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• Browsers (IE and Firefox) freeze when copying large amount of text

  - by Matt

  I have a web application - a Java servlet - that delivers data to users in the form of a text printout in a browser (text marked up with HTML in order to display in the browser as we want it to). The text does display in different colors, though most of it is black. One typical mode of operation is this: 1. User submits a form to request data. 2. Servlet delivers HTML file to browser. 3. User does CTRL+A to select all the text. 4. User does CTRL+C to copy all the text. 5. User goes to a text editor and does CTRL+V to paste the text. In the testing where I'm having this problem, step #2 successfully loads all the data - we wait for that to complete. We can scroll down to the end of what the browser loaded and see the end of the data. However, the browser freezes on step #3 (Firefox) or on step #4 (IE). Because step #2 finishes, I think it is a browser/memory issue, and not an issue with the web application. If I run queries to deliver smaller amounts of data (but after several queries we get the same data we would have above in one query) and copy/paste this text, the file I save it into ends up being about 8 MB. If I save the browser's displayed HTML to a file on my computer via File-Save As from the browser menu, it works fine and the file is about 22 MB. We've tried this on 2 different computers at work (both running Windows XP, with at least 2 GB of RAM and many GB of free disk space), using Firefox and IE. We also tried it on a home computer from a home network outside of work (thinking it might be our IT security software causing the problem), running Windows 7 using IE, and still had the problem. When I've done this, I can see whatever browser I'm using utilizing the CPU at 50%. Firefox's memory usage grows to about 1 GB; IE's stays in the several hundred MBs. We once let this run for half an hour, and it did not complete. I'm most likely going to modify the web app to have an option of delivering a plain text file for download, and I imagine that will get the users what they need. But for the mean time, and because I'm curious - and I don't like my application freezing people's browsers, does anyone have any ideas about the browser freezing? I understand that sometimes you just reach your memory limit, but 22 MB sounds to me like an amount I should be able to copy to the clipboard.

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• Which work process in my company should I Improve first?

  - by shoren

  I've just started to work in a new place, and I see several things they do that I find really terrible, and I want to know if they are indeed so wrong, or I am just too strict. Please let me know if my criticism is in place, and your opinion on which problem is the worst and should be fixed first. The developement is all in Java. 1) Not using svnignore. This means svn stat can't be used, and developers forget to add files and break the build. 2) Generated files go to same folders as committed files. Can't use simple maven clean, have to find them one by one. Maven clean doesn't remove all of them. 3) Not fixing IDE analyze warnings. Analyze code returns about 5,000 warning, of many different kinds. 4) Not following conventions: spring beans names sometimes start with uppercase and sometimes not, ant properties sometimes with underline and sometimes with dots delimiter, etc. 5) Incremental build takes 6 minutes, even when nothing is changed. 6) Developers only use remote debug, and don't know how to run the Tomcat server internally from the IDE. 7) Developers always restart the server after every compilation, instead of dynamically reloading the class and saving the server's state. It takes them at least 10 minutes to start checking any change in the code. 8) Developers only compile from command line. When there are compilation errors, they manually open the file and go the the problematic line. 9) A complete mess in project dependencies. Over 200 open sources are depended on, and no one knows what is indeed needed and why. They do know that not all dependencies are necessary. 10) Mixing Maven and Ant in a way that disables the benefits of both. In one case, even dependency checks are not done by Maven. 11) Not using generics properly. 12) Developers don't use Subversion integration with IDE (Eclipse, Intellij Idea). What do you think? Where should I start? Is any of the things I mentioned not really a problem?

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• Achieving C# "readonly" behavior in C++

  - by Tommy Fisk

  Hi guys, this is my first question on stack overflow, so be gentle. Let me first explain the exact behavior I would like to see. If you are familiar with C# then you know that declaring a variable as "readonly" allows a programmer to assign some value to that variable exactly once. Further attempts to modify the variable will result in an error. What I am after: I want to make sure that any and all single-ton classes I define can be predictably instantiated exactly once in my program (more details at the bottom). My approach to realizing my goal is to use extern to declare a global reference to the single-ton (which I will later instantiate at a time I choose. What I have sort of looks like this, namespace Global { extern Singleton& mainInstance; // not defined yet, but it will be later! } int main() { // now that the program has started, go ahead and create the singleton object Singleton& Global::mainInstance = Singleton::GetInstance(); // invalid use of qualified name Global::mainInstance = Singleton::GetInstance(); // doesn't work either :( } class Singleton { /* Some details ommited */ public: Singleton& GetInstance() { static Singleton instance; // exists once for the whole program return instance; } } However this does not really work, and I don't know where to go from here. Some details about what I'm up against: I'm concerned about threading as I am working on code that will deal with game logic while communicating with several third-party processes and other processes I will create. Eventually I would have to implement some kind of synchronization so multiple threads could access the information in the Singleton class without worry. Because I don't know what kinds of optimizations I might like to do, or exactly what threading entails (never done a real project using it), I was thinking that being able to predictably control when Singletons were instantiated would be a Good Thing. Imagine if Process A creates Process B, where B contains several Singletons distributed against multiple files and/or libraries. It could be a real nightmare if I can not reliably ensure the order these singleton objects are instantiated (because they could depend on each other, and calling methods on a NULL object is generally a Bad Thing). If I were in C# I would just use the readonly keyword, but is there any way I can implement this (compiler supported) behavior in C++? Is this even a good idea? Thanks for any feedback.

