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• Looking for an Open Source Project in need of help

  - by hvidgaard

  Hi StackOverflow! I'm a CS student on well on my way to graduate. I have had a difficult time of finding relevant student jobs (they seems to be taken merely hours after the notice gets on the board) , so instead I'm looking for an open source project in need of help. I'm aware that I should choose one that I use, but I'm not aware of any OS-project that I use that needs help. That's why I'm asking you. I don't have any deep experience, but I here are some of my biggest projects so far: BitTorrent-ish client in Python (a subset of BitTorrent) HTTP 1.1 webserver in Java Compiler from a subset of Java to run on JRE Flash-framework project to model an iPad look and feel (not to run actual iPad programs) complete with an API for programs. Complete MySQL database for a booking system, with departure and arrival times, so you could only book valid tickets (with a Java frontend). I know, Java and languages like AS3 and C# feels natural per se, Python, and have done a fair bit of hacking around in C, but I don't feel very comfortable with it. Mostly I'm afraid to make a fuckup because I have such a high degree of control. I would like to think I'm well aware of good software design practices, but in reality what I do is ask myself "would I like to use/maintain this?", and I love to refactor my code because I see optimizations. I love algorithms and to make them run in the best possible time. I don't have any preferred domain to work in, but I wouldn't mind it to be graphics or math heavy. Ideally I'm looking for a project in C++ to learn the in's and out's of it, but I'm well aware that I don't know that language very well. I would like to have a mentor-like figure until I'm confident enough to stand on my own, not one to review all my code (I'm sure someone will to start with anyway), but to ask questions about the project and language in question. I do have a wife and two children, so don't expect me to put in 10+ hours every week. In return I can work on my own, I strive to program modular and maintainable code. Know how to read an API, use Google, StackOverflow and online resources in general. If you have any questions, shoot. I'm looking forward to your suggestions.

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• How can I have a Makefile automatically rebuild source files that include a modified header file? (I

  - by Nicholas Flynt

  I have the following makefile that I use to build a program (a kernel, actually) that I'm working on. Its from scratch and I'm learning about the process, so its not perfect, but I think its powerful enough at this point for my level of experience writing makefiles. AS = nasm CC = gcc LD = ld TARGET = core BUILD = build SOURCES = source INCLUDE = include ASM = assembly VPATH = $(SOURCES) CFLAGS = -Wall -O -fstrength-reduce -fomit-frame-pointer -finline-functions \ -nostdinc -fno-builtin -I $(INCLUDE) ASFLAGS = -f elf #CFILES = core.c consoleio.c system.c CFILES = $(foreach dir,$(SOURCES),$(notdir $(wildcard $(dir)/*.c))) SFILES = assembly/start.asm SOBJS = $(SFILES:.asm=.o) COBJS = $(CFILES:.c=.o) OBJS = $(SOBJS) $(COBJS) build : $(TARGET).img $(TARGET).img : $(TARGET).elf c:/python26/python.exe concat.py stage1 stage2 pad.bin core.elf floppy.img $(TARGET).elf : $(OBJS) $(LD) -T link.ld -o $@ $^ $(SOBJS) : $(SFILES) $(AS) $(ASFLAGS) $< -o $@ %.o: %.c @echo Compiling $<... $(CC) $(CFLAGS) -c -o $@ $< #Clean Script - Should clear out all .o files everywhere and all that. clean: -del *.img -del *.o -del assembly\*.o -del core.elf My main issue with this makefile is that when I modify a header file that one or more C files include, the C files aren't rebuilt. I can fix this quite easily by having all of my header files be dependencies for all of my C files, but that would effectively cause a complete rebuild of the project any time I changed/added a header file, which would not be very graceful. What I want is for only the C files that include the header file I change to be rebuilt, and for the entire project to be linked again. I can do the linking by causing all header files to be dependencies of the target, but I cannot figure out how to make the C files be invalidated when their included header files are newer. I've heard that GCC has some commands to make this possible (so the makefile can somehow figure out which files need to be rebuilt) but I can't for the life of me find an actual implementation example to look at. Can someone post a solution that will enable this behavior in a makefile? EDIT: I should clarify, I'm familiar with the concept of putting the individual targets in and having each target.o require the header files. That requires me to be editing the makefile every time I include a header file somewhere, which is a bit of a pain. I'm looking for a solution that can derive the header file dependencies on its own, which I'm fairly certain I've seen in other projects.

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• IP address numbers in MySQL subquery

  - by Iain Collins

  I have a problem with a subquery involving IPV4 addresses stored in MySQL (MySQL 5.0). The IP addresses are stored in two tables, both in network number format - e.g. the format output by MySQL's INET_ATON(). The first table ('events') contains lots of rows with IP addresses associated with them, the second table ('network_providers') contains a list of provider information for given netblocks. events table (~4,000,000 rows): event_id (int) event_name (varchar) ip_address (unsigned 4 byte int) network_providers table (~60,000 rows): ip_start (unsigned 4 byte int) ip_end (unsigned 4 byte int) provider_name (varchar) Simplified for the purposes of the problem I'm having, the goal is to create an export along the lines of: event_id,event_name,ip_address,provider_name If do a query along the lines of either of the following, I get the result I expect: SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE INET_ATON('192.168.0.1') >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1 SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE 3232235521 >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1 That is to say, it returns the correct provider_name for whatever IP I look up (of course I'm not really using 192.168.0.1 in my queries). However, when performing this same query as a subquery, in the following manner, it doesn't yield the result I would expect: SELECT event.id, event.event_name, (SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE event.ip_address >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1) as provider FROM events Instead the a different (incorrect) value for network_provider is returned - over 90% (but curiously not all) values returned in the provider column contain the wrong provider information for that IP. Using event.ip_address in a subquery just to echo out the value confirms it contains the value I'd expect and that the subquery can parse it. Replacing event.ip_address with an actual network number also works, just using it dynamically in the subquery in this manner that doesn't work for me. I suspect the problem is there is something fundamental and important about subqueries in MySQL that I don't get. I've worked with IP addresses like this in MySQL quite a bit before, but haven't previously done lookups for them using a subquery. The question: I'd really appreciate an example of how I could get the output I want, and if someone here knows, some enlightenment as to why what I'm doing doesn't work so I can avoid making this mistake again. Notes: The actual real-world usage I'm trying to do is considerably more complicated (involving joining two or three tables). This is a simplified version, to avoid overly complicating the question. Additionally, I know I'm not using a between on ip_start & ip_end - that's intentional (the DB's can be out of date, and such cases the owner in the DB is almost always in the next specified range and 'best guess' is fine in this context) however I'm grateful for any suggestions for improvement that relate to the question. Efficiency is always nice, but in this case absolutely not essential - any help appreciated.

