Search Results

Search found 18191 results on 728 pages for 'single board'.

Page 674/728 | < Previous Page | 670 671 672 673 674 675 676 677 678 679 680 681  | Next Page >

  • What to do when you need more verbs in REST

    - by Richard Levasseur
    There is another similar question to mine, but the discussion veered away from the problem I'm encounting. Say I have a system that deals with expense reports (ER). You can create and edit them, add attachments, and approve/reject them. An expense report might look like this: GET /er/1 => {"title": "Trip to NY", "totalcost": "400 USD", "comments": [ "john: Please add the total cost", "mike: done, can you approve it now?" ], "approvals": [ {"john": "Pending"}, {"finance-group": "Pending"}] } That looks fine, right? Thats what an expense report document looks like. If you want to update it, you can do this: POST /er/1 {"title": "Trip to NY 2010"} If you want to approve it, you can do this: POST /er/1/approval {"approved": true} But, what if you want to update the report and approve it at the same time? How do we do that? If you only wanted to approve, then doing a POST to something like /er/1/approval makes sense. We could put a flag in the URL, POST /er/1?approve=1, and send the data changes as the body, but that flag doesn't seem RESTful. We could put special field to be submitted, too, but that seems a bit hacky, too. If we did that, then why not send up data with attributes like set_title or add_to_cost? We could create a new resource for updating and approving, but (1) I can't think of how to name it without verbs, and (2) it doesn't seem right to name a resource based on what actions can be done to it (what happens if we add more actions?) We could have an X-Approve: True|False header, but headers seem like the wrong tool for the job. It'd also be difficult to get set headers without using javascript in a browser. We could use a custom media-type, application/approve+yes, but that seems no better than creating a new resource. We could create a temporary "batch operations" url, /er/1/batch/A. The client then sends multiple requests, perhaps POST /er/1/batch/A to update, then POST /er/1/batch/A/approval to approve, then POST /er/1/batch/A/status to end the batch. On the backend, the server queues up all the batch requests somewhere, then processes them in the same backend-transaction when it receives the "end batch processing" request. The downside with this is, obviously, that it introduces a lot of complexity. So, what is a good, general way to solve the problem of performing multiple actions in a single request? General because its easy to imagine additional actions that might be done in the same request: Suppress or send notifications (to email, chat, another system, whatever) Override some validation (maximum cost, names of dinner attendees) Trigger backend workflow that doesn't have a representation in the document.

    Read the article

  • Binding using ElementName for a control within the Grid\ListView

    - by i2nfo
    Hi I am currently busy with a WPF application that uses a "GridView". There are several template columns one of which is a ComboBox in column 3 named cmbInputControlType. What I would like to do using my Converter class, which I have already created, is binding the visibility of the TextBox(txtFrom) in column 4 to the selected value of the ComboBox(Column 3). Basically if you select a value from the the ComboBox(cmbInputControlType - column 3), it must update teh visibility of the TextBox(txtFrom - column 4) <ListView Height="150" ScrollViewer.HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" ScrollViewer.VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" Width="435" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Margin="5,0,5,5" Name="lstInput" VerticalAlignment="Top" SelectionMode="Single" HorizontalContentAlignment="Left"> <ListView.Resources> <local:InputControlTypeConverter x:Key="InputConType" /> </ListView.Resources> <ListView.View> <GridView> <!--Column 1--> <GridViewColumn Header="ParameterName" x:Name="lblParameterName" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding ParameterName}" Width="100" /> <!--Column 2--> <GridViewColumn Header="DisplayName"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox x:Name="txtDisplayName" Width="150" /> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> <!--Column 3--> <GridViewColumn Header="ControlType"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ComboBox x:Name="cmbInputControlType" Width="100" SelectionChanged="cmbInputControlType_SelectionChanged" > <ComboBoxItem Content="TextBox" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Copy" /> </ComboBox> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> <!--Column 4--> <GridViewColumn Header="From"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox x:Name="txtCopyFrom" Width="150" Visibility="{Binding ElementName=cmbInputControlType,Path=SelectedItem, Converter={StaticResource InputConType}}" /> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> <!--Column 5--> <GridViewColumn Header="To"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox x:Name="txtCopyTo" Width="150" /> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView>

    Read the article

  • QT vs. Net - REAL comparisons for R.A.D. projects

    - by Pirate for Profit
    Man in all these Qt vs. .NET discussions 90% these people argue about the dumbest crap. Trying to get a real comparison chart here, because I know a little about both frameworks but I don't know everything. I believe Qt and .NET both have strengths and weaknesses. This is to make a comparison that highlights these so people can make more informed decisions before embarking on a project, in the spirit of R.A.D. Event Handling In Qt the event handling system is very simple. You just emit signals when something cool happens and then catch them in slots. ie. // run some calculations, then emit valueChanged(30, false, 20.2); and then catching it, any object can make a slot to recieve that message easily void MyObj::valueChanged(int percent, bool ok, float timeRemaining). It's easy to "block" an event or "disconnect" when needed, and works seamlessly across threads... once you get the hang of it, it just seems a lot more natural and intuitive than the way the .NET event handling is set up (you know, void valueChanged(object sender, CustomEventArgs e). And I'm not just talking about syntax, because in the end the .NET anonymous delegates are the bomb. I'm also talking about in more than just reflection (because, yes, .NET obviously has much stronger reflection capabilities). I'm talking about in the way the system feels to a human being. Qt wins hands down for the simplest yet still flexible event handling system ever i m o. Plugins and such I do love some of the ease of C# compared to C++, as well as .NET's assembly architecture, even though it leads to a bunch of .dll's (there's ways to combine everything into a single exe though). That is a big bonus for modular projects, which are a PITA to import stuff in C++ as far as RAD is concerned. Database Ease of Doing Crap Also what about datasets and database manipulations. I think .net wins here but I'm not sure. Threading/Conccurency How do you guys think of the threading? In .NET, all I've ever done is make like a list of master worker threads with locks. I like QConcurrentFramework, you don't worry about locks or anything, and with the ease of the signal slot system across threads it's nice to get notified about the progress of things. QConcurrent is the simplest threading mechanism I've ever played with. Memory Usage Also what do you think of the overall memory usage comparison. Is the .NET garbage collector pretty on the ball and quick compared to the instantaneous nature of native memory management? Or does it just let programs leak up a storm and lag the computer then clean it up when it's about to really lag? Doesn't the just-in-time compiler make native code that is pretty good, like and that only happens the first time the program is run? However, I am a n00b who doesn't know what I'm talking about, please school me on the subject.

