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• Removing dotted border without setting NoFocus in Windows PyQt

  - by Cryptite

  There are a few questions on SO about this, all of which seem to say that the only way to remove the dotted border is to set the focusPolicy on widget/item in question to NoFocus. While this works as a temporary fix, this prevents further interaction with said widget/item in the realm of other necessary focusEvents. Said border in question: Here's an example of why this doesn't work. I have a Non-Modal widget popup, think a lightbox for an image. I want to detect a mousePressEvent outside of the widget and close the widget as a result. To do this, I should catch the focusOutEvent. However, if a vast majority of widgets in my program are set as NoFocus (to remove the border issue), then I cannot catch the focusOutEvent because, you guessed it, they have no focus policy. Here's another example: I have a QTreeWidget that is subclassed so I can catch keyPressEvents for various reasons. The QTreeWidget is also set as NoFocus to prevent the border. Because of this, however, the widget never has focus and therefore no keyPressEvents can be caught. A workaround for this (kludgy, imo) is to use the widget's grabKeyboard class, which is dangerous if I forget to releaseKeyboard later. This is not optimal. So then the question is, is there a way to remove this weird (mostly just ugly) dotted border without turning off focus for everything in my app? Thanks in advance!

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• Custom UITableViewCell trouble with UIAccessibility elements

  - by ojreadmore

  No matter what I try, I can't keep my custom UITableViewCell from acting like it should under the default rules for UIAccessiblity. I don't want this cell to act like an accessibility container (per se), so following this guide I should be able to make all of my subviews accessible, right?! It says to make each element accessible separately and make sure the cell itself is not accessible. - (BOOL)isAccessibilityElement { return NO; } - (NSString *)accessibilityLabel { return nil; } - (NSInteger)accessibilityElementCount { return 0; } - (id)initWithStyle:(UITableViewCellStyle)style reuseIdentifier:(NSString *)reuseIdentifier //cells use this reusage stuff { if (self = [super initWithStyle:style reuseIdentifier:reuseIdentifier]) { [self setIsAccessibilityElement:NO]; sub1 = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0,0,1,1)]; [sub1 setAccessibilityLanguage:@"es"]; [sub1 setIsAccessibilityElement:YES]; [sub1 setAccessibilityLabel:sub1.text] sub2 = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0,0,1,1)]; [sub2 setAccessibilityLanguage:@"es"]; [sub2 setIsAccessibilityElement:YES]; [sub2 setAccessibilityLabel:sub2.text] The voice over system reads the contents of the whole cell all at once, even though I'm trying to stop that behavior. I could say [sub2 setIsAccessibilityElement:NO]; but that would would make this element entirely unreadable. I want to keep it readable, but not have the whole cell be treated like a container (and assumed to be the English language). There does not appear to be a lot of information out there on this, so at the very least I'd like to document it.

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• How can I include DBNull as a value in my strongly typed dataset?

  - by Beska

  I've created a strongly typed dataset (MyDataSet) in my .NET app. For the sake of simplicity, we'll say it has one DataTable (MyDataTable), with one column (MyCol). MyCol has its DataType property set to "System.Int32", and its AllowDBNull property set to "true". I'd like to manually create a new row, and add it to this dataset. I create the row without a problem, with something like: MyDataSet.MyDataTableRow myRow = MySimpleDataSet.MyDataTable.NewItemRow(); Fine. However, when I try to set the value to DBNull: myRow.MyCol = DBNull.Value; I'm told that I can't do it...that it can't cast that to an int. This makes sense, in a way, since I've defined it to be an int...but then how can I get DBNull in there? Am I not supposed to be able to have DBNull in there? Isn't that what the AllowDBNull property is for? I'm obviously missing something fundemental. Can someone help explain what it is? EDIT: I also tried entering "int?" as the DataType, but Visual Studio throws an error when I enter it, saying that "Column requires a valid DataType."

