Search Results

Search found 22641 results on 906 pages for 'use case'.

Page 680/906 | < Previous Page | 676 677 678 679 680 681 682 683 684 685 686 687  | Next Page >

  • Java Memory Model: reordering and concurrent locks

    - by Steffen Heil
    Hi The java meomry model mandates that synchronize blocks that synchronize on the same monitor enforce a before-after-realtion on the variables modified within those blocks. Example: // in thread A synchronized( lock ) { x = true; } // in thread B synchronized( lock ) { System.out.println( x ); } In this case it is garanteed that thread B will see x==true as long as thread A already passed that synchronized-block. Now I am in the process to rewrite lots of code to use the more flexible (and said to be faster) locks in java.util.concurrent, especially the ReentrantReadWriteLock. So the example looks like this: // in thread A synchronized( lock ) { lock.writeLock().lock(); x = true; lock.writeLock().unlock(); } // in thread B synchronized( lock ) { lock.readLock().lock(); System.out.println( x ); lock.readLock().unlock(); } However, I have not seen any hints within the memory model specification that such locks also imply the nessessary ordering. Looking into the implementation it seems to rely on the access to volatile variables inside AbstractQueuedSynchronizer (for the sun implementation at least). However this is not part of any specification and moreover access to non-volatile variables is not really condsidered covered by the memory barrier given by these variables, is it? So, here are my questions: Is it safe to assume the same ordering as with the "old" synchronized blocks? Is this documented somewhere? Is accessing any volatile variable a memory barrier for any other variable? Regards, Steffen

    Read the article

  • Pythonic mapping of an array (Beginner)

    - by scott_karana
    Hey StackOverflow, I've got a question related to a beginner Python snippet I've written to introduce myself to the language. It's an admittedly trivial early effort, but I'm still wondering how I could have written it more elegantly. The program outputs NATO phoenetic readable versions of an argument, such "H2O" - "Hotel 2 Oscar", or (lacking an argument) just outputs the whole alphabet. I mainly use it for calling in MAC addresses and IQNs, but it's useful for other phone support too. Here's the body of the relevant portion of the program: #!/usr/bin/env python import sys nato = { "a": 'Alfa', "b": 'Bravo', "c": 'Charlie', "d": 'Delta', "e": 'Echo', "f": 'Foxtrot', "g": 'Golf', "h": 'Hotel', "i": 'India', "j": 'Juliet', "k": 'Kilo', "l": 'Lima', "m": 'Mike', "n": 'November', "o": 'Oscar', "p": 'Papa', "q": 'Quebec', "r": 'Romeo', "s": 'Sierra', "t": 'Tango', "u": 'Uniform', "v": 'Victor', "w": 'Whiskey', "x": 'Xray', "y": 'Yankee', "z": 'Zulu', } if len(sys.argv) < 2: for n in nato.keys(): print nato[n] else: # if sys.argv[1] == "-i" # TODO for char in sys.argv[1].lower(): if char in nato: print nato[char], else: print char, As I mentioned, I just want to see suggestions for a more elegant way to code this. My first guess was to use a list comprehension along the lines of [nato[x] for x in sys.argv[1].lower() if x in nato], but that doesn't allow me to output any non-alphabetic characters. My next guess was to use map, but I couldn't format any lambdas that didn't suffer from the same corner case. Any suggestions? Maybe something with first-class functions? Messing with Array's guts? This seems like it could almost be a Code Golf question, but I feel like I'm just overthinking :)

    Read the article

  • Deploy multiple instances of an EAR (representing versions) to Glassfish

    - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen
    I basically want to be able to deploy multiple versions of the same EAR file to the same server (Glassfish instance?) , and have a unique path to each version separating them. From my reading on this it appears that multiple EARs deploy to the root of the web server namespace so that they can coexist if they do not have colliding context-root's of WAR's. In my case I'd rather have that instead of everything going under "/", I'd like to be able to brand a given EAR-file build to ALWAYS deploy under a given path like "/foo-20100319" or "/foo-CUSTOMER-20010101". This can easily be done with a single WAR file just by renaming it. I do not need or want them to disturb each other. It is my understanding that this remapping is outside the scope of the application.xml file, so I found that http://docs.sun.com/app/docs/doc/820-7693/beayr?a=view says that I can specify web-uri and context-root, but I am not certain that what I wish to do, can be specified with these in Glassfish. How should I approach this? I have full control over the build process. (I have found http://stackoverflow.com/questions/877390/deploying-multiple-java-web-apps-to-glassfish-in-one-go but I am not certain how to apply this to what I need).