    Read the article

  • Why won't this hit test fire a second time? wpf

    - by csciguy
    All, I have a main window that contains two custom objects (AnimatedCharacter). These objects are nothing but images. These images might contain transparent portions. One of these objects slightly overlaps the other object. There is a listener attached to the main window and is as follows. private void Window_MouseLeftButtonUp_1(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { Point pt = e.GetPosition((UIElement)sender); //store off the mouse pt hitPointMouse = pt; //clear the result list hitResultsSubList.Clear(); EllipseGeometry m_egHitArea = new EllipseGeometry(pt, 1, 1); VisualTreeHelper.HitTest(sender as Visual, HitTestFilterFuncNew, new HitTestResultCallback(HitTestCallback), new GeometryHitTestParameters(m_egHitArea)); //Check all sub items you have now hit if (hitResultsSubList.Count > 0) { CheckSubHitItems(hitResultsSubList); } } The idea is to filter out only a select group of items (called AnimatedCharacters). The hittest and filters are as follows public HitTestResultBehavior HitTestCallback(HitTestResult htrResult) { IntersectionDetail idDetail = ((GeometryHitTestResult)htrResult).IntersectionDetail; switch (idDetail) { case IntersectionDetail.FullyContains: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; case IntersectionDetail.Intersects: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; case IntersectionDetail.FullyInside: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; default: return HitTestResultBehavior.Stop; } } public HitTestFilterBehavior HitTestFilterFuncNew(DependencyObject potentialHitTestTarget) { if (potentialHitTestTarget.GetType() == typeof(AnimatedCharacter)) { hitResultsSubList.Add(potentialHitTestTarget as AnimatedCharacter); } return HitTestFilterBehavior.Continue; } This returns me back a list (called hitResultsSubList) that I attempt to then process further. I want to take everything in the hitResultsSubList and run a hit test on it again. This time, the hit test will be checking alpha levels on the particular animatedCharacter object. private void CheckSubHitItems(List<DependencyObject> hitResultsSub) { for(int i = 0; i<hitResultsSub.Count; i++) { hitResultsList.Clear(); AnimatedCharacter ac = hitResultsSub[i] as AnimatedCharacter; try { //DEBUGGER SKIPS THIS NEXT LINE EVERY SINGLE TIME. VisualTreeHelper.HitTest(ac, null, new HitTestResultCallback(hitCallBack), new PointHitTestParameters(hitPointMouse)); } catch (Exception e) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(e.StackTrace); } if (hitResultsList.Count > 0) { //do something here } } } Here is my problem now. The hit test in the second function (CheckSubHitItems) never gets called. There are definitely items (DependencyObjects of the type AnimatedCharacter) in the hitResultSub, but no matter what, the second hit test will not fire. I can walk the for loop fine, but when that line is hit, I get the following console statement. Step into: Stepping over non-user code 'System.MulticastDelegate.CtorClosed' No exceptions are thrown. Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • WCF Duplex Interaction with Web Server

    - by Mark Struzinski
    Here is my scenario, and it is causing us a considerable amount of grief at the moment: We have a vendor web service which provides base level telephony functionality. This service has a SOAP api, which we are leveraging to build up a custom UI that is integrated into our in house web apps. The api functions on 2 levels. You make standard client calls into the service to initiate actions, such as Login, Place Call, Hang Up, etc. On a different thread, the service sends events back to the client to alert the user of things that are occurring on the system (agent successfully logged in, call was disconnected, etc). I implemented a WCF service to sit between the web server and the vendor service. This WCF service operates in duplex mode, establishing a 2 way connection with the web server. The web server makes outbound calls to the WCF service, which routes them to the vendor's web service. Events are received back to the WCF service, which passes them onto the web server via a callback channel on the WCF client. As events are received on the web server, they are placed into a hash table with the user's name as the key, and a .NET queue as the value to hold the event. Each event is enqueued to the agent who owns it. On a 2 second interval, the web page polls the web server via an ajax request to get new events for the logged in user. It hits the hash table for the user key, dequeues any events that are present, and serializes them back up to the web page. From there, they are processed in order and appropriate messages are displayed to the user. This implementation performs well in a single user scenario. The second I put more than 1 user on the system, I start getting frequent timeouts with the following CommunicationException: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond We are running Windows Server 2008 R2 both servers. Both the web app and WCF service are running on .NET 3.5. The WCF service is running under the net.tcp protocol in duplex mode. The web app is ASP.NET MVC 2. Has anyone dealt with anything like this scenario? Is there a more efficient way (or a widely accepted pattern) to implement this?

    Read the article

  • Gap appears between navigation bar and view after rotating & tab switching

    - by Bogatyr
    My iphone application is showing strange behavior when rotating: a gap appears between the navigation title and content view inside a tab bar view (details on how to reproduce are below). I've created a tiny test case that exhibits the same problem: a custom root UIViewController, which creates and displays a UITabBarController programmatically, which has two tabs: 1) plain UIViewController, and 2) UINavigationController created programmatically with a single plain UIViewController content view. The complete code for the application is in the root controller's viewDidLoad (every "*VC" class is a totally vanilla UIViewController subclass with XIB for user interface from XCode, with only the view background color changed to clearly identify each view, nothing else). Here's the viewDidLoad code, and the shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation code, this code is the entire application basically: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; FirstVC *fvc = [[FirstVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"FirstVC" bundle:nil]; NavContentsVC *ncvc = [[NavContentsVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"NavContentsVC" bundle:nil]; UINavigationController *svc = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:ncvc]; NSMutableArray *localControllersArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:2]; [localControllersArray addObject:fvc]; [localControllersArray addObject:svc]; fvc.title = @"FirstVC-Title"; ncvc.title = @"NavContents-Title"; UITabBarController *tbc = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; tbc.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 460); [tbc setViewControllers:localControllersArray]; [self.view addSubview:tbc.view]; [localControllersArray release]; [ncvc release]; [svc release]; [fvc release]; } - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return YES; } Here's how to reproduce the problem: 1) start application 2) rotate device (happens in simulator, too) to landscape (UITabBar properly rotates) 3) click on tab 2 4) rotate device to portrait -- notice gap of root view controller's background color of about 10 pixels high beneath the Navigation title bar and the Navigation content view. 5) click tab 1 6) click tab 2 And the gap is gone! From my real application, I see that the gap remains during all VC push and pops while the NavigationController tab is active. Switching away to a different tab and back to the Nav tab clears up the gap. What am I doing wrong? I'm running on SDK 3.1.3, this happens both on the simulator and on the device. Except for this particular sequence, everything seems to work fine. Help!