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• How do I add "Press any key to boot from usb" when installing Windows from a flash drive? (Grub4dos question / how to remove a bootloader)

  - by Vincent

  Hi there! I've been struggling with this problem for a while now and finially decided to ask for help. Let me first explain what the main purpose of the app is: to provide the a very easy to use way of backing up files, after which I format the drive and start Windows 7 setup. I do this by booting WinPE, which runs a script to detect Windows installations and then opens a file browser. After the file browser is closed, the script continues and formats the drive that contains the Windows installation, and starts an unattended Windows 7 install. Now here is the problem: When you start Windows setup or WinPE from a dvd, you get a nice option to "Press any key to boot from DVD". This is to prevent the computer from booting the DVD when the first phase of the installation is complete and the computer reboots. However, when booting from a flash drive, Windows does not provide this option: it simply boots the flash drive every reboot. To replicate the "press any key" function, I installed Grub4Dos, which works great. It provides a small menu, the first standard item being "Continue installation", the second being "start installation". After quite a lot of tweaking, I got everything working: Start installation starts WinPE, which in turn starts the Windows installation. At first reboot, the Grub4Dos menu comes up, counts 5 seconds and boots the second stage of the installation. Here, I am greeted with the error: "Windows setup could not configure windows to run on this computer's hardware." When I boot into WinPE the normal way (put the bootmgr on the stick root) and change my bios to boot from the primary hdd after first reboot, I don't get this error. I've been looking around, and the only thing I could find was that the BIOS automatically names the boot device hd0, and that Windows can only be run / installed to hd 0. I'm not sure if this is the problem. I read about remapping to solve this problem, but to do that you have to know the phisical location of the hard drive and partition, like hd(0,1). I want this flash drive to work on any PC, regardless of where the OS is installed, so that's not really a possibility. A possible fix I thought of is removing the bootloader from the flash drive when I'm in WinPE. That way, when the pc reboots the BIOS will not see the flash drive as a boot drive and instead boot the primary hdd. I have yet to find a way to do this. Thank you for reading my question, and if you have any suggestion, please do.

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• .htaccess mod_rewrite URL query

  - by 1001001

  I was hoping someone could help me out. I'm building a CRM application and need help modifying the .htaccess file to clean up the URLs. I've read every post regarding .htaccess and mod_rewrite and I've even tried using http://www.generateit.net/mod-rewrite/ to obtain the results with no success. Here is what I am attempting to do. Let's call the base URL www.domain.com We are using php with a mysql back-end and some jQuery and javascript In that "root" folder is my .htaccess file. I'm not sure if I need a .htaccess file in each subdirectory or if one in the root is enough. We have several actual directories of files including "crm", "sales", "finance", etc. First off we want to strip off all the ".php" extensions which I am able to do myself thanks to these posts. However, the querying of the company and contact IDs are where I am stuck. Right now if I load www.domain.com/crm/companies.php it displays all the companies in a list. If I click on one of the companies it uses javascript to call a "goto_company(x)" jQuery script that writes a form and submit that form based on the ID (x) of the company. This works fine and keeps the links clean as all the end user sees is www.domain.com/crm/company.php. However you can't navigate directly to a company. So we added a few lines in PHP to see if the POST is null and try a GET instead allowing us to do www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 which displays company #40 out of the database. I need to rewrite this link, and all other associated links to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 I've tried everything and nothing seems to work. Keep in mind that I need to do this for "contacts" and also on the sales portion of the app will need to do something for "deals". To summarize here's what I am looking to do: Change www.domain.com/crm/dash.php to www.domain.com/crm/dash Change www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 Change www.domain.com/crm/contact.php?contactID=27 to www.domain.com/crm/contact/27 Change www.domain.com/sales/dash.php to www.domain.com/sales/dash Change www.domain.com/sales/deal.php?dealID=6 to www.domain.com/sales/deal/6 (40, 27, and 6 are just arbitrary numbers as examples) Just for reference, when I used the generateit.net/mod-rewrite site using www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 as an example, here is what it told me to put in my .htaccess file: Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^crm/company/([^/]*)$ /crm/company.php?companyID=$1 [L] Needless to say that didn't work.

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• Is it possible to make JQuery keydown respond faster?

  - by Drew Paul

  I am writing a simple page with JQuery and HTML5 canvas tags where I move a shape on the canvas by pressing 'w' for up, 's' for down, 'a' for left, and 'd' for right. I have it all working, but I would like the shape to start moving at a constant speed upon striking a key. Right now there is some kind of hold period and then the movement starts. How can I get the movement to occur immediately? Here the important part of my code: Your browser does not support the HTML5 canvas tag. start navigating coords should pop up here key should pop up here var c=document.getElementById("myCanvas"); var ctx=c.getContext("2d"); //keypress movements var xtriggered = 0; var keys = {}; var north = -10; var east = 10; var flipednorth = 0; $(document).ready(function(e){ $("input").keydown(function(){ keys[event.which] = true; if (event.which == 13) { event.preventDefault(); } //press w for north if (event.which == 87) { north++; flipednorth--; } //press s for south if (event.which == 83) { north--; flipednorth++; } //press d for east if (event.which == 68) { east++; } //press a for west if (event.which == 65) { east--; } var msg = 'x: ' + flipednorth*5 + ' y: ' + east*5; ctx.beginPath(); ctx.arc(east*6,flipednorth*6,40,0,2*Math.PI); ctx.stroke(); $('#soul2').html(msg); $('#soul3').html(event.which ); $("input").css("background-color","#FFFFCC"); }); $("input").keyup(function(){ delete keys[event.which]; $("input").css("background-color","#D6D6FF"); }); }); </script> please let me know if I shouldn't be posting code this lengthy.

