Search Results

Search found 33227 results on 1330 pages for 'open stackoverflow'.

Page 674/1330 | < Previous Page | 670 671 672 673 674 675 676 677 678 679 680 681  | Next Page >

• tipfy for Google App Engine: Is it stable? Can auth/session components of tipfy be used with webapp?

  - by cv12

  I am building a web application on Google App Engine that requires users to register with the application and subsequently authenticate with it and maintain sessions. I don't want to force users to have Google accounts. Also, the target audience for the application is the average non-geek, so I'm not very keen on using OpenID or OAuth. I need something simple like: User registers with an e-mail and password, and then can log back in with those credentials. I understand that this approach does not provide the security benefits of Google or OpenID authentication, but I am prepared to trade foolproof security for end-user convenience and hassle-free experience. I explored Django, but decided that consecutive deprecations from appengine-helper to app-engine-patch to django-nonrel may signal that path may be a bit risky in the long-term. I'd like to use a code base that is likely to be maintained consistently. I also explored standalone session/auth packages like gaeutilities and suas. GAEUtilities looked a bit immature (e.g., the code wasn't pythonic in places, in my opinion) and SUAS did not give me a lot of comfort with the cookie-only sessions. I could be wrong with my assessment of these two, so I would appreciate input on those (or others that may serve my objective). Finally, I recently came across tipfy. It appears to be based on Werkzeug and Alex Martelli spoke highly of it here on stackoverflow. I have two primary questions related to tipfy: As a framework, is it as mature as webapp? Is it stable and likely to be maintained for some time? Since my primary interest is the auth/session components, can those components of the tipfy framework be used with webapp, independent of the broader tipfy framework? If yes, I would appreciate a few pointers to how I could go about doing that.

  Read the article

• Practical rules for premature optimization

  - by DougW

  It seems that the phrase "Premature Optimization" is the buzz-word of the day. For some reason, iphone programmers in particular seem to think of avoiding premature optimization as a pro-active goal, rather than the natural result of simply avoiding distraction. The problem is, the term is beginning to be applied more and more to cases that are completely inappropriate. For example, I've seen a growing number of people say not to worry about the complexity of an algorithm, because that's premature optimization (eg http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2190275/help-sorting-an-nsarray-across-two-properties-with-nssortdescriptor/2191720#2191720). Frankly, I think this is just laziness, and appalling to disciplined computer science. But it has occurred to me that maybe considering the complexity and performance of algorithms is going the way of assembly loop unrolling, and other optimization techniques that are now considered unnecessary. What do you think? Are we at the point now where deciding between an O(n^n) and O(n!) complexity algorithm is irrelevant? What about O(n) vs O(n*n)? What do you consider "premature optimization"? What practical rules do you use to consciously or unconsciously avoid it? This is a bit vague, but I'm curious to hear other peoples' opinions on the topic.

  Read the article

• NOT A DUPLICATE! VS2010 - How to automatically stop compile on first compile error

  - by Ben Robbins

  {rant}First I'd like to say that this IS NOT A DUPLICATE. I've asked this question previously but it got closed as a duplicate when it isn't. This question is SPECIFIC to VS 2010 and the answers to the so-called duplicate work in VS 2008 but not in VS 2010 (at least not for me or anyone I know). So before you go closing something as a duplicate how about you read the question carefully and try the answer for yourself and see if it actually works. Apologies for the rant but there is no obvious way to contact the SO police that closed the issue or get it reopened. {/rant} At work we have a C# solution with over 80 projects. In VS 2008 we use a macro to stop the compile as soon as a project in the solution fails to build (see this question for several options for VS 2005 & VS 2008: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/134796/how-to-automatically-stop-visual-c-build-at-first-compile-error). Is it possible to do the same in VS 2010? What we have found is that in VS 2010 the macros don't work (at least I couldn't get them to work) as it appears that the environment events don't fire in VS 2010. The default behaviour is to continue as far as possible and display a list of errors in the error window. I'm happy for it to stop either as soon as an error is encountered (file-level) or as soon as a project fails to build (project-level). Answers for VS 2010 only please. If the macros do work then a detailed explanation of how to configure them for VS 2010 would be appreciated. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Return enum instead of bool from function for clarity ?