    Read the article

  • How to run autoconf in OSX linking to specified OS SDK

    - by kroko
    Hello! I have written a small command line tool that includes some GPL code. Everything runs smothly. Using os 10.6. The external code used has a config.h header file, made by calling autoconf. I'd like to deploy the tool to different OS versions. Thus config.h could look like // config.h #if MAC_OS_X_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED == MAC_OS_X_VERSION_10_4 // autoconf created config.h content for 10.4 comes here #elif MAC_OS_X_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED == MAC_OS_X_VERSION_10_5 // autoconf created config.h content for 10.5 comes here #elif MAC_OS_X_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED == MAC_OS_X_VERSION_10_6 // autoconf created config.h content for 10.6 comes here #else #error "muahahaha" #endif What is the way to tell autoconf to use /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.XXXX.sdk/usr/ while generating the config.h? In order to test it I have run #!/bin/bash # for 10.6 export CC="/usr/bin/gcc-4.2" export CXX="/usr/bin/g++-4.2" export MACOSX_DEPLOYMENT_TARGET="10.6" export OSX_SDK="/Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.6.sdk" export OSX_CFLAGS="-isysroot $OSX_SDK -arch x86_64 -arch i386" export OSX_LDFLAGS="-Wl,-syslibroot,$OSX_SDK -arch x86_64 -arch i386" export CFLAGS=$OSX_CFLAGS export CXXFLAGS=$OSX_CFLAGS export LDFLAGS=$OSX_LDFLAGS before calling ./configure on OS 10.6. I know that the configure script looks for libintl.h, which is not in the "out of box 10.6 / SDK", but is present in the local machine under /usr/local The config.h header file produced with method described above has info that libintl.h is in the system- thus "linking" autoconf only to SDK has failed. Is it happening because... "we don't have a crystal ball"? :). Or is it incorrect "setup"/flag-export before running autoconf, which I hope is the case? If so, then what would be the correct way to set up envvariables? Many thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Difference dynamic static 2d array c++

    - by snorlaks
    Hello, Im using opensource library called wxFreeChart to draw some XY charts. In example there is code which uses static array as a serie : double data1[][2] = { { 10, 20, }, { 13, 16, }, { 7, 30, }, { 15, 34, }, { 25, 4, }, }; dataset->AddSerie((double *) data1, WXSIZEOF(dynamicArray)); WXSIZEOF ismacro defined like: sizeof(array)/sizeof(array[0]) In this case everything works great but in my program Im using dynamic arrays (according to users input). I made a test and wrotecode like below: double **dynamicArray = NULL; dynamicArray = new double *[5] ; for( int i = 0 ; i < 5 ; i++ ) dynamicArray[i] = new double[2]; dynamicArray [0][0] = 10; dynamicArray [0][1] = 20; dynamicArray [1][0] = 13; dynamicArray [1][1] = 16; dynamicArray [2][0] = 7; dynamicArray [2][1] = 30; dynamicArray [3][0] = 15; dynamicArray [3][1] = 34; dynamicArray [4][0] = 25; dynamicArray [4][1] = 4; dataset->AddSerie((double *) *dynamicArray, WXSIZEOF(dynamicArray)); But it doesnt work correctly. I mean point arent drawn. I wonder if there is any possibility that I can "cheat" that method and give it dynamic array in way it understands it and will read data from correct place thanks for help

    Read the article

  • cocoa - making a UIImageView class act like a UIButton

    - by Mike
    For some reason that will take too much time to explain, I have to create a UIImageView based class that has some properties of a button. Imagine a class like the UISwitch (no I cannot base my class on the UISwitch) with two states, on and off. WHen the user selects one state, it runs a method like a button that was clicked and the method receives the sender id. I have already the class more or less working. The class is based on UIImageView. I am having difficulties to understand the following. WHen I create a new button I have a line that is like [myButton addTarget:self action:NSSelectorFromString(myMethod) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; This line defines a target and an action to run when the button is triggered. I my case I would need something like [myObject addTarget:self action:myMethod ifState:1] //or another thing ifState:2 I have no idea what kind of code I should put on the class to make this work. Remember that as a button the class should send the "sender" information to identify the object which triggered the action... Can you guys, transcendental gurus help? thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • Dynamic programming in VB