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• How to perform duplicate key validation using entlib (or DataAnnotations), MVC, and Repository pattern

  - by olivehour

  I have a set of ASP.NET 4 projects that culminate in an MVC (3 RC2) app. The solution uses Unity and EntLib Validation for cross-cutting dependency injection and validation. Both are working great for injecting repository and service layer implementations. However, I can't figure out how to do duplicate key validation. For example, when a user registers, we want to make sure they don't pick a UserID that someone else is already using. For this type of validation, the validating object must have a repository reference... or some other way to get an IQueryable / IEnumerable reference to check against other rows already in the DB. What I have is a UserMetadata class that has all of the property setters and getters for a user, along with all of the appropriate DataAnnotations and EntLib Validation attributes. There is also a UserEntity class implemented using EF4 POCO Entity Generator templates. The UserEntity depends on UserMetadata, because it has a MetadataTypeAttribute. I also have a UserViewModel class that has the same exact MetadataType attribute. This way, I can apply the same validation rules, via attributes, to both the entity and viewmodel. There are no concrete references to the Repository classes whatsoever. All repositories are injected using Unity. There is also a service layer that gets dependency injection. In the MVC project, service layer implementation classes are injected into the Controller classes (the controller classes only contain service layer interface references). Unity then injects the Repository implementations into the service layer classes (service classes also only contain interface references). I've experimented with the DataAnnotations CustomValidationAttribute in the metadata class. The problem with this is the validation method must be static, and the method cannot instantiate a repository implementation directly. My repository interface is IRepository, and I have only one single repository implementation class defined as EntityRepository for all domain objects. To instantiate a repository explicitly I would need to say new EntityRepository(), which would result in a circular dependency graph: UserMetadata [depends on] DuplicateUserIDValidator [depends on] UserEntity [depends on] UserMetadata. I've also tried creating a custom EntLib Validator along with a custom validation attribute. Here I don't have the same problem with a static method. I think I could get this to work if I could just figure out how to make Unity inject my EntityRepository into the validator class... which I can't. Right now, all of the validation code is in my Metadata class library, since that's where the custom validation attribute would go. Any ideas on how to perform validations that need to check against the current repository state? Can Unity be used to inject a dependency into a lower-layer class library?

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• JQuery Menu plugins under ASP.NET MVC seem to only work in Chrome, but not in IE & FireFox

  - by Antony

  Recently, I was trying to prototype some jQuery-based menu into ASP.NET MVC. Just to name two examples here: plugins.jquery.com/project/columnview www.filamentgroup.com/lab/jquery_ipod_style_and_flyout_menus/ Their demo page looks great, but when I integrate their sample code into MVC, the script no longer works in IE and FireFox, but it seems to work just fine under Google Chrome. Can someone kindly enough to point out what I missed? I will be honest here. I am still new to JavaScript, so it is still a learning phase to me, so any help is highly appreciated. I have placed a copy of my VS2010 solution zip file @ http://db.tt/0UNDkN Here is what I did. In the Site.Master, I have something like <body> <div class="page">{truncated...}</div> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.min.js" type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"></script> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="ScriptContent" runat="server" /> </body> And inside View file, I have the following <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <div id="original"> {some demo block, copied from javascript demo} </div> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ScriptContent" runat="server"> <script type="text/javascript" src="<%= Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.columnview.js") %>" /> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#original').columnview(); }); </script> </asp:Content> Compiled the code and ran it under IE. Ideally, it should work like the demo in www.christianyates.com/blog/jquery/finder-column-view-hierarchical-lists-jquery, but in reality, it only displays unordered list in plain view. (If you download the solution file and run it, you should be able to repro this as well). Next, tried with FireFox, not working either, same result as IE. Finally, when I try it under Google Chrome 4.1 (lastest version), and the script displays just fine. Really puzzling here :-/ Thank you for reading :D

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• Copy all childNodes to an other element. In javascript native way.

  - by kroko

  Hello I have to change "unknown" contents of XML. The structure and content itself is valid. Original <blabla foo="bar"> <aa>asas</aa> <ff> <cc> <dd /> </cc> </ff> <gg attr2="2"> </gg> ... ... </blabla> becomes <blabla foo="bar"> <magic> <aa>asas</aa> <ff> <cc> <dd /> </cc> </ff> <gg attr2="2"> </gg> ... ... </magic> </blabla> thus, adding a child straight under document root node (document.documentElement) and "pushing" the "original" children under that. Here it has to be done in plain javascript (ecmascript). The idea now is to // Get the root node RootNode = mymagicdoc.documentElement; // Create new magic element (that will contain contents of original root node) var magicContainer = mymagicdoc.createElement("magic"); // Copy all root node children (and their sub tree - deep copy) to magic node /* ????? here RootNodeClone = RootNode.cloneNode(true); RootNodeClone.childNodes...... */ // Remove all children from root node while(RootNode.hasChildNodes()) RootNode.removeChild(RootNode.firstChild); // Now when root node is empty add the magicContainer // node in it that contains all the children of original root node RootNode.appendChild(magicContainer); How to do that /* */ step? Or maybe someone has a much better solution in general for achieving the desirable result? Thank you in advance!

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• Jquery $.post and PHP - Prevent the ability to use script outside of main website.