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• Write to text file using ArrayList

  - by Ugochukwutubelum Chiemenam

  The program is basically about reading from a text file, storing the current data into an ArrayList, then writing data (from user input) into the same text file. Kindly let me know where I am going wrong in this sub-part? The data inside the text file is as follows: abc t1 1900 xyz t2 1700 The compiler is showing an error at the line output.format("%s%s%s%n", public class justTesting { private Scanner input; private Formatter output; private ArrayList<Student> tk = new ArrayList<Student>(); public static void main(String[] args) { justTesting app = new justTesting(); app.create(); app.writeToFile(); } public void create() { Text entry = new Text(); Scanner input = new Scanner(System.in); System.out.printf("%s\n", "Please enter your name, ID, and year: "); while (input.hasNext()) { try { entry.setName(input.next()); entry.setTelNumber(input.next()); entry.setDOB(input.next()); for (int i = 0; i < tk.size(); i++) { output.format("%s%s%s%n", tk.get(i).getName(), tk.get(i) .getTelNumber(), tk.get(i).getDOB()); } } catch (FormatterClosedException fce) { System.err.println("Error writing to file."); return; } catch (NoSuchElementException nsee) { System.err.println("Invalid input. Try again: "); input.nextLine(); } System.out.printf("%s\n", "Please enter your name, ID, and year: "); } } public void writeToFile() { try { output = new Formatter("testing.txt"); } catch (SecurityException se) { System.err .println("You do not have write access permission to this file."); System.exit(1); } catch (FileNotFoundException fnfe) { System.err.println("Error opening or creating file."); System.exit(1); } } }

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• This Android SDK requires Android Developer Toolkit version 22.0.0 or above. Current version is 21.x.x.

  - by user2626673

  Hi i have a problem with my Eclipse and the SDK (i have download and install the latest ADT Bundle for windows ) when i start my eclipse i get this problem : This Android SDK requires Android Developer Toolkit version 22.0.0 or above. Current version is 20.0.0. please update your SDK tools to the latest version i have tried the option : Help - check for updates But with no new update find then i try this one : How to Update your ADT to Latest Version In Eclipse go to Help Install New Software ---> Add inside Add Repository write the Name: ADT (or whatever you want) and Location: https://dl-ssl.google.com/android/eclipse/ after loading you should get Developer Tools and NDK Plugins check both if you want to use the Native Developer Kit (NDK) in the future or check Developer Tool only click Next Finish But i dont have the option to click next to finish (the back , next and finish options are grey ) Then i try this method : Go here download latest version of ADT-22.0.4.zip (*) At Eclipse > Help > Install new software... > Uncheck Contact all update sites during install to find required software (last bottom preference) that will avoid any unwanted delays during install. then at the same screen (top) Click Add > Archive > select downloaded ADT-X.X.X.zip > follow on screen installation steps But had the same problem when it was to finish the installation.. no option to click ''next'' then i try this one : Help – Install New Software in the ADT menu. Type https://dl-ssl.google.com/android/eclipse/site.xml in “Work with:” and Enter. You can see the “Developer Tools” item. Select it and click Next. Click Next one more. Click Finish accepting the terms of the license agreements. Click OK in the “Security Warning” window. Let the installer restart ADT after installing the tools. But and in this option have the same problem as above.. can click the ''next'' to finish http://i30.photobucket.com/albums/c316/caslor_1978/diafora/atdproblem_zps0d141b7b.jpg i check my version and it is the latest but have the problem http://i30.photobucket.com/albums/c316/caslor_1978/diafora/atdproblem2_zps81de6317.jpg How can i fix this problem ? any suggestion? Win7 / 32bit / java SE Development kit7 update 25

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• PHP Changing Class Variables Outside of Class

  - by Jamie Bicknell

  Apologies for the wording on this question, I'm having difficulties explaining what I'm after, but hopefully it makes sense. Let's say I have a class, and I wish to pass a variable through one of it's methods, then I have another method which outputs this variable. That's all fine, but what I'm after is that if I update the variable which was originally passed, and do this outside the class methods, it should be reflected in the class. I've created a very basic example: class Test { private $var = ''; function setVar($input) { $this->var = $input; } function getVar() { echo 'Var = ' . $this->var . '<br />'; } } If I run $test = new Test(); $string = 'Howdy'; $test->setVar($string); $test->getVar(); I get Var = Howdy However, this is the flow I would like: $test = new Test(); $test->setVar($string); $string = 'Hello'; $test->getVar(); $string = 'Goodbye'; $test->getVar(); Expected output to be Var = Hello Var = Goodbye I don't know what the correct naming of this would be, and I've tried using references to the original variable but no luck. I've come across this in the past, with the PDO prepared statements, see Example #2 $stmt = $dbh->prepare("INSERT INTO REGISTRY (name, value) VALUES (?, ?)"); $stmt->bindParam(1, $name); $stmt->bindParam(2, $value); // insert one row $name = 'one'; $value = 1; $stmt->execute(); // insert another row with different values $name = 'two'; $value = 2; $stmt->execute(); I know I can change the variable to public and do the following, but it isn't quite the same as how the PDO class handles it, and I'm really looking to mimic that behaviour. $test = new Test(); $test->setVar($string); $test->var = 'Hello'; $test->getVar(); $test->var = 'Goodbye'; $test->getVar(); Any help, ideas, pointers, or advice would be greatly appreciated, thanks.

