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  • Unwanted Shell expansion when assigning the output of a shell command to a variable

    - by Rob Goodwin
    I am exporting a portion of a local prototypte svn repository to import into a different repo. We have a number of svn properties set throughout the repo so I figured I would write a script to list the file elements and their corresponding properties. How hard can that be right. So I write started writing a bash script that would assign the output of the svn proplist -v to a variable so I could check if the specified file had any properties. #!/bin/bash svn proplist -v $1 o=$(svn proplist -v "$1") echo $o now this works fine and echos the output of the svn proplist command. But if the proplist command returns something like svn:ignore : * build it performs a shell expansion on the * and inserts the entire directory listing prior to the build property value. So if the directory had a.txt, b.txt and build files/dirs in it, the output would look like. svn:ignore a.txt b.txt build I figure I need to somehow escape the output or something to keep the expansion from happening, but have yet to find something that works. There are other ways to do this, but I hate when I cannot figure something out. and I have to admin, I think this one beat me ( well given the time I can spend on it )

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  • Splitting build cross the network?

    - by Dandikas
    Is there a known solution for splitting build process cross the network machines? Use case: We are an average software development company. We own around 50 development workstations (Quad Core 2.66Ghz, 4 GB ram, 200 GB raid). No need to tell that at any single moment not every machine is loaded to the max. There are 5 to 15 projects running simultaneously at any single moment. Obviously all of them are continuously build on server, than deployed to proper environment. Single project build is taking from 3 to 15 minutes. The problem: Whenever we build 5 projects in a row the last project is going to be ready after around 25 - 50 minutes. Building in parallel does not solve the problem (build is only a part of the game, than you need to deploy, run tests etc.) YES the correct solution is to add another build server, but "That involves buying new Expensive hardware, and we already spent a lot!". Yea, right(damn them)! Anyway. What about splitting build among developers workstation? Lets say whenever we need to build project "A" we check 5 workstations and start build on all that are not overloaded. The build can be canceled by a developer if he really needs all the power of his machine as long as there is at least 1 machine that is still building. After build is finished deployment can be performed to a proper environment (hosted on some server, not on workstation :) ). The bigger the company the more this makes sense to me. Anyone tried something like this? Are there any good practices? Any helpful software? (90% of the projects are .net C#)

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  • Setting directory security to allow user and deny all

    - by Rita
    I have winforms app, in which I need to access a secured directory. I'm using impersonation and create WindowsIdentity to access the folder. My problem is writing unit tests to test the directory security; I'd like to a write a code that creates a directory secured to only ONE user, which isn't the current user running the UT (or else the test would be worthless). I know how to add permissions to a certain user, but how can I deny the rest, including admins? (in case the user running the UT is an admin) (will this be a wise thing to do?) DirectoryInfo directoryInfo = new DirectoryInfo(path); DirectorySecurity directorySecurity = directoryInfo.GetAccessControl(); directorySecurity.AddAccessRule(new FileSystemAccessRule("Domain\SecuredUser", FileSystemRights.FullControl, InheritanceFlags.ContainerInherit | InheritanceFlags.ObjectInherit, PropagationFlags.InheritOnly, AccessControlType.Allow)); directorySecurity.RemoveAccessRule(new FileSystemAccessRule("??", FileSystemRights.FullControl, InheritanceFlags.ContainerInherit | InheritanceFlags.ObjectInherit, PropagationFlags.InheritOnly, AccessControlType.Deny)); directoryInfo.SetAccessControl(directorySecurity); This isn't working. I don't know who am I supposed to deny. Domain\Admins, Domain\Administrators, me... No one is being denied, and when I check folder's security - The SecuredUser has access to the folder, but the permissions are not checked, even though I specified FullControl. Basically I want to code this: <authorization> <allow users ="Domain\User" /> <deny users="*" /> </authorization> I was thinking about impersonating UT run with a weak user with no permissions, but this would result in: Impersonate - Run UT - Impersonate - Access folder, and I'm not sure if this is the right design. Help would be greatly appreciated, thank you.

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  • How to implement progressbar(to show progress) using threading concept in win 32?

    - by Rakesh
    I am trying to show a progress bar while my process is going on...in my application there will be a situation where I gotta read files and manipulate them(it will take some time to complete)..want to display a progress bar during this operation..the particular function I am calling is an win 32 ...so if you check my code below i am upto the point of creating the progress bar in a dialog window and creating a thread Now I dont know how to post the message and where to get the message and handle...Please help me..thanks in advance //my function int Myfunction(....) { HWND dialog = CreateWindowEx(0,WC_DIALOG,L"Proccessing...",WS_OVERLAPPEDWINDOW|WS_VISIBLE, 600,300,280,120,NULL,NULL,NULL,NULL); HWND pBar = CreateWindowEx(NULL,PROGRESS_CLASS,NULL,WS_CHILD|WS_VISIBLE,40,20,200, 20, dialog,(HMENU)IDD_PROGRESS,NULL,NULL); HANDLE getHandle = CreateThread(NULL,NULL,(LPTHREAD_START_ROUTINE)SetFilesForOperation(...), NULL,NULL,0); } LPARAM SetFilesForOperation(...) { for(int index = 0;index < noOfFiles; index++) { *checkstate = *(checkState + index); if(*checkstate == -1) { *(getFiles+i) = new TCHAR[MAX_PATH]; wcscpy(*(getFiles+i),*(dataFiles +index)); i++; } else { (*tempDataFiles)->Add(*(dataFiles+index)); *(checkState + localIndex) = *(checkState + index); localIndex++; } //SendMessage(pBar,PBM_SETSTEP,1,0); } }

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  • Using bitwise operators on > 32 bit integers