  - by Tim

  I have a PHP script setup using Jquery $.post which would return a response or do an action within the targeted .php file within $.post. Eg. My page has a form where you type in your Name. Once you hit the submit form button, $.post is called and sends the entered Name field value into "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" If a user was to visit "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" directly and somehow POST the data to the script, the script would return a response / do an action, based on the submitted POST data. The problem is, I don't want others to be able to periodically "call" an action or request a response from my website without using the website directly. Theoretically, right now you could determine what Name values my website allows without even visiting it, or you could call an action without going through the website, by simply visiting "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" So, what measures can I take to prevent this from happening? So far my idea is to ensure that it is a $_POST and not a $_GET - so they cannot manually enter it into the browser, but they could still post data to the script... Another measure is to apply a session key that expires, and is only valid for X amount of visits until they revisit the website. ~ Or, just have a daily "code" that changes and they'd need to grab this code from the website each day to keep their direct access to the script working (eg. I pass the daily "code" into each post request. I then check that code matches in the ajax php script.) However, even with these meaures, they will STILL have access to the scripts so long as they know how to POST the data, and also get the new code each day. Also, having a daily code requirement will cause issues when visiting the site at midnight (12:00am) as the code will change and the script will break for someone who is on the website trying to call the script, with the invalid code being passed still. I have attempted using .htaccess however using: order allow,deny deny from all Prevents legitimate access, and I'd have to add an exception so the website's IP is allowed to access it.. which is a hassle to update I think. Although, if it's the only legitimate solution I guess I'll have to. If I need to be more clear please let me know.

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• How to transform a cached XML via XSL?

  - by TruMan1

  I have a PHP script that caches a remote XML file. I want to XSL transform it before caching, but don't know how to do this: <?php // Set this to your link Id $linkId = "0oiy8Plr697u3puyJy9VTUWfPrCEvEgJR"; // Set this to a directory that has write permissions // for this script $cacheDir = "temp/"; $cachetime = 15 * 60; // 15 minutes // Do not change anything below this line // unless you are absolutely sure $feedUrl="http://mydomain.com/messageService/guestlinkservlet?glId="; $cachefile = $cacheDir .$linkId.".xml"; header('Content-type: text/xml'); // Send from the cache if $cachetime is not exceeded if (file_exists($cachefile) && (time() - $cachetime < filemtime($cachefile))) { include($cachefile); echo "<!-- Cached ".date('jS F Y H:i', filemtime($cachefile))." -->\n"; exit; } $contents = file_get_contents($feedUrl . $linkId); // show the contents of the XML file echo $contents; // write it to the cache $fp = fopen($cachefile, 'w'); fwrite($fp, $contents); fclose($fp); ?> This is the XSL string I want to use to transform it: <xsl:template match="/"> <kml xmlns="http://www.opengis.net/kml/2.2"> <Document> <xsl:apply-templates select="messageList" /> </Document> </kml> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="messageList"> <name>My Generated KML</name> <xsl:apply-templates select="message" /> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="message"> <Placemark> <name><xsl:value-of select="esnName" /></name> <Point> <coordinates> <xsl:value-of select="latitude" />,<xsl:value-of select="longitude" /> </coordinates> </Point> </Placemark> </xsl:template> I want to actually transform XML input and save/return a KML format. Can someone please help adjust this script? This was given to me and I am a little new to it.

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• Working with hibernate/DAO problems

  - by Gandalf StormCrow

  Hello everyone here is my DAO class : public class UsersDAO extends HibernateDaoSupport { private static final Log log = LogFactory.getLog(UsersDAO.class); protected void initDao() { //do nothing } public void save(User transientInstance) { log.debug("saving Users instance"); try { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(transientInstance); log.debug("save successful"); } catch (RuntimeException re) { log.error("save failed", re); throw re; } } public void update(User transientInstance) { log.debug("updating User instance"); try { getHibernateTemplate().update(transientInstance); log.debug("update successful"); } catch (RuntimeException re) { log.error("update failed", re); throw re; } } public void delete(User persistentInstance) { log.debug("deleting Users instance"); try { getHibernateTemplate().delete(persistentInstance); log.debug("delete successful"); } catch (RuntimeException re) { log.error("delete failed", re); throw re; } } public User findById( java.lang.Integer id) { log.debug("getting Users instance with id: " + id); try { User instance = (User) getHibernateTemplate() .get("project.hibernate.Users", id); return instance; } catch (RuntimeException re) { log.error("get failed", re); throw re; } } } Now I wrote a test class(not a junit test) to test is everything working, my user has these fields in the database : userID which is 5characters long string and unique/primary key, and fields such as address, dob etc(total 15 columns in database table). Now in my test class I intanciated User added the values like : User user = new User; user.setAddress("some address"); and so I did for all 15 fields, than at the end of assigning data to User object I called in DAO to save that to database UsersDao.save(user); and save works just perfectly. My question is how do I update/delete users using the same logic? Fox example I tried this(to delete user from table users): User user = new User; user.setUserID("1s54f"); // which is unique key for users no two keys are the same UsersDao.delete(user); I wanted to delete user with this key but its obviously different can someone explain please how to do these. thank you

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• Need some constructive criticism on my SSE/Assembly attempt

  - by Brett

  Hello, I'm working on converting a bit of code to SSE, and while I have the correct output it turns out to be slower than standard c++ code. The bit of code that I need to do this for is: float ox = p2x - (px * c - py * s)*m; float oy = p2y - (px * s - py * c)*m; What I've got for SSE code is: void assemblycalc(vector4 &p, vector4 &sc, float &m, vector4 &xy) { vector4 r; __m128 scale = _mm_set1_ps(m); __asm { mov eax, p //Load into CPU reg mov ebx, sc movups xmm0, [eax] //move vectors to SSE regs movups xmm1, [ebx] mulps xmm0, xmm1 //Multiply the Elements movaps xmm2, xmm0 //make a copy of the array shufps xmm2, xmm0, 0x1B //shuffle the array subps xmm0, xmm2 //subtract the elements mulps xmm0, scale //multiply the vector by the scale mov ecx, xy //load the variable into cpu reg movups xmm3, [ecx] //move the vector to the SSE regs subps xmm3, xmm0 //subtract xmm3 - xmm0 movups [r], xmm3 //Save the retun vector, and use elements 0 and 3 } } Since its very difficult to read the code, I'll explain what I did: loaded vector4 , xmm0 _ p = [px , py , px , py ] mult. by vector4, xmm1 _ cs = [c , c , s , s ] _____________mult---------------------------- result,______ xmm0 = [px*c, py*c, px*s, py*s] reuse result, xmm0 = [px*c, py*c, px*s, py*s] shuffle result, xmm2 = [py*s, px*s, py*c, px*c] ___________subtract---------------------------- result, xmm0 = [px*c-py*s, py*c-px*s, px*s-py*c, py*s-px*c] reuse result, xmm0 = [px*c-py*s, py*c-px*s, px*s-py*c, py*s-px*c] load m vector4, scale = [m, m, m, m] ______________mult---------------------------- result, xmm0 = [(px*c-py*s)*m, (py*c-px*s)*m, (px*s-py*c)*m, (py*s-px*c)*m] load xy vector4, xmm3 = [p2x, p2x, p2y, p2y] reuse, xmm0 = [(px*c-py*s)*m, (py*c-px*s)*m, (px*s-py*c)*m, (py*s-px*c)*m] ___________subtract---------------------------- result, xmm3 = [p2x-(px*c-py*s)*m, p2x-(py*c-px*s)*m, p2y-(px*s-py*c)*m, p2y-(py*s-px*c)*m] then ox = xmm3[0] and oy = xmm3[3], so I essentially don't use xmm3[1] or xmm3[4] I apologize for the difficulty reading this, but I'm hoping someone might be able to provide some guidance for me, as the standard c++ code runs in 0.001444ms and the SSE code runs in 0.00198ms. Let me know if there is anything I can do to further explain/clean this up a bit. The reason I'm trying to use SSE is because I run this calculation millions of times, and it is a part of what is slowing down my current code. Thanks in advance for any help! Brett