    Read the article

  • architecture python question

    - by tom smith
    hi. creating a distributed crawling python app. it consists of a master server, and associated client apps that will run on client servers. the purpose of the client app is to run across a targeted site, to extract specific data. the clients need to go "deep" within the site, behind multiple levels of forms, so each client is specifically geared towards a given site. each client app looks something like main: parse initial url call function level1 (data1) function level1 (data) parse the url, for data1 use the required xpath to get the dom elements call the next function call level2 (data) function level2 (data2) parse the url, for data2 use the required xpath to get the dom elements call the next function call level3 function level3 (dat3) parse the url, for data3 use the required xpath to get the dom elements call the next function call level4 function level4 (data) parse the url, for data4 use the required xpath to get the dom elements at the final function.. --all the data output, and eventually returned to the server --at this point the data has elements from each function... my question: given that the number of calls that is made to the child function by the current function varies, i'm trying to figure out the best approach. each function essentialy fetches a page of content, and then parses the page using a number of different XPath expressions, combined with different regex expressions depending on the site/page. if i run a client on a single box, as a sequential process, it'll take awhile, but the load on the box is rather small. i've thought of attempting to implement the child functions as threads from the current function, but that could be a nightmare, as well as quickly bring the "box" to its knees! i've thought of breaking the app up in a manner that would allow the master to essentially pass packets to the client boxes, in a way to allow each client/function to be run directly from the master. this process requires a bit of rewrite, but it has a number of advantages. a bunch of redundancy, and speed. it would detect if a section of the process was crashing and restart from that point. but not sure if it would be any faster... i'm writing the parsing scripts in python.. so... any thoughts/comments would be appreciated... i can get into a great deal more detail, but didn't want to bore anyone!! thanks! tom

    Read the article

  • Query an XmlDocument without getting a 'Namespace prefix is not defined' problem

    - by Dan Revell
    I've got an Xml document that both defines and references some namespaces. I load it into an XmlDocument object and to the best of my knowledge I create a XmlNamespaceManager object with which to query Xpath against. Problem is I'm getting XPath exceptions that the namespace "my" is not defined. How do I get the namespace manager to see that the namespaces I am referencing are already defined. Or rather how do I get the namespace definitions from the document to the namespace manager. Furthermore tt strikes me as strange that you have to provide a namespace manager to the document which you create from the documents nametable in the first place. Even if you need to hardcode manual namespaces why can't you add them directly to the document. Why do you always have to pass this namespace manager with every single query? What can't XmlDocument just know? The Code: XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(programFiles + @"Common Files\Microsoft Shared\web server extensions\12\TEMPLATE\FEATURES\HfscBookingWorkflow\template.xml"); XmlNamespaceManager ns = new XmlNamespaceManager(xmlDoc.NameTable); XmlNode referenceNode = xmlDoc.SelectSingleNode("/my:myFields/my:ReferenceNumber", ns); referenceNode.InnerXml = this.bookingData.ReferenceNumber; XmlNode titleNode = xmlDoc.SelectSingleNode("/my:myFields/my:Title", ns); titleNode.InnerXml = this.bookingData.FamilyName; ... The Xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <?mso-infoPathSolution name="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:office:infopath:Inspection:-myXSD-2010-01-15T18-21-55" solutionVersion="1.0.0.104" productVersion="12.0.0" PIVersion="1.0.0.0" ?> <?mso-application progid="InfoPath.Document" versionProgid="InfoPath.Document.2"?> - <my:myFields xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xhtml="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:my="http://schemas.microsoft.com/office/infopath/2003/myXSD/2010-01-15T18:21:55" xmlns:xd="http://schemas.microsoft.com/office/infopath/2003"> <my:DateRequested xsi:nil="true" /> <my:DateVisited xsi:nil="true" /> <my:ReferenceNumber /> <my:FireCall>false</my:FireCall> ...

    Read the article

  • How do I refactor these two C# functions to abstrtact their logic from the specific class properties

    - by ObligatoryMoniker
    I have two functions whose underlying logic is the same but in one case it sets one property value on a class and in another case it sets a different one. How can I rewrite the following two functions to abstract away as much of the algorithm as possible so that I can make changes in logic in a single place? SetBillingAddress private void SetBillingAddress(OrderAddress newBillingAddress) { BasketHelper basketHelper = new BasketHelper(SiteConstants.BasketName); OrderAddress oldBillingAddress = basketHelper.Basket.Addresses[basketHelper.BillingAddressID]; bool NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress = ((oldBillingAddress == null) || (newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId != oldBillingAddress.OrderAddressId)); bool BillingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet = (oldBillingAddress != null); bool BillingAddressIsNotSameAsShippingAddress = (basketHelper.ShippingAddressID != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); bool NewBillingAddressIsNotShippingAddress = (newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId != basketHelper.ShippingAddressID); if (NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress && BillingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet && BillingAddressIsNotSameAsShippingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Remove(oldBillingAddress); } if (NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress && NewBillingAddressIsNotShippingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Add(newBillingAddress); } basketHelper.BillingAddressID = newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId; basketHelper.Basket.Save(); } And here is the second one: SetShippingAddress private void SetBillingAddress(OrderAddress newShippingAddress) { BasketHelper basketHelper = new BasketHelper(SiteConstants.BasketName); OrderAddress oldShippingAddress = basketHelper.Basket.Addresses[basketHelper.ShippingAddressID]; bool NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress = ((oldShippingAddress == null) || (newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId != oldShippingAddress.OrderAddressId)); bool ShippingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet = (oldShippingAddress != null); bool ShippingAddressIsNotSameAsBillingAddress = (basketHelper.ShippingAddressID != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); bool NewShippingAddressIsNotBillingAddress = (newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); if (NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress && ShippingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet && ShippingAddressIsNotSameAsBillingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Remove(oldShippingAddress); } if (NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress && NewShippingAddressIsNotBillingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Add(newShippingAddress); } basketHelper.ShippingAddressID = newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId; basketHelper.Basket.Save(); } My initial thought was that if I could pass a class's property by refernce then I could rewrite the previous functions into something like private void SetPurchaseOrderAddress(OrderAddress newAddress, ref String CurrentChangingAddressIDProperty) and then call this function and pass in either basketHelper.BillingAddressID or basketHelper.ShippingAddressID as CurrentChangingAddressIDProperty but since I can't pass C# properties by reference I am not sure what to do with this code to be able to reuse the logic in both places. Thanks for any insight you can give me.

    Read the article

  • Oracle Schema Design: Seperate Schema with I/O Overhead?

