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  • Comparing lists of field-hashes with equivalent AR-objects.

    - by Tim Snowhite
    I have a list of hashes, as such: incoming_links = [ {:title => 'blah1', :url => "http://blah.com/post/1"}, {:title => 'blah2', :url => "http://blah.com/post/2"}, {:title => 'blah3', :url => "http://blah.com/post/3"}] And an ActiveRecord model which has fields in the database with some matching rows, say: Link.all => [<Link#2 @title='blah2' @url='...post/2'>, <Link#3 @title='blah3' @url='...post/3'>, <Link#4 @title='blah4' @url='...post/4'>] I'd like to do set operations on Link.all with incoming_links so that I can figure out that <Link#4 ...> is not in the set of incoming_links, and {:title => 'blah1', :url =>'http://blah.com/post/1'} is not in the Link.all set, like so: #pseudocode #incoming_links = as above links = Link.all expired_links = links - incoming_links missing_links = incoming_links - links expired_links.destroy missing_links.each{|link| Link.create(link)} One route I've tried: I'd rather not rewrite Array#- and such, and I'm okay with converting incoming_links to a set of unsaved Link objects; so I've tried overwriting hash eql? and so on in Link so that it ignored the id equality that AR::Base provides by default. But this is the only place this sort of equality should be considered in the application - in other places the Link#id default identity is required. Is there some way I could subclass Link and apply the hash, eql?, etc overwriting there? The other route I've tried is to pull out the attributes hash for each Link and doing a .slice('id',...etc) to prune the hashes down. But this requires writing seperate methods for keeping track of the Link objects while doing set operations on the hashes, or writing seperate Collection classes to wrap the incoming_links hash-list and Link-list which seems a bit overkill. What is the best way to design this interaction? Extra credit for cleanliness.

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  • Common Properties: Consolidating Loan, Purchase, Inventory and Sale tables into one Transaction tabl

    - by Frank Computer
    Pawnshop Application: I have separate tables for Loan, Purchase, Inventory & Sales transactions. Each tables rows are joined to their respective customer rows by: customer.pk [serial] = loan.fk [integer]; = purchase.fk [integer]; = inventory.fk [integer]; = sale.fk [integer]; Since there are so many common properties within the four tables, I consolidated the four tables into one table called "transaction", where a column: transaction.trx_type char(1) {L=Loan, P=Purchase, I=Inventory, S=Sale} Scenario: A customer initially pawns merchandise, makes a couple of interest payments, then decides he wants to sell the merchandise to the pawnshop, who then places merchandise in Inventory and eventually sells it to another customer. I designed a generic transaction table where for example: transaction.main_amount DECIMAL(7,2) in a loan transaction holds the pawn amount, in a purchase holds the purchase price, in inventory and sale holds sale price. This is clearly a denormalized design, but has made programming alot easier and improved performance. Any type of transaction can now be performed from within one screen, without the need to change to different tables.

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  • Mapping many-to-many association table with extra column(s)

    - by user635524
    My database contains 3 tables: User and Service entities have many-to-many relationship and are joined with the SERVICE_USER table as follows: USERS - SERVICE_USER - SERVICES SERVICE_USER table contains additional BLOCKED column. What is the best way to perform such a mapping? These are my Entity classes @Entity @Table(name = "USERS") public class User implements java.io.Serializable { private String userid; private String email; @Id @Column(name = "USERID", unique = true, nullable = false,) public String getUserid() { return this.userid; } .... some get/set methods } @Entity @Table(name = "SERVICES") public class CmsService implements java.io.Serializable { private String serviceCode; @Id @Column(name = "SERVICE_CODE", unique = true, nullable = false, length = 100) public String getServiceCode() { return this.serviceCode; } .... some additional fields and get/set methods } I followed this example http://giannigar.wordpress.com/2009/09/04/m ... using-jpa/ Here is some test code: User user = new User(); user.setEmail("e2"); user.setUserid("ui2"); user.setPassword("p2"); CmsService service= new CmsService("cd2","name2"); List<UserService> userServiceList = new ArrayList<UserService>(); UserService userService = new UserService(); userService.setService(service); userService.setUser(user); userService.setBlocked(true); service.getUserServices().add(userService); userDAO.save(user); The problem is that hibernate persists User object and UserService one. No success with the CmsService object I tried to use EAGER fetch - no progress Is it possible to achieve the behaviour I'm expecting with the mapping provided above? Maybe there is some more elegant way of mapping many to many join table with additional column?

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  • UIComponent in Swc

    - by mustISignUp
    In Flash, if i create a custom Movieclip, and compile it to a SWC, i can use it in .fla files (by linking to the .swc).. var mcInstance = new CustomMovieClip(); addChild(mcInstance); All the arrangement of graphics on the custom movieClip's layers is preserved. If i subclass UIComponent and compile to a swc, I can use the custom Class in my .fla file, but the new instance doesn't seem to construct the children arranged on the layers. I know that the correct way to make a custom component is to have the two frames, first to specify bounding box, second frame for assets, and that the first graphic in frame 1 is removed at runtime. But i'm not really trying to make a reusable component - i just want to use the UIComponent class (It seems to have some nice extensions to Sprite). As i really want some hand-positioned layers inside the component i figured i could have the bounding box as the first element on frame 1 (knowing that it would be removed), but any other items i put on frame 1 would be preserved - buttons, images, lines, etc. Is this possible?

