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• Java - SwingWorker - problem

  - by Yatendra Goel

  I am developing a Java Desktop Application. This app executes the same task public class MyTask implements Callable<MyObject> { in multiple thread simultaneously. Now, when a user clicks on a "start" button, I have created a SwingWorker myWorker and have executed it. Now, this myWorker creates multiple instances of MyTask and submits them to an ExecutorService. Each MyTask instance has a loop and generates an intermediate result at every iteration. Now, I want to collect these intermediate results from each MyTask instances as soon as they are generated. Then after collecting these intermediate results from every MyTask instance, I want to publish it through SwingWorker.publish(MyObject) so that the progress is shown on the EDT. Q1. How can I implement this? Should I make MyTask subclass of SwingWorker instead of Callable to get intermediate results also, because I think that Callable only returns final result. Q2. If the answer of Q1. is yes, then can you give me a small example to show how can I get those intermediate results and aggregate them and then publish them from main SwingWorker? Q3. If I can't use SwingWorker in this situation, then how can I implement this?

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• Objective-C basics: subclassing and member variable accessability

  - by Krumelur

  Hi, Code below is pseudo code. Imagine a class "Fruit" which has a factory method to create a fruit. interface Fruit { } +(Fruit*) createFruit: { return [[Fruit alloc] init autorelease]; } Now I want to subclass the Fruit to get an Apple: interface Apple : Fruit { int iSeeds; } +(Apple*) createAppleWithColor: (int) iSeeds { Apple* oApple = [Apple createFruit:]; oApple.iSeeds = iSeeds; return oApple; } Questions: How can I make "iSeeds" private so it cannot be changed from outside? If I add a "private" keyword it does not build anymore. Still I want to set iSeeds from inside my Apple's factory method. I want users allow to READ the content of iSeeds. So I suppose I should have a getter but I can't get it to work. I always get some error about "LValue assignment". The Fruit's createFruit is making use of autorelease. Does the Apple have to reatin/release anything? René

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• oracle query with inconsistent results

  - by Spencer Stejskal

  Im having a very strange problem, i have a complicated view that returns incorrect data when i query on a particular column. heres an example: select empname, has_garnishment from timecard_v2 where empname = 'Testerson, Testy'; this returns the single result 'Testerson, Testy', 'N' however, if i use the query: select empname, has_garnishment from timecard_v2 where empname = 'Testerson, Testy' and has_garnishment = 'Y'; this returns the single result 'Testerson, Testy', 'Y' The second query should return a subset of the first query, but it returns a different answer. I have dissected the view and determined that this section of the view definition is where the problem arises(Note, I removed all of the select clause except the parts of interests for clarity, in the full query all joined tables are required): SELECT e.fullname empname , NVL2(ded.has_garn, 'Y', 'N') has_garnishment FROM timecard tc , orderdetail od , orderassign oa , employee e , employee3 e3 , customer10 c10 , order_misc om, (SELECT COUNT(*) has_garn, v_ssn FROM deductions WHERE yymmdd_stop = 0 OR (LENGTH(yymmdd_stop) = 7 AND to_date(SUBSTR(yymmdd_stop, 2), 'YYMMDD') sysdate) GROUP BY v_ssn ) ded WHERE oa.lrn(+) = tc.lrn_order AND om.lrn(+) = od.lrn AND od.orderno = oa.orderno AND e.ssn = tc.ssn AND c10.custno = tc.custno AND e.lrn = e3.lrn AND e.ssn = ded.v_ssn(+) One thing of note about the definition of the 'ded' subquery. The v_ssn field is a virtual field on the deductions table. I am not a DBA im a software developer but we recently lost our DBA and the new one is still getting up to speed so im trying to debug this issue. That being said, please explain things a little more thoroughly then you would for a fellow oracle expert. thanks

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• Invalid method declaration, return type required