  - by Moe Sisko

  This is similar to : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2908876/net-bool-vs-enum-as-a-method-parameter but concerns returning a bool from a function in some situations. e.g. Function which returns bool : public bool Poll() { bool isFinished = false; // do something, then determine if finished or not. return isFinished; } Used like this : while (!Poll()) { // do stuff during wait. } Its not obvious from the calling context what the bool returned from Poll() means. It might be clearer in some ways if the "Poll" function was renamed "IsFinished()", but the method does a bit of work, and (IMO) would not really reflect what the function actually does. Names like "IsFinished" also seem more appropriate for properties. Another option might be to rename it to something like : "PollAndReturnIsFinished" but this doesn't feel right either. So an option might be to return an enum. e.g : public enum Status { Running, Finished } public Status Poll() { Status status = Status.Running; // do something, then determine if finished or not. return status; } Called like this : while (Poll() == Status.Running) { // do stuff during wait. } But this feels like overkill. Any ideas ?

  Read the article

• PySide Qt script doesn't launch from Spyder but works from shell

  - by Maxim Zaslavsky

  I have a weird bug in my project that uses PySide for its Qt GUI, and in response I'm trying to test with simpler code that sets up the environment. Here is the code I am testing with: http://stackoverflow.com/a/6906552/130164 When I launch that from my shell (python test.py), it works perfectly. However, when I run that script in Spyder, I get the following error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/home/test/Desktop/test/test.py", line 31, in <module> app = QtGui.QApplication(sys.argv) RuntimeError: A QApplication instance already exists. If it helps, I also get the following warning: /usr/lib/pymodules/python2.6/matplotlib/__init__.py:835: UserWarning: This call to matplotlib.use() has no effect because the the backend has already been chosen; matplotlib.use() must be called *before* pylab, matplotlib.pyplot, or matplotlib.backends is imported for the first time. Why does that code work when launched from my shell but not from Spyder? Update: Mata answered that the problem happens because Spyder uses Qt, which makes sense. For now, I've set up execution in Spyder using the "Execute in an external system terminal" option, which doesn't cause errors but doesn't allow debugging, either. Does Spyder have any built-in workarounds to this?

  Read the article

• What are the worst examples of moral failure in the history of software engineering?

  - by Amanda S

  Many computer science curricula include a class or at least a lecture on disasters caused by software bugs, such as the Therac-25 incidents or Ariane 5 Flight 501. Indeed, Wikipedia has a list of software bugs with serious consequences, and a question on StackOverflow addresses some of them too. We study the failures of the past so that we don't repeat them, and I believe that rather than ignoring them or excusing them, it's important to look at these failures squarely and remind ourselves exactly how the mistakes made by people in our profession cost real money and real lives. By studying failures caused by uncaught bugs and bad process, we learn certain lessons about rigorous testing and accountability, and we make sure that our innocent mistakes are caught before they cause major problems. There are kinds of less innocent failure in software engineering, however, and I think it's just as important to study the serious consequences caused by programmers motivated by malice, greed, or just plain amorality. Thus we can learn about the ethical questions that arise in our profession, and how to respond when we are faced with them ourselves. Unfortunately, it's much harder to find lists of these failures--the only one I can come up with is that apocryphal "DOS ain't done 'til Lotus won't run" story. What are the worst examples of moral failure in the history of software engineering?

  Read the article

• DOS Batch file to echo a specific line number

  - by Lee

  So for the second part of my current dilemma, I have a list of folders in "c:\file_list.txt". I need to be able to extract them (well, echo them with some mods) based on the line number because this batch script is being called by an iterative macro process. I'm passing the line number as a parameter. @echo off setlocal enabledelayedexpansion set /a counter=0 set /a %%a = "" for /f "usebackq delims=" %%a in (c:\file_list.txt) do (if "!counter!"=="%1" goto :printme & set /a counter+=1) :printme echo %%a which gives me an output of "%a". Doh! So, I've tried echoing !a! (result: "ECHO is off."); I've tried echoing %a (result: a) I figured the easy thing to do would be to modify the "head.bat" code found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/130116/dos-batch-commands-to-read-first-line-from-text-file except rather than echoing every line - I'd just echo the last line found. Not as simple as one might think. I've noticed that my counter is staying at zero for some reason; I'm wondering if the "set /a counter+=1" is doing what I think it's doing.