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• AWK: compare apache dates without using regular expression

  - by smallmeans

  I'm writing a loganalysis application and wanted to grab apache log records between two certain dates. Assume that a date is formated as such: 22/Dec/2009:00:19 (day/month/year:hour:minute) Currently, I'm using a regular expression to replace the month name with its numeric value, remove the separators, so the above date is converted to: 221220090019 making a date comparison trivial.. but.. Running a regex on each record for large files, say, one containing a quarter million records, is extremely costly.. is there any other method not involving regex substitution? Thanks in advance Edit: here's the function doing the convertion/comparison function dateInRange(t, from, to) { sub(/[[]/, "", t); split(t, a, "[/:]"); match("JanFebMarAprMayJunJulAugSepOctNovDec", a[2]); a[2] = sprintf("%02d", (RSTART + 2) / 3); s = a[3] a[2] a[1] a[4] a[5]; return s >= from && s <= to; } "from" and "to" are the intervals in the aforementioned format, and "t" is the raw apache log date/time field (e.g [22/Dec/2009:00:19:36)

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• Visual Studio 2010 Bootstrap Folder?

  - by Matma

  We currently run a VS2005 app/environment and im investigating upgrading to 2010. But before i can say yes its all good, go buy bossman... I have to confirm that a bootstrap for a thridparty driver install which is included on our installation cd can be used/included (its a usb security dongle so drivers MUST be included/setup for our app to run). It is in the list of available pre-reqs but i didnt put it in the vs2010 bootstrap folder so is this coming from my vs2005 install? or the fact that i had previously selected it in the installer and its saved/loaded that in vs2010? Either way its got a little error icon and says its not found so i get errors on build. I want to resolve this and have it in the list of available pre-reqs as we did for 2005. i.e. copy it to the C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 8\SDK\v2.0\BootStrapper folder... But i cant seem to find where the bootstraps are for vs2010? does it not use them? Naturally ive searched the entire vs folder structure for appropriate files/folders but nothing? Where/How is this now done?

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• Windows 2008 VPS hosting experiences

  - by Luke Bennett

  Whilst similar questions exist, I couldn't find any which quite match my request. I'm looking for hosting for some personal .NET projects which for various reasons I do not want to host on our servers at work. I need to be able to host multiple sites and for that reason I'm thinking of a VPS with RDP access for the time being - don't fancy shared hosting as I feel that doesn't offer me the flexbility and control I'm looking for. What experiences do people have of Windows 2008 VPS providers? I've come across a few possibilities although it seems a lot of places are still on Windows 2003 with 2008 'coming soon'. Is VPS the best way to go? Eventually (depending on how the projects take off) I intend to get a dedicated box but at this stage it's not cost-effective. Also, what are people's experiences of running SQL Server Express on a VPS? What would you say the minimum requirements are for CPU/memory? I know it's not going to be anywhere near as performant as SQL Server 2005/8 running on a dedicated box but I'm hoping it will be an acceptable starting point. Any other tips/advice also welcome! Edit: Forgot to mention, I'm ideally looking for UK hosting although I'm open to alternatives.

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• What's the correct terminology for something that isn't quite classification nor regression?

  - by TC

  Let's say that I have a problem that is basicly classification. That is, given some input and a number of possible output classes, find the correct class for the given input. Neural networks and decision trees are some of the algorithms that may be used to solve such problems. These algorithms typically only emit a single result however: the resulting classification. Now what if I weren't only interested in one classification, but in the posterior probabilities that the input belongs to each of the classes. I.E., instead of the answer "This input belongs in class A", I want the answer "This input belongs to class A with 80%, class B with 15% and class C with 5%". My question is not on how to obtain these posterior probabilities, but rather on the correct terminology to describe the process of finding them. You could call it regression, since we are now trying to estimate a number of real valued numbers, but I am not quite sure if that's right. I feel it's not exactly classification either, it's something in between the two. Is there a word that describes the process of finding the class conditional posterior probabilities that some input belongs in each of the possible output classes? P.S. I'm not exactly sure if this question is enough of a programming question, but since it's about machine learning and machine learning generally involves a decent amount of programming, let's give it a shot.