  - by Brett Steen

  I am getting an error at public Rectangle(double width, double height){ saying that it's an invalid method declaration, return type required. I'm not sure how to fix it. These are also my instructions for my assignment: Write a super class encapsulating a rectangle. A rectangle has two attributes representing the width and the height of the rectangle. It has methods returning the perimeter and the area of the rectangle. This class has a subclass, encapsulating a parallelepiped, or box. A parallelepiped has a rectangle as its base, and another attribute, its length. It has two methods that calculate and return its area and volume. `public class Rectangle1 { private double width; private double height; public Rectangle1(){ } public Rectangle(double width, double height){ this.width = width; this.height = height; } public double getWidth(){ return width; } public void setWidth(double width) { this.width = width; } public double getHeight(){ return height; } public void setHeight(double height){ this.height = height; } public double getArea(){ return width * height; } public double getPerimeter(){ return 2 * (width + height); } } public class TestRectangle { public static void main(String[] args) { Rectangle1 rectangle = new Rectangle1(2,4); System.out.println("\nA rectangle " + rectangle.toString()); System.out.println("The area is " + rectangle.getArea()); System.out.println("The perimeter is " + rectangle.getPerimeter()); } }`

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• How should child views of UIScrollView report their bounds for contentSize?

  - by Mike

  I'm looking more for advice on the correct design for a view. What I have is a UIScrollView that contains one or more custom Views I have created. My problem is, who reports to the scrollview what it's contentSize should be? I have the following: UIView +-UIScrollView +-CustomView 1 with dynamic height depending on data +-CustomView 2 with dynamic Height depending on data The UIViewController creates new instances of the custom views with data and then adds them as subviews to the UIScrollView. The problem I'm having is how to set the value of the scrollview's contentSize? Right now, I'm not doing that and the contents of the scrollview are clipped with no scrolling possible. Should the custom view call [parent setContentSize:] in its drawRect:? Should the UIViewController query the custom view after creation to get its bounds and then call setContentSize? Should I subclass the UIScrollView to override addSubView to query each subview's height? Is there something else I'm missing? I hope I explained that properly. I'm new to this and still getting a handle on things.

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• MPMoviePlayerView fade in/out of overlay

  - by therobot

  I've got a MPMoviePlayerViewController, and I've added an overlay as a subview to the MPMoviePlayerController.view that it controls. Does anyone know if there's an easy way to make my added overlay fade in and out with the rest of the controls? My code to initialize and present the player is: LandscapeMPVC * theMovieViewController = [[LandscapeMPVC alloc] initWithContentURL:sourceURL]; MPMoviePlayerController * theMoviePlayer = [theMovieViewController moviePlayer]; [theMoviePlayer setRepeatMode:MPMovieRepeatModeOne]; [theMoviePlayer setScalingMode:MPMovieScalingModeAspectFit]; [theMoviePlayer setFullscreen:YES]; // Attemps at overlays MPViewOverlayController * overlayCont = [[MPViewOverlayController alloc] init]; [[theMovieViewController view] addSubview:overlayCont.view]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(resetToolbar:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackDidFinishNotification object:theMoviePlayer]; [self presentMoviePlayerViewControllerAnimated:theMovieViewController]; LandscapeMPVC is just a subclass of MoviePlayerViewController where I overwrite the orientation code. When the rest of the controls fade in the movie player, my custom overlay does not. Is there some code in the controller that I need to add, or some notification that is sent? Any input would be greatly appreciated.

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• Launch command on remote Windows machine, given admin credentials

  - by Bilal Aslam

  I have a Windows Server 2008 instance on Amazon EC2 (Amazon's cloud compute platform, which provides VMs in the cloud). It has an external IP, and I have an admin account on the box. I would like to 'bootstrap' this instance remotely i.e. I want to run commands to download, install and configure apps on it, all without having to log on even once. I have figured out how to do this to a remote, domain-joined computer using WMI. I can even use psexec to get what I want, as long as the remote computer is part of the domain. However, I have NOT been able to do for a remote computer on EC2. Here are some specific restrictions: 1) The remote computer is not part of my domain, hence no Kerberos 2) The remote computer does not have a cert I trust, or vice versa I am sure I am running into to some auth/trust restriction. Is there any way I can run a single command on the remote, given that I have admin privileges? I'm not tied down to using WMI, but I do need to run a command somehow. Feels like this should be a solved problem.