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• Javascript and the Google Maps API

  - by Tiny Giant Studios

  Hiya coding Ninja's I'm in a spot of bother and my hairline is on the chopping block. When I integrated the maps API on this site, ritaknoetze.com, everything worked perfectly. However, copying that exact code for a different demo website, scarabpaper, the map doesn't show up at all? Could someone show me the ropes on what I'm doing wrong? Here's the code I got from Google itself that I modified for my WordPress theme/installation: JavaScript: <meta name="viewport" content="initial-scale=1.0, user-scalable=no" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function initialize() { var myLatlng = new google.maps.LatLng(-34.009839, 22.78101); var myOptions = { zoom: 9, center: myLatlng, navigationControl: true, mapTypeControl: false, scaleControl: false, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP } var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); var image = '<?php bloginfo('template_url')?>/assets/googlemaps_marker.png'; var myLatLng = new google.maps.LatLng(-34.009839, 22.78101); var beachMarker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: myLatLng, map: map, icon: image }); } </script> My HTML where the javascript goes: <div class="contact_container"> <div id="map_canvas"></div> <div class="clearfloat"></div> </div> My CSS for the affected divs #map_canvas { width: 880px; height: 300px; margin-left: 10px; margin-bottom: 30px; margin-top: 10px; float: left; border: 1px solid #dedcdc;} .contact_container { /*container for ALL the contact info*/ background-color: #fff; border: 1px solid #dedcdc; width: 900px; margin-top: 30px; padding: 20px; padding-bottom: 0;} Any Help would be greatly appreciated...

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• WPF Reusing Xaml Effectively

  - by Steve

  Hi, I've recently been working on a project using WPF to produce a diagram. In this I must show text alongside symbols that illustrate information associated with the text. To draw the symbols I initially used some png images I had produced. Within my diagram these images appeared blurry and only looked worse when zoomed in on. To improve on this I decided I would use a vector rather than a rastor image format. Below is the method I used to get the rastor image from a file path: protected Image GetSymbolImage(string symbolPath, int symbolHeight) { Image symbol = new Image(); symbol.Height = symbolHeight; BitmapImage bitmapImage = new BitmapImage(); bitmapImage.BeginInit(); bitmapImage.UriSource = new Uri(symbolPath); bitmapImage.DecodePixelHeight = symbolHeight; bitmapImage.EndInit(); symbol.Source = bitmapImage; return symbol; } Unfortunately this does not recognise vector image formats. So instead I used a method like the following, where "path" is the file path to a vector image of the format .xaml: public static Canvas LoadXamlCanvas(string path) { //if a file exists at the specified path if (File.Exists(path)) { //store the text in the file string text = File.ReadAllText(path); //produce a canvas from the text StringReader stringReader = new StringReader(text); XmlReader xmlReader = XmlReader.Create(stringReader); Canvas c = (Canvas)XamlReader.Load(xmlReader); //return the canvas return c; } return null; } This worked but drastically killed performance when called repeatedly. I found the logic necessary for text to canvas conversion (see above) was the main cause of the performance problem therefore embedding the .xaml images would not alone resolve the performance issue. I tried using this method only on the initial load of my application and storing the resulting canvases in a dictionary that could later be accessed much quicker but I later realised when using the canvases within the dictionary I would have to make copies of them. All the logic I found online associated with making copies used a XamlWriter and XamlReader which would again just introduce a performance problem. The solution I used was to copy the contents of each .xaml image into its own user control and then make use of these user controls where appropriate. This means I now display vector graphics and performance is much better. However this solution to me seems pretty clumsy. I'm new to WPF and wonder if there is some built in way of storing and reusing xaml throughout an application? Apologies for the length of this question. I thought having a record of my attempts might help someone with any similar problem. Thanks.

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• I could use some help with my SQL command