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• Extending / changing how Zend_Search_Lucene searches

  - by Grant Collins

  Hi, I am currently using Zend_Search_Lucene to index and search a number of documents currently at around a 1000 or so. What I would like to do is change how the engine scores hits on a document, from the current default. Zend_Search_Lucene scores on the frequency of number of hits within a document, so a document that has 10 matches of the word PHP will score higher than a document with only 3 matches of PHP. What I am trying to do is pass a number of key words and score depending on the hits of those keywords. e.g. I pass 5 key words say,PHP, MySQL, Javascript, HTML and CSS that I search against the index. One document has 3 matches to those key words and one document has all 4 matches, the 4 matches scores the highest. The number of instances of those words in the document do not concern me. Now I've had a quick look at Zend_Search_Lucene_Search_Similarity however I have to confess that I am not sure (or that bright) to know how to use this to achieve what I am after. Is what I want to do possible using Lucene or is there a better solution out there?

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• C# "Rename" Property in Derived Class

  - by Eric

  When you read this you'll be awfully tempted to give advice like "this is a bad idea for the following reason..." Bear with me. I know there are other ways to approach this. This question should be considered trivia. Lets say you have a class "Transaction" that has properties common to all transactions such as Invoice, Purchase Order, and Sales Receipt. Let's take the simple example of Transaction "Amount", which is the most important monetary amount for a given transaction. public class Transaction { public double Amount { get; set; } public TxnTypeEnum TransactionType { get; set; } } This Amount may have a more specific name in a derived type... at least in the real world. For example, the following values are all actually the same thing: Transaction - Amount Invoice - Subtotal PurchaseOrder - Total Sales Receipt - Amount So now I want a derived class "Invoice" that has a Subtotal rather than the generically-named Amount. Ideally both of the following would be true: In an instance of Transaction, the Amount property would be visible. In an instance of Invoice, the Amount property would be hidden, but the Subtotal property would refer to it internally. Invoice looks like this: public class Invoice : Transaction { new private double? Amount { get { return base.Amount; } set { base.Amount = value; } } // This property should hide the generic property "Amount" on Transaction public double? SubTotal { get { return Amount; } set { Amount = value; } } public double RemainingBalance { get; set; } } But of course Transaction.Amount is still visible on any instance of Invoice. Thanks for taking a look!

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• Can TFS workspaces be used without being tied to a specific machine?

  - by GWLlosa

  So I've got a situation where we have a project with 10 developers. Each developer, when they come in for the day, is randomly issued a machine to use for development that day. The machine names are different, say DEV01 - DEV10. At the time that they are issued to the developers, the machines are identical, and no changes the developers make during the day are persisted on the machines (source code changes are stored in TFS, not locally). These are of course actually virtual machines, but that's not really relevant to the point at hand. The problem is that each morning, the developers run into 3 issues: 1) The machine that they are assigned may not be the same machine they were last assigned to. For example, DevMan A might have used DEV04 yesterday, and received DEV06 today. His workspace definitions are now tied to DEV06; he must create a new workspace, or migrate the old workspace to DEV04. 2) The machine that they are assigned may have been in use yesterday, and some of the mappings may conflict. For example, DevMan A might have DEV04 today, and wish to create a workspace mapping the project folder to "C:\MyProj\Solution". However, DevMan B had DEV04 yesterday, and he used the same project folder. TFS now complains. 3) This may be the first time they are on a given machine. They now need to recreate for this machine all of their source-control mappings for the new machine. All of these issues can be resolved in a straightforward fashion on a case-by-case basis, but it does sap some productivity from the morning. We'd much prefer if the TFS workspace definitions could be 'relaxed', such that they did not include the machine name in the definition somehow. Barring that, if anyone is aware of a solution to the above problems that can run automatically, or with limited user intervention, that would also be ideal.

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• What about parallelism across network using multiple PCs?