    - by Rahul Jain
    Hello Everybody, We develop applications for SAP using their SDK. SAP provides a SDK for changing and handling events occuring in the user interface. For example, with this SDK we can catch a click on a button and do something on the click. This programming can be done either VB or C#. This can also be used to create new fields on the pre-existing form. We have developed a specific application which allows users to store the definition required for new field in a database table and the fields are created at the run time. So far, this is good. What we require now is that the user should be able to store the validation code for the field in the database and the same should be executed on the run time. Following is an example of such an event: Private Sub SBO_Application_ItemEvent(ByVal FormUID As String, ByRef pVal As SAPbouiCOM.ItemEvent, ByRef BubbleEvent As Boolean) Handles SBO_Application.ItemEvent Dim oForm As SAPbouiCOM.Form If pVal.FormTypeEx = "ACC_QPLAN" Then If pVal.EventType = SAPbouiCOM.BoEventTypes.et_LOST_FOCUS And pVal.BeforeAction = False Then oProdRec.ItemPressEvent(pVal) End If End If End Sub Public Sub ItemPressEvent(ByRef pVal As SAPbouiCOM.ItemEvent) Dim oForm As SAPbouiCOM.Form oForm = oSuyash.SBO_Application.Forms.GetForm(pVal.FormTypeEx, pVal.FormTypeCount) If pVal.EventType = SAPbouiCOM.BoEventTypes.et_LOST_FOCUS And pVal.BeforeAction = False Then If pVal.ItemUID = "AC_TXT5" Then Dim CardCode, ItemCode As String ItemCode = oForm.Items.Item("AC_TXT2").Specific.Value CardCode = oForm.Items.Item("AC_TXT0").Specific.Value UpdateQty(oForm, CardCode, ItemCode) End If End If End Sub So, what we need in this case is to store the code given in the ItemPressEvent in a database, and execute this in runtime. I know this is not straight forward thing. But I presume there must be some ways of getting these kind of things done. The SDK is made up of COM components. Thanks & Regards, Rahul Jain

    Read the article

  • Factories, or Dependency Injection for object instantiation in WCF, when coding against an interface

    - by Saajid Ismail
    Hi I am writing a client/server application, where the client is a Windows Forms app, and the server is a WCF service hosted in a Windows Service. Note that I control both sides of the application. I am trying to implement the practice of coding against an interface: i.e. I have a Shared assembly which is referenced by the client application. This project contains my WCF ServiceContracts and interfaces which will be exposed to clients. I am trying to only expose interfaces to the clients, so that they are only dependant on a contract, not any specific implementation. One of the reasons for doing this is so that I can have my service implementation, and domain change at any time without having to recompile and redeploy the clients. The interfaces/contracts will in this case not change. I only need to recompile and redeploy my WCF service. The design issue I am facing now, is: on the client, how do I create new instances of objects, e.g. ICustomer, if the client doesn't know about the Customer concrete implementation? I need to create a new customer to be saved to the DB. Do I use dependency injection, or a Factory class to instantiate new objects, or should I just allow the client to create new instances of concrete implementations? I am not doing TDD, and I will typically only have one implementation of ICustomer or any other exposed interface.

    Read the article

  • Storing statistics of multple data types in SQL Server 2008

    - by Mike
    I am creating a statistics module in SQL Server 2008 that allows users to save data in any number of formats (date, int, decimal, percent, etc...). Currently I am using a single table to store these values as type varchar, with an extra field to denote the datatype that it should be. When I display the value, I use that datatype field to format it. I use sprocs to calculate the data for reporting; and the datatype field to convert to the appropriate datatype for the appropriate calculations. This approach works, but I don't like storing all kinds of data in a varchar field. The only alternative that I can see is to have separate tables for each datatype I want to store, and save the record information to the appropriate table based on datatype. To retreive, I run a case statement to join the appropriate table and get the data. This seems to solve. This however, seems like a lot of work for ... what gain? Wondering if I'm missing something here. Is there a better way to do this? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Limit the number of service calls in a RESTful application

    - by Slavo
    Imagine some kind of a banking application, with a screen to create accounts. Each Account has a Currency and a Bank as a property, Currency being a separate class, as well as Bank. The code might look something like this: public class Account { public Currency Currency { get; set; } public Bank Bank { get; set; } } public class Currency { public string Code { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class Bank { public string Name { get; set; } public string Country { get; set; } } According to the REST design principles, each resource in the application should have its own service, and each service should have methods that map nicely to the HTTP verbs. So in our case, we have an AccountService, CurrencyService and BankService. In the screen for creating an account, we have some UI to select the bank from a list of banks, and to select a currency from a list of currencies. Imagine it is a web application, and those lists are dropdowns. This means that one dropdown is populated from the CurrencyService and one from the BankService. What this means is that when we open the screen for creating an account, we need to make two service calls to two different services. If that screen is not by itself on a page, there might be more service calls from the same page, impacting the performance. Is this normal in such an application? If not, how can it be avoided? How can the design be modified without going away from REST?

    Read the article

  • Which combing css technique?