  - by SuperSpy

  I've got a database table called 'mesg' with the following structure: receiver_id | sender_id | message | timestamp | read Example: 2 *(«me)* | 6 *(«nice girl)* | 'I like you, more than ghoti' | yearsago | 1 *(«seen it)* 2 *(«me)* | 6 *(«nice girl)* | 'I like you, more than fish' | now | 1 *(«seen it)* 6 *(«nice girl)* | 2 *(«me)* | 'Hey, wanna go fish?' | yearsago+1sec | 0 *(«she hasn't seen it)* It's quite a tricky thing that I want to achieve. I want to get: the most recent message(=ORDER BY time DESC) + 'contact name' + time for each 'conversation'. Contact name = uname WHERE uid = 'contact ID' (the username is in another table) Contact ID = if(sessionID*(«me)*=sender_id){receiver_id}else{sender_id} Conversation is me = receiver OR me = sender For example: From: **Bas Kreuntjes** *(« The message from bas is the most recent)* Hey $py, How are you doing... From: **Sophie Naarden** *(« Second recent)* Well hello, would you like to buy my spam? ... *(«I'll work on that later >p)* To: **Melanie van Deijk** *(« My message to Melanie is 3th)* And? Did you kiss him? ... That is a rough output. QUESTION: Could someone please help me setup a good SQL command. This will be the while loup <?php $sql = "????"; $result = mysql_query($sql); while($fetch = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)){ ?> <div class="message-block"> <h1><?php echo($fetch['uname']); ?></h1> <p><?php echo($fetch['message']); ?></p> <p><?php echo($fetch['time']); ?></p> </div> <?php } ?> I hope my explanation is good enough, if not, please tell me. Please don't mind my English, and the Dutch names (I am Dutch myself) Feel free to correct my English UPDATE1: Best I've got until now: But I do not want more than one conversation to show up... u=user table m=message table SELECT u.uname, m.message, m.receiver_uid, m.sender_uid, m.time FROM m, u WHERE (m.receiver_uid = '$myID' AND u.uid = m.sender_uid) OR (m.sender_uid = '$myID' AND u.uid = m.receiver_uid) ORDER BY time DESC;

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• Dijkstra's Algorithm explanation java

  - by alchemey89

  Hi, I have found an implementation for dijkstras algorithm on the internet and was wondering if someone could help me understand how the code works. Many thanks private int nr_points=0; private int[][]Cost; private int []mask; private void dijkstraTSP() { if(nr_points==0)return; //algorithm=new String("Dijkstra"); nod1=new Vector(); nod2=new Vector(); weight=new Vector(); mask=new int[nr_points]; //initialise mask with zeros (mask[x]=1 means the vertex is marked as used) for(int i=0;i<nr_points;i++)mask[i]=0; //Dijkstra: int []dd=new int[nr_points]; int []pre=new int[nr_points]; int []path=new int[nr_points+1]; int init_vert=0,pos_in_path=0,new_vert=0; //initialise the vectors for(int i=0;i<nr_points;i++) { dd[i]=Cost[init_vert][i]; pre[i]=init_vert; path[i]=-1; } pre[init_vert]=0; path[0]=init_vert; pos_in_path++; mask[init_vert]=1; for(int k=0;k<nr_points-1;k++) { //find min. cost in dd for(int j=0;j<nr_points;j++) if(dd[j]!=0 && mask[j]==0){new_vert=j; break;} for(int j=0;j<nr_points;j++) if(dd[j]<dd[new_vert] && mask[j]==0 && dd[j]!=0)new_vert=j; mask[new_vert]=1; path[pos_in_path]=new_vert; pos_in_path++; for(int j=0;j<nr_points;j++) { if(mask[j]==0) { if(dd[j]>dd[new_vert]+Cost[new_vert][j]) { dd[j]=dd[new_vert]+Cost[new_vert][j]; } } } } //Close the cycle path[nr_points]=init_vert; //Save the solution in 3 vectors (for graphical purposes) for(int i=0;i<nr_points;i++) { nod1.addElement(path[i]); nod2.addElement(path[i+1]); weight.addElement(Cost[path[i]][path[i+1]]); } }

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• How do I do high quality scaling of a image?

  - by pbhogan

  I'm writing some code to scale a 32 bit RGBA image in C/C++. I have written a few attempts that have been somewhat successful, but they're slow and most importantly the quality of the sized image is not acceptable. I compared the same image scaled by OpenGL (i.e. my video card) and my routine and it's miles apart in quality. I've Google Code Searched, scoured source trees of anything I thought would shed some light (SDL, Allegro, wxWidgets, CxImage, GD, ImageMagick, etc.) but usually their code is either convoluted and scattered all over the place or riddled with assembler and little or no comments. I've also read multiple articles on Wikipedia and elsewhere, and I'm just not finding a clear explanation of what I need. I understand the basic concepts of interpolation and sampling, but I'm struggling to get the algorithm right. I do NOT want to rely on an external library for one routine and have to convert to their image format and back. Besides, I'd like to know how to do it myself anyway. :) I have seen a similar question asked on stack overflow before, but it wasn't really answered in this way, but I'm hoping there's someone out there who can help nudge me in the right direction. Maybe point me to some articles or pseudo code... anything to help me learn and do. Here's what I'm looking for: 1. No assembler (I'm writing very portable code for multiple processor types). 2. No dependencies on external libraries. 3. I am primarily concerned with scaling DOWN, but will also need to write a scale up routine later. 4. Quality of the result and clarity of the algorithm is most important (I can optimize it later). My routine essentially takes the following form: DrawScaled( uint32 *src, uint32 *dst, src_x, src_y, src_w, src_h, dst_x, dst_y, dst_w, dst_h ); Thanks! UPDATE: To clarify, I need something more advanced than a box resample for downscaling which blurs the image too much. I suspect what I want is some kind of bicubic (or other) filter that is somewhat the reverse to a bicubic upscaling algorithm (i.e. each destination pixel is computed from all contributing source pixels combined with a weighting algorithm that keeps things sharp. EXAMPLE: Here's an example of what I'm getting from the wxWidgets BoxResample algorithm vs. what I want on a 256x256 bitmap scaled to 55x55. And finally: the original 256x256 image

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• How to obtain a pointer out of a C++ vtable?

