD1) * sizeof(unsigned char) ); for (i=0; i < GetSecurityDescriptorLength(PSecurityD1); i++) ((unsigned char *) PSecurityD2)[i] = ((unsigned char *) PSecurityD1)[i]; if (IsValidSecurityDescriptor(PSecurityD2) == 0) { fprintf(stderr,"IsValidSecurityDescriptor(PSecurityD2) failed.\n"); ret = 2; goto ret2; } if (GetSecurityDescriptorOwner(PSecurityD2,&owner,&ownerdefault) == 0) { fprintf(stderr,"GetSecurityDescriptorOwner() failed."); ret = 2; goto ret2; } ConvertSidToStringSid(owner,&ownerstr); printf("ownerstr of PSecurityD2: %s\n", ownerstr); ret2: free(owner); free(ownerstr); free(PSecurityD1); free(PSecurityD2); ret1: CloseHandle(hFile); return ret; }

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  • Multi domain rails app. How to intelligently use MVC?

    - by denial
    Background: We have app a, b, and plan to add more apps into this same application. The apps are similar enough they could share many views, assets, and actions. Currently a,b live in a single rails app(2.3.10). c will be similar enough that it could also be in this rails app. The problem: As we continue to add more apps to this one app, there's going to be too much case logic that the app will soon become a nightmare to maintain. There will also be potential namespace issues. However, the apps are very similar in function and layout, it also makes sense to keep them in one app so that it's one app to maintain(since roughly 50% of site look/functionality will be shared). What we are trying to do is keep this as clean as possible so it's easy for multiple teams to work on and easy to maintain. Some things we've thought about/are trying: Engines. Make each app an engine. This would let us base routes on the domain. It also allows us to pull out controllers, models and views for the specific app. This solution does not seem ideal as we won't be reusing the apps any time soon. And explicitly stating the host in the routes doesn't seem right. Skinning/themes. The auth logic would be different between the apps. Each user model would be different. So it's not just a skinning problem. In app/view add folder sitea for sitea views, siteb for siteb views and so on. Do the same for controllers and models. This is still pretty messy and since it didn't follow naming conventions, it did not work with rails so nicely and made much of the code messier. Making another rails app. We just didn't want to maintain the same controller or view in 2 apps if they are identical. What we want to do is make the app intelligently use a controller based on the host. So there would be a sessions controller for each app, and perhaps some parent session controller for shared logic(not needed now). In each of these session controllers, it handles authentication for that specific app. So if the domain is a.mysite.com, it would use session controller for app a and know to use app a's views,models,controllers. And if the domain is b.mysite, it would use the session controller for b. And there would be a user model for a and user model for b, which also would be determined by the domain. Does anyone have any suggestions or experience with this situation? And ideally using rails 2.3.x as updating to rails 3 isn't an option right now.

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  • Python: (sampling with replacement): efficient algorithm to extract the set of UNIQUE N-tuples from a set

    - by Homunculus Reticulli
    I have a set of items, from which I want to select DISSIMILAR tuples (more on the definition of dissimilar touples later). The set could contain potentially several thousand items, although typically, it would contain only a few hundreds. I am trying to write a generic algorithm that will allow me to select N items to form an N-tuple, from the original set. The new set of selected N-tuples should be DISSIMILAR. A N-tuple A is said to be DISSIMILAR to another N-tuple B if and only if: Every pair (2-tuple) that occurs in A DOES NOT appear in B Note: For this algorithm, A 2-tuple (pair) is considered SIMILAR/IDENTICAL if it contains the same elements, i.e. (x,y) is considered the same as (y,x). This is a (possible variation on the) classic Urn Problem. A trivial (pseudocode) implementation of this algorithm would be something along the lines of def fetch_unique_tuples(original_set, tuple_size): while True: # randomly select [tuple_size] items from the set to create first set # create a key or hash from the N elements and store in a set # store selected N-tuple in a container if end_condition_met: break I don't think this is the most efficient way of doing this - and though I am no algorithm theorist, I suspect that the time for this algorithm to run is NOT O(n) - in fact, its probably more likely to be O(n!). I am wondering if there is a more efficient way of implementing such an algo, and preferably, reducing the time to O(n). Actually, as Mark Byers pointed out there is a second variable m, which is the size of the number of elements being selected. This (i.e. m) will typically be between 2 and 5. Regarding examples, here would be a typical (albeit shortened) example: original_list = ['CAGG', 'CTTC', 'ACCT', 'TGCA', 'CCTG', 'CAAA', 'TGCC', 'ACTT', 'TAAT', 'CTTG', 'CGGC', 'GGCC', 'TCCT', 'ATCC', 'ACAG', 'TGAA', 'TTTG', 'ACAA', 'TGTC', 'TGGA', 'CTGC', 'GCTC', 'AGGA', 'TGCT', 'GCGC', 'GCGG', 'AAAG', 'GCTG', 'GCCG', 'ACCA', 'CTCC', 'CACG', 'CATA', 'GGGA', 'CGAG', 'CCCC', 'GGTG', 'AAGT', 'CCAC', 'AACA', 'AATA', 'CGAC', 'GGAA', 'TACC', 'AGTT', 'GTGG', 'CGCA', 'GGGG', 'GAGA', 'AGCC', 'ACCG', 'CCAT', 'AGAC', 'GGGT', 'CAGC', 'GATG', 'TTCG'] Select 3-tuples from the original list should produce a list (or set) similar to: [('CAGG', 'CTTC', 'ACCT') ('CAGG', 'TGCA', 'CCTG') ('CAGG', 'CAAA', 'TGCC') ('CAGG', 'ACTT', 'ACCT') ('CAGG', 'CTTG', 'CGGC') .... ('CTTC', 'TGCA', 'CAAA') ] [[Edit]] Actually, in constructing the example output, I have realized that the earlier definition I gave for UNIQUENESS was incorrect. I have updated my definition and have introduced a new metric of DISSIMILARITY instead, as a result of this finding.