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  • Html.Editor() helper in ASP.NET MVC 3 does not work as expected with array in model

    - by SlimShaggy
    In my ASP.NET MVC 3 application I have classes like the following: public class Localization<T> { public int VersionID { get; set; } public T Value { get; set; } ... } public class Localizable<T> { public Localization<T>[] Name { get; set; } ... } Then, I have the following view: @model dynamic ... @for (int i = 0; i < VersionCount; i++) { ... @Html.Editor(string.Format("Name[{0}.Value", i)) ... } Now, when I display this view, passing a subclass of Localizable<string> as the model, the textboxes for the strings are rendered, but they are empty. If I replace @Html.Editor(string.Format("Name[{0}.Value", i)) with @InputExtensions.TextBox(Html, string.Format("Name[{0}].Value", i), Model.Name[i].Value), the textboxes are correctly filled with values from the model. However, using TextBox instead of Editor is not an option for me, because I want to use different editor templates for different types of T. So, what am I doing wrong, or is it a bug in MVC, and is there any workaround?

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  • Type contraint problem of C#

    - by user351565
    I meet a problem about type contraint of c# now. I wrote a pair of methods that can convert object to string and convert string to object. ex. static string ConvertToString(Type type, object val) { if (type == typeof(string)) return (string)val; if (type == typeof(int)) return val.ToString(); if (type.InSubclassOf(typeof(CodeObject))) return ((CodeObject)val).Code; } static T ConvertToObject<T>(string str) { Type type = typeof(T); if (type == typeof(string)) return (T)(object)val; if (type == typeof(int)) return (T)(object)int.Parse(val); if (type.InSubclassOf(typeof(CodeObject))) return Codes.Get<T>(val); } where CodeObject is a base class of Employees, Offices ..., which can fetch by static method Godes.Get where T: CodeObject but the code above cannot be compiled because error #CS0314 the generic type T of method ConvertToObject have no any constraint but Codes.Get request T must be subclass of CodeObject i tried use overloading to solve the problem but not ok. is there any way to clear up the problem? like reflection?

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  • Stop SQL returning the same result twice in a JOIN

    - by nbs189
    I have joined together several tables to get data i want but since I am new to SQL i can't figure out how to stop data being returned more than once. her's the SQL statement; SELECT T.url, T.ID, S.status, S.ID, E.action, E.ID, E.timestamp FROM tracks T, status S, events E WHERE S.ID AND T.ID = E.ID ORDER BY E.timestamp DESC The data that is returned is something like this; +----------------------------------------------------------------+ | URL | ID | Status | ID | action | ID | timestamp | +----------------------------------------------------------------+ | T.1 | 4 | hello | 4 | has uploaded a track | 4 | time | | T.2 | 3 | bye | 3 | has some news | 3 | time | | t.1 | 4 | more | 4 | has some news | 4 | time | +----------------------------------------------------------------+ That's a very basic example but does outline what happens. If you look at the third row the URL is repeated when there is a different status. This is what I want to happen; +-------------------------------------------------------+ | URL or Status | ID | action | timestamp | +-------------------------------------------------------+ | T.1 | 4 | has uploaded a track | time | | hello | 3 | has some news | time | | bye | 4 | has some news | time | +-------------------------------------------------------+ Please notice that the the url (in this case the mock one is T.1) is shown when the action is has uploaded a track. This is very important. The action in the events table is inserted on trigger of a status or track insert. If a new track is inserted the action is 'has uploaded a track' and you guess what it is for a status. The ID and timestamp is also inserted into the events table at this point. Note: There are more tables that go into the query, 3 more in fact, but I have left them out for simplicity.

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  • How to display controllers with proper aligning in iPhone screen ?

    - by chatcja
    I have a issue of displaying information in iPhone screen. Case is as follows. I crated a view-based application in Xcode name as myView. Then open myViewViewController.xib interface builder, change back groung color and added label at top-let (0, 0) of the view. Then I add new file named as myView2ViewController, which is subclass of UIViewController and corresponding XIB also generated. Open myView2ViewController in IB and added a label at top-left as previous. Also changed the background color. In the "applicationDidFinishLaunching" of AppDeligate do following myView2ViewController *mView = [[myView2ViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"myView2ViewController" bundle:nil]; [window addSubview:mView.view]; When I run the application, it is shown as upper part of the Label is sheared. It seems as whole UI has been moved 20 px upper (Because, there is a horizontal space in the bottom). I guess this is due to some positioning. But still I could not found any way to fix it. Hope somebody will help me to identify this issue !!