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• Core Data, Bindings, value transformers : crash when saving

  - by Gael

  Hi, I am trying to store a PNG image in a core data store backed by an sqlite database. Since I intend to use this database on an iPhone I can't store NSImage objects directly. I wanted to use bindings and an NSValueTransformer subclass to handle the transcoding from the NSImage (obtained by an Image well on my GUI) to an NSData containing the PNG binary representation of the image. I wrote the following code for the ValueTransformer : + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSImage class]; } + (BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return YES; } - (id)transformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; return [[[NSImage alloc] initWithData:value] autorelease]; } - (id)reverseTransformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; if(![value isKindOfClass:[NSImage class]]) { NSLog(@"Type mismatch. Expecting NSImage"); } NSBitmapImageRep *bits = [[value representations] objectAtIndex: 0]; NSData *data = [bits representationUsingType:NSPNGFileType properties:nil]; return data; } The model has a transformable property configured with this NSValueTransformer. In Interface Builder a table column and an image well are both bound to this property and both have the proper value transformer name (an image dropped in the image well shows up in the table column). The transformer is registered and called every time an image is added or a row is reloaded (checked with NSLog() calls). The problem arises when I am trying to save the managed objects. The console output shows the error message : [NSImage length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1004933a0 It seems like core data is using the value transformer to obtain the NSImage back from the NSData and then tries to save the NSImage instead of the NSData. There are probably workarounds such as the one presented in this post but I would really like to understand why my approach is flawn. Thanks in advance for your ideas and explanations.

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• Hibernate query for multiple items in a collection

  - by aarestad

  I have a data model that looks something like this: public class Item { private List<ItemAttribute> attributes; // other stuff } public class ItemAttribute { private String name; private String value; } (this obviously simplifies away a lot of the extraneous stuff) What I want to do is create a query to ask for all Items with one OR MORE particular attributes, ideally joined with arbitrary ANDs and ORs. Right now I'm keeping it simple and just trying to implement the AND case. In pseudo-SQL (or pseudo-HQL if you would), it would be something like: select all items where attributes contains(ItemAttribute(name="foo1", value="bar1")) AND attributes contains(ItemAttribute(name="foo2", value="bar2")) The examples in the Hibernate docs didn't seem to address this particular use case, but it seems like a fairly common one. The disjunction case would also be useful, especially so I could specify a list of possible values, i.e. where attributes contains(ItemAttribute(name="foo", value="bar1")) OR attributes contains(ItemAttribute(name="foo", value="bar2")) -- etc. Here's an example that works OK for a single attribute: return getSession().createCriteria(Item.class) .createAlias("itemAttributes", "ia") .add(Restrictions.conjunction() .add(Restrictions.eq("ia.name", "foo")) .add(Restrictions.eq("ia.attributeValue", "bar"))) .list(); Learning how to do this would go a long ways towards expanding my understanding of Hibernate's potential. :)

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• Collections of generics

  - by Luis Sep

  According to what I've read, I think this can't be done, but I'd like to be sure. I have a class OpDTO and several other *DTO extends OpDTO. Then, I want to have a method to extract just certain elements from lists of these child DTOs, and return the extracted elements in another list: public List<? extends OpDTO> getLastOp (List<? extends OpDTO> listDTOs) { List<? extends OpDTO> last = new ArrayList<? extends OpDTO>(); //compile error: Cannot instantiate the type ArrayList<? extends OpDTO> //processing return last; } I want ult to be a list of elements of the same kind as elements in listDTOs, and use only OpDTO's methods, but it produces a compile error: Cannot instantiate the type ArrayList<? extends OpDTO> I also tried doing something like: public <T> List<T> getLastOp (List<T> listDTOs) { List<T> last = new ArrayList<T>(); //processing return last; } But then I can't enforce elements in listDTOs to be a subclass of OpDTO, and can't instantiate T. Any idea?