    - by Guru
    We are designing database schema for a new system based on Oracle 11gR1. We have identified a main schema which would have close to 100 tables, these will be accessed from the front end Java application. We have a requirement to audit the values which got changed in close to 50 tables, this has to be done every row. Which means, it is possible that, for a single row in MYSYS.T1 there might be 50 (or more) rows in MYSYS_AUDIT.T1_AUD table. We might be having old values of every column entry and new values available from T1. DBA gave an observation, advising against this method, because he said, separate schema meant an extra I/O for every operation. Basically AUDIT schema would be used only to do some analyse and enter values (thus SELECT and INSERT). Is it true that, "a separate schema means an extra I/O" ? I could not find justification. It appears logical to me, as the AUDIT data should not be tampered with, so a separate schema. Also, we designed a separate schema for archiving some tables from MYSYS. From MYSYS_ARC the table might be backed up into tapes or deleted after sufficient time. Few stats: Few tables (close to 20, 30) in MYSYS schema could grow to around 50M rows. We have asked for a total disk space of 4 TB. MYSYS_AUDIT schema might be having 10 times that of MYSYS but we wont keep them more than 3 months. Questions Given all these, can you suggest me any improvements? Separate schema affects disc I/O? (one extra I/O for every schema ?) Any general suggestions? Figure: +-------------------+ +-------------------+ | MYSYS | | MYSYS_AUDIT | | | | | | 1. T1 | | 1. T1_AUD | | 2. T2 | | 2. T2_AUD | | 3. T3 |--------->| 3. T3_AUD | | 4. T4 |(SELECT, | 4. T4_AUD | | . | INSERT) | . | | . | | . | | . | | . | | 100. T100 | | 50. T50_AUD | +-------------------+ +-------------------+ | | | | |(INSERT) | | | * +-------------------+ | MYSYS_ARC | | | | 1. T1_ARC | | 2. T2_ARC | | 3. T3_ARC | | 4. T4_ARC | | . | | . | | . | | 100. T100_ARC | +-------------------+ Apart from this, we have two more schemas with only read only rights, but mainly they are for adhoc purpose and we dont mind the performance on them.

    Read the article

  • Using VCL for the web (intraweb) as a trick for adding web interface to a legacy non-tiered (2 tiers

    - by user193655
    My team is maintaining a huge Client Server win32 Delphi application. It is a client/server application (Thick client) that uses DevArt (SDAC) components to connect to SQL Server. The business logic is often "trapped" in Component's event handlers, anyway with some degree of refactoring it is doable to move the business logic in common units (a big part of this work has already been done during refactoring... Maintaing legacy applications someone else wrote is very frustrating, but this is a very common job). Now there is the request of a web interface, I have several options of course, in this question i want to focus on the VCL for the web (intraweb) option. The idea is to use the common code (the same pas files) for both the client/server application and the web application. I heard of many people that moved legacy apps from delphi to intraweb, but here I am trying to keep the Thick client too. The idea is to use common code, may be with some compiler directives to write specific code: {$IFDEF CLIENTSERVER} {here goes the thick client specific code} {$ELSE} {here goes the Intraweb specific code} {$ENDIF} Then another problem is the "migration plan", let's say I have 300 features and on the first release I will have only 50 of them available in the web application. How to keep track of it? I was thinking of (ab)using Delphi interfaces to handle this. For example for the User Authentication I could move all the related code in a procedure and declare an interface like: type IUserAuthentication= interface['{0D57624C-CDDE-458B-A36C-436AE465B477}'] procedure UserAuthentication; end; In this way as I implement the IUserAuthentication interface in both the applications (Thick Client and Intraweb) I know that That feature has been "ported" to the web. Anyway I don't know if this approach makes sense. I made a prototype to simulate the whole process. It works for a "Hello world" application, but I wonder if it makes sense on a large application or this Interface idea is only counter-productive and can backfire. My question is: does this approach make sense? (the Interface idea is just an extra idea, it is not so important as the common code part described above) Is it a viable option? I understand it depends a lot of the kind of application, anyway to be generic my one is in the CRM/Accounting domain, and the number of concurrent users on a single installation is typically less than 20 with peaks of 50. EXTRA COMMENT (UPDATE): I ask this question because since I don't have a n-tier application I see Intraweb as the unique option for having a web application that has common code with the thick client. Developing webservices from the Delphi code makes no sense in my specific case, so the alternative I have is to write the web interface using ASP.NET (duplicating the business logic), but in this case I cannot take advantage of the common code in an easy way. Yes I could use dlls maybe, but my code is not suitable for that.

    Read the article

  • Adding a generic image field onto a ModelForm in django

    - by Prairiedogg
    I have two models, Room and Image. Image is a generic model that can tack onto any other model. I want to give users a form to upload an image when they post information about a room. I've written code that works, but I'm afraid I've done it the hard way, and specifically in a way that violates DRY. Was hoping someone who's a little more familiar with django forms could point out where I've gone wrong. Update: I've tried to clarify why I chose this design in comments to the current answers. To summarize: I didn't simply put an ImageField on the Room model because I wanted more than one image associated with the Room model. I chose a generic Image model because I wanted to add images to several different models. The alternatives I considered were were multiple foreign keys on a single Image class, which seemed messy, or multiple Image classes, which I thought would clutter my schema. I didn't make this clear in my first post, so sorry about that. Seeing as none of the answers so far has addressed how to make this a little more DRY I did come up with my own solution which was to add the upload path as a class attribute on the image model and reference that every time it's needed. # Models class Image(models.Model): content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField() content_object = generic.GenericForeignKey('content_type', 'object_id') image = models.ImageField(_('Image'), height_field='', width_field='', upload_to='uploads/images', max_length=200) class Room(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=50) image_set = generic.GenericRelation('Image') # The form class AddRoomForm(forms.ModelForm): image_1 = forms.ImageField() class Meta: model = Room # The view def handle_uploaded_file(f): # DRY violation, I've already specified the upload path in the image model upload_suffix = join('uploads/images', f.name) upload_path = join(settings.MEDIA_ROOT, upload_suffix) destination = open(upload_path, 'wb+') for chunk in f.chunks(): destination.write(chunk) destination.close() return upload_suffix def add_room(request, apartment_id, form_class=AddRoomForm, template='apartments/add_room.html'): apartment = Apartment.objects.get(id=apartment_id) if request.method == 'POST': form = form_class(request.POST, request.FILES) if form.is_valid(): room = form.save() image_1 = form.cleaned_data['image_1'] # Instead of writing a special function to handle the image, # shouldn't I just be able to pass it straight into Image.objects.create # ...but it doesn't seem to work for some reason, wrong syntax perhaps? upload_path = handle_uploaded_file(image_1) image = Image.objects.create(content_object=room, image=upload_path) return HttpResponseRedirect(room.get_absolute_url()) else: form = form_class() context = {'form': form, } return direct_to_template(request, template, extra_context=context)