    - by DotnetShadow
    Hi there, Which of the following would you say is the best way to go when combining files for CSS: Say I have a master.css file that is used across all pages on my website (page1.aspx, page2.aspx) Page1.aspx - A specific page that has some unique css that is only ever used on that page, so I create a page1.css and it also uses another css grids.css Page2.aspx - Another specific page that is different from all other pages on the site and is different to page1.aspx, I'll name this page2.aspx and make a page2.css this doesn't use grids.css So would you combine the scripts as: Option1: Combine scripts csshandler.axd?d=master.css,page1.css,grids.css when visiting page1 Combine scripts csshandler.axd?d=master.css,page2.css when visiting page2 Benefits: Page specific, rendering quicker since only selectors for that page need to be matched up no unused selectors Drawback: Multiple combinations of master.css + page specific hence master.css has to be downloaded for each page Option2: Combine all scripts whether a page needs them or not csshandler.axd?d=master.css,page1.css,page2.css,grids.css (master, page1 and page2) that way it gets cached as one. The problem is that rendering maybe slower since it will have to try and match EVERY selector in the css with selectors on the page even the missing ones, so in the case of page2.aspx that doesn't use grids.css the selectors in grids.css will need to be parsed to see if they are in page2 which means rendering will be slow Benefits: One file will ever be downloaded and cached doesn't matter what page you visit Drawback: Unused selectors will need to be parsed by the browser slower rendering Option3: Leave the master file on it's own and only combine other scripts (the benefit of this is because master is used across all pages there is a chance that this is cached so doesn't need to keep on downloading csshandler.axd?d=Master.css csshandler.axd?d=page1.css,grids.css Benefits: master.css file can be cached doesn't matter what page you visit. Not many unused selectors as page spefic is applied Drawback: Initially minimum of 2 HTTP request will have to be made What do you guys think? Cheers DotnetShadow

    Read the article

  • SSRS - Oracle DB, Passing Date parameter

    - by davidl98
    Using SSRS with an Oracle Database. I need to prompt the user when running the report to enter a date for report. What is the best way to add in the parameter in my SSRS Report. Having problem finding the right date format. under the "Report Parameter" menu, I have setup the Report Parameters using the DateTime Datatype. Keep getting this error "ORA-01843: Not a Valid Month" Thank you for your help. Select a.OPR_Name, a.OPR, a.Trans_Desc, a.Trans_Start_Date, Cast(a.S_Date as date) as S_Date, Sum(a.Duration) as T From ( Select US_F.OPR_Name, ITH_F.OPR, ITH_F.ITH_RID, ITH_F.TRANSACT, Transact.DESC_1 as Trans_Desc, To_CHAR(ITH_F.Start_Time,'DD-Mon-YY') as Trans_Start_Date, To_CHAR(ITH_F.Start_Time,'MM/DD/YYYY') as S_Date, Substr(To_CHAR(ITH_F.Start_Time,'HH24:MI'),1,6) as Start_Time, To_CHAR(ITH_F.End_Time,'DD-Mon-YY') as Trans_End_Date, Substr(To_CHAR(ITH_F.End_Time,'HH24:MI'),1,6) as End_Time, Cast(Case When To_CHAR(ITH_F.Start_Time,'DD-Mon-YY') = To_CHAR(ITH_F.End_Time,'DD-Mon-YY') Then (((To_CHAR(ITH_F.End_Time,'SSSSS') - To_CHAR(ITH_F.Start_Time,'SSSSS')) / 60))/60 Else ((86399 - (To_CHAR(ITH_F.Start_Time,'SSSSS')) + To_CHAR(ITH_F.End_Time,'SSSSS'))/60)/60 End as Decimal(3,1)) as Duration from Elite_76_W1.ITH_F Left Join Elite_76_W1.Transact on Transact.Transact = ITH_F.Transact Left Join Elite_76_W1.US_F on US_F.OPR = ITH_F.OPR Where ITH_F.TRANSACT not in ('ASN','QC','LGOT') ) a Where a.S_Date = @Event_Date Having Sum(a.Duration) < 0 Group By a.OPR_Name, a.OPR, a.Trans_Desc, a.Trans_Start_Date, a.S_Date Order by a.OPR_Name

    Read the article

  • C# Regex - Replace multiple characters at once without overwriting?