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• constructor function's object literal returns toString() method but no other method

  - by JohnMerlino

  I'm very confused with javascript methods defined in objects and the "this" keyword. In the below example, the toString() method is invoked when Mammal object instantiated: function Mammal(name){ this.name=name; this.toString = function(){ return '[Mammal "'+this.name+'"]'; } } var someAnimal = new Mammal('Mr. Biggles'); alert('someAnimal is '+someAnimal); Despite the fact that the toString() method is not invoked on the object someAnimal like this: alert('someAnimal is '+someAnimal.toString()); It still returns 'someAnimal is [Mammal "Mr. Biggles"]' . That doesn't make sense to me because the toString() function is not being called anywhere. Then to add even more confusion, if I change the toString() method to a method I make up such as random(): function Mammal(name){ this.name=name; this.random = function(){ return Math.floor(Math.random() * 15); } } var someAnimal = new Mammal('Mr. Biggles'); alert(someAnimal); It completely ignores the random method (despite the fact that it is defined the same way was the toString() method was) and returns: [object object] Another issue I'm having trouble understanding with inheritance is the value of "this". For example, in the below example function person(w,h){ width.width = w; width.height = h; } function man(w,h,s) { person.call(this, w, h); this.sex = s; } "this" keyword is being send to the person object clearly. However, does "this" refer to the subclass (man) or the super class (person) when the person object receives it? Thanks for clearing up any of the confusion I have with inheritance and object literals in javascript.

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• Active Record two belongs_to calls to the same model

  - by ethyreal

  In linking a sports event to two teams, at first this seemed to make since: events - id:integer - integer:home_team_id - integer:away_team_id teams - integer:id - string:name However I am troubled by how I would link that up in the active record model: class Event belongs_to :home_team, :class_name => 'Team', :foreign_key => "home_team_id" belongs_to :away_team, :class_name => 'Team', :foreign_key => "away_team_id" end Is that the best solution? In an answer to a similar question I was pointed to single table inheritance, and then later found polymorphic associations. Neither of which seemed to fit this association. Perhaps I am looking at this wrong, but I see no need to subclass a team into home and away teams since the distinction is only in where the game is played. I thought also about a has_many through association but that seems two much as I will only ever need two teams, but those two teams don't belong to any one event. event_teams - integer:event_id - integer:team_id - boolean:is_home Is there a cleaner more semantic way for making these associations in active record? Thanks

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• JUnit confusion: use 'extend Testcase' or '@Test' ?

  - by Rabarberski

  I've found the proper use (or at least the documentation) of JUnit very confusing. This question serves both as a future reference and as a real question. If I've understood correctly, there are two main approaches to create and run a JUnit test: Approach A: create a class that extends TestCase, and start test methods with the word test. When running the class as a JUnit Test (in Eclipse), all methods starting with the word test are automatically run. import junit.framework.TestCase; public class DummyTestA extends TestCase { public void testSum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Approach B: create a 'normal' class and prepend a @Test annotation to the method. Note that you do NOT have to start the method with the word test. import org.junit.*; import static org.junit.Assert.*; public class DummyTestB { @Test public void Sum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Mixing the two seems not to be a good idea, see e.g. this stackoverflow question: Now, my questions(s): What is the preferred approach, or when would you use one instead of the other? Approach B allows for testing for exceptions by extending the @Test annotation like in @Test(expected = ArithmeticException.class). But how do you test for exceptions when using approach A? When using approach A, you can group a number of test classes in a test suite. TestSuite suite = new TestSuite("All tests");<br/> suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestA.class); suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestAbis.class);` But this can't be used with approach B (since each testclass should subclass TestCase). What is the proper way to group tests for approach B?