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  • NSView only redraws on breakpoint

    - by Jacopo
    I have a custom view inside a NSPopover. It should change according to user input and it does the first time the user interact with it but it fails to redraw the following times. I have tried to put an NSLog inside the -drawRect: method and it doesn't get called during normal execution. When I try to debug and put a breakpoint inside the method it gets called normally and the app works as it should. I explicitly call the view -setNeedsDisplay: method every time I need it to redraw. I don't understand why it should make a difference. Here is the code that update the status of the view. These methods are part of the NSTextField delegate method -textDidChange: and I checked that these get called every time the user type something in the textfield associated with popover. [tokenCloud tokensToHighlight:[NSArray arrayWithObject:completeSuggestionString]]; tokenCloud.tokens = filteredTokens; [tokenCloud setNeedsDisplay:YES]; The views is a series of recessed button. The first line update the status of all the buttons in the popover and the second add or delete buttons. They both work properly because the first time they are called the view is update properly. I have also checked that both the status of the buttons in tokenCloud and its property tokens are updated correctly. The problem is that the NSView subclass, tokenCloud, doesn't redraw so the changes are not reflected in the UI the second time. Here is the draw method of the view: - (void)drawRect:(NSRect)rect { [self recalculateButtonLocations]; NSLog(@"Redrawn"); } Again this method gets called normally every time I update the view if I place a breakpoint in [self recalculateButtonLocations];. If instead I let the app run normally nothing gets logged in the console the second time I update the view. Same thing if I include the NSLog in the recalculateButtonLocations method, nothing gets logged the second time meaning that the method is not called.

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  • Obj-c method override/polymorphism problem

    - by Rod
    Ok, so I'm using Objective-C. Now, say I have: TopClass : NSObject - (int) getVal {return 1;} MidClass : TopClass - (int) getVal {return 2;} BotClass : MidClass - (int) getVal {return 3;} I then put objects of each type into an NSMutableArray and take one out. What I want to do is run the getVal func on the appropriate object type, but when I put id a = [allObjects objectAtIndex:0]; if ([a isKindOfClass:[TopClass class]]) { int i; i = [a getVal]; } I get firstly a warning about multiple methods called getVal (presumably because the compiler can't determine the actual object type until runtime). But more seriously I also get an error "void value not ignored as it should be" and it won't compile. If I don't try and use the return from [a getVal] then it compiles fine e.g. [a getval]; //obviously no good if I want to use the return value It will also work if I use isMemberOfClass statements to cast the object to a class before running the function e.g. if ([a isMemberOfClass:[BotClass]) i = [(BotClass*) a getVal]; But surely I shouldn't have to do this to get the functionality I require? Otherwise I'll have to put in a statement for every single subclass, and worse have to add a new line if I add a new sub class, which rather defeats the point of method overriding doesn't it? Surely there is a better way?

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  • How to get correct children ids using fields_for "parents[]", parent do |f| using f.fields_for :children, child ?

    - by Anatortoise House
    I'm editing multiple instances of a parent model in an index view in one form, as in Railscasts #198. Each parent has_many :children and accepts_nested_attributes_for :children, as in Railscasts #196 and #197 <%= form_tag %> <% for parent in @parents %> <%= fields_for "parents[]", parent do |f| <%= f.text_field :job %> <%= f.fields_for :children do |cf| %> <% cf.text_field :chore %> <% end %> <% end %> <% end %> <% end %> Given parent.id==1 f.text_field :job correctly generates <input id="parents_1_job" type="text" value="coding" size="30" name="parents[1][job]"> But cf.text_field :chore generates ids and names that don't have the parent index. id="parents_children_attributes_0_chore" name="parents[children_attributes][0][chore]" If I try passing the specific child object to f.fields_for like this: <% for child in parent.children %> <%= f.fields_for :children, child do |cf| %> <%= cf.text_field :chore %> <% end %> <% end %> I get the same. If I change the method from :children to "[]children" I get id="parents_1___children_chore" which gets the right parent_index but doesn't provide an array slot for the child index. "[]children[]" isn't right either: id="parents_1__children_3_chore" as I was expecting attributes_0_chore instead of 3_chore. Do I need to directly modify an attribute of the FormBuilder object, or subclass FormBuilder to make this work, or is there a syntax that fits this situation? Thanks for any thoughts.

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  • Improving the efficiency of multiple concurrent Core Animation animations

    - by Alex
    I have a view in my app that is very similar to the month view in the built-in Calendar app. There's a subview that holds the individual cells (a custom UIView subclass that draws text into its layer), and when the user navigates to the next "month", I create the new cells and slide the view to show them. When the animation stops, I remove the old, hidden cells and set things up so it's ready to go for the next animation. This all works nicely. However, I'd like to animate the cells' text color, as in the Calendar app, so that the outgoing ones transition to a lighter color and the incoming ones transition to a darker color. The problems is that I can have as many as 70 cells, so doing individual animations is very slow -- between 5-10 fps on my iPhone 3GS. I'm trying to find a less computationally intense way of doing this. My reading of the Shark results is that the majority of the time is spent redrawing the text for each frame for each frame. This makes sense, since text rendering is hardly the cheapest operation. I've considered creating a second view -- one holding the "outgoing" state and one holding the "incoming" state and using a single opacity animation to gradually reveal the updated cells while both are sliding. I'm concerned that instead of having 70 cells, I'll have 140, which seems like a lot of views. So, is that too many views or would there be a better way of doing this?