  - by MainMa

  Parallel computing is used more and more, and new framework features and shortcuts make it easier to use (for example Parallel extensions which are directly available in .NET 4). Now what about the parallelism across network? I mean, an abstraction of everything related to communications, creation of processes on remote machines, etc. Something like, in C#: NetworkParallel.ForEach(myEnumerable, () => { // Computing and/or access to web ressource or local network database here }); I understand that it is very different from the multi-core parallelism. The two most obvious differences would probably be: The fact that such parallel task will be limited to computing, without being able for example to use files stored locally (but why not a database?), or even to use local variables, because it would be rather two distinct applications than two threads of the same application, The very specific implementation, requiring not just a separate thread (which is quite easy), but spanning a process on different machines, then communicating with them over local network. Despite those differences, such parallelism is quite possible, even without speaking about distributed architecture. Do you think it will be implemented in a few years? Do you agree that it enables developers to easily develop extremely powerfull stuff with much less pain? Example: Think about a business application which extracts data from the database, transforms it, and displays statistics. Let's say this application takes ten seconds to load data, twenty seconds to transform data and ten seconds to build charts on a single machine in a company, using all the CPU, whereas ten other machines are used at 5% of CPU most of the time. In a such case, every action may be done in parallel, resulting in probably six to ten seconds for overall process instead of forty.

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• Doubly Linked Lists Implementation

  - by user552127

  Hi All, I have looked at most threads here about Doubly linked lists but still unclear about the following. I am practicing the Goodrich and Tamassia book in Java. About doubly linked lists, please correct me if I am wrong, it is different from a singly linked list in that a node could be inserted anywhere, not just after the head or after the tail using both the next and prev nodes available, while in singly linked lists, this insertion anywhere in the list is not possible ? If one wants to insert a node in a doubly linked list, then the default argument should be either the node after the to-be inserted node or node before the to-be inserted node ? But if this is so, then I don't understand how to pass the node before or after. Should we be displaying all nodes that were inserted till now and ask the user to select the node before or after which some new node is to be inserted ? My doubt is how to pass this default node. Because I assume that will require the next and prev nodes of these nodes as well. For e.g, Head<-A<-B<-C<-D<-E<-tail If Z is the new node to be inserted after say D, then how should node D be passed ? I am confused with this though it seems pretty simple to most. But pl do explain. Thanks, Sanjay

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• A public struct inside a class

  - by Koning Baard

  I am new to C++, and let's say I have two classes: Creature and Human: /* creature.h */ class Creature { private: public: struct emotion { /* All emotions are percentages */ char joy; char trust; char fear; char surprise; char sadness; char disgust; char anger; char anticipation; char love; }; }; /* human.h */ class Human : Creature { }; And I have this in my main function in main.cpp: Human foo; My question is: how can I set foo's emotions? I tried this: foo->emotion.fear = 5; But GCC gives me this compile error: error: base operand of '-' has non-pointer type 'Human' This: foo.emotion.fear = 5; Gives: error: 'struct Creature::emotion' is inaccessible error: within this context error: invalid use of 'struct Creature::emotion' Can anyone help me? Thanks P.S. No I did not forget the #includes

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• $query returns results but not the ones i want: $query looks good to me :S

  - by Toni Michel Caubet

  I'll start again, Lets say My data is: Table element (id,name,....) 1, name element 1, .... 2, name element 2, .... 3, name element 3, .... Table tags (id,name,id_element, ....) 1, happy , 1 2, result, 1 3, very , 1 4, element, 2 5, another, 3 6, element, 1 7, happy, 2 So if search is 'very, happy,element,result': Results i would like 1) element with id = 2 because it has all tags 2) element with id = 1 because it has the tag 'element' and the tag 'happy' (only 2 less taggs) 3) .... (only 3 less taggs) So if search is 'happy,element': Results i would like 1) element with id = 1 because it has all tags (and no more) 2) element with id = 2 because it has the tag 'element' and the tag 'happy' (and two more tags) 3) .... and 3 more tags This is an echo to my query: (it doesn't fit al requirements i wrote, but its first test to find with matched tags) SELECT element.id as id_deseada,tagg.* FROM element,tagg WHERE tagg.id_element = element.id AND tagg.nombre IN ('happy','tagg','result') GROUP BY tagg.id_element ORDER BY element.votos This returns 10 duplicated elements... :S and doen't even have all taggs (and on database there are taggs with 'happy' results) if it helps, thats how i get the elements of a tag (by name and with only one tagg) $query = "SELECT element.id FROM element,tagg WHERE tagg.nombre = '$nombre_tagg' AND tagg.id_element = element.id AND lan = '$lan' GROUP BY tagg.id_element"; I hope it's a bit easier to understand now, excuse my english.. :) Thanks a lot for you possible aportation!