  Read the article

• How can I extract a string between matching braces in Perl?

  - by Srilesh

  My input file is as below : HEADER {ABC|*|DEF {GHI 0 1 0} {{Points {}}}} {ABC|*|DEF {GHI 0 2 0} {{Points {}}}} {ABC|*|XYZ:abc:def {GHI 0 22 0} {{Points {{F1 1.1} {F2 1.2} {F3 1.3} {F4 1.4}}}}} {ABC|*|XYZ:ghi:jkl {JKL 0 372 0} {{Points {}}}} {ABC|*|XYZ:mno:pqr {GHI 0 34 0} {{Points {}}}} { ABC|*|XYZ:abc:pqr {GHI 0 68 0} {{Points {{F1 11.11} {F2 12.10} {F3 14.11} {F4 16.23}}}} } TRAILER I want to extract the file into an array as below : $array[0] = "{ABC|*|DEF {GHI 0 1 0} {{Points {}}}}" $array[1] = "{ABC|*|DEF {GHI 0 2 0} {{Points {}}}}" $array[2] = "{ABC|*|XYZ:abc:def {GHI 0 22 0} {{Points {{F1 1.1} {F2 1.2} {F3 1.3} {F4 1.4}}}}}" .. .. $array[5] = "{ ABC|*|XYZ:abc:pqr {GHI 0 68 0} {{Points {{F1 11.11} {F2 12.10} {F3 14.11} {F4 16.23}}}} }" Which means, I need to match the first opening curly brace with its closing curly brace and extract the string in between. I have checked the below link, but this doesnt apply to my question. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/413071/regex-to-get-string-between-curly-braces-i-want-whats-between-the-curly-braces I am trying but would really help if someone can assist me with their expertise ... Thanks Sri ...

  Read the article

• What are the use cases for this static reflection code?

  - by Maslow

  This is Oliver Hanappi's static reflection code he posted on stackoverflow private static string GetMemberName(Expression expression) { switch (expression.NodeType) { case ExpressionType.MemberAccess: var memberExpression = (MemberExpression)expression; var supername = GetMemberName(memberExpression.Expression); if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(supername)) return memberExpression.Member.Name; return String.Concat(supername, '.', memberExpression.Member.Name); case ExpressionType.Call: var callExpression = (MethodCallExpression)expression; return callExpression.Method.Name; case ExpressionType.Convert: var unaryExpression = (UnaryExpression)expression; return GetMemberName(unaryExpression.Operand); case ExpressionType.Parameter: return String.Empty; default: throw new ArgumentException("The expression is not a member access or method call expression"); } } I have the public wrapper methods: public static string Name<T>(Expression<Action<T>> expression) { return GetMemberName(expression.Body); } public static string Name<T>(Expression<Func<T, object>> expression) { return GetMemberName(expression.Body); } then added my own method shortcuts public static string ClassMemberName<T>(this T sourceType,Expression<Func<T,object>> expression) { return GetMemberName(expression.Body); } public static string TMemberName<T>(this IEnumerable<T> sourceList, Expression<Func<T,object>> expression) { return GetMemberName(expression.Body); } What are examples of code that would necessitate or take advantage of the different branches in the GetMemberName(Expression expression) switch? what all is this code capable of making strongly typed?