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  • How should a multi-threaded C application handle a failed malloc()?

    - by user294463
    A part of an application I'm working on is a simple pthread-based server that communicates over a TCP/IP socket. I am writing it in C because it's going to be running in a memory constrained environment. My question is: what should the program do if one of the threads encounters a malloc() that returns NULL? Possibilities I've come up with so far: No special handling. Let malloc() return NULL and let it be dereferenced so that the whole thing segfaults. Exit immediately on a failed malloc(), by calling abort() or exit(-1). Assume that the environment will clean everything up. Jump out of the main event loop and attempt to pthread_join() all the threads, then shut down. The first option is obviously the easiest, but seems very wrong. The second one also seems wrong since I don't know exactly what will happen. The third option seems tempting except for two issues: first, all of the threads need not be joined back to the main thread under normal circumstances and second, in order to complete the thread execution, most of the remaining threads will have to call malloc() again anyway. What shall I do?

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  • When my object is no longer referenced why do its events continue to run?

    - by Ryan Peschel
    Say I am making a game and have a base Buff class. I may also have a subclass named ThornsBuff which subscribes to the Player class's Damaged event. The Player may have a list of Buffs and one of them may be the ThornsBuff. For example: Test Class Player player = new Player(); player.ActiveBuffs.Add(new ThornsBuff(player)); ThornsBuff Class public ThornsBuff(Player player) { player.DamageTaken += player_DamageTaken; } private void player_DamageTaken(MessagePlayerDamaged m) { m.Assailant.Stats.Health -= (int)(m.DamageAmount * .25); } This is all to illustrate an example. If I were to remove the buff from the list, the event is not detached. Even though the player no longer has the buff, the event is still executed as if he did. Now, I could have a Dispel method to unregister the event, but that forces the developer to call Dispel in addition to removing the Buff from the list. What if they forget, increased coupling, etc. What I don't understand is why the event doesn't detatch itself automatically when the Buff is removed from the list. The Buff only existed in the list and that is its one reference. After it is removed shouldn't the event be detached? I tried adding the detaching code to the finalizer of the Buff but that didn't fix it either. The event is still running even after it has 0 references. I suppose it is because the garbage collector had not run yet? Is there any way to make it automatic and instant so that when the object has no references all its events are unregisted? Thanks.

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  • Dont understand the concept of extends in URL.openConnection() in JAVA

    - by user1722361
    Hi I am trying to learn JAVA deeply and so I am digging into the JDK source code in the following lines: URL url = new URL("http://www.google.com"); URLConnection tmpConn = url.openConnection(); I attached the source code and set the breakpoint at the second line and stepped into the code. I can see the code flow is: URL.openConnection() - sun.net.www.protocol.http.Handler.openConnection() I have two questions about this First In URL.openConnection() the code is: public URLConnection openConnection() throws java.io.IOException { return handler.openConnection(this); } handler is an object of URLStreamHandler, define as blow transient URLStreamHandler handler; But URLStreamHandler is a abstract class and method openConnection() is not implement in it so when handler calls this method, it should go to find a subclass who implement this method, right? But there are a lot classes who implement this methods in sun.net.www.protocol (like http.Hanlder, ftp.Handler ) How should the code know which "openConnection" method it should call? In this example, this handler.openConnection() will go into http.Handler and it is correct. (if I set the url as ftp://www.google.com, it will go into ftp.Handler) I cannot understand the mechanism. second. I have attached the source code so I can step into the JDK and see the variables but for many classes like sun.net.www.protocol.http.Handler, there are not source code in src.zip. I googled this class and there is source code online I can get but why they did not put it (and many other classes) in the src.zip? Where can I find a comprehensive version of source code? Thanks!

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  • Wrong class type in objective C