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• Modify Gridview as it's being rendered through javascript

  - by JonF

  I'm trying to modify a field in each row of my gridview as it is rendered. I need to modify it with client side Javascript. I'm somewhat new to asp.net, but I think I should be doing something with clientscriptmanager. I came up with a simple scenario which is basically what I want to do to avoid getting bogged down in the details. If I could accomplish the following I could accomplish my goal. Say I have a grid view of names and salaries. I want to double each persons salary before displaying it. Obviously I can do it in the code behind, but due to the nature of the more complex actual thing I'm doing, I need to do it in javascript <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" onrowdatabound="GridView1_RowDataBound" > <Columns> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Full Name" DataField="Name" ></asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Salary" DataField="Salary" /> </Columns>

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• [php] Firefox refreshes page 1, even after redirection to page 2

  - by Znarkus

  Hi! This is a quite weird and annoying problem, which is reproduced with the script below. Say we have two pages: script.php and script.php?second. Page 1 creates some database entries and redirects to page 2. On page 2, the user is presented with an editor for said entries. If page 1 for some reason crashes on the first try, and prints some error message, a strange thing will happend. If we refresh page 1 (and this time it redirects fine), every consecutive refresh (of page 2) will actually refresh page 1 and again redirect to page 2. In the above example this would create new database entries for every refresh, which is the problem I want to circumvent by redirecting to page 2. <?php header('Content-type: text/plain'); session_start(); if (!isset($_GET['second'])) { $_SESSION['counter'] = isset($_SESSION['counter']) ? $_SESSION['counter'] + 1 : 1; /*$_SESSION['counter'] = 0; exit('asd');*/ header("Location: {$_SERVER['PHP_SELF']}?second", true, 303); exit; } echo "Counter: {$_SESSION['counter']}"; To try the above complete script, first run it with the commented code intact, then by enabling the commented code. I've tried 301, 302 and 303 redirections. Does someone know why this is happening?

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• BackgroundWorker Help needed

  - by ChrisMuench

  I have code that does a web-service request. While doing this request I need a progress-bar to be moving independently. My problem is that I just need to say run a progress update every 1 or 2 seconds and check to see if progress of the request has been completed. NetBasisServicesSoapClient client = new NetBasisServicesSoapClient(); TransactionDetails[] transactions = new TransactionDetails[dataGridView1.Rows.Count - 1]; for (int i = 0; i < dataGridView1.Rows.Count - 1; i++) { transactions[i] = new TransactionDetails(); transactions[i].TransactionDate = (string)dataGridView1.Rows[i].Cells[2].Value; transactions[i].TransactionType = (string)dataGridView1.Rows[i].Cells[3].Value; transactions[i].Shares = (string)dataGridView1.Rows[i].Cells[4].Value; transactions[i].Pershare = (string)dataGridView1.Rows[i].Cells[5].Value; transactions[i].TotalAmount = (string)dataGridView1.Rows[i].Cells[6].Value; } CostbasisResult result = client.Costbasis(dataGridView1.Rows[0].Cells[0].Value.ToString(), dataGridView1.Rows[0].Cells[1].Value.ToString(), transactions, false, "", "", "FIFO", true); string result1 = ConvertStringArrayToString(result.Details);

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• Bad idea to have the same object, have a different side effect after method call.