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  • Python: (sampling with replacement): efficient algorithm to extract the set of DISSIMILAR N-tuples from a set

    - by Homunculus Reticulli
    I have a set of items, from which I want to select DISSIMILAR tuples (more on the definition of dissimilar touples later). The set could contain potentially several thousand items, although typically, it would contain only a few hundreds. I am trying to write a generic algorithm that will allow me to select N items to form an N-tuple, from the original set. The new set of selected N-tuples should be DISSIMILAR. A N-tuple A is said to be DISSIMILAR to another N-tuple B if and only if: Every pair (2-tuple) that occurs in A DOES NOT appear in B Note: For this algorithm, A 2-tuple (pair) is considered SIMILAR/IDENTICAL if it contains the same elements, i.e. (x,y) is considered the same as (y,x). This is a (possible variation on the) classic Urn Problem. A trivial (pseudocode) implementation of this algorithm would be something along the lines of def fetch_unique_tuples(original_set, tuple_size): while True: # randomly select [tuple_size] items from the set to create first set # create a key or hash from the N elements and store in a set # store selected N-tuple in a container if end_condition_met: break I don't think this is the most efficient way of doing this - and though I am no algorithm theorist, I suspect that the time for this algorithm to run is NOT O(n) - in fact, its probably more likely to be O(n!). I am wondering if there is a more efficient way of implementing such an algo, and preferably, reducing the time to O(n). Actually, as Mark Byers pointed out there is a second variable m, which is the size of the number of elements being selected. This (i.e. m) will typically be between 2 and 5. Regarding examples, here would be a typical (albeit shortened) example: original_list = ['CAGG', 'CTTC', 'ACCT', 'TGCA', 'CCTG', 'CAAA', 'TGCC', 'ACTT', 'TAAT', 'CTTG', 'CGGC', 'GGCC', 'TCCT', 'ATCC', 'ACAG', 'TGAA', 'TTTG', 'ACAA', 'TGTC', 'TGGA', 'CTGC', 'GCTC', 'AGGA', 'TGCT', 'GCGC', 'GCGG', 'AAAG', 'GCTG', 'GCCG', 'ACCA', 'CTCC', 'CACG', 'CATA', 'GGGA', 'CGAG', 'CCCC', 'GGTG', 'AAGT', 'CCAC', 'AACA', 'AATA', 'CGAC', 'GGAA', 'TACC', 'AGTT', 'GTGG', 'CGCA', 'GGGG', 'GAGA', 'AGCC', 'ACCG', 'CCAT', 'AGAC', 'GGGT', 'CAGC', 'GATG', 'TTCG'] # Select 3-tuples from the original list should produce a list (or set) similar to: [('CAGG', 'CTTC', 'ACCT') ('CAGG', 'TGCA', 'CCTG') ('CAGG', 'CAAA', 'TGCC') ('CAGG', 'ACTT', 'ACCT') ('CAGG', 'CTTG', 'CGGC') .... ('CTTC', 'TGCA', 'CAAA') ] [[Edit]] Actually, in constructing the example output, I have realized that the earlier definition I gave for UNIQUENESS was incorrect. I have updated my definition and have introduced a new metric of DISSIMILARITY instead, as a result of this finding.

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  • Equivalent of System.Windows.Forms.Cursor in Web Application(Asp.Net)

    - by Vishwa
    Hi I have a code in windows application now i am trying to implement in web Application but it is showimg that it ths no cursor class (System.Windows.Forms.Cursor )so..wat is the equivalent in web application. Here is my code private void btnGo_Click(System.Object sender, System.EventArgs e) { this.Cursor = Cursors.WaitCursor; Application.DoEvents(); // Load the images. Bitmap bm1 = (Bitmap) (Image.FromFile(txtFile1.Text)); Bitmap bm2 = (Bitmap) (Image.FromFile(txtFile2.Text)); // Make a difference image. int wid = Math.Min(bm1.Width, bm2.Width); int hgt = Math.Min(bm1.Height, bm2.Height); Bitmap bm3 = new Bitmap(wid, hgt); // Create the difference image. bool are_identical = true; int r1; int g1; int b1; int r2; int g2; int b2; int r3; int g3; int b3; Color eq_color = Color.White; Color ne_color = Color.Transparent; for (int x = 0; x <= wid - 1; x++) { for (int y = 0; y <= hgt - 1; y++) { if (bm1.GetPixel(x, y).Equals(bm2.GetPixel(x, y))) { bm3.SetPixel(x, y, eq_color); } else { bm1.SetPixel(x, y, ne_color); are_identical = false; } } } // Display the result. picResult.Image = bm1; Bitmap Logo = new Bitmap(picResult.Image); Logo.MakeTransparent(Logo.GetPixel(1, 1)); picResult.Image = (Image)Logo; this.Cursor = Cursors.Default; if ((bm1.Width != bm2.Width) || (bm1.Height != bm2.Height)) { are_identical = false; } if (are_identical) { MessageBox.Show("The images are identical"); } else { MessageBox.Show("The images are different"); } //bm1.Dispose() // bm2.Dispose() }

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  • Why does OpenGL's glDrawArrays() fail with GL_INVALID_OPERATION under Core Profile 3.2, but not 3.3 or 4.2?