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• FluentNHibernate, getting 1 column from another table

  - by puffpio

  We're using FluentNHibernate and we have run into a problem where our object model requires data from two tables like so: public class MyModel { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual int FooId { get; set; } public virtual string FooName { get; set; } } Where there is a MyModel table that has Id, Name, and FooId as a foreign key into the Foo table. The Foo tables contains Id and FooName. This problem is very similar to another post here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1896645/nhibernate-join-tables-and-get-single-column-from-other-table but I am trying to figure out how to do it with FluentNHibernate. I can make the Id, Name, and FooId very easily..but mapping FooName I am having trouble with. This is my class map: public class MyModelClassMap : ClassMap<MyModel> { public MyModelClassMap() { this.Id(a => a.Id).Column("AccountId").GeneratedBy.Identity(); this.Map(a => a.Name); this.Map(a => a.FooId); // my attempt to map FooName but it doesn't work this.Join("Foo", join => join.KeyColumn("FooId").Map(a => a.FooName)); } } with that mapping I get this error: The element 'class' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has invalid child element 'join' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. List of possible elements expected: 'joined-subclass, loader, sql-insert, sql-update, sql-delete, filter, resultset, query, sql-query' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. any ideas?

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• Center a TextBox over the top of a ScrollViewer in WPF.

  - by Eric

  I have a MainView that contains a navigation bar which selects one of many XAML pages to be displayed in the page view pane. The MainView contains a ScrollViewer around the pages. This allows the pages to be whatever size they need to be and the MainView's ScrollViewer scrolls them. This all works great. On one of the pages, I need to (sometimes) center a TextBox in the middle of the page view pane (over the top of the page content). This was easily done by placing both the page content and the TextBox overlapping each other in a Grid (and I hide the TextBox as necessary). This all seems to work great. However, if the page content grows to be larger than the pane, the TextBox is centered not on the pane, but on the full page content. Thus, it moves from center screen down and/or to the right (and eventually off the screen). Bummer. Options: Remove the ScrollViewer from the MainView. This would require placing one on every page! Argh. Do option #1, and create a ScrolledPage base class. This is a lot of work, and I'm worried about tools issues (Blend issues). It also requires changing every page (to subclass this page). Somehow override the ScrollViewer on just this page. Then, place another ScrollViewer on the page content to Scroll it. Option 3 seems preferable, because it contains the issue to just modifying this page (instead of changing the rest of the pages). However, I can't figure out how to do it. Ideas? Thanks in advance! Eric

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• User preferences using SQL and JavaScript

  - by Shyam

  Hi, I am using Server Side JavaScript - yes, I am actually using Server Side JavaScript. To complexify things even more, I use Oracle as a backend database (10g). With some crazy XSLT and mutant-like HTML generation, I can build really fancy web forms - yes, I am aware of Rails and other likewise frameworks and I choose the path of horror instead. I have no JQuery or other fancy framework at my disposal, just plain ol' JavaScript that should be supported by the underlying engine called Mozilla Rhino. Yes, it is insane and I love it. So, I have a bunch of tables at my disposal and some of them are filled with associative keys that link to values. As I am a people pleaser, I want to add some nifty user-preference driven solutions. My users have all an unique user_id and this user_id is available during the entire session. My initial idea is to have a user preference table, where I have "three" columns: user_id, feature and pref_string. Using a delimiter, such as : or - (haven't thought about a suitable one yet), I could like store a bunch of preferences as a list and store its elements inside an array using the .split-method (similar like the PHP-explode function). The feature column could be like the table name or some identifier for the "feature" i want to link preferences too. I hate hardcoding objects, especially as I want to be able to back these up and reuse this functionality application-wide. Of course I would love better ideas, just keep in mind I cannot just add a library that easily. These preferences could be like "joined" to the table, so I can query it and use its values. I hope it doesn't sounds too complex, because well.. its basically something really simple I need. Thanks!