    - by Max Hui
    I have a parent class and a child class. GameObjectBase (parent) GameObjectPlayer(child). When I override a method in Child class and call it using [myPlayerClass showNextFrame] It is calling the parent class one. It turns out in the debugger, I see the myPlayerClass was indeed class type GameObjectBase (which is the parent class) How come? GameObjectBase.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "cocos2d.h" @class GameLayer; @interface GameObjectBase : NSObject { /* CCSprite *gameObjectSprite; // Sprite representing this game object GameLayer *parentGameLayer; */ // Reference of the game layer this object // belongs to } @property (nonatomic, assign) CCSprite *gameObjectSprite; @property (nonatomic, assign) GameLayer *parentGameLayer; // Class method. Autorelease + (id) initWithGameLayer:(GameLayer *) gamelayer imageFileName:(NSString *) fileName; // "Virtual methods" that the derived class should implement. // If not implemented, this method will be called and Assert game - (void) update: (ccTime) dt; - (void) showNextFrame; @end GameObjectPlayer.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "GameObjectBase.h" @interface GameObjectPlayer : GameObjectBase { int direction; } @property (nonatomic) int direction; @end GameLayer.h #import "cocos2d.h" #import "GameObjectPlayer.h" @interface GameLayer : CCLayer { } // returns a CCScene that contains the GameLayer as the only child +(CCScene *) scene; @property (nonatomic, strong) GameObjectPlayer *player; @end When I call examine in debugger what type "temp" is in this function inside GameLayer class, it's giving parent class GameObjectBase instead of subclass GameObjectPlayer - (void) update:(ccTime) dt { GameObjectPlayer *temp = _player; [temp showNextFrame]; }

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  • Friendly way to override `const`-overloaded member function?

    - by xtofl
    Given a base class class A { int i; public: int& f(){ return i;} const int& f() const { return i;} }; And a sub class class ConstA : private A { public: const int& f() const { return A::f(); } }; Is there a wrist-friendly way to access the ConstA::f method on a non-const variable? ConstA ca; int i = ca.f(); // compile error: int& A::f() is not accessible since A is privately inherited int j = static_cast<const ConstA&>(ca).f(); // this works, but it hurts a little... Or is it so ugly since hiding A::f generally is a bad idea, violating the Liskov Substitution Principle: any subclass of A must at least be capable of all A's functionality? void set( A& a, int i ) { a.f() = i; } class ConstA2 : public A { private: int& f(){ return A::f(); } }; ConstA2 ca2; set( ca2, 1 ); (Note: this question popped up while thinking about this question)

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  • Popovercontroller doesn't display full

    - by user2959234
    I have an UIPopovercontroller in with an content that generate from an viewcontroller. popOverController = [[UIPopoverController alloc]initWithPopUp:emLightPopUp]; popOverController.delegate = self; // Get device position. CGRect position = {parentButton.frame.origin,emLightPopUp.popUpView.frame.size}; CGSize popUpViewFrameSize = emLightPopUp.popUpView.frame.size; Link screenshot: http://i.stack.imgur.com/AxqoG.png The issue is that when I change the position of select devices (touched button) upwards, the displayed popup will be resized like the screenshot. I already try to set content size inside the subclass of uipopover but it still doesn't work: self.popoverContentSize = emLightPopUp.popUpView.frame.size; EDIT: I solved this problems by calculate the position that display the popup and scroll the scrollview inside into an upper position. Check out this code: -(void)moveDeviceOutMiddleScreen:(id)deviceButton { UIButton* button = (UIButton*)deviceButton; CGFloat yPositionRange = button.frame.origin.y - self.floorZoomScrollView.contentOffset.y; int middle_top_y = 70; int middle_bottom_y = 166; if (yPositionRange > middle_top_y && yPositionRange < middle_bottom_y) { CGRect newRect = CGRectMake(self.floorZoomScrollView.contentOffset.x, self.floorZoomScrollView.contentOffset.y +yPositionRange*0.6, self.floorZoomScrollView.frame.size.width, self.floorZoomScrollView.frame.size.height); [self.floorZoomScrollView scrollRectToVisible:newRect animated:NO]; } } Thanks for your responses.

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  • Windows 7 extremely slow login, exchange performance, printer enumeration, etc...

    - by Jeff
    Background: I have a fresh copy of Windows 7 Professional x64 on a Dell Latitude E6500. The laptop has 8GB RAM, 250GB drive, and all Intel peripherals (net/wifi/graphics). All available Windows updates, as well as hardware drivers are installed. The IT folks where I work joined the computer to our Windows 2003-based Active Directory domain. There are no errors in any logs that we've looked at, and Group Policy templates appear to have applied properly. Problem: Every time I turn on or reboot the computer, it takes between 2 to 10 (all times are actual) minutes after successfully typing my username/password to get to my desktop. My login script does not always run. Sometimes I get a black screen, and a couple of minutes later the login script will pop up and take up to 10 minutes to complete. I can get around this by hitting cntrl-shift-esc and running explorer.exe from the Task Manager. The login script continues to hang, but I can minimize it and go on about my business. Either way, it generally throws errors prior to completing. I often get slow or failed connectivity to Exchange via Outlook. When I bring up printer dialogs, they take several minutes to populate, and block the calling app while doing so. Copies to SMB shares are very slow. On my home network, everything works fine. On both the work network and home network, I can use remote internet resources just fine. Web pages pull up, remote VPN's are fine, I can max out bandwidth on SpeakEasy Speed Test. I can get almost max bandwidth transferring FTP/HTTP over a LAN. Another symptom of the problem is that when I first log in, the work network shows as "Identifying" for a long time in the Network and Sharing Center, and will often then change to the name of the work domain, but say "Unauthenticated Network". Note that this computer previously ran Windows Vista with none of these problems. Attempts to Fix: Installed the Win7 admin pack Uninstalled/reinstalled all hardware drivers Verified Active Directory DNS settings (Vista works relatively well on the same network) Reset all TCP/IP settings on all adapters using the netsh commands to do so Disabled ipv6 on all adapters Disable wifi adapter while on work network Locked the network card to 100/Full, 1000/Full; also tried Auto Added various important addresses to hosts file (exchange, dns, ad) -- removed when didn't help My background is a jpeg (sounds unrelated but there is apparently a win7 login bug related to solid color background) More I have forgotten The IT staff at my company indicated they believe this is due to having Windows 2003 AD servers and not having any Windows 2008 R2 AD servers. Other than that, they have no advice or assistance to offer other than a rebuild (already tried that once with similar symptoms), or downgrade to Vista. Any thoughts out there?