    - by metaleap
    I have OpenGL rendering code calling glDrawArrays that works flawlessly when the OpenGL context is (automatically / implicitly obtained) 4.2 but fails consistently (GL_INVALID_OPERATION) with an explicitly requested OpenGL core context 3.2. (Shaders are always set to #version 150 in both cases but that's beside the point here I suspect.) According to specs, there are only two instances when glDrawArrays() fails with GL_INVALID_OPERATION: "if a non-zero buffer object name is bound to an enabled array and the buffer object's data store is currently mapped" -- I'm not doing any buffer mapping at this point "if a geometry shader is active and mode? is incompatible with [...]" -- nope, no geometry shaders as of now. Furthermore: I have verified & double-checked that it's only the glDrawArrays() calls failing. Also double-checked that all arguments passed to glDrawArrays() are identical under both GL versions, buffer bindings too. This happens across 3 different nvidia GPUs and 2 different OSes (Win7 and OSX, both 64-bit -- of course, in OSX we have only the 3.2 context, no 4.2 anyway). It does not happen with an integrated "Intel HD" GPU but for that one, I only get an automatic implicit 3.3 context (trying to explicitly force a 3.2 core profile with this GPU via GLFW here fails the window creation but that's an entirely different issue...) For what it's worth, here's the relevant routine excerpted from the render loop, in Golang: func (me *TMesh) render () { curMesh = me curTechnique.OnRenderMesh() gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glVertBuf) if me.glElemBuf > 0 { gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glElemBuf) gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.DrawElements(me.glMode, me.glNumIndices, gl.UNSIGNED_INT, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } else { gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) /* BOOM! */ gl.DrawArrays(me.glMode, 0, me.glNumVerts) } gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } So of course this is part of a bigger render-loop, though the whole "*TMesh" construction for now is just two instances, one a simple cube and the other a simple pyramid. What matters is that the entire drawing loop works flawlessly with no errors reported when GL is queried for errors under both 3.3 and 4.2, yet on 3 nvidia GPUs with an explicit 3.2 core profile fails with an error code that according to spec is only invoked in two specific situations, none of which as far as I can tell apply here. What could be wrong here? Have you ever run into this? Any ideas what I have been missing?

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  • Illegal Start of Expression

    - by Kraivyne
    Hello there, I have just started to learn the very basics of Java programming. Using a book entitled "Programming Video Games for the Evil Genius". I have had an Illegal Start of Expression error that I can't for the life of me get rid of. I have checked the sample code from the book and mine is identical. The error is coming from the for(int i = difficulty; i = 0; i- - ) line. Thanks for helping a newbie out. import javax.swing.*; public class S1P4 {public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { int difficulty; difficulty = Integer.parseInt(JOptionPane.showInputDialog("How good are you?\n"+ "1 = Great\n"+"10 = Terrible")); boolean cont = false; do { cont = false; double num1 = (int)(Math.round(Math.random()*10)); double num2; do { num2 = (int)(Math.round(Math.random()*10)); } while(num2==0.0); int sign = (int)(Math.round(Math.random()*3)); double answer; System.out.println("\n\n*****"); if(sign==0) { System.out.println(num1+" times "+num2); answer = num1*num2; } else if(sign==1) { System.out.println(num1+" divided by"+num2); answer = num1/num2; } else if(sign==1) { System.out.println(num1+" plus "+num2); answer = num1+num2; } else if(sign==1) { System.out.println(num1+" minus "+num2); answer = num1-num2; } else { System.out.println(num1+" % "+num2); answer = num1%num2; } System.out.println("*****\n"); for(int i = difficulty; i >= 0; i- - ) { System.out.println(i+"..."); Thread.sleep(500); } System.out.println("ANSWER: "+answer); String again; again = JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Play again?"); if(again.equals("yes")) cont = true; } while(cont); } }

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  • DataGridView cells not editable when using an outside thread call

    - by joslinm
    Hi, I'm not able to edit my datagridview cells when a number of identical calls takes place on another thread. Here's the situation: Dataset table is created in the main window The program receives in files and processes them on a background thread in class TorrentBuilder : BackgroundWorker creating an array objects of another class Torrent My program receives those objects from the BW result and adds them into the dataset The above happens either on my main window thread or in another thread: I have a separate thread watching a folder for files to come in, and when they do come in, they proceed to call TorrentBuilder.RunWorkerAsynch() from that thread, receive the result, and call an outside class that adds the Torrent objects into the table. When the files are received by the latter thread, the datagridview isn't editable. All of the values come up properly into the datagridview, but when I click on a cell to edit it: I can write letters and everything, but when I click out of it, it immediately reverts back to its original value. If I restart the program, I can edit the same cells just fine. If the values are freshly added from the main window thread, I can edit the cells just fine. The outside thread is called from my main window thread, and sits there in the background. I don't believe it to be ReadOnly because I would have gotten an exception. Here's some code: From my main window class: private void dataGridView_DragDrop(object sender, DragEventArgs e) { ArrayList al = new ArrayList(); string[] files = (string[])e.Data.GetData(DataFormats.FileDrop); foreach (string file in files) { string extension = Path.GetExtension(file); if (Path.GetExtension(file).Equals(".zip") || Path.GetExtension(file).Equals(".rar")) { foreach (string unzipped in dh.UnzipFile(file)) al.Add(unzipped); } else if (Path.GetExtension(file).Equals(".torrent")) { al.Add(file); } } dataGridViewProgressBar.Visible = true; tb.RunWorkerCompleted += new RunWorkerCompletedEventHandler(tb_DragDropCompleted); tb.ProgressChanged += new ProgressChangedEventHandler(tb_DragDropProgress); tb.RunWorkerAsync() } void tb_DragDropCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { data.AddTorrents((Torrent[])e.Result); builder.Dispose(); dh.MoveProcessedFiles(data); dataGridViewProgressBar.Visible = false; } From my outside Thread while (autocheck) { if (torrentFiles != null) { builder.RunWorkerAsync(torrentFiles); while (builder.IsBusy) Thread.Sleep(500); } } void builder_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, System.ComponentModel.RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { data.AddTorrents((Torrent[])e.Result); builder.Dispose(); dh.MoveProcessedFiles(xml); data.Save(); //Save just does an `AcceptChanges()` and saves to a XML file }