  - by Josh Haberman

  Say you have a C++ class like: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual DoSomething() = 0; }; The C++ compiler translates a call into a vtable lookup: Foo* foo; // Translated by C++ to: // foo->vtable->DoSomething(foo); foo->DoSomething(); Suppose I was writing a JIT compiler and I wanted to obtain the address of the DoSomething() function for a particular instance of class Foo, so I can generate code that jumps to it directly instead of doing a table lookup and an indirect branch. My questions are: Is there any standard C++ way to do this (I'm almost sure the answer is no, but wanted to ask for the sake of completeness). Is there any remotely compiler-independent way of doing this, like a library someone has implemented that provides an API for accessing a vtable? I'm open to completely hacks, if they will work. For example, if I created my own derived class and could determine the address of its DoSomething method, I could assume that the vtable is the first (hidden) member of Foo and search through its vtable until I find my pointer value. However, I don't know a way of getting this address: if I write &DerivedFoo::DoSomething I get a pointer-to-member, which is something totally different. Maybe I could turn the pointer-to-member into the vtable offset. When I compile the following: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual void DoSomething() = 0; }; void foo(Foo *f, void (Foo::*member)()) { (f->*member)(); } On GCC/x86-64, I get this assembly output: Disassembly of section .text: 0000000000000000 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE>: 0: 40 f6 c6 01 test sil,0x1 4: 48 89 74 24 e8 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x18],rsi 9: 48 89 54 24 f0 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x10],rdx e: 74 10 je 20 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE+0x20> 10: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 13: 48 8b 07 mov rax,QWORD PTR [rdi] 16: 48 8b 74 30 ff mov rsi,QWORD PTR [rax+rsi*1-0x1] 1b: ff e6 jmp rsi 1d: 0f 1f 00 nop DWORD PTR [rax] 20: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 23: ff e6 jmp rsi I don't fully understand what's going on here, but if I could reverse-engineer this or use an ABI spec I could generate a fragment like the above for each separate platform, as a way of obtaining a pointer out of a vtable.

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• iOS: Gesture recogniser for smooth scrolling and flicking a View

  - by AppleDeveloper

  I am building an iPad app where I needed to allow resizing views functionality using divider view provided between two views. This divider view is just a 20px height view between two half screen content views - please refer attached images. When user scrolls this divider view up or down, both content views changes their sizes appropriately. I have extended UIView and implemented this using touchMoved delegate as code given below in touchesMoved delegate. It works fine. The only thing is missing with TouchMoved is you can't flick divider view to top or bottom directly. You have to scroll all the way to top or bottom! To support flicking the view I have tried UIPanGestureRecognizer but I don't see smooth scrolling with it. When I handle split position change in UIGestureRecognizerStateChanged state, just touching divider view flick it to top or bottom. Handling split position change in UIGestureRecognizerStateEnded does the same but I don't see content view resizing with dividerview scrolling! Could someone please tell me how could I achieve both smooth scrolling of divider view with resizing content views(like touchMoved) and flicking the view. Any alternative approach would also fine. Thanks. - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; if (touch) { CGPoint lastPt = [touch previousLocationInView:self]; CGPoint pt = [touch locationInView:self]; float offset = pt.y - lastPt.y; self.parentViewController.splitPosition = self.parentViewController.splitPosition + offset; } } - (void)handlePan:(UIPanGestureRecognizer*)recognizer { CGPoint translation = [recognizer translationInView:recognizer.view]; CGPoint velocity = [recognizer velocityInView:recognizer.view]; if (recognizer.state == UIGestureRecognizerStateBegan) { } else if (recognizer.state == UIGestureRecognizerStateChanged) { // If I change split position here, I don't see smooth scrolling dividerview...it directly jumps to the top or bottom! self.parentViewController.splitPosition = self.parentViewController.splitPosition + translation.y; } else if (recognizer.state == UIGestureRecognizerStateEnded) { // If I change split position here, the same thing happens at end and I don't see my divider view moving with my scrolling and resizing my views. self.parentViewController.splitPosition = self.parentViewController.splitPosition + translation.y; } } Initial screen Increased top view size by scrolling divider view Top view is totally hidden here but I have to scroll divider view all the way to top. I want to flick the divider view so that it directly goes from any position to top

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• .Net Entity Framework SaveChanges is adding without add method

  - by tmfkmoney

  I'm new to the entity framework and I'm really confused about how savechanges works. There's probably a lot of code in my example which could be improved, but here's the problem I'm having. The user enters a bunch of picks. I make sure the user hasn't already entered those picks. Then I add the picks to the database. var db = new myModel() var predictionArray = ticker.Substring(1).Split(','); // Get rid of the initial comma. var user = Membership.GetUser(); var userId = Convert.ToInt32(user.ProviderUserKey); // Get the member with all his predictions for today. var memberQuery = (from member in db.Members where member.user_id == userId select new { member, predictions = from p in member.Predictions where p.start_date == null select p }).First(); // Load all the company ids. foreach (var prediction in memberQuery.predictions) { prediction.CompanyReference.Load(); } var picks = from prediction in predictionArray let data = prediction.Split(':') let companyTicker = data[0] where !(from i in memberQuery.predictions select i.Company.ticker).Contains(companyTicker) select new Prediction { Member = memberQuery.member, Company = db.Companies.Where(c => c.ticker == companyTicker).First(), is_up = data[1] == "up", // This turns up and down into true and false. }; // Save the records to the database. // HERE'S THE PART I DON'T UNDERSTAND. // This saves the records, even though I don't have db.AddToPredictions(pick) foreach (var pick in picks) { db.SaveChanges(); } // This does not save records when the db.SaveChanges outside of a loop of picks. db.SaveChanges(); foreach (var pick in picks) { } // This saves records, but it will insert all the picks exactly once no matter how many picks you have. //The fact you're skipping a pick makes no difference in what gets inserted. var counter = 1; foreach (var pick in picks) { if (counter == 2) { db.SaveChanges(); } counter++; } There's obviously something going on with the context I don't understand. I'm guessing I've somehow loaded my new picks as pending changes, but even if that's true I don't understand I have to loop over them to save changes. Can someone explain this to me?

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• Detecting abuse for post rating system