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  • Why can I not get a WDS-originated PXE boot to progress past the first file download?

    - by Jeff Shattock
    I'm trying to work out an automated Windows install process, and thought I'd give WDS a look. After some promising initial progress, I seem to have hit a wall. I imported the boot and install WIMs, and created the capture WIM successfully. However, whenever I try to PXE boot the reference machine against the WDS server, it kinda craps out. It finds the server and downloads WDSNBP.COM successfully, and then gives the message "TFTP download failed." According to WireShark, the only communication between the WDS box and the client box is the successful TFTP request and download of boot\x86\WDSNBP.COM. No further requests are sent. The WDS log on the server shows the same thing, one successful download and no more activity. I've tried every combination of the following, with exactly zero change in behaviour: Win Server 2008R2 vs 2012 vs 2012R2 WDS virtualized on KVM, ESXi, VirtualBox, VMWare Workstation Client virtualized on KVM, ESXi, VirtualBox, VMWare Workstation Every network adaptor type offered by the virtualization platforms. "Actual" network vs isolated, virtual network. MS DHCP server vs Linux isc-dhcp-server Joined to a domain vs Stand-alone I tried changing the boot filename in DHCP to pxeboot.com instead, and it has no problem downloading that file instead, but it then crabs about Boot\BCD being corrupted. Also, with 2012, it doesnt appear that WDSNBP.com does the architecture detection, or at least does'nt report that it did. 2008 reports that it found x64, and then errors. I find myself out of things to check, and I dont see anything immediately wrong. Where do I go from here? WDS server is at 192.168.1.50, DHCP/DNS at 192.168.1.7. Console of the client computer after the boot: MAC: 52:54:00:28:94:0E UUID: blah blah Searching for server (DHCP)..... Me: 192.168.1.155, DHCP: 192.168.1.7, Gateway 192.168.1.1 Loading 192.168.1.50:boot\x86\wdsnbp.com ...(PXE).................done Downloaded WDSNCP... TFPT download failed Interesting parts of /etc/dhcp/dhcpd.conf on the Linux DHCP server: allow booting; allow bootp; option option-60 code 60 = string; option option-66 code 66 = string; option option-67 code 67 = string; subnet 192.168.1.0 netmask 255.255.255.0 { range 192.168.1.110 192.168.1.253; next-server 192.168.1.50; option tftp-server-name "192.168.1.50"; option option-60 "PXEClient"; filename "boot\\x86\\wdsnbp.com"; option bootfile-name "boot\\x86\\wdsnbp.com"; }

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  • Bidirectional real-time sync of large file tree between two distant linux servers

    - by dlo
    By large file tree I mean about 200k files, and growing all the time. A relatively small number of files are being changed in any given hour though. By bidirectional I mean that changes may occur on either server and need to be pushed to the other, so rsync doesn't seem appropriate. By distant I mean that the servers are both in data centers, but geographically remote from each other. Currently there are only 2 servers, but that may expand over time. By real-time, it's ok for there to be a little latency between syncing, but running a cron every 1-2 minutes doesn't seem right, since a very small fraction of files may change in any given hour, let alone minute. EDIT: This is running on VPS's so I might be limited on the kinds of kernel-level stuff I can do. Also, the VPS's are not resource-rich, so I'd shy away from solutions that require lots of ram (like Gluster?). What's the best / most "accepted" approach to get this done? This seems like it would be a common need, but I haven't been able to find a generally accepted approach yet, which was surprising. (I'm seeking the safety of the masses. :) I've come across lsyncd to trigger a sync at the filesystem change level. That seems clever though not super common, and I'm a bit confused by the various lsyncd approaches. There's just using lsyncd with rsync, but it seems this could be fragile for bidirectionality since rsync doesn't have a notion of memory (eg- to know whether a deleted file on A should be deleted on B or whether it's a new file on B that should be copied to A). lipsync appears to be just a lsyncd+rsync implementation, right? Then there's using lsyncd with csync2, like this: http://www.axivo.com/community/threads/lightning-fast-synchronization-with-csync2-and-lsyncd.121/ ... I'm leaning towards this approach, but csync2 is a little quirky, though I did do a successful test of it. I'm mostly concerned that I haven't been able to find a lot of community confirmation of this method. People on here seem to like Unison a lot, but it seems that it is no longer under active development and it's not clear that it has an automatic trigger like lsyncd. I've seen Gluster mentioned, but maybe overkill for what I need? UPDATE: fyi- I ended up going with the original solution I mentioned: lsyncd+csync2. It seems to work quite well, and I like the architectural approach of having the servers be very loosely joined, so that each server can operate indefinitely on its own regardless of the link quality between them.