  - by Nathan W

  Hi all, I'm having a bit of a gesign issue(again). Say I have this Buttonpad object: now this object is a wrapper object over one in a com object. At the moment it has a method on it called CreateInto(IComObject). Now to make a new button pad in the Com Object. You do: ButtonPad pad = new ButtonPad(); pad.Title = "Hello"; // Set some more properties. pad.CreateInto(Cominstance); The createinfo method will excute the right commands to buid the button pad in the com object. After it has been created it any calls against it are foward to the underlying object for change so: pad.Title = "New title"; will call the com object to set the title and also set the internal title variable. Basically any calls before the CreateInfo method only affect the .NET object anything after has the side effect of calling the com object also. I'm not very good at sequence diagrams but here is my attempt to explain whats going on: This doesn't feel good to me, it feels like I'm lying to the user about what the button pad does. I was going to have a object called WrappedButtonPad, which is returned from CreateInto and the user could make calls against that to make changes to the Com Object, but I feel having two objects that almost do the same thing but only differ by names might be even worse. Are these valid designs, or am I right to be worried? How else would you handle a object the can create and query a com object?

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• Can I make an identity field span multiple tables in SQL Server?

  - by johnnycakes

  Can I have an "identity" (unique, non-repeating) column span multiple tables? For example, let's say I have two tables: Books and Authors. Authors AuthorID AuthorName Books BookID BookTitle The BookID column and the AuthorID column are identity columns. I want the identity part to span both columns. So, if there is an AuthorID with a value of 123, then there cannot be a BookID with a value of 123. And vice versa. I hope that makes sense. Is this possible? Thanks. Why do I want to do this? I am writing an APS.NET MVC app. I am creating a comment section. Authors can have comments. Books can have comments. I want to be able to pass an entity ID (a book ID or an author ID) to an action and have the action pull up all the corresponding comments. The action won't care if it's a book or an author or whatever. Sound reasonable?

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• Call any webservice from the same $.ajax() call

  - by Andreas

  Hi! Im creating a usercontrol which is controled client side, it has an javascript-file attatched to it. This control has a button and upon click a popup appears, this popup shows a list of my domain entities. My entities are fetched using a call to a webservice. Im trying to get this popup usercontrol to work on all my entities, therefore i have the need to call any webservice needed (one per entity for example) with the same $.ajax() call. I have hiddenfields for the webservice url in my usercontrol which you specify in the markup via a property. So far so good. The problem arise when i need some additional parameters to the webservice (other than pagesize and pageindex). Say for example that one webservice takes an additional parameter "Date". At the moment i have my parameters set up like this: var params = JSON.stringify({ pageSize: _this.pageSize, pageIndex: _this.pageIndex }); and then i call the webservice like so: $.ajax({ webserviceUrl, params, function(result) { //some logic }); }); What i want to do is to be able to add my extra parameters (Date) to "Param" when needed, the specification of these parameters will be done via properties of the usercontrol. So, bottom line, i have a set of default parameters and want to dynamically add optional extra parameters. How is this possible? Thanks in advance.

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• Java/JAXB: Accessing property of object in a list

  - by Mark Lewis

  Hello Using JAXB I've created a series of classes which represent my XML schema. Validating against the schema an XML file has thus become a 'tree' of java objects representing the XML. Now I'd like to access, delete and add an object of one the created types in my tree. If I've got classes' methods arranged like this: RootType class has: public List<FQType> getFq() { // and setter return fq; } FQType class has: public RemapType getRemap() { // and setter return remap; } RemapType class has: public String getSource() { // and setter return source; } What's the most concise way to code reading and writing of the 'source' member of a RemapType instance in an FQType instance with, say, fqtypeID=1, in an array of type RootType (in which RootType instances also each have rootID)? Currently I'm using a for loop Iterator in which is an if rootID = mySelectedRootID. In the if I nest a second for loop Iterator over the contained FQType instances and in that a second if fqTypeID = mySelectedFQTypeID. IE for loop iterator/if statement pairs to recognise the object of desire. With all the bells and whistles this way is nearly 15 lines of code to access a data type - can I do this in one line? Thanks

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• Why is short project lifetime and other situation-specific reasons used to excuse crappy code? [clos

  - by sharptooth

  Every now and then (including on SO) people say things implying that "if the project is short lived you can leave obvious defects there" or "that memory leak only accounts for 100 bytes per whole program lifetime and could be left". Now in my practice I always reuse company-owned code to the greatest extent I can. Like if I need something and I can find it in the company codebase I take it from there and reuse or adapt. This means that any crappy code will be reused as well and I might notice or not notice defects therein. So the defect in some "test we only need for a month" can slip into a proram we ship to customers. And a leak that "only accounted for 100 bytes per lifetime" now could account for 100 bytes 10 times per second in a server application intended to run for months. That's why I don't understand why excuses like that are offered. Is our compamy the only one having a source control? Or are we the only company that requires writing human-readable code? Could anyone shed a light on why people seriously offer such excuses?