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• Passing arguments between classes - use public properties or pass a properties class as argument?

  - by devoured elysium

  So let's assume I have a class named ABC that will have a list of Point objects. I need to make some drawing logic with them. Each one of those Point objects will have a Draw() method that will be called by the ABC class. The Draw() method code will need info from ABC class. I can only see two ways to make them have this info: Having Abc class make public some properties that would allow draw() to make its decisions. Having Abc class pass to draw() a class full of properties. The properties in both cases would be the same, my question is what is preferred in this case. Maybe the second approach is more flexible? Maybe not? I don't see here a clear winner, but that sure has more to do with my inexperience than any other thing. If there are other good approaches, feel free to share them. Here are both cases: class Abc1 { public property a; public property b; public property c; ... public property z; public void method1(); ... public void methodn(); } and here is approach 2: class Abc2 { //here we make take down all properties public void method1(); ... public void methodn(); } class Abc2MethodArgs { //and we put them here. this class will be passed as argument to //Point's draw() method! public property a; public property b; public property c; ... public property z; } Also, if there are any "formal" names for these two approaches, I'd like to know them so I can better choose the tags/thread name, so it's more useful for searching purposes. That or feel free to edit them.

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• Swing: How do I run a job from AWT thread, but after a window was layed out?

  - by java.is.for.desktop

  My complete GUI runs inside the AWT thread, because I start the main window using SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(...). Now I have a JDialog which has just to display a JLabel, which indicates that a certain job is in progress, and close that dialog after the job was finished. The problem is: the label is not displayed. That job seems to be started before JDialog was fully layed-out. When I just let the dialog open without waiting for a job and closing, the label is displayed. The last thing the dialog does in its ctor is setVisible(true). Things such as revalidate(), repaint(), ... don't help either. Even when I start a thread for the monitored job, and wait for it using someThread.join() it doesn't help, because the current thread (which is the AWT thread) is blocked by join, I guess. Replacing JDialog with JFrame doesn't help either. So, is the concept wrong in general? Or can I manage it to do certain job after it is ensured that a JDialog (or JFrame) is fully layed-out? Simplified algorithm of what I'm trying to achieve: Create a subclass of JDialog Ensure that it and its contents are fully layed-out Start a process and wait for it to finish (threaded or not, doesn't matter) Close the dialog I managed to write a reproducible test case: EDIT Problem from an answer is now addressed: This use case does display the label, but it fails to close after the "simulated process", because of dialog's modality. import java.awt.*; import javax.swing.*; public class _DialogTest2 { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait(new Runnable() { final JLabel jLabel = new JLabel("Please wait..."); @Override public void run() { JFrame myFrame = new JFrame("Main frame"); myFrame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); myFrame.setSize(750, 500); myFrame.setLocationRelativeTo(null); myFrame.setVisible(true); JDialog d = new JDialog(myFrame, "I'm waiting"); d.setModalityType(Dialog.ModalityType.APPLICATION_MODAL); d.add(jLabel); d.setSize(300, 200); d.setLocationRelativeTo(null); d.setVisible(true); SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { try { Thread.sleep(3000); // simulate process jLabel.setText("Done"); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { } } }); d.setVisible(false); d.dispose(); myFrame.setVisible(false); myFrame.dispose(); } }); } }

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• Trouble editing Word document with PHP

  - by bhoomi-nature

  I want to open a word document and edit it I am opening the word document from the server and at that time it's opening with garbage values (perhaps it's not being properly converted to UTF-8). When I delete those garbage values and insert something from a textarea to that file it is going to insert and from then on it opens properly. I would like the document to open with the English words in the document instead of garbage value - it's only the first opening that's broken at present. <? $filename = 'test.doc'; if(isset($_REQUEST['Submit'])){ $somecontent = stripslashes($_POST['somecontent']); // Let's make sure the file exists and is writable first. if (is_writable($filename)) { // In our example we're opening $filename in append mode. // The file pointer is at the bottom of the file hence // that's where $somecontent will go when we fwrite() it. if (!$handle = fopen($filename, 'w')) { echo "Cannot open file ($filename)"; exit; } // Write $somecontent to our opened fi<form action="" method="get"></form>le. if (fwrite($handle, $somecontent) === FALSE) { echo "Cannot write to file ($filename)"; exit; } echo "Success, wrote ($somecontent) to file ($filename) <a href=".$_SERVER['PHP_SELF']."> - Continue - "; fclose($handle); } else { echo "The file $filename is not writable"; } } else { // get contents of a file into a string $handle = fopen($filename, 'r'); $somecontent = fread($handle, filesize($filename)); ?> <h1>Edit file <? echo $filename ;?></h1> <form name="form1" method="post" action=""> <p> <textarea name="somecontent" cols="80" rows="10"><? echo $somecontent ;?></textarea> </p> <p> <input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit"> </p> </form> <? fclose($handle); } ?>

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• Determining if Memory Pointer is Valid - C++