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• Help with SQL Query

  - by djfrear

  With regards to the following statement: Select * From explorer.booking_record booking_record_ Inner Join explorer.client client_ On booking_record_.labelno = client_.labelno Inner Join explorer.tour_hotel tour_hotel_ On tour_hotel_.tourcode = booking_record_.tourrefcode Inner Join explorer.hotelrecord hotelrecord_ On tour_hotel_.hotelcode = hotelrecord_.hotelref Where booking_record_.bookingdate Not Like '0000-00-00' And booking_record_.tourdeparturedate Not Like '0000-00-00' And hotelrecord_.hotelgroup = "LPL" And Year(booking_record_.tourdeparturedate) Between Year(AddDate(Now(), Interval -5 Year)) And Year(Now()) My MySQL skills are certainly not up to scratch, the actual result set I wish to find is "a customer who has been to 5 or more LPL hotels in the past 5 years". So far I havent got as far as dealing with the count as I'm getting a huge number of results with some 250+ per customer. I assume this is to do with the way I'm joining tables. Schema wise the booking_record table contains a tour reference code, which links to tour_hotel which then contains a hotelcode which links to hotelrecord. This hotelrecord table contains the hotelgroup. The client table is joined to the booking_record via a booking reference and a client may have many bookings. If anyone could suggest a way for me to do this I'd be very grateful and hopefully learn enough to do it myself next time! I've been scratching my head over this one for a few hours now! Customers may have many bookings within booking_record Daniel.

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• MySQL Gurus: How to pull a complex grid of data from MySQL database with one query?

  - by iopener

  Hopefully this is less complex than I think. I have one table of companies, and another table of jobs, and a third table with that contains a single entry for each employee in each job from each company. NOTE: Some companies won't have employees in some jobs, and some companies will have more than one employee in some jobs. The company table has a companyid and companyname field, the job table has a jobid and jobtitle field, and the employee table has employeeid, companyid, jobid and employeename fields. I want to build a table like this: +-----------+-----------+-----------+ | Company A | Company B | Company C | ------+-----------+-----------+-----------+ Job A | Emp 1 | Emp 2 | | ------+-----------+-----------+-----------+ Job B | Emp 3 | | Emp 4 | | | | Emp 5 | ------+-----------+-----------+-----------+ Job C | | Emp 6 | | | | Emp 7 | | | | Emp 8 | | ------+-----------+-----------+-----------+ I had previously been looping through a result set of jobs, and for each job, looping through a result set of each company, and for each company, looping through each employee and printing it in a table (gross, but performance was not supposed to be a consideration). The app has grown in popularity, and now we have 100 companies and hundreds of jobs, and the server is crapping out (all the id fields are indexed). Any suggestions on how to write a single query to get this data? I don't need the company names or job titles (obviously), but I do need some way to identify where each row from the result should be printed. I'm imagining a result set that just contained a long list of joined employees, and I could write a loop to use the companyid and employeeid values to tell me when to create a new cell or table row. This works as long as there aren't ZERO employees; I would need a NULL employee name for that I think? Am I completely on the wrong track? Thanks in advance for any ideas!