  Read the article

• How do you make a static sprite be a child of another sprite in cocos2D while using SpaceManager

  - by JJBigThoughts

  I have two static (STATIC_MASS) SpaceManager sprites. One is a child of the other - by which I mean that one sort of builds up the other one, but although the child's images shows up in the right place, the child doesn't seem to exists in the chipmunk physics engine, like I would expect. In my case, I have a backboard (rectangular sprite) and a hoop (a circular sprite). Since I might want to move the backboard, I'd like to attach the hoop to backboard so that the hoop automatically moves right along with the backboard. Here, we see a rotating backboard with attached hoop. It looks OK on the screen, but other objects only bounce off the backboard but pass right through the hoop (in a bad sense of the term). What doesn't my child sprite seem to exist in the physics engine? // Add Backboard cpShape *shapeRect = [smgr addRectAt:cpvWinCenter mass:STATIC_MASS width:200 height:10 rotation:0.0f ];// We're upgrading this cpCCSprite * cccrsRect = [cpCCSprite spriteWithShape:shapeRect file:@"rect_200x10.png"]; [self addChild:cccrsRect]; // Spin the static backboard: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2691589/how-do-you-make-a-sprite-rotate-in-cocos2d-while-using-spacemanager // Make static object update moves in chipmunk // Since Backboard is static, and since we're going to move it, it needs to know about spacemanager so its position gets updated inside chipmunk. // Setting this would make the smgr recalculate all static shapes positions every step // cccrsRect.integrationDt = smgr.constantDt; // cccrsRect.spaceManager = smgr; // Alternative method: smgr.rehashStaticEveryStep = YES; smgr.rehashStaticEveryStep = YES; // Spin the backboard [cccrsRect runAction:[CCRepeatForever actionWithAction: [CCSequence actions: [CCRotateTo actionWithDuration:2 angle:180], [CCRotateTo actionWithDuration:2 angle:360], nil] ]]; // Add the hoop cpShape *shapeHoop = [smgr addCircleAt:ccp(100,-45) mass:STATIC_MASS radius: 50 ]; cpCCSprite * cccrsHoop = [cpCCSprite spriteWithShape:shapeHoop file:@"hoop_100x100.png"]; [cccrsRect addChild:cccrsHoop]; This is only half working for me. Note: SpaceManager is a toolkit for working with cocos2D-iphone

  Read the article

• C# connect to domain SQL Server 2005 from non-domain machine

  - by user304582

  Hi, I asked a question a few days ago (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2795723/access-to-sql-server-2005-from-a-non-domain-machine-using-windows-authentication) which got some interesting, but not usable suggestions. I'd like to ask the question again, but make clear what my constraints are: I have a Windows domain within which a machine is running SQL Server 2005 and which is configured to support only Windows authentication. I would like to run a C# client application on a machine on the same network, but which is NOT on the domain, and access a database on the SQL Server 2005 instance. I CANNOT create or modify OS or SQL Server users on either machine, and I CANNOT make any changes to permissions or impersonation, and I CANNOT make use of runas. I know that I can write Perl and Java applications that can connect to the SQL Server database using only these four parameters: server name, database name, username (in the form domain\user), and password. In C# I have tried various things around: string connectionString = "Data Source=server;Initial Catalog=database;User Id=domain\user;Password=password"; SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); connection.Open(); and tried setting integrated security to true and false, but nothing seems to work. Is what I am trying to do simply impossible in C#? Thanks for any help, Martin

  Read the article

• Advice on Method overloads.

  - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem

  Please see following methods. public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId, int? supplierId) { try { if (customerId != null && customerId > 0) { Filter.Add(Customres.CustomerId == customerId); } if (supplierId != null && supplierId > 0) { Filter.Add(Suppliers.SupplierId == supplierId); } ProductsCollection products = new ProductsCollection(); products.FetchData(Filter); return products; } catch { throw; } } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId) { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData(customerId, (int?)null); } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData() { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData((int?)null); } 1- Please advice how can I make overloads for both CustomerId and SupplierId because only one overload can be created with GetDummyData(int? ). Should I add another argument to mention that first argument is CustomerId or SupplierId for example GetDummyData(int?, string). OR should I use enum as 2nd argument and mention that first argument is CustoemId or SupplierId. 2- Is this condition is correct or just checking 0 is sufficient - if (customerId != null && customerId 0) 3- Using Try/catch like this is correct? 4- Passing (int?)null is correct or any other better approach. Edit: I have found some other posts like this and because I have no knowledge of Generics that is why I am facing this problem. Am I right? Following is the post. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/422625/overloaded-method-calling-overloaded-method

  Read the article

• How to use generic (NSObject) controller with subviews of a UIViewController?