    Read the article

  • how to write unicode hello world in C on windows

    - by hatchetman82
    im tyring to get this to work: #define UNICODE #define _UNICODE #include <wchar.h> int main() { wprintf(L"Hello World!\n"); wprintf(L"£?, ?, ?!\n"); return 0; } using visual studio 2008 express (on windows xp, if it matters). when i run this from the command prompt (started as cmd /u which is supposed to enable unicode ?) i get this: C:\dev\unicodevs\unicodevs\Debugunicodevs.exe Hello World! -ú8 C:\dev\unicodevs\unicodevs\Debug which i suppose was to be expected given that the terminal does not have the font to render those. but what gets me is that even if i try this: C:\dev\unicodevs\unicodevs\Debugcmd /u /c "unicodevs.exe output.txt" the file produced (even though its UTF-8 encoded) looks like: Hello World! £ì the source file itself is defined as unicode (encoded in UTF-8 without BOM). the compiler output when building: 1------ Rebuild All started: Project: unicodevs, Configuration: Debug Win32 ------ 1Deleting intermediate and output files for project 'unicodevs', configuration 'Debug|Win32' 1Compiling... 1main.c 1.\main.c(1) : warning C4005: 'UNICODE' : macro redefinition 1 command-line arguments : see previous definition of 'UNICODE' 1.\main.c(2) : warning C4005: '_UNICODE' : macro redefinition 1 command-line arguments : see previous definition of '_UNICODE' 1Note: including file: C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\VC\include\wchar.h 1Note: including file: C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\VC\include\crtdefs.h 1Note: including file: C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\VC\include\sal.h 1C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\VC\include\sal.h(108) : warning C4001: nonstandard extension 'single line comment' was used 1Note: including file: C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\VC\include\crtassem.h 1Note: including file: C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\VC\include\vadefs.h 1Note: including file: C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\VC\include\swprintf.inl 1Note: including file: C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\VC\include\wtime.inl 1Linking... 1Embedding manifest... 1Creating browse information file... 1Microsoft Browse Information Maintenance Utility Version 9.00.30729 1Copyright (C) Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved. 1Build log was saved at "file://c:\dev\unicodevs\unicodevs\unicodevs\Debug\BuildLog.htm" 1unicodevs - 0 error(s), 3 warning(s) ========== Rebuild All: 1 succeeded, 0 failed, 0 skipped ========== any ideas on what am i doing wrong ? similar questions on ST (like this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/787589/unicode-hello-world-for-c) seem to refer to *nix builds - as far as i understand setlocale() is not available for windows. i also tried building this using code::blocks/mingw gcc, but got the same results.

    Read the article

  • WCF service with 2 Bindings and 2 Base Addresses

    - by Sean
    I have written a WCF service (I am a newb) that I want to provide 2 endpoints for (net.tcp & basicHttp) The problem comes when I try to configure the endpoints. If I configure them as seperate services, then my service names are the same which causes a problem. I have seen recomended creating shim classes (classA : MyService, and ClassB : MyService) but that seems smelly. <services> <service name="MyWcfService.MyService" behaviorConfiguration="MyWcfService.HttpBehavior"> <endpoint name="ApplicationHttp" address="Application" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="HttpBinding" contract="MyWcfService.Interfaces.IMyService" /> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8731/MyWcfService/" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> <service name="MyWcfService.MyService" behaviorConfiguration="MyWcfService.MyBehavior"> <endpoint name="Application" address="Application" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="SecuredByWindows" contract="EmsHistorianService.Interfaces.IApplicationHistorianService" /> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexTcpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:49153/MyWcfService" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> </services> I have tried using a single service with the base address integrated into the address, but that gives me errors as well <services> <service name="MyWcfService.MyService" behaviorConfiguration="MyWcfService.HttpBehavior"> <endpoint name="ApplicationHttp" address="http://localhost:8731/MyWcfService/Application" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="HttpBinding" contract="MyWcfService.Interfaces.IMyService" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8731/MyWcfService/mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> <endpoint name="Application" address="net.tcp://localhost:49153/MyWcfService/Application" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="SecuredByWindows" contract="EmsHistorianService.Interfaces.IApplicationHistorianService" /> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost:49153/MyWcfService/mex" binding="mexTcpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service> </services> Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Saving a reference to a int.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    Here is a much simplified version of what I am trying to do static void Main(string[] args) { int test = 0; int test2 = 0; Test A = new Test(ref test); Test B = new Test(ref test); Test C = new Test(ref test2); A.write(); //Writes 1 should write 1 B.write(); //Writes 1 should write 2 C.write(); //Writes 1 should write 1 Console.ReadLine(); } class Test { int _a; public Test(ref int a) { _a = a; //I loose the reference here } public void write() { var b = System.Threading.Interlocked.Increment(ref _a); Console.WriteLine(b); } } In my real code I have a int that will be incremented by many threads however where the threads a called it will not be easy to pass it the parameter that points it at the int(In the real code this is happening inside a IEnumerator). So a requirement is the reference must be made in the constructor. Also not all threads will be pointing at the same single base int so I can not use a global static int either. I know I can just box the int inside a class and pass the class around but I wanted to know if that is the correct way of doing something like this? What I think could be the correct way: static void Main(string[] args) { Holder holder = new Holder(0); Holder holder2 = new Holder(0); Test A = new Test(holder); Test B = new Test(holder); Test C = new Test(holder2); A.write(); //Writes 1 should write 1 B.write(); //Writes 2 should write 2 C.write(); //Writes 1 should write 1 Console.ReadLine(); } class Holder { public Holder(int i) { num = i; } public int num; } class Test { Holder _holder; public Test(Holder holder) { _holder = holder; } public void write() { var b = System.Threading.Interlocked.Increment(ref _holder.num); Console.WriteLine(b); } } Is there a better way than this?

    Read the article

  • Purpose of Explicit Default Constructors

    - by Dennis Zickefoose
    I recently noticed a class in C++0x that calls for an explicit default constructor. However, I'm failing to come up with a scenario in which a default constructor can be called implicitly. It seems like a rather pointless specifier. I thought maybe it would disallow Class c; in favor of Class c = Class(); but that does not appear to be the case. Some relevant quotes from the C++0x FCD, since it is easier for me to navigate [similar text exists in C++03, if not in the same places] 12.3.1.3 [class.conv.ctor] A default constructor may be an explicit constructor; such a constructor will be used to perform default-initialization or value initialization (8.5). It goes on to provide an example of an explicit default constructor, but it simply mimics the example I provided above. 8.5.6 [decl.init] To default-initialize an object of type T means: — if T is a (possibly cv-qualified) class type (Clause 9), the default constructor for T is called (and the initialization is ill-formed if T has no accessible default constructor); 8.5.7 [decl.init] To value-initialize an object of type T means: — if T is a (possibly cv-qualified) class type (Clause 9) with a user-provided constructor (12.1), then the default constructor for T is called (and the initialization is ill-formed if T has no accessible default constructor); In both cases, the standard calls for the default constructor to be called. But that is what would happen if the default constructor were non-explicit. For completeness sake: 8.5.11 [decl.init] If no initializer is specified for an object, the object is default-initialized; From what I can tell, this just leaves conversion from no data. Which doesn't make sense. The best I can come up with would be the following: void function(Class c); int main() { function(); //implicitly convert from no parameter to a single parameter } But obviously that isn't the way C++ handles default arguments. What else is there that would make explicit Class(); behave differently from Class();? The specific example that generated this question was std::function [20.8.14.2 func.wrap.func]. It requires several converting constructors, none of which are marked explicit, but the default constructor is.