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• Change classes instantiated with loadNibNamed

  - by Nick H247

  I am trying to change the class of objects created with a nib with the iPhone SDK. The reason for this is; i dont know until runtime what the class is that i want the nib object to be (though they will have the same UIView based super class), and i dont want to create a different nib for every eventuality - as the .nib will be the same for each, apart from the class of one object. I have been successful, with a couple of methods, but either have some knock on effects or am unsure of how safe the methods I have used are: Method 1: Override alloc, on the super class and set a c variable to the class I require: + (id) alloc { if (theClassIWant) { id object = [theClassIWant allocWithZone:NSDefaultMallocZone()]; theClassIWant = nil; return object; } return [BaseClass allocWithZone:NSDefaultMallocZone()]; } this works well, and i assume is 'reasonably' safe, though if I alloc a subclass myself (without setting 'theClassIWant') - an object of the base class is created. I also dont really like the idea of overriding alloc... Method 2: use object_setClass(self,theClassIWant) in initWithCoder (before calling initWithCoder on the super class): - (id) initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)aDecoder { if (theClassIWant) { // the framework doesn't like this: //[self release]; //self = [theClassIWant alloc]; // whoa now! object_setClass(self,theClassIWant); theClassIWant = nil; return [self initWithCoder:aDecoder]; } if (self = [super initWithCoder:aDecoder]) { ... this also works well, but not all the subclasses are necessarily going to be the same size as the super class, so this could be very unsafe! To combat this i tried releasing and re-allocing to the correct type within initWithCoder, but i got the following error from the framework: "This coder requires that replaced objects be returned from initWithCoder:" dont quite get what this means! i am replacing an object in initWithCoder... Any comments on the validity of these methods, or suggestions of improvements or alternatives welcome!

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• Accessing running task scheduled with java.util.Timer

  - by jbatista

  I'm working on a Java project where I have created a class that looks like this (abridged version): public class Daemon { private static Timer[] timerarray=null; private static Daemon instance=null; protected Daemon() { ArrayList<Timer> timers = new ArrayList<Timer>(); Timer t = new Timer("My application"); t.schedule(new Worker(), 10000,30000); timers.add(t); //... timerarray = timers.toArray(new Timer[]{}); } public static Daemon getInstance() { if(instance==null) instance=new Daemon(); return instance; } public SomeClass getSomeValueFromWorker() { return theValue; } ///////////////////////////////////////////// private class Worker extends TimerTask { public Worker() {} public void run() { // do some work } public SomeReturnClass someMethod(SomeType someParameter) { // return something; } } ///////////////////////////////////////////// } I start this class, e.g. by invoking daemon.getInstance();. However, I'd like to have some way to access the running task objects' methods (for example, for monitoring the objects' state). The Java class java.util.Timer does not seem to provide the means to access the running object, it just schedules the object instance extending TimerTask. Are there ways to access the "running" object instanciated within a Timer? Do I have to subclass the Timer class with the appropriate methods to somehow access the instance (this "feels" strange, somehow)? I suppose someone might have done this before ... where can I find examples of this "procedure"? Thank you in advance for your feedback.

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• how often should the entire suite of a system's unit tests be run?

  - by gerryLowry

  Generally, I'm still very much a unit testing neophyte. BTW, you may also see this question on other forums like xUnit.net, et cetera, because it's an important question to me. I apoligize in advance for my cross posting; your opinions are very important to me and not everyone in this forum belongs to the other forums too. I was looking at a large decade old legacy system which has had over 700 unit tests written recently (700 is just a small beginning). The tests happen to be written in MSTest but this question applies to all testing frameworks AFAIK. When I ran, via vs2008 "ALL TESTS", the final count was only seven tests. That's about 1% of the total tests that have been written to date. MORE INFORMATION: The ASP.NET MVC 2 RTM source code, including its unit tests, is available on CodePlex; those unit tests are also written in MSTest even though (an irrelevant fact) Brad Wilson later joined the ASP.NET MVC team as its Senior Programmer. All 2000 plus tests get run, not just a few. QUESTION: given that AFAIK the purpose of unit tests is to identify breakages in the SUT, am I correct in thinking that the "best practice" is to always, or at least very frequently, run all of the tests? Thank you. Regards, Gerry (Lowry)

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• Cyclic Reference - protocols and subclasses