  - by wanderlust

  I have a UIViewController that is loading several subviews at different times based on user interaction. I originally built all of these subviews in code, with no nib files. Now I am moving to nib files with custom UIView subclasses. Some of these subviews display static data, and I am using loadNibNamed:owner:options: to load them into the view controller. Others contain controls that I need to access. I (sort of) understand the reasons Apple says to use one view controller per screen of content, using generic controller objects (NSObjects) to manage subsections of a screen. So I need a view controller, a generic controller, a view class and a nib. How do I put this all together? My working assumptions and subsequent questions: I will associate the view class with the nib in the 'class identity' drop down in IB. The view controller will coordinate overall screen interactions. When necessary, it will create an instance of the generic controller. Does the generic controller load the nib? How? Do I define the outlets and actions in that view class, or should they be in the generic controller? How do I pass messages between the view controller and the generic controller? If anyone can point me to some sample code using a controller in this way, it will go a long way to helping me understand. None of the books or stackoverflow posts I've read have quite hit the spot yet.

  Read the article

• Visual Studio 2010 Professional - Problem Unit-Testing Web Services

  - by Ben

  Have created a very simple Web Service (asmx) in Visual Studio 2010 Professional, and am trying to use the auto-generated unit test cases. I get something that seems quite familiar on this site: The web site could not be configured correctly; getting ASP.NET process information failed. Requesting http://localhost:81/zfp/VSEnterpriseHelper.axd return an error: The remote server returned an error: (500) Internal Server Error. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/260432/500-error-running-visual-studio-asp-net-unit-test I have tried: 1. Running the tests on IIS rather than ASP.NET Development Server 2. Adding and then removing the XML fragment to my Web Service's .config file 3. Giving the MACHINE\ASPNET account Full control to the local folder My current questions: 1. Why am I being bothered with this instrumentation / code coverage DLL, when this doesn't seem to be something that ships with Visual Studio 2010 Professional? Is there any way I can turn it off? 2. I'm placing the node under in Web.config - is that the correct node? 3. Is it possible to bind to a web service without using the webby test attributes? I've seen other people advising making the Web Service as light-weight as possible. I'm trying to call it with jQuery / AJAX / JSON, so being able to debug the actual web service would be really helpful. Best wishes, Ben

  Read the article

• .Net System.Mail.Message adding multiple "To" addresses

  - by Matt Dawdy

  I just hit something I think is inconsistent, and wanted to see if I'm doing something wrong, if I'm an idiot, or... MailMessage msg = new MailMessage(); msg.To.Add("[email protected]"); msg.To.Add("[email protected]"); msg.To.Add("[email protected]"); msg.To.Add("[email protected]"); Really only sends this email to 1 person, the last one. To add multiples I have to do this: msg.To.Add("[email protected],[email protected],[email protected],[email protected]"); I don't get it. I thought I was adding multiple people to the "To" address collection, but what I was doing was replacing it. I think I just realized my error -- to add one item to the collection, use .To.Add(new MailAddress("[email protected]")) If you use just a string, it replaces everything it had in its list. Ugh. I'd consider this a rather large gotcha! Since I answered my own question, but I think this is of value to have in the stackoverflow archive, I'll still ask it. Maybe someone even has an idea of other traps that you can fall into.