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  • Meshing different systems of keys together in XML Schema

    - by Tom W
    Hello SO, I'd like to ask people's thoughts on an XSD problem I've been pondering. The system I am trying to model is thus: I have a general type that represents some item in a hypothetical model. The type is abstract and will be inherited by all manner of different model objects, so the model is heterogeneous. Furthermore, some types exist only as children of other types. Objects are to be given an identifier, but the scope of uniqueness of this identifier varies. Some objects - we will call them P (for Parent) objects - must have a globally unique identifier. This is straightforward and can use the xs:key schema element. Other objects (we can call them C objects, for Child) are children of a P object and must have an identifier that is unique only in the scope of that parent. For example, object P1 has two children, object C1 and C2, and object P2 has one child, object C3. In this system, the identifiers given could be as follows: P1: 1 (1st P object globally) P2: 2 (2nd P object globally) C1: 1 (1st C object of P1) C2: 2 (2nd C object of P1) C3: 1 (1st C object of P2) I want the identity syntax of every model object to be identical if possible, therefore my first pass at implementing is to define a single type: <xs:complexType name="ModelElement"> <xs:attribute name="IDMode" type="IdentityMode"/> <xs:attribute name="Identifier" type="xs:string"/> </xs:complexType> where the IdentityMode is an enumerated value: <xs:simpleType name="IdentityMode"> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:enumeration value="Identified"/> <xs:enumeration value="Indexed"/> <xs:enumeration value="None"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> Here "Identified" signifies a global identifier, and "Indexed" indicates an identifier local only to the parent. My question is, how do I enforce these uniqueness conditions using unique, key or other schema elements based on the IdentityMode property of the given subtype of ModelElement?

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  • how to invoke an activity of a library project from an android apps

    - by Austin
    I have an open source android code that I need to use in my android apps. It has all the source code as well as resource files, manifest files and class path. It can be compiled as a separate android apps. I have constraints for using the open source. 1. I can't change a single line of code. 2. I can't use it as a separate apps. These constraints are non negotiable. What I have done is I have compiled the open source as class library(in Eclipse: Project Properties-Android- Tick check box Is Library). This has resulted in generation of .class files(in bin) for the java files and resource files. This open source has an android activity that i want to open from my application. So I have linked the directory of these sets of class files in the source section of my java build path( in .classpath). I have declared the activity in my manifest file with proper action intent filters. Now when I am trying to call activity from my code, its not working. Cleaning and rebuilding doesn't help. However, if I build the open source project and my apps in the same workspace of eclipse and link the open source in my apps in exact same manner it works fine. I am not able to identify the difference. All settings seems to be same(all files are identical in both the cases). But only in the second case it works. I have tried it as jar file also. I have build the open source as project library and exported it into a jar file(excluding manifest file). But in that case I am getting the following error UNEXPECTED TOP-LEVEL EXCEPTION: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: already added: .... Conversion to Dalvik format failed with error 1 This I guess is coming because the android library(2.2) has been included twice in my apps( one for building my apps & another for building the open source). I dont know how to avoid this. Cleaning the project doesn't help. What i require is to use the open source and invoking it's activities in my apps without violating the constraints. If i can use the open source as bunch of .class files then great, or else any other way will do fine. Please look into it and let me know. Thanks

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  • git repository sync between computers, when moving around?

    - by Johan
    Hi Let's say that I have a desktop pc and a laptop, and sometimes I work on the desktop and sometimes I work on the laptop. What is the easiest way to move a git repository back and forth? I want the git repositories to be identical, so that I can continue where I left of at the other computer. I would like to make sure that I have the same branches and tags on both of the computers. Thanks Johan Note: I know how to do this with SubVersion, but I'm curious on how this would work with git. If it is easier, I can use a third pc as classical server that the two pc:s can sync against. Note: Both computers are running Linux. Update: So let's try XANI:s idea with a bare git repo on a server, and the push command syntax from KingCrunch. In this example there is two clients and one server. So let's create the server part first. ssh user@server mkdir -p ~/git_test/workspace cd ~/git_test/workspace git --bare init So then from one of the other computers I try to get a copy of the repo with clone: git clone user@server:~/git_test/workspace/ Initialized empty Git repository in /home/user/git_test/repo1/workspace/.git/ warning: You appear to have cloned an empty repository. Then go into that repo and add a file: cd workspace/ echo "test1" > testfile1.txt git add testfile1.txt git commit testfile1.txt -m "Added file testfile1.txt" git push origin master Now the server is updated with testfile1.txt. Anyway, let's see if we can get this file from the other computer. mkdir -p ~/git_test/repo2 cd ~/git_test/repo2 git clone user@server:~/git_test/workspace/ cd workspace/ git pull And now we can see the testfile. At this point we can edit it with some more content and update the server again. echo "test2" >> testfile1.txt git add testfile1.txt git commit -m "Test2" git push origin master Then we go back to the first client and do a git pull to see the updated file. And now I can move back and forth between the two computers, and add a third if I like to.