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  • Outlook Anywhere inconsistencies with authentication methods

    - by gravyface
    So I've read this question and attempted just about every other workaround I've found online. Problem seems completely illogical to me, anyways: SBS 2011, vanilla install; haven't touched anything in IIS or Exchange outside of what's been done through the checklist (brand new domain, completely new customer) except to import an existing wildcard certificate for *.example.com (which is valid, Remote Web Workplace and Outlook Web Access work fine). On the two test machines and one production machine running a mixture of Windows XP Pro, Windows 7 and Outlook 2003 through to 2010, I've had no problem saving the password after configuring Outlook Anywhere using the wrong authentication method. I repeat, I have had no issues using the wrong authentication method on these test machines; password saves the first time, no problem, can verify it exists in the credentials manager (Start Run control userpasswords2), close Outlook, reboot, go make a sammie, come back, credentials are still saved. When I say wrong, it's because I was choosing NTLM and Exchange (under Exchange Console Server Configuration Client Access) was set by default to use Basic. On two completely different machines setup by a co-worker, they had (under my guidance) used NTLM as well... except that frustratingly, Outlook would always ask for a password. One machine was Windows XP with Outlook 2010, the other was Windows 7 with Outlook 2003. When these two machines were set to use Basic -- the correct settings -- the option to save was there and now works without issue. Puzzled by how my machines could possibly work with the wrong authentication, I then went into one of them and changed the authentication method to Basic. Now here's where it gets a little crazy: if I go under Outlook and change the authentication to use the correct setting (Basic) it fails to save the password and Outlook prompts every time (without a "remember me" checkbox). I have not had a chance to change it to Basic on the other two machines to see if this is just a fluke or not, but something just isn't right here. My two hunches are either a missing/installed KB Update or perhaps a local security policy. I should add that none of the 5 test machines in the equation here have ever been joined to the domain.

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  • IIS6 Virtual Directory 500 Error on Remote Share

    - by David
    We have our servers at the server farm in a domain. Let's call it LIVE. Our developer computers live in a completely separate corporate domain, miles and miles away. Let's call it CORP. We have a large central storage unit (unix) that houses images and other media needed by many webservers in the server farm. The IIS application pools run as (let's say) LIVE\MediaUser and use those credentials to connect to a central storage share as a virtual directory, retrieve the images, and serve them as if they were local on each server. The problem is in development. On my development machine. I log in as CORP\MyName. My IIS 6 application pool runs as Network Service. I can't run it as a user from the LIVE domain because my machine isn't (and can not be) joined to that domain. I try to create a virtual directory, point it to the same network directory, click Connect As, uncheck the "Always use the authenticated user's credentials when validating access to the network directory" checkbox so that I can enter the login info, enter the credentails for LIVE\MediaUser, click OK, verify the password, etc. This doesn't work. I get "HTTP Error 500 - Internal server error" from IIS. The IIS log file reports sc-status = 500, sc-substatus = 16, and sc-win32-status = 1326. The documentation says this means "UNC authorization credentials are incorrect" and the Win32 status means "Logon failure: unknown user name or bad password." This would be all and good if it were anywhere close to accurate. I double- and trouble-checked it. Tried multiple known good logins. The IIS manager allows me to view the file tree in its window, it's only the browser that kicks me out. I even tried going to the virtual directory's Directory Security tab, and under Authentication and Access Control, I tried using the same LIVE domain username for the anonymous access credential. No luck. I'm not trying to run any ASP, ASP.NET, or other dynamic anything out of the virtual directory. I just want IIS to be able to load static images, css, and js files. If anyone has some bright ideas I would be most appreciative!

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  • Slow Windows Explorer on Windows 7