  Read the article

• iPad width in viewport settings overflowing past device width

  - by user1327771

  I am at my wit's end here, and I beseech the fine folks here at stackoverflow for help. I am working on a design for a blog for a friend of mine, and I'm working in HTML5. I am trying to get the width of the page to span the width of an iPad. So, in my document head, I have the following: <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width, initial-scale=1.0, maximum-scale=1.0"> Now, if you go to the index page, on an iPad, it looks just fine. The width of the page spans the width of the iPad in portrait mode, as I expect it to: http://www.alanreuterart.com/femmegamers/index.html It also looks fine on any individual blog posts as well. However, on the "about" and "join" pages, the width does not do this. It's actually overflowing past the length of the iPad to the right. View the following page on an iPad to see what I mean: http://www.alanreuterart.com/femmegamers/about.html I've tried everything. I cannot, for the life of me, figure out how to get it those two pages to correctly span the device width of the iPad. One important note, though: before anyone tells me to set my viewport width to 960, I cannot do that because the pages have media queries in them to convert to a mobile layout for the iPhone and other mobile phones. (I am not making a special unique layout for the iPad.) Can ANYONE help out here? Thanks in advance! —Me.

  Read the article

• Handling data update/freshness issue in web-app in general (or GWT specifically)

  - by edwin.nathaniel

  In general, how do you guys handle user update/data freshness interaction with the user (UI issue) in web-apps? For example: Multi-users web-app (like project management) Login to a "virtual" space People can update project names, etc How to handle a situation such that: user-A and user-B load a project with title "Project StackOverflow" user-B updates the title to "Project StackExchange" user-A updates the title after user-B update operation to "Project Basecamp" The question I'm asking is from the user perspective (UI) and not about transactional operation. What do most people do in this situation? What would you do after user-B updates the title in user-A screen/view? What happened when user-A tries to update the title after user-B finished his/her update operation? do you inform user-A that the title has changed and he/she has to reload the page? do you go ahead and change the title and let user-B has old data? Do you do some sort of application-level "locking" mechanism? (if someone is updating, nobody else can?) Or fix the application workflow? (who has the access to be able to change things, etc). What would be the simplest solution, but at the same time not annoy the user with more dialog/warning messages. I've encountered this particular problem frequently in a GWT app specifically where domain models are being passed around and refreshing the whole app/client-side isn't the optimal solution in my mind (since it means the whole "loading"/initialization phase must be executed again in this specific environment). Maybe the answer is to stay away from GWT? :) Love to hear options, solutions, and advises from you guys. Thanks

  Read the article

• POST a form in an iframe.

  - by Stavros Korokithakis

  I would like to POST a form in an iframe, generated like so: My JS loads an iframe inside the page, adds a form to the iframe and submits the form. What I would like to happen is the iframe to load the result of that request. So, I would effectively like to post a form and render the result inside the iframe, without touching the parent (apart from putting the iframe up for display in the first place). I am using the code from this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/133925/javascript-post-request-like-a-form-submit/134003#134003 but I can't get it to not reload the parent. I post the form, and instead of the iframe refreshing, the entire parent refreshes. I don't know why that is, since the url it's posting to is different and would at least redirect there. Can anyone help me with this problem? I just want a post inside an iframe and only within the iframe, basically. EDIT: After some more research, apparently the form is not being created properly. I'm using document.createElement("form") and then document.getElementById("my_iframe_id").appendChild(form) to append it, but it does not seem to be working correctly.

  Read the article

• greasemonkey: perform GM_xmlhttpRequest() from eval (follow up)

  - by Paul Tarjan

  How can you call GM_xmlhttpRequest inside of an eval where you are evaling some complicated code, some of which calls GM_xmlhttpRequest. This is a follow up to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1074236 Here is some sample code: // ==UserScript== // @name Test GM AJAX // ==/UserScript== console = unsafeWindow.console; function fetch(msg) { console.log('fetching: '+msg); GM_xmlhttpRequest({ method: 'GET', url: 'http://google.com', onload: function(responseDetails) { console.log(msg); } }); } function complicated(arg1, arg2) { fetch(arg1 + arg2); } console.log('trying'); var code = 'complicated("Ya", "y!")'; function myEval(code) { eval(code); eval('setTimeout(function(){'+code+'},0)'); eval('setTimeout(fetch,0)'); eval('setTimeout(function(){console.log("here");fetch("cool")},0)'); fetch("BOO"); } myEval(code); which outputs: trying fetching: Yay! fetching: BOO fetching: Yay! fetching: 30 here fetching: cool BOO 30 So the only fetch that worked was the setTimeout(fetch,0) but I need to actually execute the code which includes come complicated code. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• FluentNHibernate, getting 1 column from another table