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  • IE dynamic image caching issue?

    - by rdevitt
    I have an html page that is loading multiple iframes into which are embedded dynamic images created from a Tomcat server page (.jsp). This works as expected from Chrome and Firefox, but for some reason IE displays all of the images the same (as the first image). I've created an example: http://coupondiscounts.com/dev/jsImageTest.html jsImageTest.html -- This page simply loads 6 instances of the testImageFrame.html page in separate iframes one-at-a-time, using Javascript. testImageFrame.html -- This is the page loaded in all the iframes. It contains only a JavaScript block that writes out the current time and an img tag. The img is dynamically generated by a .jsp page on a different server. It should be a white box on a black background. In the box are the current time (from the Tomcat server using Java) and a randomly created double between 0 & 1. What happens (in IE): The page almost instantly loads four identical iframes. Depending on the speed of your machine, the JavaScript times may vary by a second or two. The images' times will all be the same as will be the random number. This holds true even for the last two iframes which are loaded 5 and 10 seconds after the others (using JavaScript setTimeout()). What should happen (as it does in Chrome and FF): The page loads the same 4 iframes, but the random numbers in the images will be different. The times in the images occasionally span a second as well. Anyone have a clue as to what's going on here? Is IE doing some strange caching? The image header has "no-cache," "no-store" and all that. I've tried it on IE6 and 7. You can use the "Next" button to create another iframe. In IE, the images are always the same. Notes: I don't really need iframes, just the images, but if I only use img tags, the problem appears in Chrome and FF as well. I also don't really need to load these iframes dynamically, I was just trying to abstract the issue further and allow a delayed load for the latter 2 images.

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  • sys.path() and PYTHONPATH issues

    - by Justin
    I've been learning Python, I'm working in 2.7.3, and I'm trying to understand import statements. The documentation says that when you attempt to import a module, the interpreter will first search for one of the built-in modules. What is meant by a built-in module? Then, the documentation says that the interpreter searches in the directories listed by sys.path, and that sys.path is initialized from these sources: the directory containing the input script (or the current directory). PYTHONPATH (a list of directory names, with the same syntax as the shell variable PATH). the installation-dependent default. Here is a sample output of a sys.path command from my computer using python in command-line mode: (I deleted a few so that it wouldn't be huge) ['', '/usr/lib/python2.7', '/usr/lib/python2.7/lib-old', '/usr/lib/python2.7/lib-dynload', '/usr/local/lib/python2.7/dist-packages', '/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages', '/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/PIL', '/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/gst-0.10', '/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/gtk-2.0', '/usr/lib/pymodules/python2.7', '/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/ubuntuone-couch', '/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/ubuntuone-storage-protocol'] Now, I'm assuming that the '' path refers to the directory containing the 'script', and so I figured the rest of them would be coming from my PYTHONPATH environmental variable. However, when I go to the terminal and type env, PYTHONPATH doesn't exist as an environmental variable. I also tried import os then os.environ, but I get the same output. Do I really not have a PYTHONPATH environmental variable? I don't believe I ever specifically defined a PYTHONPATH environmental variable, but I assumed that when I installed new packages they automatically altered that environment variable. If I don't have a PYTHONPATH, how is my sys.path getting populated? If I download new packages, how does Python know where to look for them if I don't have this PYTHONPATH variable? How do environment variables work? From what I understand, environment variables are specific to the process for which they are set, however, if I open multiple terminal windows and run env, they all display a number of identical variables, for example, PATH. I know there file locations for persistent environment variables, for example /etc/environment, which contains my PATH variable. Is it possible to tell where a persistent environment variable is stored? What is the recommended location for storing new persistent environment variables? How do environment variables actually work with say, the Python interpreter? The Python interpreter looks for PYTHONPATH, but how does it work at the nitty-gritty level?

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  • Large memory chunk not garbage collected

    - by Niels
    In a hunt for a memory-leak in my app I chased down a behaviour I can't understand. I allocate a large memory block, but it doesn't get garbage-collected resulting in a OOM, unless I explicit null the reference in onDestroy. In this example I have two almost identical activities that switch between each others. Both have a single button. On pressing the button MainActivity starts OOMActivity and OOMActivity returns by calling finish(). After pressing the buttons a few times, Android throws a OOMException. If i add the the onDestroy to OOMActivity and explicit null the reference to the memory chunk, I can see in the log that the memory is correctly freed. Why doesn't the memory get freed automatically without the nulling? MainActivity: package com.example.oom; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.view.View.OnClickListener; import android.widget.Button; public class MainActivity extends Activity implements OnClickListener { private int buttonId; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); System.gc(); Button OOMButton = new Button(this); OOMButton.setText("OOM"); buttonId = OOMButton.getId(); setContentView(OOMButton); OOMButton.setOnClickListener(this); } @Override public void onClick(View v) { if (v.getId() == buttonId) { Intent leakIntent = new Intent(this, OOMActivity.class); startActivity(leakIntent); } } } OOMActivity: public class OOMActivity extends Activity implements OnClickListener { private static final int WASTE_SIZE = 20000000; private byte[] waste; private int buttonId; protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); Button BackButton = new Button(this); BackButton.setText("Back"); buttonId = BackButton.getId(); setContentView(BackButton); BackButton.setOnClickListener(this); waste = new byte[WASTE_SIZE]; } public void onClick(View view) { if (view.getId() == buttonId) { finish(); } } }