  - by Steven smethurst

  I am using a wordpress plugin called "GD Star Rating" to allow my users to vote on stories that I post to one of my websites. http://everydayfiction.com/ Recently we have been having a lot of abuse of the system. Stories that have obviously been voted up artificially. "GD Star Rating" creates some detailed logs when a user votes on a story. Including; IP, Time of vote, and user_adgent, ect.. For example this story has 181 votes with an average of 5.7 http://www.everydayfiction.com/snowman-by-shaun-simon/ Most other stories only get around ~40 votes each day. At first I thought that the story got on to a social bookmarking site Digg, Stumbleupon ect... but after checking the logs I found that this story is getting the same amount of traffic that a normal story gets ~2k-3k. I checked if all the votes for this perpendicular story where coming from a the same IP address. I could see this happening if a user was at a school's computer lab using all their lab computers to vote up this story. Not one duplicate IP address in the log for this story. SELECT ip, COUNT(*) as count FROM wp_gdsr_votes_log WHERE id=3932 GROUP BY (ip ) ORDER BY count DESC Next I thought that a use might be using a proxy to vote up a story. I checked this by grouping all the browser user_agent together to see if there a single browser voting in a perpendicular way. At most 7 users where using a similar browser but voted sporadically (1-5), no evidence of wrong doing. SELECT user_agent, COUNT(*) as count FROM wp_gdsr_votes_log WHERE id=3932 GROUP BY ( user_agent) ORDER BY count DESC I check was to see if all the votes came in at a once. Maybe someone has a really interesting bot that can change the user_adgent and uses proxies, ect... At most 5 votes came with in 2 mins of each other. It doesn't seem to be any regularity on how people vote (IE a 5 vote does not come in once a min) SELECT * FROM wp_gdsr_votes_log WHERE id =3932 AND vote=5 ORDER BY wp_gdsr_votes_log.voted DESC The obvious solution to this problem is to force people to login before they are allowed to vote. But I would prefer to not have to go down that route unless it is absolutely necessary. I'm looking for suggestions on things to test for to detect the abuse.

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• Help with javascript form validation

  - by zac

  I am getting a headache with form validation and hoping that the kind folks here can give me a hand finishing this sucker up I have it basically working except the email validation is very simplistic (only alerts if it is blank but does not actually check it if is a valid email address) and I am relying on ugly alerts but would like to have it reveal a hidden error div instead of the alert. I have this all wrapped up with an age validation check too.. here are the important bits, minus the cookie scripts function checkAge() { valid = true; if ( document.emailForm.email.value== 0 ) { alert ( "Please enter your email." ); valid = false; } if ( document.emailForm.year.selectedIndex == 0 ) { alert ( "Please select your Age." ); valid = false; } var min_age = 13; var year = parseInt(document.forms["emailForm"]["year"].value); var month = parseInt(document.forms["emailForm"]["month"].value) - 1; var day = parseInt(document.forms["emailForm"]["day"].value); var theirDate = new Date((year + min_age), month, day); var today = new Date; if ( (today.getTime() - theirDate.getTime()) < 0) { var el = document.getElementById('emailBox'); if(el){ el.className += el.className ? ' youngOne' : 'youngOne'; } document.getElementById('emailBox').innerHTML = "<img src=\"emailSorry.gif\">" createCookie('age','not13',0) return false; } else { //this part doesnt work either document.getElementById('emailBox').innerHTML = "<img src=\"Success.gif\">" createCookie('age','over13',0) return valid; }; }; var x = readCookie('age'); window.onload=function(){ if (x=='null') { }; if (x=='over13') { }; if (x=='not13') { document.getElementById('emailBox').innerHTML = "<img src=\"emailSorry.gif\">"; }; } can someone please help me figure a better email validation for this bit: if ( document.emailForm.email.value== 0 ) { alert ( "Please enter your email." ); valid = false; } and how would I replace the alert with something that changes a class from hidden to visible? Something like? document.getElementById('emailError').style.display='block'

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• Changing tabs in android

  - by Pavel

  Hi guys. Can someone please tell me how to change tab by clicking on element INSIDE the tab? I already tried it with global data. The code looks like this: public class Tabs extends TabActivity { int tabNumber = 0; private TabHost tabHost; int returnedTabNumber = 0; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); Resources res = getResources(); // Resource object to get Drawables tabHost = getTabHost(); // The activity TabHost TabHost.TabSpec spec; // Resusable TabSpec for each tab Intent intent; // Reusable Intent for each tab // Create an Intent to launch an Activity for the tab (to be reused) intent = new Intent().setClass(this, Tribocracy.class); // Initialize a TabSpec for each tab and add it to the TabHost spec = tabHost.newTabSpec("map").setIndicator("Map", res.getDrawable(R.drawable.ic_tab_artists)) .setContent(intent); tabHost.addTab(spec); // Do the same for the other tabs intent = new Intent().setClass(this, Areas.class); spec = tabHost.newTabSpec("areas").setIndicator("Areas", res.getDrawable(R.drawable.ic_tab_albums)) .setContent(intent); tabHost.addTab(spec); // Do the same for the other tabs intent = new Intent().setClass(this, Settings.class); spec = tabHost.newTabSpec("settings").setIndicator("Settings", res.getDrawable(R.drawable.ic_tab_albums)) .setContent(intent); tabHost.addTab(spec); tabHost.setCurrentTab(tabNumber); } protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); GlobalData globalData = ((GlobalData)getApplicationContext()); returnedTabNumber = globalData.getTabNumber(); tabHost.setCurrentTab(returnedTabNumber); } } The global adapter looks like this: public class GlobalData extends Application { //---------------------------------------------------- private int Point1; //define the vars here private int Point2; //define the vars here private int Point3; //define the vars here private int Point4; //define the vars here private int Point5; //define the vars here private int Point6; //define the vars here private int tabNumber; public int getTabNumber() //getter of the value { return tabNumber; } public int setTabNumber(int number) //setter of the value { tabNumber = number; return tabNumber; } } Now when I'm trying to change tab in my ListActivity tab by clicking on one of the items it doesn't do anything and stays on the ListActivity tab. Perhaps I shouldn't use onResume() here. Basically I want to go to first tab when I click on one of the items in the list. Please help!

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• What would you suggest as a high school first language?