  - by Jim Fell

  It has been my observation that if free( ptr ) is called where ptr is not a valid pointer to system-allocated memory, an access violation occurs. Let's say that I call free like this: LPVOID ptr = (LPVOID)0x12345678; free( ptr ); This will most definitely cause an access violation. Is there a way to test that the memory location pointed to by ptr is valid system-allocated memory? It seems to me that the the memory management part of the Windows OS kernel must know what memory has been allocated and what memory remains for allocation. Otherwise, how could it know if enough memory remains to satisfy a given request? (rhetorical) That said, it seems reasonable to conclude that there must be a function (or set of functions) that would allow a user to determine if a pointer is valid system-allocated memory. Perhaps Microsoft has not made these functions public. If Microsoft has not provided such an API, I can only presume that it was for an intentional and specific reason. Would providing such a hook into the system prose a significant threat to system security? Situation Report Although knowing whether a memory pointer is valid could be useful in many scenarios, this is my particular situation: I am writing a driver for a new piece of hardware that is to replace an existing piece of hardware that connects to the PC via USB. My mandate is to write the new driver such that calls to the existing API for the current driver will continue to work in the PC applications in which it is used. Thus the only required changes to existing applications is to load the appropriate driver DLL(s) at startup. The problem here is that the existing driver uses a callback to send received serial messages to the application; a pointer to allocated memory containing the message is passed from the driver to the application via the callback. It is then the responsibility of the application to call another driver API to free the memory by passing back the same pointer from the application to the driver. In this scenario the second API has no way to determine if the application has actually passed back a pointer to valid memory.

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• MySQL Query to find consecutive available times of variable lenth

  - by Armaconn

  I have an events table that has user_id, date ('2013-10-01'), time ('04:15:00'), and status_id; What I am looking to find is a solution similar to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2665574/find-consecutive-rows-calculate-duration but I need I need two additional components: 1) Take date into consideration, so 10/1/2013 at 11:00 PM - 10/2/2013 at 3:00AM. Feel free to just put in a fake date range (like '2013-10-01' to '2013-10-31') 2) Limit output to only include when there are 4+ consecutive times (each event is 15 minutes and I want it to display minimum blocks of an hour, but would also like to be able to switch this restriction to 1.5 hours or some other duration if possible). SUMMARY - Looking for a query that provides the start and end times for a set of events that have the same user_id, status_id, and are in a continuous series based on date and time. For which I can restrict results based on date range and minimum series duration. So the output should have: user_id, date_start, time_start, date_end, time_end, status_id, duration CREATE TABLE `events` ( `event_id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment COMMENT 'ID', `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `date` date NOT NULL, `time` time NOT NULL, `status_id` int(11) default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`event_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 AUTO_INCREMENT=1568 ; INSERT INTO `events` VALUES(1, 101, '2013-08-14', '23:00:00', 2); INSERT INTO `events` VALUES(2, 101, '2013-08-14', '23:15:00', 2); INSERT INTO `events` VALUES(3, 101, '2013-08-14', '23:30:00', 2); INSERT INTO `events` VALUES(4, 101, '2013-08-14', '23:45:00', 2); INSERT INTO `events` VALUES(5, 101, '2013-08-15', '00:00:00', 2); INSERT INTO `events` VALUES(6, 101, '2013-08-15', '00:15:00', 1); INSERT INTO `events` VALUES(7, 500, '2013-08-14', '23:45:00', 1); INSERT INTO `events` VALUES(8, 500, '2013-08-15', '00:00:00', 1); INSERT INTO `events` VALUES(9, 500, '2013-08-15', '00:15:00', 2); INSERT INTO `events` VALUES(10, 500, '2013-08-15', '00:30:00', 2); INSERT INTO `events` VALUES(11, 500, '2013-08-15', '00:45:00', 1); Desired output row |user_id | date_start | time_start | date_end | time_end | status_id | duration 1 |101 |'2013-08-14'| '23:00:00' |'2013-08-15'|'00:15:00'| 2 | 5 2 |101 |'2013-08-15'| '00:00:15' |'2013-08-15'|'00:30:00'| 1 | 1 3 |500 |'2013-08-14'| '00:23:45' |'2013-08-15'|'00:15:00'| 1 | 2 4 |500 |'2013-08-15'| '00:00:15' |'2013-08-15'|'00:45:00'| 2 | 2 5 |500 |'2013-08-15'| '00:00:45' |'2013-08-15'|'01:00:00'| 2 | 1 *except that rows 2 and 5 wouldn't appear if duration had to be greater than 30 minutes Thanks for any help that you can provide! And please let me know if there is anything I can further clarify!!

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• C++ vector pointer/reference problem

  - by sub

  Please take a look at this example: #include <iostream> #include <vector> #include <string> using namespace std; class mySubContainer { public: string val; }; class myMainContainer { public: mySubContainer sub; }; void doSomethingWith( myMainContainer &container ) { container.sub.val = "I was modified"; } int main( ) { vector<myMainContainer> vec; /** * Add test data */ myMainContainer tempInst; tempInst.sub.val = "foo"; vec.push_back( tempInst ); tempInst.sub.val = "bar"; vec.push_back( tempInst ); // 1000 lines of random code here int i; int size = vec.size( ); myMainContainer current; for( i = 0; i < size; i ++ ) { cout << i << ": Value before='" << vec.at( i ).sub.val << "'" << endl; current = vec.at( i ); doSomethingWith( current ); cout << i << ": Value after='" << vec.at( i ).sub.val << "'" << endl; } system("pause");//i suck } A hell lot of code for an example, I know. Now so you don't have to spend years thinking about what this [should] do[es]: I have a class myMainContainer which has as its only member an instance of mySubContainer. mySubContainer only has a string val as member. So I create a vector and fill it with some sample data. Now, what I want to do is: Iterate through the vector and make a separate function able to modify the current myMainContainer in the vector. However, the vector remains unchanged as the output tells: 0: Value before='foo' 0: Value after='foo' 1: Value before='bar' 1: Value after='bar' What am I doing wrong? doSomethingWith has to return void, I can't let it return the modified myMainContainer and then just overwrite it in the vector, that's why I tried to pass it by reference as seen in the doSomethingWith definition above.