    Read the article

  • How does MySQL's ORDER BY RAND() work?

    - by Eugene
    Hi, I've been doing some research and testing on how to do fast random selection in MySQL. In the process I've faced some unexpected results and now I am not fully sure I know how ORDER BY RAND() really works. I always thought that when you do ORDER BY RAND() on the table, MySQL adds a new column to the table which is filled with random values, then it sorts data by that column and then e.g. you take the above value which got there randomly. I've done lots of googling and testing and finally found that the query Jay offers in his blog is indeed the fastest solution: SELECT * FROM Table T JOIN (SELECT CEIL(MAX(ID)*RAND()) AS ID FROM Table) AS x ON T.ID >= x.ID LIMIT 1; While common ORDER BY RAND() takes 30-40 seconds on my test table, his query does the work in 0.1 seconds. He explains how this functions in the blog so I'll just skip this and finally move to the odd thing. My table is a common table with a PRIMARY KEY id and other non-indexed stuff like username, age, etc. Here's the thing I am struggling to explain SELECT * FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; /*30-40 seconds*/ SELECT id FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; /*0.25 seconds*/ SELECT id, username FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; /*90 seconds*/ I was sort of expecting to see approximately the same time for all three queries since I am always sorting on a single column. But for some reason this didn't happen. Please let me know if you any ideas about this. I have a project where I need to do fast ORDER BY RAND() and personally I would prefer to use SELECT id FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; SELECT * FROM table WHERE id=ID_FROM_PREVIOUS_QUERY LIMIT 1; which, yes, is slower than Jay's method, however it is smaller and easier to understand. My queries are rather big ones with several JOINs and with WHERE clause and while Jay's method still works, the query grows really big and complex because I need to use all the JOINs and WHERE in the JOINed (called x in his query) sub request. Thanks for your time!

    Read the article

  • Calling an Excel Add-In method from C# application or vice versa

    - by Jude
    I have an Excel VBA add-in with a public method in a bas file. This method currently creates a VB6 COM object, which exists in a running VB6 exe/vbp. The VB6 app loads in data and then the Excel add-in method can call methods on the VB6 COM object to load the data into an existing Excel xls. This is all currently working. We have since converted our VB6 app to C#. My question is: What is the best/easiest way to mimic this behavior with the C#/.NET app? I'm thinking I may not be able to pull the data from the .NET app into Excel from the add-in method since the .Net app needs to be running with data loaded (so no using a stand-alone C# class library). Maybe we can, instead, push the data from .NET to Excel by accessing the VBA add-in method from the C# code? The following is the existing VBA method accessing the VB6 app: Public Sub UpdateInDataFromApp() Dim wkbInData As Workbook Dim oFPW As Object Dim nMaxCols As Integer Dim nMaxRows As Integer Dim j As Integer Dim sName As String Dim nCol As Integer Dim nRow As Integer Dim sheetCnt As Integer Dim nDepth As Integer Dim sPath As String Dim vData As Variant Dim SheetRange As Range Set wkbInData = wkbOpen("InData.xls") sPath = g_sPathXLSfiles & "\" 'Note: the following will bring up fpw app if not already running Set oFPW = CreateObject("FPW.CProfilesData") If oFPW Is Nothing Then MsgBox "Unable to reference " & sApp Else . . . sheetCnt = wkbInData.Sheets.Count 'get number of sheets in indata workbook For j = 2 To sheetCnt 'set counter to loop over all sheets except the first one which is not input data fields With wkbInData.Worksheets(j) Set SheetRange = .UsedRange End With With SheetRange nMaxRows = .Rows.Count 'get range of sheet(j) nMaxCols = .Columns.Count 'get range of sheet(j) Range(.Cells(2, 2), .Cells(nMaxRows, nMaxCols)).ClearContents 'Clears data from data range (51 Columns) Range(.Cells(2, 2), .Cells(nMaxRows, nMaxCols)).ClearComments End With With oFPW 'vb6 object For nRow = 2 To nMaxRows ' loop through rows sName = SheetRange.Cells(nRow, 1) 'Field name vData = .vntGetSymbol(sName, 0) 'Check if vb6 app identifies the name nDepth = .GetInputTableDepth(sName) 'Get number of data items for this field name from vb6 app nMaxCols = nDepth + 2 'nDepth=0, is single data item For nCol = 2 To nMaxCols 'loop over deep screen fields nDepth = nCol - 2 'current depth vData = .vntGetSymbol(sName, nDepth) 'Get Data from vb6 app If LenB(vData) > 0 And IsNumeric(vData) Then 'Check if data returned SheetRange.Cells(nRow, nCol) = vData 'Poke the data in Else SheetRange.Cells(nRow, nCol) = vData 'Poke a zero in End If Next 'nCol Next 'nRow End With Set SheetRange = Nothing Next 'j End If Set wkbInData = Nothing Set oFPW = Nothing Exit Sub . . . End Sub Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • jQuery Validation plugin: checkbox groups and error message issues

    - by boomturn
    I've put together a form using the jQuery Validation plugin, and all inputs are fine with working validation and error messages – except for checkboxes. I have two checkbox problems. The first is that the Validation plugin API doesn't seem to handle checkboxes in grouped contexts (I'm using fieldsets for grouping). Found several approaches to the issue here, including reference to a post by Rebecca Murphey for a more general case using a custom method and class. Adapting that to this situation: jQuery.validator.addMethod('required_group', function(val, el) { var fieldParent = $(el).closest('fieldset'); return fieldParent.find('.required_group:checked').length; }); jQuery.validator.addClassRules('required_group', { 'required_group': true }); jQuery.validator.messages.required_group = 'Please check at least one box.'; This sort of works, but produces error messages on every checkbox, and only removes them as each box is clicked. This is not an acceptable situation for the user, who can only get rid of them by clicking false positives. Ideally, I guess what's needed is something to prevent or eliminate extra messages before they are displayed and use errorPlacement to display a single error message in the parent fieldset, that would then be removed with a click on any checkbox. Less ideally, maybe they would all display but an event handler could turn off the full set of redundant messages with a click, which is what this approach offered by tvanfosson appears to do. (Another customized approach here, but I couldn't get it to work.) I guess I should also note this form requires the checkboxes to have different names. My second problem is that one of the fieldsets with checkboxes in the form also contains a nested fieldset of checkboxes under one of the outer checkboxes. So in addition to the first-level one-box-checked requirement, if the particular checkbox containing the second-level checkboxes is checked, then at least one of the second-level boxes must be checked. Not sure about the right approach; I'm guessing what needs to happen (following the above scheme) is that the trigger checkbox would use toggleClass to add/remove 'required_group' class to all the checkboxes in the subfield, which would then (hopefully) behave the same as the parent field: $("#triggerCheckbox").click(function () { $(this).find(":checkbox").toggleClass("required_group"); }); Any suggestions or ideas welcome. I'm well beyond my limited jQuery skills on this one and would be happy to hear that I missed simple, elegant and/or obvious ways to do this!