  - by ldigas

  Edit by OA: After reading some answers I'll just update the question a little. At first I put it a little bluntly, but some of those gave me some good arguments which have to be taken into consideration while making a stand on this one. (these are mostly picked up from comments and answers below). A few things to take into account: to many pupils this is a first programming language - at this stage most of them have trouble grasping a difference between data types, variable passing, ... and whatnot, less alone pointers and similar 'low level stuff' :) they will all have to pass this to get into next grade (well, big majority of them anyway) not all of them have computers at home, not all of them are willing to learn this, less alone interested in - so the concepts have to be taught on a finite time scale in school hours (as well as practice on computers) free literature is a bonus - the teacher will make some scripts and handaways, but still ... I wouldn't like to bear the parents with the burden of buying expensive literature (also, english is not a native language here ... and although they are all learning it, their ability to read it fluently is somewhat questionable) somebody gave an argument - "a language which does not get in the way of ideas" - good one accessibility on different platforms in not expecially important at this point - although most of the suggested ones are available on win as well as linux - not many macs in this part of europe (their prices are sky high for anything but specialised usage) I will check what are the licencing issues on ms express editions about using it massively in high schools for purposes like this - if someone has any info about this, please, do not be shy with it :) A friend of mine, informatics teacher - in EU it comes as something as junior cs teacher, in a local high school asked me what I thought about what should be the first language pupils should be taught? It is a technical school (a little more oriented towards mathematics than the gymnasium, but not computer oriented totally). So I'm asking you - what do you think should be the first language pupils are exposed to in highschool? They have been teaching Pascal so far, but she's not sure that's a good course. She thought about switching to C (which I resented; considering not all pupils have interests in programming, to start with, and should be taught something higher level since they are just gripping the idea of a loop and such ... for a start), I suggested python or ruby (preferably py since it handles all paradigms). What is your opinion on this one? I looked, but didn't find a similar question on SO, so if there is one, please just point me towards it. Edit: The assumption is that none of the pupils have been exposed to any programming in junior school. See also: What is the best way to teach young kids some basic programming concepts? Best ways to teach a beginner to program How and when do you teach a kid to code What is the easiest language to start with? High School Programming

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• Android HelloGoogleMaps to OSMdroid (Open Street Maps)

  - by birgit

  I am trying to reproduce a working HelloGoogleMaps app in Open Street Maps - but I have trouble including the itemized overlay in OSMdroid. I have looked at several resources but I cannot figure out how to fix the error on OsmItemizedOverlay - I guess I am constructing OsmItemizedOverlay wrongly or have a mixup with OsmItemizedOverlay and ItemizedOverlay? But everything I tried to change just raised more errors... "Implicit super constructor ItemizedOverlay() is undefined. Must explicitly invoke another constructor" "Cannot make a static reference to the non-static method setMarker(Drawable) from the type OverlayItem" - I hope someone can help me getting the class definition straight? Thanks so much! package com.example.osmdroiddemomap; import java.util.ArrayList; import android.app.AlertDialog; import android.content.Context; import android.graphics.Point; import android.graphics.drawable.Drawable; import org.osmdroid.api.IMapView; import org.osmdroid.views.*; import org.osmdroid.views.overlay.*; import org.osmdroid.views.overlay.OverlayItem.HotspotPlace; public class OsmItemizedOverlay extends ItemizedOverlay<OverlayItem> { Context mContext; private ArrayList<OverlayItem> mOverlays = new ArrayList<OverlayItem>(); //ERRORS are raised by the following 3 lines: public OsmItemizedOverlay(Drawable defaultMarker, Context context) { OverlayItem.setMarker(defaultMarker); OverlayItem.setMarkerHotspot(HotspotPlace.CENTER); mContext = context; } public void addOverlay(OverlayItem overlay) { mOverlays.add(overlay); populate(); } @Override protected OverlayItem createItem(int i) { return mOverlays.get(i); } @Override public int size() { return mOverlays.size(); } protected boolean onTap(int index) { OverlayItem item = mOverlays.get(index); AlertDialog.Builder dialog = new AlertDialog.Builder(mContext); dialog.setTitle(item.getTitle()); dialog.setMessage(item.getSnippet()); dialog.show(); return true; } @Override public boolean onSnapToItem(int arg0, int arg1, Point arg2, IMapView arg3) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } }

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• JQuery $.ajax doesn't return anything, but only in Google Chrome!?

  - by Shawson

  Hi All, I'm hoping someone can help me with this as I'm at a loss. I'm trying to simply load a plain text file into a page at runtime using jquery- everything works fine in IE8 (8.0.7600.16385), Firefox 3.6.3, however in Google Chrome 5.0.375.55 the "data" comes back as nothing- i get an empty alert box. This is the code i'm using; <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Animation Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ url: 'level1.txt', success: function (data) { alert(data); }, async: true, type: 'GET' }); }); </script> </head> <body> <canvas id="canvas" width="640" height="480"> Unsupported Browser </canvas> </body> </html> The file I'm loading in is a plain text file containing this; Central Cavern 100 O.........1.C....C...........1.O O................1.............O O..............................O O..............................O O......................B1..B...O O=============~~~~=~~~~========O O.............................1O O===...........................O O............A..OOO.B..........O O====...<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<...O O............................==O O..............................O O..........B........OOO.....===O O....===============...........O O%............................XO O==============================O (Yes- it's the first level from Manic Miner! I'm making a javascript version using the html5 canvas to get my head around using it.) I'm at a total loss- it can't be the code because it runs in the other 2 browsers- is there an issue with jquery and this version of Chrome? Thanks for reading!! Shaw.

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• Passing Auth to API calls with Web Service References

  - by coffeeaddict

  I am new to web services. The last time I dealt with SOAP was when I created a bunch of wrapper classes that sent requests and received responses back per some response objects/classes I had created. So I had an object to send certain API requests and likewise a set of objects to hold the response back as an object so I could utilize that 3rd party API. Then someone came to me and said why not just use the wsdl and a web service. Ok, so today I went and created a "Service Reference". I see that this is what's called a "Proxy Class". You just instantiate an instance of this and then walla you have access to all the methods from the wsdl. But this leaves me with auth questions. Back when I created my own classes manually, I had a class which exposed properties that I would set then access for things like signature, username, password that got sent along with the Http request that were required by whatever 3rd party API I was using to make API calls. But then with using a Service Reference, how then would I pass this information just like I had done in my custom classes? For instance I'm going to be working with the PayPal API. It requires you to send a signature and a few other pieces of information like username and password. // Determins if API call needs to use a session based URI string requestURI = UseAuthURI == true ? _requestURIAuthBased + aSessionID : _requestURI; byte[] data = XmlUtil.DocumentToBytes(doc); // Create the atual Request instance HttpWebRequest request = CreateWebRequest(requestURI, data.Length); So how do I pass username, password, signature, etc. when using web service references for each method call? Is it as simple as specifying it as a param to the method or do you use the .Credentials and .URL methods of your proxy class object? It seems to me Credentials means windows credentials but I could be wrong. Is it limited to that or can you use that to specify those required header values that PayPal expects with each method call/API request?

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