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  • Guilty of unsound programming

    - by TelJanini
    I was reading Robert Rossney's entry on "What's the most unsound program you've had to maintain?" found at: (What's the most unsound program you've had to maintain?) when I realized that I had inadvertently developed a near-identical application! The app consists of an HTTPListener object that grabs incoming POST requests. Based on the information in the header, I pass the body of the request to SQL Server to perform the appropriate transaction. The requests look like: <InvoiceCreate Control="389> <Invoice> <CustomerNumber>5555</CustomerNumber> <Total>300.00</Total> <RushOrder>1</RushOrder> </Invoice> </InvoiceCreate> Once it's received by the HTTPListener object, I perform the required INSERT to the Invoice table using SQL Server's built-in XML handling functionality via a stored procedure: INSERT INTO Invoice (InvoiceNumber, CustomerNumber, Total, RushOrder) SELECT @NEW_INVOICE_NUMBER, @XML.value('(InvoiceCreate/Invoice/CustomerNumber)[1]', 'varchar(10)'), @XML.value('(InvoiceCreate/Invoice/Total)[1]', 'varchar(10)'), @XML.value('(InvoiceCreate/Invoice/Total)[1]', 'varchar(10)') I then use another SELECT statement in the same stored procedure to return the value of the new Invoice Number that was inserted into the Invoices table: SELECT @NEW_INVOICE_NUMBER FOR XML PATH 'InvoiceCreateAck' I then read the generated XML using a SQL data reader object in C# and use it as the response of the HTTPListener object. My issue is, I'm noticing that Robert is indeed correct. All of my application logic exists inside the stored procedure, so I find myself having to do a lot of error-checking (i.e. validating the customer number and invoicenumber values) inside the stored procedure. I'm still a midlevel developer, and as such, am looking to improve. Given the original post, and my current architecture, what could I have done differently to improve the application? Are there any patterns or best practices that I could refer to? What approach would you have taken? I'm open to any and all criticism, as I'd like to do my part to reduce the amount of "unsound programming" in the world.

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  • JavaScript: Can I declare a variable by querying which function is called? (Newbie)

    - by belle3WA
    I'm working with an existing JavaScript-powered cart module that I am trying to modify. I do not know JS and for various reasons need to work with what is already in place. The text that appears for my quantity box is defined within an existing function: function writeitems() { var i; for (i=0; i<items.length; i++) { var item=items[i]; var placeholder=document.getElementById("itembuttons" + i); var s="<p>"; // options, if any if (item.options) { s=s+"<select id='options"+i+"'>"; var j; for (j=0; j<item.options.length; j++) { s=s+"<option value='"+item.options[j].name+"'>"+item.options[j].name+"</option>"; } s=s+"</select>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;"; } // add to cart s=s+method+"Quantity: <input id='quantity"+i+"' value='1' size='3'/> "; s=s+"<input type='submit' value='Add to Cart' onclick='addtocart("+i+"); return false;'/></p>"; } placeholder.innerHTML=s; } refreshcart(false); } I have two different types of quantity input boxes; one (donations) needs to be prefaced with a dollar sign, and one (items) should be blank. I've taken the existing additem function, copied it, and renamed it so that there are two identical functions, one for items and one for donations. The additem function is below: function additem(name,cost,quantityincrement) { if (!quantityincrement) quantityincrement=1; var index=items.length; items[index]=new Object; items[index].name=name; items[index].cost=cost; items[index].quantityincrement=quantityincrement; document.write("<span id='itembuttons" + index + "'></span>"); return index; } Is there a way to declare a global variable based on which function (additem or adddonation) is called so that I can add that into the writeitems function so display or hide the dollar sign as needed? Or is there a better solution? I can't use HTML in the body of the cart page because of the way it is currently coded, so I'm depending on the JS to take care of it. Any help for a newbie is welcome. Thanks!

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  • Constructors from extended class in Java

    - by Crystal
    I'm having some trouble with a hw assignment. In one assignment, we had to create a Person class. Mine was: public class Person { String firstName; String lastName; String telephone; String email; public Person() { firstName = ""; lastName = ""; telephone = ""; email = ""; } public Person(String firstName) { this.firstName = firstName; } public Person(String firstName, String lastName, String telephone, String email) { this.firstName = firstName; this.lastName = lastName; this.telephone = telephone; this.email = email; } public String getFirstName() { return firstName; } public void setFirstName(String firstName) { this.firstName = firstName; } public String getLastName() { return lastName; } public void setLastName(String lastName) { this.lastName = lastName; } public String getTelephone() { return telephone; } public void setTelephone(String telephone) { this.telephone = telephone; } public String getEmail() { return email; } public void setEmail(String email) { this.email = email; } public boolean equals(Object otherObject) { // a quick test to see if the objects are identical if (this == otherObject) { return true; } // must return false if the explicit parameter is null if (otherObject == null) { return false; } if (!(otherObject instanceof Person)) { return false; } Person other = (Person) otherObject; return firstName.equals(other.firstName) && lastName.equals(other.lastName) && telephone.equals(other.telephone) && email.equals(other.email); } public int hashCode() { return 7 * firstName.hashCode() + 11 * lastName.hashCode() + 13 * telephone.hashCode() + 15 * email.hashCode(); } public String toString() { return getClass().getName() + "[firstName = " + firstName + '\n' + "lastName = " + lastName + '\n' + "telephone = " + telephone + '\n' + "email = " + email + "]"; } } Now we have to extend that class and use that class in our constructor. The function protoype is: public CarLoan(Person client, double vehiclePrice, double downPayment, double salesTax, double interestRate, CAR_LOAN_TERMS length) I'm confused on how I use the Person constructor from the superclass. I cannot necessarily do super(client); in my constructor which is what the book did with some primitive types in their example. Not sure what the correct thing to do is... Any thoughts? Thanks!