  - by puffpio

  We're using FluentNHibernate and we have run into a problem where our object model requires data from two tables like so: public class MyModel { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual int FooId { get; set; } public virtual string FooName { get; set; } } Where there is a MyModel table that has Id, Name, and FooId as a foreign key into the Foo table. The Foo tables contains Id and FooName. This problem is very similar to another post here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1896645/nhibernate-join-tables-and-get-single-column-from-other-table but I am trying to figure out how to do it with FluentNHibernate. I can make the Id, Name, and FooId very easily..but mapping FooName I am having trouble with. This is my class map: public class MyModelClassMap : ClassMap<MyModel> { public MyModelClassMap() { this.Id(a => a.Id).Column("AccountId").GeneratedBy.Identity(); this.Map(a => a.Name); this.Map(a => a.FooId); // my attempt to map FooName but it doesn't work this.Join("Foo", join => join.KeyColumn("FooId").Map(a => a.FooName)); } } with that mapping I get this error: The element 'class' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has invalid child element 'join' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. List of possible elements expected: 'joined-subclass, loader, sql-insert, sql-update, sql-delete, filter, resultset, query, sql-query' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. any ideas?

  Read the article

• Java webapp: how to implement a web bug (1x1 pixel)?

  - by NoozNooz42

  In the accepted answer in the following question, a SO regular with 13K+ rep suggests to use a "web bug" (non-cacheable 1x1 img) to be able to track requests in the logs: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1784893 How can I do this in Java? Basically, I've got two issues: how to make sure the 1x1 image is not cacheable (how to set the header)? how to make sure the query for these 1x1 image will appear in the logs? I'm looking for exact piece of code because I know how to write a .jsp/servlet and I know how to serve an 1x1 image :) My question is really about the exact .jsp/servlet that I should write and how/what needs to be done so that Tomcat logs the request. For example I plan to use the following mapping: <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>WebBugServlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/webbug*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> and then use an img tag referencing a "webbug.png" (or .gif), so how do I write the .jsp/servlet? What/where should I look for in the logs?

  Read the article

• Java XML Output - proper indenting for child items

  - by Dr1Ku

  Hello, I'd like to serialize some simple data model into xml, I've been using the standard java.org.w3c -related code (see below), the indentation is better than no "OutputKeys.INDENT", yet there is one little thing that remains - proper indentation for child elements. I know that this has been asked before on stackoverflow , yet that configuration did not work for me, this is the code I'm using : DocumentBuilderFactory factory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocumentBuilder builder = factory.newDocumentBuilder(); Document doc = builder.newDocument(); doc = addItemsToDocument(doc); // The addItemsToDocument method adds childElements to the document. TransformerFactory transformerFactory = TransformerFactory.newInstance(); transformerFactory.setAttribute("indent-number", new Integer(4)); // switching to setAttribute("indent-number", 4); doesn't help Transformer transformer = transformerFactory.newTransformer(); transformer.setOutputProperty(OutputKeys.METHOD, "xml"); transformer.setOutputProperty(OutputKeys.INDENT, "yes"); DOMSource source = new DOMSource(doc); StreamResult result = new StreamResult(outFile); // outFile is a regular File outFile = new File("some/path/foo.xml"); transformer.transform(source, result); The output produced is : <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <stuffcontainer> <stuff description="something" duration="240" title="abc"> <otherstuff /> </stuff> </stuffcontainer> Whereas I would want it (for more clarity) like : <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <stuffcontainer> <stuff description="something" duration="240" title="abc"> <otherstuff /> </stuff> </stuffcontainer> I was just wondering if there is a way of doing this, make it properly indented for the child elements. Thank you in advance ! Happy Easter coding :-) !