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• assembling an object graph without an ORM -- in the service layer or data layer?

  - by Hans Gruber

  At my current gig, our persistence layer uses IBatis going against SQL Server stored procedures (puke). IMHO, this approach has many disadvantages over the use of a "true" ORM such NHibernate or EF, but the one I'm trying to address here revolves around all the boilerplate code needed to map data from a result set into an object graph. Say I have the following DTO object graph I want to return to my presentation layer: IEnumerable<CustomerDTO> |--> IEnumerable<AddressDTO> |--> LatestOrderDTO The way I've implemented this is to have a discrete method in my DAO class to return each IEnumerable<*DTO>, and then have my service class be responsible for orchestrating the calls to the DAO. It then returns the fully assembled object graph to the client: public class SomeService(){ public SomeService(IDao someDao){ this._someDao = someDao; } public IEnumerable<CustomerDTO> ListCustomersForHistory(int brokerId){ var customers = _someDao.ListCustomersForBroker(brokerId); foreach (customer in customers){ customer.Addresses = someDao.ListCustomersAddresses(brokerId); customer.LatestOrder = someDao.GetCustomerLatestOrder(brokerId); } } return customers; } My question is should this logic belong in the service layer or the should I make my DAO such that it instead returns the assembled object graph. If I was using NHibernate, I assume that this kind of relationship association between objects comes for "free"?

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• Maven + AspectJ - all steps to configure it

  - by Alice

  I have a problem with applying aspects to my maven project. Probably I am missing something, so I've made a list of steps. Could you please check if it is correct? Let say in projectA is an aspect class and in projectB classes, which should be changed by aspects. Create maven project ProjectA with AspectJ class add Aspectj plugin and dependency Add ProjectA as a dependency to projectB pom.xml Add to projectB pom.xml plugin " <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>aspectj-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>1.4</version> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>compile</goal> <goal>test-compile</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> <configuration> <source>${maven.compiler.source}</source> <target>${maven.compiler.target}</target> <aspectLibraries> <aspectLibrary> <groupId>ProjectA</groupId> <artifactId>ProjectA</artifactId> </aspectLibrary> </aspectLibraries> </configuration> </plugin> Add aspectj dependency After all these steps my problem is, that during compilation I get: [WARNING] advice defined in AspectE has not been applied [Xlint:adviceDidNotMatch] And then when I run my program: Exception in thread "FeatureExcutionThread" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: AspectE

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• Checking when two headers are included at the same time.

  - by fortran

  Hi, I need to do an assertion based on two related macro preprocessor #define's declared in different header files... The codebase is huge and it would be nice if I could find a place to put the assertion where the two headers are already included, to avoid polluting namespaces unnecessarily. Checking just that a file includes both explicitly might not suffice, as one (or both) of them might be included in an upper level of a nesting include's hierarchy. I know it wouldn't be too hard to write an script to check that, but if there's already a tool that does the job, the better. Example: file foo.h #define FOO 0xf file bar.h #define BAR 0x1e I need to put somewhere (it doesn't matter a lot where) something like this: #if (2*FOO) != BAR #error "foo is not twice bar" #endif Yes, I know the example is silly, as they could be replaced so one is derived from the other, but let's say that the includes can be generated from different places not under my control and I just need to check that they match at compile time... And I don't want to just add one include after the other, as it might conflict with previous code that I haven't written, so that's why I would like to find a file where both are already present. In brief: how can I find a file that includes (direct or indirectly) two other files? Thanks!

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