    - by Everaldo Aguiar
    Hello guys, I'm implementing a c# program that should automatize a Mono-alphabetic substitution cipher. The functionality i'm working on at the moment is the simplest one: The user will provide a plain text and a cipher alphabet, for example: Plain text(input): THIS IS A TEST Cipher alphabet: A - Y, H - Z, I - K, S - L, E - J, T - Q Cipher Text(output): QZKL KL QJLQ I thought of using regular expressions since I've been programming in perl for a while, but I'm encountering some problems on c#. First I would like to know if someone would have a suggestion for a regular expression that would replace all occurrence of each letter by its corresponding cipher letter (provided by user) at once and without overwriting anything. Example: In this case, user provides plaintext "TEST", and on his cipher alphabet, he wishes to have all his T's replaced with E's, E's replaced with Y and S replaced with J. My first thought was to substitute each occurrence of a letter with an individual character and then replace that character by the cipherletter corresponding to the plaintext letter provided. Using the same example word "TEST", the steps taken by the program to provide an answer would be: 1 - replace T's with (lets say) @ 2 - replace E's with # 3 - replace S's with & 4 - Replace @ with E, # with Y, & with j 5 - Output = EYJE This solution doesn't seem to work for large texts. I would like to know if anyone can think of a single regular expression that would allow me to replace each letter in a given text by its corresponding letter in a 26-letter cipher alphabet without the need of splitting the task in an intermediate step as I mentioned. If it helps visualize the process, this is a print screen of my GUI for the program: http://img43.imageshack.us/img43/2118/11618743.jpg

    Read the article

  • Displaying ppt, doc, and xls in UIWebView doesn't work but pdf does

    - by slugolicious
    It looks like a few people on stackoverflow get this to work but their code isn't posted. I'm using [web loadData:data MIMEType:MIMEType textEncodingName:@"UTF-8" baseURL:nil]; where MIMEType is: @"application/vnd.ms-powerpoint" @"application/vnd.ms-word" @"application/vnd.ms-excel" (BTW, I've seen DOC files use mimetype @"application/msword" but the "vnd" version seems more appropriate. I tried both just in case.) I verified that my 'data' is correct. PDF and TXT files work. When the UIWebView displays PPT, DOC, or XLS files, it's blank. I put NSLOG statements in my UIWebViewDelegate calls. shouldStartLoadWithRequest:<NSMutableURLRequest about:blank> navType:5 webViewDidStartLoad: didFailLoadWithError:Error Domain=NSURLErrorDomain Code=100 UserInfo=0x122503a0 "Operation could not be completed. (NSURLErrorDomain error 100.)" didFailLoadWithError:Error Domain=WebKitErrorDomain Code=102 UserInfo=0x12253840 "Frame load interrupted" so obviously the load is failing, but why? If I change my mimetype to @"text/plain" for a PPT file, the UIWebView loads fine and displays unprintable characters, as expected. That's telling me the 'data' passed to loadData: is ok. Meaning my mimetypes are bad? And just to make sure my PPT, DOC, and XLS files are indeed ok to display, I created a simple html file with anchor tags to the files. When the html file is displayed in Safari on the iPhone, clicking on the files displays correctly in Safari. I tried to research the error code displayed in didFailLoadWithError (100) but all the documented error codes are negative and greater than 1000 (as seen in NSURLError.h). -(void)webView:(UIWebView *)webView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error { NSLog(@"didFailLoadWithError:%@", error); }

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing - Validation of ViewModel ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by dean nolan
    I am currently unit testing a service that adds users to a repository. I am using dependency injection to test using a fake repository. The repository has a method CreateUser(User user) which just adds it to the database or in this case a List of Users. The logic for the creation is in the UserServices class. The application has a form for creating a user that requires some properties such as name and address. This is an MVC 2 app and I will be using the new validation using data annotations. This makes me wonder about a few things: 1) Should I annotate a POCO object that will map to the database? Or should I create a specific View Model that has these annotations and pass this data to the UserServices class? 2)Should the UserServicesClass also check this data? Would I best be constructing a Usr out of the ViewModel and passing this into the Service as a parameter? 3) The actual unit testing would depend on 2), I either populate a User object and pass that in, or I pass a large list of strings to the method CreateUser. Writing this out I get a basic idea that I should probably annotate the view model only, pass in a user (constructed by the view model if the data is valid) and also just construct the user in the unit test also. Is this the best way to go?

    Read the article

  • Table design issues - should I create separate fields or store as a blob

    - by Ali
    Hi guys I'm working on my web based ordering system and we would like to maintain a kind of task history for each of our orders. A hsitory in the sense that we would like to maintain a log of who did what on an order like lets say an order has been entered - we would like to know if the order was acknowledged for an example. Or lets say somebody followed up on the order - etc. Consider that there are numerous situations like this for each order would it be wise to create a schema on the lines of: Orders ID - title - description - date - is_ack - is_follow - ack_by ..... That accounts to a lot of fields - on teh other hand I could have one LongText field called 'history' and fill it with a serialised object holding all the information. However in the latter case I can't run a query to lets say retrieve all orders that have not been acknowledged and stuff like that. With time requirements woudl change and I would be required to modify it to allow for more detailed tracking and that is why I need to set up a way which would be feasible to scale upon yet I don't want to be restricted on the SQL side too much.