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  • PHP/MySQL Interview - How would you have answered?

    - by martincarlin87
    I was asked this interview question so thought I would post it here to see how other users would answer: Please write some code which connects to a MySQL database (any host/user/pass), retrieves the current date & time from the database, compares it to the current date & time on the local server (i.e. where the application is running), and reports on the difference. The reporting aspect should be a simple HTML page, so that in theory this script can be put on a web server, set to point to a particular database server, and it would tell us whether the two servers’ times are in sync (or close to being in sync). This is what I put: // Connect to database server $dbhost = 'localhost'; $dbuser = 'xxx'; $dbpass = 'xxx'; $dbname = 'xxx'; $conn = mysql_connect($dbhost, $dbuser, $dbpass) or die (mysql_error()); // Select database mysql_select_db($dbname) or die(mysql_error()); // Retrieve the current time from the database server $sql = 'SELECT NOW() AS db_server_time'; // Execute the query $result = mysql_query($sql) or die(mysql_error()); // Since query has now completed, get the time of the web server $php_server_time = date("Y-m-d h:m:s"); // Store query results in an array $row = mysql_fetch_array($result); // Retrieve time result from the array $db_server_time = $row['db_server_time']; echo $db_server_time . '<br />'; echo $php_server_time; if ($php_server_time != $db_server_time) { // Server times are not identical echo '<p>Database server and web server are not in sync!</p>'; // Convert the time stamps into seconds since 01/01/1970 $php_seconds = strtotime($php_server_time); $sql_seconds = strtotime($db_server_time); // Subtract smaller number from biggest number to avoid getting a negative result if ($php_seconds > $sql_seconds) { $time_difference = $php_seconds - $sql_seconds; } else { $time_difference = $sql_seconds - $php_seconds; } // convert the time difference in seconds to a formatted string displaying hours, minutes and seconds $nice_time_difference = gmdate("H:i:s", $time_difference); echo '<p>Time difference between the servers is ' . $nice_time_difference; } else { // Timestamps are exactly the same echo '<p>Database server and web server are in sync with each other!</p>'; } Yes, I know that I have used the deprecated mysql_* functions but that aside, how would you have answered, i.e. what changes would you make and why? Are there any factors I have omitted which I should take into consideration? The interesting thing is that my results always seem to be an exact number of minutes apart when executed on my hosting account: 2012-12-06 11:47:07 2012-12-06 11:12:07

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  • Can I use accepts_nested_attributes_for with checkboxes in a _form to select potential 'links' from a list

    - by Ryan
    In Rails 3: I have the following models: class System has_many :input_modes # name of the table with the join in it has_many :imodes, :through => :input_modes, :source => 'mode', :class_name => "Mode" has_many :output_modes has_many :omodes, :through => :output_modes, :source => 'mode', :class_name => 'Mode' end class InputMode # OutputMode is identical belongs_to :mode belongs_to :system end class Mode ... fields, i.e. name ... end That works nicely and I can assign lists of Modes to imodes and omodes as intended. What I'd like to do is use accepts_nested_attributes_for or some other such magic in the System model and build a view with a set of checkboxes. The set of valid Modes for a given System is defined elsewhere. I'm using checkboxes in the _form view to select which of the valid modes is actually set in imodes and omodes . I don't want to create new Modes from this view, just select from a list of pre-defined Modes. Below is what I'm currently using in my _form view. It generates a list of checkboxes, one for each allowed Mode for the System being edited. If the checkbox is ticked then that Mode is to be included in the imodes list. <% @allowed_modes.each do |mode| %> <li> <%= check_box_tag :imode_ids, mode.id, @system.imodes.include?(modifier), :name => 'imode_ids[]' %> <%= mode.name %> </li> <% end %> Which passes this into the controller in params: { ..., "imode_ids"=>["2", "14"], ... } In the controller#create I extract and assign the Modes that had their corresponding checkboxes ticked and add them to imodes with the following code: @system = System.new(params[:system]) # Note the the empty list that makes sure we clear the # list if none of the checkboxes are ticked if params.has_key?(:imode_ids) imodes = Mode.find(params[:imode_ids]) else imodes = [] end @system.imodes = imodes Once again that all works nicely but I'll have to copy that cludgey code into the other methods in the controller and I'd much prefer to use something more magical if possible. I feel like I've passed off the path of nice clean rails code and into the forest of "hacking around" rails; it works but I don't like it. What should I have done?

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  • More efficient SQL than using "A UNION (B in A)"?