    - by MadBoy
    I have Laptop with i7 (4 cores), 8GB ram and SSD OCZ Vertex 3 MaxIOPS which in testing that I did just now does 400mb/s+ read/write. However the responsiveness of Windows Explorer is far from being perfect. Opening up Computer, Documents, going into folders is very slow (1-5seconds). I don't have any viruses or spyware and I have tried changing properties to optimize view for General Items. I tried disabling Search Indexer but it made search in Outlook 2010 crawl and didn't bring any other effect. Even double clicking on file takes some time to open things up (like clicking a Word document). I don't have any drives mapped, my computer is not joined to domain. I have multiple VPN connections that I connect to but they all have disabled default gateways. I tried using CC Cleaner or some Windows 7 Tweaks app to disable some things. I am power user using Visual Studio, Tortoise SVN and other developer/administration apps. Any non obvious ideas? Edit: So I've been trying to pinpoint where the issue comes from and it seems that straight after reboot Windows Explorer opens very fast, when I load 3-4 programs (Royal TS, Visual Studio, Outlook) it's noticeably slower and the more programs I have it gets worse. After I start closing programs it starts working better and if I leave 2 open it's fast again. I tried doing some research with DiskMon and other programs from sysinternals but couldn't find anything suspicious. Below are stats during normal usage with a lots of programs open: - Ram usage with a lot of programs open and no swap file (i disabled it for testing): 6.95GB - CPU usage: 15%, none of the cores takes more then 50% (I have VS 2010 open x 4) HD Tune Pro: OCZ-VERTEX3 MI Benchmark Test capacity: full Read transfer rate Transfer Rate Minimum : 363.9 MB/s Transfer Rate Maximum : 505.5 MB/s Transfer Rate Average : Access Time : Burst Rate : CPU Usage : HD Tune Pro: OCZ-VERTEX3 MI File Benchmark Drive C: Transfer rate test File Size: 500 MB Sequential read 484102 KB/s Sequential write 444714 KB/s Random read 7779 IOPS Random write 16888 IOPS Random read (queue depth = 32) 73007 IOPS Random write (queue depth = 32) 69790 IOPS HD Tune Pro: OCZ-VERTEX3 MI Random Access Test capacity: full Read test Transfer size operations / sec avg. access time max. access time avg. speed 512 bytes 3260 IOPS 0.306 ms 2.106 ms 1.592 MB/s 4 KB 4161 IOPS 0.240 ms 2.006 ms 16.256 MB/s 64 KB 2382 IOPS 0.419 ms 2.367 ms 148.934 MB/s 1 MB 449 IOPS 2.225 ms 4.197 ms 449.407 MB/s Random 809 IOPS 1.235 ms 6.551 ms 410.527 MB/s HD Tune Pro: OCZ-VERTEX3 MI Extra Tests Test capacity: full Random seek 3975 IOPS 0.252 ms 1.941 MB/s Random seek 4 KB 4245 IOPS 0.236 ms 16.583 MB/s Butterfly seek 4086 IOPS 0.245 ms 1.995 MB/s Random seek / size 64 KB 3812 IOPS 0.262 ms 58.606 MB/s Random seek / size 8 MB 120 IOPS 8.348 ms 485.737 MB/s Sequential outer 4524 IOPS 0.221 ms 282.721 MB/s Sequential middle 4429 IOPS 0.226 ms 276.818 MB/s Sequential inner 5504 IOPS 0.182 ms 344.000 MB/s Burst rate 4472 IOPS 0.224 ms 279.475 MB/s

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  • Can't ping devices by IP address for devices allocated IPs by DHCP

    - by GiddyUpHorsey
    I have a home network with a Trendnet wireless router and a Windows Domain. The Domain Controller/DNS server is a Windows 2000 Server and is configured to forward queries to DNS servers provided by the ISP. The router provides DHCP and is configured with the Windows 2000 Server as the DNS server. The network has been set up for a couple of years and usually works fine. When I connect iPhones to the network over WiFi, the router can ping the iPhones through its browser based admin interface, but Windows machines that are part of the Windows Domain cannot. A laptop was connected to the network over WiFi that wasn't joined to the domain and it could see the iPhones. The router UI shows that the laptop has a reserved IP allocated via DHCP. All machines either have a static or DHCP allocated IP on the 192.168.0.* subnet. Router - 192.168.0.1 - Static - Wired Windows Domain Controller - 192.168.0.8 - Static - Virtual Windows 7 Workstation - 192.168.0.200 - DHCP Auto - Wired VMWare ESXi Host - 192.168.0.201 - Static? - Wired iPhone 1 - 192.168.0.202 - DHCP Auto - WiFi iPhone 2 - 192.168.0.203 - DHCP Auto - WiFi Windows Vista Laptop - 192.168.0.204 - DHCP Reserved - WiFi Using the Windows 7 machine (200), I try to ping each machine and the only DHCP machine that responds is itself. The other DHCP machines fail with Reply from 192.168.0.200: Destination host unreachable.. Using nslookup fails with *** domain.controller.name can't find 192.168.0.203: Non-existent domain. Using the Windows 2000 Domain Controller (8), I try to ping each machine and the only DHCP machine that responds is the Windows 7 machine (200). Pinging the other DHCP machines fails with Request timed out.. Using nslookup also fails with *** domain.controller.name can't find 192.168.0.203: Non-existent domain. Using the iPhone 2 (203), I try to ping (Network Ping Lite) the machines with static IP addresses and that works fine. When I try to ping the Windows 7 machine (200) it is unable to get a response. How do I configure the DNS server/Windows Domain/Router properly so that the Windows Domain machines can see the IPs allocated via DHCP?

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