    Read the article

  • jQuery filename manipulation

    - by Adi
    Hi all, I am trying to do a fancy blur/fade effect (which means i need 2 images) but I only want to load 1 in the HTML (in case js is not active) and add the other filename via jQuery (copying and renaming the file/src) The pure html is along the lines of: <div id="work"> <div> <img src="css/images/abc1.jpg" width="360" height="227" alt="" /> </div> <div> <img src="css/images/xyz1.jpg" width="360" height="227" alt="" /> </div> </div> But the html after jquery has manipulated the DOM needs to be like: <div id="work"> <div> <img src="css/images/abc0.jpg" width="360" height="227" alt="" /> <img src="css/images/abc1.jpg" width="360" height="227" alt="" /> </div> <div> <img src="css/images/xyz0.jpg" width="360" height="227" alt="" /> <img src="css/images/xyz1.jpg" width="360" height="227" alt="" /> </div> </div> The question is, what is the jQuery to clone/copy the relative images and then rename the src? Any help would be much appreicated. A.

    Read the article

  • Establishing Upper / Lower Bound in T-SQL Procedure

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I am trying to establish upper / lower bound in my stored procedure below and am having some problems at the end (I am getting no results where, without the temp table inner join i get the expected results). I need some help where I am trying to join the columns in my temp table #PageIndexForUsers to the rest of my join statement and I am mucking something up with this statement: INNER JOIN #PageIndexForUsers ON ( dbo.aspnet_Users.UserId = #PageIndexForUsers.UserId AND #PageIndexForUsers.IndexId >= @PageLowerBound AND #PageIndexForUsers.IndexId <= @PageUpperBound ) I could use feedback at this point - and, any advice on how to improve my procedure's logic (if you see anything else that needs improvement) is also appreciated. Thanks in advance... ALTER PROCEDURE dbo.wb_Membership_GetAllUsers @ApplicationName nvarchar(256), @sortOrderId smallint = 0, @PageIndex int, @PageSize int AS BEGIN DECLARE @ApplicationId uniqueidentifier SELECT @ApplicationId = NULL SELECT @ApplicationId = ApplicationId FROM dbo.aspnet_Applications WHERE LOWER(@ApplicationName) = LoweredApplicationName IF (@ApplicationId IS NULL) RETURN 0 -- Set the page bounds DECLARE @PageLowerBound int DECLARE @PageUpperBound int DECLARE @TotalRecords int SET @PageLowerBound = @PageSize * @PageIndex SET @PageUpperBound = @PageSize - 1 + @PageLowerBound BEGIN TRY -- Create a temp table TO store the select results CREATE TABLE #PageIndexForUsers ( IndexId int IDENTITY (0, 1) NOT NULL, UserId uniqueidentifier ) -- Insert into our temp table INSERT INTO #PageIndexForUsers (UserId) SELECT u.UserId FROM dbo.aspnet_Membership m, dbo.aspnet_Users u WHERE u.ApplicationId = @ApplicationId AND u.UserId = m.UserId ORDER BY u.UserName SELECT @TotalRecords = @@ROWCOUNT SELECT dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid, dbo.wb_ProfileData.firstname, dbo.wb_ProfileData.lastname, dbo.wb_Email.emailaddress, dbo.wb_Email.isconfirmed, dbo.wb_Email.emaildomain, dbo.wb_Address.streetname, dbo.wb_Address.cityorprovince, dbo.wb_Address.state, dbo.wb_Address.postalorzip, dbo.wb_Address.country, dbo.wb_ProfileAddress.addresstype,dbo.wb_ProfileData.birthday, dbo.wb_ProfileData.gender, dbo.wb_Session.sessionid, dbo.wb_Session.lastactivitydate, dbo.aspnet_Membership.userid, dbo.aspnet_Membership.password, dbo.aspnet_Membership.passwordquestion, dbo.aspnet_Membership.passwordanswer, dbo.aspnet_Membership.createdate FROM dbo.wb_Profiles INNER JOIN dbo.wb_ProfileAddress ON ( dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid = dbo.wb_ProfileAddress.profileid AND dbo.wb_ProfileAddress.addresstype = 'home' ) INNER JOIN dbo.wb_Address ON dbo.wb_ProfileAddress.addressid = dbo.wb_Address.addressid INNER JOIN dbo.wb_ProfileData ON dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid = dbo.wb_ProfileData.profileid INNER JOIN dbo.wb_Email ON ( dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid = dbo.wb_Email.profileid AND dbo.wb_Email.isprimary = 1 ) INNER JOIN dbo.wb_Session ON dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid = dbo.wb_Session.profileid INNER JOIN dbo.aspnet_Membership ON dbo.wb_Profiles.userid = dbo.aspnet_Membership.userid INNER JOIN dbo.aspnet_Users ON dbo.aspnet_Membership.UserId = dbo.aspnet_Users.UserId INNER JOIN dbo.aspnet_Applications ON dbo.aspnet_Users.ApplicationId = dbo.aspnet_Applications.ApplicationId INNER JOIN #PageIndexForUsers ON ( dbo.aspnet_Users.UserId = #PageIndexForUsers.UserId AND #PageIndexForUsers.IndexId >= @PageLowerBound AND #PageIndexForUsers.IndexId <= @PageUpperBound ) ORDER BY CASE @sortOrderId WHEN 1 THEN dbo.wb_ProfileData.lastname WHEN 2 THEN dbo.wb_Profiles.username WHEN 3 THEN dbo.wb_Address.postalorzip WHEN 4 THEN dbo.wb_Address.state END END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF @@TRANCOUNT > 0 ROLLBACK TRAN EXEC wb_ErrorHandler RETURN 55555 END CATCH RETURN @TotalRecords END GO