  Read the article

• 'Forward-Compatible' Program Design

  - by Jeffrey Kern

  The majority of my questions I've asked here so far on StackOverflow have been how to implement individual concepts and techniques towards developing a software-based NES clone via the XNA environment. The small samples that I've thrown together on my PC work relatively great and everything. Except I hit a brick wall. How do I merge all of these samples together. Having proof-of-concept is amazing, except when you need it to go beyond just that. I now have samples strewn about that I'm trying to merge, some of them incomplete. And now I'm stuck with the chicken-and-the-egg situation of where I would like to incorporate these samples together, to make sure they work, but I cannot without test data. And I don't have tools to create test data, because they'd need to be based off of the individual pieces that need to be put together. In my mind, I'm having nightmares with circular reference. For my sample data, I am hoping to save it in XML and write a specification - and then make sample data by hand - but I'm too paranoid of manually creating an XML file full of incorrect data and blaming it on my code, or vice-versa. It doesn't help that the end-result of my work is graphic-oriented, which makes it interseting how a graphic on the screen can be visualized in XML Nodes. I guess, my question is this: What design patterns and disciplines exist in the coding world that address this type of concern? I've always relied on brute-force coding and restarting a project with a whole new code base in attempts to further along my goals, but I doubt that would be the best way to do so. Within my college career, the majority of my programming was to work on simple projects that came out of a book, or with a given correct data set and a verifyable result. I don't have that, as my own design documents that I am going by could be terribly wrong.

  Read the article

• JUnit confusion: use 'extend Testcase' or '@Test' ?

  - by Rabarberski

  I've found the proper use (or at least the documentation) of JUnit very confusing. This question serves both as a future reference and as a real question. If I've understood correctly, there are two main approaches to create and run a JUnit test: Approach A: create a class that extends TestCase, and start test methods with the word test. When running the class as a JUnit Test (in Eclipse), all methods starting with the word test are automatically run. import junit.framework.TestCase; public class DummyTestA extends TestCase { public void testSum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Approach B: create a 'normal' class and prepend a @Test annotation to the method. Note that you do NOT have to start the method with the word test. import org.junit.*; import static org.junit.Assert.*; public class DummyTestB { @Test public void Sum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Mixing the two seems not to be a good idea, see e.g. this stackoverflow question: Now, my questions(s): What is the preferred approach, or when would you use one instead of the other? Approach B allows for testing for exceptions by extending the @Test annotation like in @Test(expected = ArithmeticException.class). But how do you test for exceptions when using approach A? When using approach A, you can group a number of test classes in a test suite. TestSuite suite = new TestSuite("All tests");<br/> suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestA.class); suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestAbis.class);` But this can't be used with approach B (since each testclass should subclass TestCase). What is the proper way to group tests for approach B?

  Read the article

• In Ruby, why does a method invocation not be able to be treated as a unit when "do" and "end" is use

  - by Jian Lin

  The following question is related to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2127836/ruby-print-inject-do-syntax The question is, can we insist on using DO and END and make it work with puts or p? This works: a = [1,2,3,4] b = a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end puts b # prints out 10 so, is it correct to say, inject is a class method of the Array class, which takes a block of code, and then returns a number. If so, then it should be no different from calling a function and getting back a return value: b = foo(3) puts b or b = circle.getRadius() puts b In the above two cases, we can directly say puts foo(3) puts circle.getRadius() so, there is no way to make it work directly by using the following 2 ways: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end but it gives ch01q2.rb:7:in `inject': no block given (LocalJumpError) from ch01q2.rb:4:in `each' from ch01q2.rb:4:in `inject' from ch01q2.rb:4 grouping the method call using ( ) doesn't work either: a = [1,2,3,4] puts (a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end) and this gives: ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected kDO_BLOCK, expecting ')' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected '|', expecting '=' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:6: syntax error, unexpected kEND, expecting $end end) ^ finally, the following version works: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject { |sum, x| sum + x } but why doesn't the grouping of the method invocation using ( ) work? What if a programmer insists that he uses do and end, can it be made to work directly with p or puts, without an extra temporary variable?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 670 671 672 673 674 675 676 677 678 679 680 681  | Next Page >