  - by blindJesse

  I'm getting some cyclic reference (I think) problems between a few classes that require imported headers due to either subclassing or protocol definitions. I can explain why things are set up this way but I'm not sure it's essential. Basically these classes are managing reciprocal to-many data relationships. The layout is this: Class A imports Class B because it's a delegate of Class B and needs its protocol definition. Class B imports Class C because it's a subclass of Class C. Class C imports Class A because it's a delegate of Class A and needs its protocol definition. Here's some sample code that illustrates the problem. The errors I'm getting are as follows: In Class A - "Can't find protocol definition for Class_B_Delegate". In Class B - "Can't find interface declaration for Class C - superclass of Class B." In Class C - "Can't find protocol definition for Class_A_Delegate". Class A header: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Class_B.h" @protocol Class_A_Delegate @end @interface Class_A : NSObject <Class_B_Delegate> { } @end Class B header: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Class_C.h" @protocol Class_B_Delegate <NSObject> @end @interface Class_B : Class_C { } @end Class C Header: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Class_A.h" @interface Class_C : NSObject <Class_A_Delegate> { } @end

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• Modifying existing object attributes in Core Data after the fact

  - by glorifiedHacker

  In a previous question, I was looking for an alternative to modifying how "no date" was being stored in the date attribute of my NSManagedObject subclass. Previously, I had assigned nil to that attribute when a user didn't assign a date. In order to address sorting issues when using NSFetchedResultsController, I have decided to assign [NSDate distantFuture] to the date attribute when a user doesn't assign a date. However, given that this app is already in the wild, I need to update the Core Data store such that any existing nil date values are changed to [NSDate distantFuture]. What is the best way to make this change? The first thing that comes to mind is to iterate through all of the objects in the store in an array and change any nil values that are found. This could be limited to a one-time event by checking against a user defaults key that indicates whether this upgrade has been performed. Is there a way that I can do this with Core Data versioning instead? Or another method that doesn't involve me writing throw-away code?

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• PHP / Zend Framework: Force prepend table name to column name in result array?

  - by Brian Lacy

  I am using Zend_Db_Select currently to retrieve hierarchical data from several joined tables. I need to be able to convert this easily into an array. Short of using a switch statement and listing out all the columns individually in order to sort the data, my thought was that if I could get the table names auto-prepended to the keys in the result array, that would solve my problem. So considering the following (assembled) SQL: SELECT user.*, contact.* FROM user INNER JOIN contact ON contact.user_id = user.user_id I would normally get a result array like this: [username] => 'bob', [contact_id] => 5, [user_id] => 2, [firstname] => 'bob', [lastname] => 'larsen' But instead I want this: [user.user_id] => 2, [user.username] => 'bob', [contact.contact_id] => 5, [contact.firstname] => 'bob', [contact.lastname] => 'larsen' Does anyone have an idea how to achieve this? Thanks!

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• Qt and variadic functions

  - by Noah Roberts

  OK, before lecturing me on the use of C-style variadic functions in C++...everything else has turned out to require nothing short of rewriting the Qt MOC. What I'd like to know is whether or not you can have a "slot" in a Qt object that takes an arbitrary amount/type of arguments. The thing is that I really want to be able to generate Qt objects that have slots of an arbitrary signature. Since the MOC is incompatible with standard preprocessing and with templates, it's not possible to do so with either direct approach. I just came up with another idea: struct funky_base : QObject { Q_OBJECT funky_base(QObject * o = 0); public slots: virtual void the_slot(...) = 0; }; If this is possible then, because you can make a template that is a subclass of a QObject derived object so long as you don't declare new Qt stuff in it, I should be able to implement a derived templated type that takes the ... stuff and turns it into the appropriate, expected types. If it is, how would I connect to it? Would this work? connect(x, SIGNAL(someSignal(int)), y, SLOT(the_slot(...))); If nobody's tried anything this insane and doesn't know off hand, yes I'll eventually try it myself...but I am hoping someone already has existing knowledge I can tap before possibly wasting my time on it.

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