    Read the article

  • Is there any danger in calling free() or delete instead of delete[]? [closed]

    - by Matt Joiner
    Possible Duplicate: ( POD )freeing memory : is delete[] equal to delete ? Does delete deallocate the elements beyond the first in an array? char *s = new char[n]; delete s; Does it matter in the above case seeing as all the elements of s are allocated contiguously, and it shouldn't be possible to delete only a portion of the array? For more complex types, would delete call the destructor of objects beyond the first one? Object *p = new Object[n]; delete p; How can delete[] deduce the number of Objects beyond the first, wouldn't this mean it must know the size of the allocated memory region? What if the memory region was allocated with some overhang for performance reasons? For example one could assume that not all allocators would provide a granularity of a single byte. Then any particular allocation could exceed the required size for each element by a whole element or more. For primitive types, such as char, int, is there any difference between: int *p = new int[n]; delete p; delete[] p; free p; Except for the routes taken by the respective calls through the delete-free deallocation machinery?

    Read the article

  • WCF configuration and ISA Proxies

    - by Morten Louw Nielsen
    Hi, I have a setup with a .NET WCF Service hosted on IIS. The client apps are connecting to the service through a set of ISA proxy's. I don't know how many and don't know about their configuration etc. In the client apps I open a client to the service and make several calls via the same client. It works great in my office, but when I deploy at the customer (using the ISAs), after some calls, the connection breaks. In a successfull case, the client will maximum live a few seconds, but is that too much? I think there might be several proxyes. Maybe it's using load ballancing. pseudo code is something like this: WcfClient myClient = new WcfClient(); foreach (WorkItem Item in WorkItemsStack) myClient.ProcessItem(Item); myClient.Close(); I am thinking whether I have to do something like this foreach (WorkItem Item in WorkItemsStack) { WcfClient myClient = new WcfClient(); myClient.ProcessItem(Item); myClient.Close(); } Any one with experience with this field? Kind Regards, Morten, Denmark

    Read the article

  • jQuery cycle plugin customizing

    - by spirax
    I'm using the jQuery Cycle plugin to start a slidshow of images when hovering over the initial image. This works fine. What I want after that is to have the slideshow stop when hovered off, and have a manual slideshow (next/prev buttons) start. This currently works, but the slideshow starts from the beginning each time it's initialized. I want it to begin at the current image that's loaded. I was playing around with getting the image's index from the DOM (as it's the only one with display:block) and using the option 'startingSlide' to resume it, but my index keeps returning as -1. jQuery('#home-menu li').hover(function() { setImages(jQuery(this).attr('title'), jQuery(this).find('.subtitle').text()); jQuery('#main .blog #projects .gallery .slideshow').cycle( { fx: 'scrollHorz', easing: 'easeOutBounce', speed: 2000, delay: 0 }); }, function() { // Before loading the images for the clickable slideshow, find the current image in the DOM array to use as the starting position slideshowStart = jQuery('.gallery .slideshow img:visible').index(this); console.log('Index: ' + slideshowStart); setImages(jQuery(this).attr('title'), jQuery(this).find('.subtitle').text()); jQuery('#main .blog #projects .gallery .slideshow').cycle('stop').cycle( { fx: 'scrollHorz', easing: 'easeOutBounce', startingSlide: slideshowStart, speed: 2000, timeout: 0, next: "#main .blog #projects .gallery span.span2", prev: "#main .blog #projects .gallery span.span1" }); }); setImages() just loads images into the DOM based on what li is being hovered over. Nothing special there. I want the image to be resumed when hovered over and hovered off. I've left out the resume part for hover on for the moment while I was trying to get it working - In case you were wondering.