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• treeview size in wpf

  - by AComputert

  please let me know how can I re size height of tree view control when screen resolution is changed? please see this code: <TreeView Name="treeView1" Height="150" VerticalAlignment="Top"> <TreeViewItem Header="Root" IsExpanded="True"> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 1"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 2"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 3"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 4"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 5"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 6"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 7"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 8"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 9"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 10"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 11"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 12"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 13"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 14"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 15"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 16"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 17"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 18"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 19"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 20"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 21"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 22"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 23"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 24"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="Item 24"></TreeViewItem> </TreeViewItem> </TreeView> in some screen resolutions i can see all nodse and in some resolutions i see a scroll bar. I want to see all nodes without scroll bar.

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• Controlling the USB from Windows

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hi, I know this probably is not the easiest thing to do, but I am trying to connect Microcontroller and PC using USB. I dont want to use internal USART of Microcontroller or USB to RS232 converted, its project indended to help me understand various principles. So, getting the communication done from the Microcontroller side is piece of cake - I mean, when I know he protocol, its relativelly easy to implement it on Micro, becouse I am in direct control of evrything, even precise timing. But this is not the case of PC. I am not very familiar with concept of Windows handling the devices connected. In one of my previous question I ask about how Windows works with devices thru drivers. I understood that for internal use of Windows, drivers must have some default set of functions available to OS. I mean, when OS wants to access HDD, it calls HDD driver (which is probably internal in OS), with specific "questions" so that means that HDD driver has to be written to cooperate with Windows, to have write function in the proper place to be called by the OS. Something similiar is for GPU, Even DirectX, I mean DirectX must call specific functions from drivers, so drivers must be written to work with DX. I know, many functions from WinAPI works on their own, but even "simple" window must be in the end written into framebuffer, using MMIO to adress specified by drivers. Am I right? So, I expected that Windows have internal functions, parts of WinAPI designed to work with certain comonly used things. To call manufacturer-designed drivers. But this seems to not be entirely true becouse Windows has no way to communicate thru Paralel port. I mean, there is no function in the WinAPI to work with serial port, but there are funcions to work with HDD,GPU and so. But now there comes the part I am getting very lost at. So, I think Windows must have some built-in functions to communicate thru USB, becouse for example it handles USB flash memory. So, is there any WinAPI function designed to let user to operate USB thru that function, or when I want to use USB myself, do I have to call desired USB-driver function myself? Becouse all you need to send to USB controller is device adress and the infromation right? I mean, I don´t have to write any new drivers, am I right? Just to call WinAPI function if there is such, or directly call original USB driver. Does any of this make some sense?

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• Finding open contiguous blocks of time for every day of a month, fast

  - by Chris

  I am working on a booking availability system for a group of several venues, and am having a hard time generating the availability of time blocks for days in a given month. This is happening server-side in PHP, but the concept itself is language agnostic -- I could be doing this in JS or anything else. Given a venue_id, month, and year (6/2012 for example), I have a list of all events occurring in that range at that venue, represented as unix timestamps start and end. This data comes from the database. I need to establish what, if any, contiguous block of time of a minimum length (different per venue) exist on each day. For example, on 6/1 I have an event between 2:00pm and 7:00pm. The minimum time is 5 hours, so there's a block open there from 9am - 2pm and another between 7pm and 12pm. This would continue for the 2nd, 3rd, etc... every day of June. Some (most) of the days have nothing happening at all, some have 1 - 3 events. The solution I came up with works, but it also takes waaaay too long to generate the data. Basically, I loop every day of the month and create an array of timestamps for each 15 minutes of that day. Then, I loop the time spans of events from that day by 15 minutes, marking any "taken" timeslot as false. Remaining, I have an array that contains timestamp of free time vs. taken time: //one day's array after processing through loops (not real timestamps) array( 12345678=>12345678, // <--- avail 12345878=>12345878, 12346078=>12346078, 12346278=>false, // <--- not avail 12346478=>false, 12346678=>false, 12346878=>false, 12347078=>12347078, // <--- avail 12347278=>12347278 ) Now I would need to loop THIS array to find continuous time blocks, then check to see if they are long enough (each venue has a minimum), and if so then establish the descriptive text for their start and end (i.e. 9am - 2pm). WHEW! By the time all this looping is done, the user has grown bored and wandered off to Youtube to watch videos of puppies; it takes ages to so examine 30 or so days. Is there a faster way to solve this issue? To summarize the problem, given time ranges t1 and t2 on day d, how can I determine the remaining time left in d that is longer than the minimum time block m. This data is assembled on demand via AJAX as the user moves between calendar months. Results are cached per-page-load, so if the user goes to July a second time, the data that was generated the first time would be reused. Any other details that would help, let me know. Edit Per request, the database structure (or the part that is relevant here) *events* id (bigint) title (varchar) *event_times* id (bigint) event_id (bigint) venue_id (bigint) start (bigint) end (bigint) *venues* id (bigint) name (varchar) min_block (int) min_start (varchar) max_start (varchar)

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• JQuery Ajax Updating MySQL Database, But Not Running Success Function