    Read the article

  • Write STDOUT & STDERR to a logfile, also write STDERR to screen

    - by Stefan Lasiewski
    I would like to run several commands, and capture all output to a logfile. I also want to print any errors to the screen (or optionally mail the output to someone). Here's an example. The following command will run three commands, and will write all output (STDOUT and STDERR) into a single logfile. { command1 && command2 && command3 ; } > logfile.log 2>&1 Here is what I want to do with the output of these commands: STDERR and STDOUT for all commands goes to a logfile, in case I need it later--- I usually won't look in here unless there are problems. Print STDERR to the screen (or optionally, pipe to /bin/mail), so that any error stands out and doesn't get ignored. It would be nice if the return codes were still usable, so that I could do some error handling. Maybe I want to send email if there was an error, like this: { command1 && command2 && command3 ; } logfile.log 2&1 || mailx -s "There was an error" [email protected] The problem I run into is that STDERR loses context during I/O redirection. A '2&1' will convert STDERR into STDOUT, and therefore I cannot view errors if I do 2 error.log Here are a couple juicier examples. Let's pretend that I am running some familiar build commands, but I don't want the entire build to stop just because of one error so I use the '--keep-going' flag. { ./configure && make --keep-going && make install ; } > build.log 2>&1 Or, here's a simple (And perhaps sloppy) build and deploy script, which will keep going in the event of an error. { ./configure && make --keep-going && make install && rsync -av --keep-going /foo devhost:/foo} > build-and-deploy.log 2>&1 I think what I want involves some sort of Bash I/O Redirection, but I can't figure this out.

    Read the article

  • How can we define more than one table,define columns and write data in xml file ?

    - by Harikrishna
    I am writing my xml file manually. And I am writing that for storing data and retrieving data from that. I have written file like for the table PersonalInfo. <?xml version="1.0" standalone="yes"?> <PersonalInfo> <xs:schema id="PersonalInfo" xmlns="" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:msdata="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xml-msdata"> <xs:element name="PersonalInfo" msdata:IsDataSet="true" msdata:UseCurrentLocale="true"> <xs:complexType> <xs:choice minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:element name="PesonalInfo."> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <!--Define Column Here....--> <xs:element name="name" type="xs:string" /> <xs:element name="address" type="xs:string" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:choice> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:schema> <!--First Row--> <PersonalInfo.> <name>Harikrishna</name> <address>India</address> </PersonalInfo.> <!--Second Row--> <PersonalInfo.> <name>Jatin</name> <address>India</address> </PersonalInfo.> </PersonalInfo> Please suggest any mistake with writing file here. And now I want define more than table in this file. And here I have to write data for the table like <PersonalInfo.> <name>Harikrishna</name> <address>India</address> </PersonalInfo.> <PersonalInfo.> <name>Jatin</name> <address>India</address> </PersonalInfo.> Is not possible some thing writing data when defining columns EDIT : <xs:element name="name" type="xs:string",Harikrishna,Jatin.... /> <xs:element name="address" type="xs:string",India,India.... /> And how to define more than one table in a single xml file ?

    Read the article

  • BindException/Too many file open while using HttpClient under load

    - by Langali
    I have got 1000 dedicated Java threads where each thread polls a corresponding url every one second. public class Poller { public static Node poll(Node node) { GetMethod method = null; try { HttpClient client = new HttpClient(new SimpleHttpConnectionManager(true)); ...... } catch (IOException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } finally { method.releaseConnection(); } } } The threads are run every one second: for (int i=0; i <1000; i++) { MyThread thread = threads.get(i) // threads is a static field if(thread.isAlive()) { // If the previous thread is still running, let it run. } else { thread.start(); } } The problem is if I run the job every one second I get random exceptions like these: java.net.BindException: Address already in use INFO httpclient.HttpMethodDirector: I/O exception (java.net.BindException) caught when processing request: Address already in use INFO httpclient.HttpMethodDirector: Retrying request But if I run the job every 2 seconds or more, everything runs fine. I even tried shutting down the instance of SimpleHttpConnectionManager() using shutDown() with no effect. If I do netstat, I see thousands of TCP connections in TIME_WAIT state, which means they are have been closed and are clearing up. So to limit the no of connections, I tried using a single instance of HttpClient and use it like this: public class MyHttpClientFactory { private static MyHttpClientFactory instance = new HttpClientFactory(); private MultiThreadedHttpConnectionManager connectionManager; private HttpClient client; private HttpClientFactory() { init(); } public static HttpClientFactory getInstance() { return instance; } public void init() { connectionManager = new MultiThreadedHttpConnectionManager(); HttpConnectionManagerParams managerParams = new HttpConnectionManagerParams(); managerParams.setMaxTotalConnections(1000); connectionManager.setParams(managerParams); client = new HttpClient(connectionManager); } public HttpClient getHttpClient() { if (client != null) { return client; } else { init(); return client; } } } However after running for exactly 2 hours, it starts throwing 'too many open files' and eventually cannot do anything at all. ERROR java.net.SocketException: Too many open files INFO httpclient.HttpMethodDirector: I/O exception (java.net.SocketException) caught when processing request: Too many open files INFO httpclient.HttpMethodDirector: Retrying request I should be able to increase the no of connections allowed and make it work, but I would just be prolonging the evil. Any idea what is the best practise to use HttpClient in a situation like above? Btw, I am still on HttpClient3.1.