    Read the article

  • Debugging SQL Server Slowness: Same Database, Different Servers

    - by Craig Walker
    For a while now we've been having anecdotal slowness on our newly-minted (VMWare-based) SQL Server 2005 database servers. Recently the problem has come to a head and I've started looking for the root cause of the issue. Here's the weird part: on the stored procedure that I'm using as a performance test case, I get a 30x difference in the execution speed depending on which DB server I run it on. This is using the same database (mdf) and log (ldf) files, detached, copied, and reattached from the slow server to the fast one. This doesn't appear to be a (virtualized) hardware issue: he slow server has 4x the CPU capacity and 2x the memory as the fast one. As best as I can tell, the problem lies in the environment/configuration of the servers (either operating system or SQL Server installation). However, I've checked a bunch of variables (SQL Server config options, running services, disk fragmentation) and found nothing that has made a difference in testing. What things should I be looking at? What tools can I use to investigate why this is happening?

    Read the article

  • Loops inside loops

    - by cozzy
    Hi, I'd like to find easier way to write loops inside loops. Here is example code of 3 levels of 'for' loops: int level = 0; int value = 0; bool next = false; for (int i0 = 0; i0 < 6; i0++) { level = 0; value = i0; method(); if (next) for (int i1 = 0; i1 < 6; i1++) { level = 1; value = i1; method(); if (next) for (int i2 = 0; i2 < 6; i2++) { level = 2; value = i2; method(); if (next) { //Do somethnig } } } } private void method() { //use int 'level' and 'value' //determine bool 'next' } I wonder if it's possible to write the same thing different way. To set number of levels(number of loops) and loop repeats. In this case levels = 3; repeats = 6;. I need it because I am using more than 20 loops inside themselves and than the code is not comprehensible. I hope my explanation was ok and thanks for help.

    Read the article

  • Remote JMS connection still using localhost

    - by James
    I have a created a JMS Connection Factory on a remote glassfish server and want to use that server from a java client app on my local machine. I have the following configuration to get the context and connection factory: Properties env = new Properties(); env.setProperty("java.naming.factory.initial", "com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialInitContextFactory"); env.setProperty("java.naming.factory.url.pkgs", "com.sun.enterprise.naming"); env.setProperty("java.naming.factory.state", "com.sun.corba.ee.impl.presentation.rmi.JNDIStateFactoryImpl"); env.setProperty("org.omg.CORBA.ORBInitialHost", JMS_SERVER_NAME); env.setProperty("org.omg.CORBA.ORBInitialPort", "3700"); initialContext = new InitialContext(env); TopicConnectionFactory topicConnectionFactory = (TopicConnectionFactory) initialContext.lookup("jms/MyConnectionFactory"); topicConnection = topicConnectionFactory.createTopicConnection(); topicConnection.start(); This seems to work and when I delete the ConnectionFactory from the glassfish server I get a exception indicating that is can't find jms/MyConnectionFactory as expected. However when I subsequently use my topicConnection to get a topic it tries to connect to localhost:7676 (this fails as I am not running glassfish locally). If I dynamically create a topic: TopicSession pubSession = topicConnection.createTopicSession(false, Session.AUTO_ACKNOWLEDGE); Topic topic = pubSession.createTopic(topicName); TopicPublisher publisher = pubSession.createPublisher(topic); Message mapMessage = pubSession.createTextMessage(message); publisher.publish(mapMessage); and the glassfish server is not running locally I get the same connection refused however, if I start my local glassfish server the topics are created locally and I can see them in the glassfish admin console. In case you ask I do not have jms/MyConnectionFactory on my local glassfish instance, it is only available on the remote server. I can't see what I am doing wrong here and why it is trying to use localhost at all. Any ideas? Cheers, James

    Read the article

  • Method for finding memory leak in large Java heap dumps

    - by Rickard von Essen
    I have to find a memory leak in a Java application. I have some experience with this but would like advice on a methodology/strategy for this. Any reference and advice is welcome. About our situation: Heap dumps are larger than 1 GB We have heap dumps from 5 occasions. We don't have any test case to provoke this. It only happens in the (massive) system test environment after at least a weeks usage. The system is built on a internally developed legacy framework with so many design flaws that they are impossible to count them all. Nobody understands the framework in depth. It has been transfered to one guy in India who barely keeps up with answering e-mails. We have done snapshot heap dumps over time and concluded that there is not a single component increasing over time. It is everything that grows slowly. The above points us in the direction that it is the frameworks homegrown ORM system that increases its usage without limits. (This system maps objects to files?! So not really a ORM) Question: What is the methodology that helped you succeed with hunting down leaks in a enterprise scale application?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 676 677 678 679 680 681 682 683 684 685 686 687  | Next Page >