  - by myrmidon16

  I am currently using the JQuery ajax function to call an exterior PHP file, in which I select and add data in a database. Once this is done, I run a success function in JavaScript. What's weird is that the database is updating successfully when ajax is called, however the success function is not running. Here is my code: <!DOCTYPE html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.6.4.js"></script> </head> <body> <div onclick="addtask();" style="width:400px; height:200px; background:#000000;"></div> <script> function addtask() { var tid = (Math.floor(Math.random() * 3)) + 1; var tsk = (Math.floor(Math.random() * 10)) + 1; if(tsk !== 1) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "taskcheck.php", dataType: "json", data: {taskid:tid}, success: function(task) {alert(task.name);} }); } } </script> </body> </html> And the PHP file: session_start(); $connect = mysql_connect('x', 'x', 'x') or die('Not Connecting'); mysql_select_db('x') or die ('No Database Selected'); $task = $_REQUEST['taskid']; $uid = $_SESSION['user_id']; $q = "SELECT task_id, taskname FROM tasks WHERE task_id=" .$task. " LIMIT 1"; $gettask = mysql_fetch_assoc(mysql_query($q)); $q = "INSERT INTO user_tasks (ut_id, user_id, task_id, taskstatus, taskactive) VALUES (null, " .$uid. ", '{$gettask['task_id']}', 0, 1)"; $puttask = mysql_fetch_assoc(mysql_query($q)); $json = array( "name" => $gettask['taskname'] ); $output = json_encode($json); echo $output; Let me know if you have any questions or comments, thanks.

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• Java Scanner class reading strings

  - by Max

  I've created a scanner class to read through the text file and get the value what I'm after. Let's assume that I have a text file contains 1 : Fnjiei : ID 7868860 : Age 18 2 : Oipuiieerb : ID 334134 : Age 39 3 : Enekaree : ID 6106274 : Age 31 I'm trying to get a name and id number and age, but everytime I try to run my code it gives me an exception. Here's my code. Any suggestion from java gurus?:) public void readFile(String fileName)throws IOException{ Scanner input = null; input = new Scanner(new BufferedReader(new FileReader(fileName))); try { while (input.hasNextLine()){ int howMany = 3; System.out.println(howMany); String userInput = input.nextLine(); String name = ""; String idS = ""; String ageS = ""; int id; int age; int count=0; for (int j = 0; j <= howMany; j++){ for (int i=0; i < userInput.length(); i++){ if(count < 2){ // for name if(Character.isLetter(userInput.charAt(i))){ name+=userInput.charAt(i); // store the name }else if(userInput.charAt(i)==':'){ count++; i++; } }else if(count == 2){ // for id if(Character.isDigit(userInput.charAt(i))){ idS+=userInput.charAt(i); // store the id } else if(userInput.charAt(i)==':'){ count++; i++; } }else if(count == 3){ // for age if(Character.isDigit(userInput.charAt(i))){ ageS+=userInput.charAt(i); // store the age } } id = Integer.parseInt(idS); // convert id to integer age = Integer.parseInt(ageS); // convert age to integer Fighters newFighters = new Fighters(id, name, age); fighterList.add(newFighters); } userInput = input.nextLine(); } } }finally{ if (input != null){ input.close(); } } } My appology if my mere code begs to be changed.

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• asp.net mvc 2 multithread

  - by Chris Cap

  I'm getting some weird behavior in asp.net MVC2 (at least it's not what I'm expecting). I have a controller httppost action that processes credit cards. I'm setting a session variable on the server to let me know if a user has attempted to process a card. I clear that session variable when I'm done. I am doing some very quick posts to test the process and the session variable is coming back null everytime because I clear the session variable at the end of the process. I have some debug prints that show me that the all requests are processed synchronously. That is...the first attempt occurs, it fails, session variable is cleared, second attempt tries and fails and the variable is cleared, etc... My first thought was that this was a side effect of debugging and that it just lined requests up for debugging purposes using the local webserver. So I put it on a development server and the same thing is occurring. Multiple submits/posts are processed synchronously. I even put a System.Threading.Sleep in there to make sure it would stop right after I set the session variable and it still won't even START the second request until the first is done. Has anyone else seen this behavior? My understanding was that a worker process was spawned for each request and that these actions could happen asychronously. Here's some psuedo code if (Session["CardCharged"] != null) return RedirectToAction("Index", "Problem"); Session["CardCharged"] = false; //starting the process System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(10000); //charge card here if (!providerResponse.IsApproved) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("failed"); Session["CardCharged"] = null; //have to allow them to charge again since this failed return View(myModel); } Session["CardCharged"] = true; return RedirectToAction("Index", "OrderComplete"); I should mention that my code ALWAYS fails the credit card check for testing purposes. I'm trying to test the situation where processing is STILL occurring and redirect the user elsewhere. I have set a dummy session variable elsewhere to assure that the session id "sticks". So I know the session id is the same for each request. Thanks

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• Newbie jQuery question: Need slideshow to rotate automatically, not just when clicking navigation.