    - by machinatus
    Edit 1 (clarification): Thank you for the answers so far! The response is gratifying. I want to clarify the question a little because based on the answers I think I did not describe one aspect of the problem correctly (and I'm sure that's my fault as I was having a difficult time defining it even for myself). Here's the rub: The result set should contain ONLY the records with tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09', AND the one record where the tstamp IS NULL for each order_num in the first set (there will always be one with null tstamp for each order_num). The answers given so far appear to include all records for a certain order_num if there are any with tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09'. For example, if there were another record with order_num = 2 and tstamp = 2010-01-12 00:00:00 it should not be included in the result. Original question: Consider an orders table containing id (unique), order_num, tstamp (a timestamp), and item_id (the single item included in an order). tstamp is null, unless the order has been modified, in which case there is another record with identical order_num and tstamp then contains the timestamp of when the change occurred. Example... id order_num tstamp item_id __ _________ ___________________ _______ 0 1 100 1 2 101 2 2 2010-01-05 12:34:56 102 3 3 113 4 4 124 5 5 135 6 5 2010-01-07 01:23:45 136 7 5 2010-01-07 02:46:00 137 8 6 100 9 6 2010-01-13 08:33:55 105 What is the most efficient SQL statement to retrieve all of the orders (based on order_num) which have been modified one or more times during a certain date range? In other words, for each order we need all of the records with the same order_num (including the one with NULL tstamp), for each order_num WHERE at least one of the order_num's has tstamp NOT NULL AND tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09'. It's the "WHERE at least one of the order_num's has tstamp NOT NULL" that I'm having difficulty with. The result set should look like this: id order_num tstamp item_id __ _________ ___________________ _______ 1 2 101 2 2 2010-01-05 12:34:56 102 5 5 135 6 5 2010-01-07 01:23:45 136 7 5 2010-01-07 02:46:00 137 The SQL that I came up with is this, which is essentially "A UNION (B in A)", but it executes slowly and I hope there is a more efficient solution: SELECT history_orders.order_id, history_orders.tstamp, history_orders.item_id FROM (SELECT orders.order_id, orders.tstamp, orders.item_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09') AS history_orders UNION SELECT current_orders.order_id, current_orders.tstamp, current_orders.item_id FROM (SELECT orders.order_id, orders.tstamp, orders.item_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp IS NULL) AS current_orders WHERE current_orders.order_id IN (SELECT orders.order_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09');

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  • IIS logs show sc-win32-status=64 but only through some networks

    - by wweicker
    I have an ASP.NET application running on a client server (W2k3, IIS6, .NET 2.0). FWIW, this is a Test instance, it hasn't been moved into Production yet. So it is not running under SSL, load balancing, etc. When I access one of the pages on their server from our office, the page gets hit once. Inspecting the IIS logs (c:WINDOWS\system32\LogFiles\W3SVC1) show a GET for that page, then I push a button on the page and the log file shows a POST. This seems to be working fine so far. Now when I remote into the client's network and access the page from one of their local machines, the log file shows a GET, then I push the button on the page and the log shows two POSTs at the same second. The first one shows status (sc-status, sc-substatus, sc-win32-status) 200 0 64, the second shows 200 0 0. In the log file, both POSTs are identical. Basically the log looks like this (except I masked some of the data): #Fields: date time s-ip cs-method cs-uri-stem cs-uri-query s-port cs-username c-ip cs(User-Agent) sc-status sc-substatus sc-win32-status 2009-08-11 20:19:32 x.x.x.x GET /File.aspx - 80 - y.y.y.y Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.0;+WOW64;+Trident/4.0;+SLCC1;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+.NET+CLR+3.5.21022;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30618;+MDDR;+OfficeLiveConnector.1.4;+OfficeLivePatch.0.0) 200 0 0 2009-08-11 20:19:45 x.x.x.x POST /File.aspx - 80 - y.y.y.y Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.0;+WOW64;+Trident/4.0;+SLCC1;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+.NET+CLR+3.5.21022;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30618;+MDDR;+OfficeLiveConnector.1.4;+OfficeLivePatch.0.0) 200 0 64 2009-08-11 20:19:45 x.x.x.x POST /File.aspx - 80 - y.y.y.y Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.0;+WOW64;+Trident/4.0;+SLCC1;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+.NET+CLR+3.5.21022;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30618;+MDDR;+OfficeLiveConnector.1.4;+OfficeLivePatch.0.0) 200 0 0 The problem is, the page is getting hit twice. The database performs an operation for the first request, then the second request detects that a duplicate operation is being performed and throws an error message. The users think their operation failed, but it actually succeeded. The error description of sc-win32-status 64 is: "The specified network name is no longer available." This leads me to believe, given that both POST requests show an HTTP status of 200, that the server is successful in serving the request, but the client is never notified and resubmits the request. How can I troubleshoot this? Any ideas what could be causing this behavior on their internal network only? I should mention, this is happening at two separate client sites, but does not happen at six of our other client sites, or in our office, or connecting to any of our eight clients over the web. What could be making this reproducible 100% of the time on their local network but 0% of the time anywhere else? Update: I found a very small number of the duplicated POST requests had sc-win32-status of 995 instead of 64 as originally reported. The error description of sc-win32-status=995 is: "The I/O operation has been aborted because of either a thread exit or an application request." This doesn't make any sense (considering I have full access to the code). I still don't understand how or why this issue is occurring, but the new error code leads me to believe it may not be a network issue after all and I am now investigating the possibility of a random code bug.

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