    Read the article

  • NSKeyedUnarchiver chokes when trying to unarchive more than one object

    - by ajduff574
    We've got a custom matrix class, and we're attempting to archive and unarchive an NSArray containing four of them. The first seems to get unarchived fine (we can see that initWithCoder is called once), but then the program simply hangs, using 100% CPU. It doesn't continue or output any errors. These are the relevant methods from the matrix class (rows, columns, and matrix are our only instance variables): -(void)encodeWithCoder:(NSCoder*) coder { float temp[rows * columns]; for(int i = 0; i < rows; i++) { for(int j = 0; j < columns; j++) { temp[columns * i + j] = matrix[i][j]; } } [coder encodeBytes:(const void *)temp length:rows*columns*sizeof(float) forKey:@"matrix"]; [coder encodeInteger:rows forKey:@"rows"]; [coder encodeInteger:columns forKey:@"columns"]; } -(id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder *) coder { if (self = [super init]) { rows = [coder decodeIntegerForKey:@"rows"]; columns = [coder decodeIntegerForKey:@"columns"]; NSUInteger * len; *len = (unsigned int)(rows * columns * sizeof(float)); float * temp = (float * )[coder decodeBytesForKey:@"matrix" returnedLength:len]; matrix = (float ** )calloc(rows, sizeof(float*)); for (int i = 0; i < rows; i++) { matrix[i] = (float*)calloc(columns, sizeof(float)); } for(int i = 0; i < rows *columns; i++) { matrix[i / columns][i % columns] = temp[i]; } } return self; } And this is really all we're trying to do: NSArray * weightMatrices = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:w1,w2,w3,w4,nil]; [NSKeyedArchiver archiveRootObject:weightMatrices toFile:@"weights.archive"]; NSArray * newWeights = [NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:@"weights.archive"]; What's driving us crazy is that we can archive and unarchive a single matrix just fine. We've done so (successfully) with a matrix many times larger than these four combined.

    Read the article

  • IDs necessary in update script not being stored (or even seen!?) (PHP MySQL)

    - by Derek
    Hi guys, I really need help with this one...have spent 3 hours trying to figure it out... Basically, I have 3 tables necessary for this function to work (the query and PHP)... Authors, Books and Users. An author can have many books, and a user can have many books - that's it. When the admin user selects to update a book, they are presented with a form, displaying the current data within the fields, very straight forward... However there is one tricky part, the admin user can change the author for a book (incase they make a mistake) and also change the user for which the book is associated with. When I select to update the single book information I am not getting any values what so ever for author_id or user_id. Meaning that when the user updates the book info, the associations with the user and author is being scrapped altogether (when before there was an association)... I cannot see why this is happening because I can clearly see the IDs for the users and authors for my option values (this is because they are in select dropdowns). Here is what my sql to retrieve the user ID is: SELECT user_id, name FROM users and then i have my select options which brings up all the users in the system: <label>This book belongs to:</label> <select name="name" id="name"> <option value="<?php echo $row['user_id']?>" SELECTED><?php echo $row['name']?> - Current</option> <?php while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { ?> <option value="<?php echo $row['user_id']; if (isset($_POST['user_id']));?>"><?php echo $row['name']?></option> <?php } ?> In the presented HTML form, I can select the users (by name) and within the source code I can see the IDs (for the value) matching against the names of the users. Finally, in my script that performs the update, I have this: $book_id = $_POST['book_id']; $bookname = $_POST['bookname']; $booklevel = $_POST['booklevel']; $author_id = $_POST['author_id']; $user_id = $_POST['user_id']; $sql = "UPDATE books SET bookname= '".$bookname."', booklevel= '".$booklevel."', author_id='".$author_id."', user_id= '".$user_id."' WHERE book_id = ".$book_id; The result of this query returns no value for either author_id or user_id... Obviously in this question I have given the information for the user stuff (with the HTML being displayed) but im guessing that I have the same problem with authors aswell... How can I get these ID's passed to the script so that the change can be acknowledge!! :(

    Read the article

  • rails named_scope ignores eager loading

    - by Craig
    Two models (Rails 2.3.8): User; username & disabled properties; User has_one :profile Profile; full_name & hidden properties I am trying to create a named_scope that eliminate the disabled=1 and hidden=1 User-Profiles. The User model is usually used in conjunction with the Profile model, so I attempt to eager-load the Profile model (:include = :profile). I created a named_scope on the User model called 'visible': named_scope :visible, { :joins => "INNER JOIN profiles ON users.id=profiles.user_id", :conditions => ["users.disabled = ? AND profiles.hidden = ?", false, false] } I've noticed that when I use the named_scope in a query, the eager-loading instruction is ignored. Variation 1 - User model only: # UserController @users = User.find(:all) # User's Index view <% for user in @users %> <p><%= user.username %></p> <% end %> # generates a single query: SELECT * FROM `users` Variation 2 - use Profile model in view; lazy load Profile model # UserController @users = User.find(:all) # User's Index view <% for user in @users %> <p><%= user.username %></p> <p><%= user.profile.full_name %></p> <% end %> # generates multiple queries: SELECT * FROM `profiles` WHERE (`profiles`.user_id = 1) ORDER BY full_name ASC LIMIT 1 SHOW FIELDS FROM `profiles` SELECT * FROM `profiles` WHERE (`profiles`.user_id = 2) ORDER BY full_name ASC LIMIT 1 SELECT * FROM `profiles` WHERE (`profiles`.user_id = 3) ORDER BY full_name ASC LIMIT 1 SELECT * FROM `profiles` WHERE (`profiles`.user_id = 4) ORDER BY full_name ASC LIMIT 1 SELECT * FROM `profiles` WHERE (`profiles`.user_id = 5) ORDER BY full_name ASC LIMIT 1 SELECT * FROM `profiles` WHERE (`profiles`.user_id = 6) ORDER BY full_name ASC LIMIT 1 Variation 3 - eager load Profile model # UserController @users = User.find(:all, :include => :profile) #view; no changes # two queries SELECT * FROM `users` SELECT `profiles`.* FROM `profiles` WHERE (`profiles`.user_id IN (1,2,3,4,5,6)) Variation 4 - use name_scope, including eager-loading instruction #UserConroller @users = User.visible(:include => :profile) #view; no changes # generates multiple queries SELECT `users`.* FROM `users` INNER JOIN profiles ON users.id=profiles.user_id WHERE (users.disabled = 0 AND profiles.hidden = 0) SELECT * FROM `profiles` WHERE (`profiles`.user_id = 1) ORDER BY full_name ASC LIMIT 1 SELECT * FROM `profiles` WHERE (`profiles`.user_id = 2) ORDER BY full_name ASC LIMIT 1 SELECT * FROM `profiles` WHERE (`profiles`.user_id = 3) ORDER BY full_name ASC LIMIT 1 SELECT * FROM `profiles` WHERE (`profiles`.user_id = 4) ORDER BY full_name ASC LIMIT 1 Variation 4 does return the correct number of records, but also appears to be ignoring the eager-loading instruction. Is this an issue with cross-model named scopes? Perhaps I'm not using it correctly. Is this sort of situation handled better by Rails 3?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 670 671 672 673 674 675 676 677 678 679 680 681  | Next Page >