  - by Justin

  Hi everyone, This is my first post, so please forgive me if this question has been asked a million times. I'm a self professed jQuery hack and I need a little guidance on taking this script I found and adapting it to my needs. Anyway, what I'm making is an image slide show with navigation. The script I found does this, but does not automatically cycle through the images. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2 and would rather stick with that than using the newer library. I would also prefer to edit what is already here rather than start from scratch. Anywho, here's the html: <div id="myslide"> <div class="cover"> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/current_Denver-skyline.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/pepsi_center-IS42RF-0D111C.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/columbine-2689820469_D1104.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/ist2_10460354-RedRocks.jpg" /> </div> </div> <!-- end of div cover --> </div> <!-- end of div myslide --> And here's the jQuery: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/JavaScript"> $(document).ready(function (){ $('#button a').click(function(){ var integer = $(this).attr('rel'); $('#myslide .cover').css({left:-820*(parseInt(integer)-1)}).hide().fadeIn(); /*----- Width of div #mystuff (here 820) ------ */ $('#button a').each(function(){ $(this).removeClass('active'); if($(this).hasClass('button'+integer)){ $(this).addClass('active')} }); }); }); </script> Here's where I got the script: http://www.webdeveloperjuice.com/2010/04/07/create-lightweight-jquery-fade-manual-slideshow/ Again, if this question is too basic for this site please let me know and possibly provide a reference link or two. Thanks a ton!

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• how to invoke an activity of a library project from an android apps

  - by Austin

  I have an open source android code that I need to use in my android apps. It has all the source code as well as resource files, manifest files and class path. It can be compiled as a separate android apps. I have constraints for using the open source. 1. I can't change a single line of code. 2. I can't use it as a separate apps. These constraints are non negotiable. What I have done is I have compiled the open source as class library(in Eclipse: Project Properties-Android- Tick check box Is Library). This has resulted in generation of .class files(in bin) for the java files and resource files. This open source has an android activity that i want to open from my application. So I have linked the directory of these sets of class files in the source section of my java build path( in .classpath). I have declared the activity in my manifest file with proper action intent filters. Now when I am trying to call activity from my code, its not working. Cleaning and rebuilding doesn't help. However, if I build the open source project and my apps in the same workspace of eclipse and link the open source in my apps in exact same manner it works fine. I am not able to identify the difference. All settings seems to be same(all files are identical in both the cases). But only in the second case it works. I have tried it as jar file also. I have build the open source as project library and exported it into a jar file(excluding manifest file). But in that case I am getting the following error UNEXPECTED TOP-LEVEL EXCEPTION: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: already added: .... Conversion to Dalvik format failed with error 1 This I guess is coming because the android library(2.2) has been included twice in my apps( one for building my apps & another for building the open source). I dont know how to avoid this. Cleaning the project doesn't help. What i require is to use the open source and invoking it's activities in my apps without violating the constraints. If i can use the open source as bunch of .class files then great, or else any other way will do fine. Please look into it and let me know. Thanks

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• How do I use JDK 7 on Mac OSX?

  - by Yko

  OK. This is a newbie question but I can't figure it out... I would like to use the WatchService API as mentioned in this link: http://download.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/essential/io/notification.html After reading around, I found out that WatchService is part of the NIO class which is scheduled for JDK 7. So, it is in beta form. It's fine. http://jdk7.java.net/download.html has the JDK which I downloaded and extracted. I got a bunch of folders. I don't know what to do with them. Then, I read around some more and found that some nice group of people created JDK 7 as a binary so someone like me can install it easily. It is called Open JDK: http://code.google.com/p/openjdk-osx-build/ So, I downloaded the .dmg file and instal it. Then I open "Java Preference" and see that OpenJDK7 is available. So, now I feel that I can start trying out WatchService API. From the tutorial in the first link, the author gave a .java file to test it out first and make sure that it is running. Here is the link to the file: http://download.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/essential/io/examples/WatchDir.java So, I boot up Eclipse (actually I use STS) and create a new Java project and choose JaveSE-1.7 in the "use an execution environment JRE:". Under the src folder, I copy pasted the WatchDir.java file. And I still see tons of squiggly red lines. All the "import.java.nio.*" are all red and I cannot run it as a Java app. If you read this far, thanks a lot. So, now... What do I need to do? Thanks. EDIT: I actually did not pursue using Java 7 but there are a lot of interest in it and it seems like people keep answering this question. What should I do to make it more relevant to people who search for it? Let me know by PMing me. Thanks.

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• Template class + virtual function = must implement?

  - by sold

  This code: template <typename T> struct A { T t; void DoSomething() { t.SomeFunction(); } }; struct B { }; A<B> a; is easily compiled without any complaints, as long as I never call a.DoSomething(). However, if I define DoSomething as a virtual function, I will get a compile error saying that B doesn't declare SomeFunction. I can somewhat see why it happens (DoSomething should now have an entry in the vtable), but I can't help feeling that it's not really obligated. Plus it sucks. Is there any way to overcome this? EDIT 2: Okay. I hope this time it makes sence: Let's say I am doing intrusive ref count, so all entities must inherit from base class Object. How can I suuport primitive types too? I can define: template <typename T> class Primitive : public Object { T value; public: Primitive(const T &value=T()); operator T() const; Primitive<T> &operator =(const T &value); Primitive<T> &operator +=(const T &value); Primitive<T> &operator %=(const T &value); // And so on... }; so I can use Primitive<int>, Primitive<char>... But how about Primitive<float>? It seems like a problem, because floats don't have a %= operator. But actually, it isn't, since I'll never call operator %= on Primitive<float>. That's one of the deliberate features of templates. If, for some reason, I would define operator %= as virtual. Or, if i'll pre-export Primitive<float> from a dll to avoid link errors, the compiler will complain even if I never call operator %= on a Primitive<float>. If it would just have fill in a dummy value for operator %= in Primitive<float>'s vtable (that raises an exception?), everything would have been fine.

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