    - by dqhendricks
    I am using bitwise operations in order to represent many access control flags within one integer. ADMIN_ACCESS = 1; EDIT_ACCOUNT_ACCESS = 2; EDIT_ORDER_ACCESS = 4; var myAccess = 3; // ie: ( ADMIN_ACCESS | EDIT_ACCOUNT_ACCESS ) if ( myAccess & EDIT_ACCOUNT_ACCESS ) { // check for correct access // allow for editing of account } Most of this is occurring on the PHP side of my project. There is one piece however where Javascript is used to join several access flags using | when saving someone's access level. This works fine to a point. I have found that once an integer (flag) gets too large ( 32bit), it no longer works correctly with bitwise operators in Javascript. For instance: alert( 4294967296 | 1 ); // equals 1, but should equal 4294967297 I am trying to find a workaround for this so that I do not have to limit my number of access control flags to 32. Each access control flag is two times the previous control flag so that each control flag will not interfere with other control flags. dec(4) = bin(100) dec(8) = bin(1000) dec(16) = bin(10000) I have noticed that when adding two of these flags together with a simple +, it seems to come out with the same answer as a bitwise or operation, but am having trouble wrapping my head around whether this is a simple substitution, or if there might be problems with doing this. Can anyone comment on the validity of this workaround? Example: (4294967296 | 262144 | 524288) == (4294967296 + 262144 + 524288)

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  • Best support now on windows: Mercurial or Git?

    - by mamcx
    I want to change my current subversion setup to Mercurial or Git. I read about the two and I have a conflicted view about how well they work on windows. Alot of pages say Git is sub-par on windows, slow and badly integrated. And almost everyone say Mercurial is better. But some say Git now is better and Mercurial is behind. I check the screenshots of TortoiseHG and TortoiseGIT and the mercurial one look "worse"... but maybe is just crappy screenshots? I read about the two, prefer the command-line interface of Mercurial, but seriously, I don't pretend to touch the command line. And if one of the two is a real improvenment to SVN, I don't have to do that (In SVN is necesary go to the metal because something need fix). In SVN I have issues when commit or get code made on OSX (I code on Windows, OSX, Solaris. Mainly windows). So I hope don't get that issues again (I mean, failure to commit to the repo). I have a small repository, doing solo.

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  • Can PHP dissect its own syntax?

    - by Nathan Long
    Can PHP dissect its own syntax? For example, I'd like to write a function that takes in an input like $object->attribute and says to itself: OK, he's giving me $foo->bar, which means he must think that $foo is an object that has a property called bar. Before I try accessing bar and potentially get a 'Trying to get property of non-object' error, let me check whether $foo is even an object. The end goal is to echo a value if it is set, and fail silently if not. I want to avoid repetition like this: <input value="<? if(is_object($foo) && is_set($foo->bar)){ echo $foo->bar; }?> "/> ...and to avoid writing a function that does the above, but has to have the object and attribute passed in separately, like this: <input value="<? echoAttribute($foo,'bar') ?>" /> ...but to instead write something which: preserves the object-attribute syntax is flexible: can also handle array keys or regular variables Like this: <input value="<? echoIfSet($foo->bar); ?> /> <input value="<? echoIfSet($baz['buzz']); ?> /> <input value="<? echoIfSet($moo); ?> /> But this all depends on PHP being able to tell me "what kind of thing am I asking for when I say $object->attribute or $array[$key]", so that my function can handle each according to its own type. Is this possible?

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  • Setting spring bean property value using ref-bean

    - by Apache Fan
    Hi, I am trying to set a property value using spring. <bean id="velocityPropsBean" class="com.test.CustomProperties" abstract="false" singleton="true" lazy-init="false" autowire="default" dependency-check="default"> <property name="properties"> <props> <prop key="resource.loader">file</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.cache">true</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.class">org.apache.velocity.runtime.resource.loader.FileResourceLoader</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.path">NEED TO INSERT VALUE AT STARTUP</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="velocityResourcePath" class="java.lang.String" factory-bean="velocityHelper" factory-method="getLoaderPath"/> Now what i need to do is insert the result from getLoaderPath into file.resource.loader.path. The value of getLoaderPath changes so it has to be loaded at server startup. Any thoughts how i can inset the velocityResourcePath value to the property?

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  • Best way to test a Delphi application

    - by Osama ALASSIRY
    I have a Delphi application that has many dependencies, and it would be difficult to refactor it to use DUnit (it's huge), so I was thinking about using something like AutomatedQA's TestComplete to do the testing from the front-end UI. My main problem is that a bugfix or new feature sometimes breaks old code that was previously tested (manually), and used to work. I have setup the application to use command-line switches to open-up a specific form that could be tested, and I can create a set of values and clicks needed to be done. But I have a few questions before I do anything drastic... (and before purchasing anything) Is it worth it? Would this be a good way to test? The result of the test should in my database (Oracle), is there an easy way in testcomplete to check these values (multiple fields in multiple tables)? I would need to setup a test database to do all the automated testing, would there be an easy way to automate re-setting the test db? Other than drop user cascade, create user,..., impdp. Is there a way in testcomplete to specify command-line parameters for an exe? Does anybody have any similar experiences.

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  • error on connecting to the server : socket io is not defined

    - by max
    i know there's been couple of question about the same problem , i've already check them . i have very simple node.js chat app i have a server running on 8000 port and it works fine my client pages are html , they are running on apache and i'm using socket.io to connect them to the server and it works fine on the local host but when i upload the app on the server i keep on getting this error in the firebug io is not defined var socket = io.connect('http://atenak.com:8000/'); or sometimes it doesn't show that but when i try to broadcast message from cliend i get this error : socket is undefined socket.emit('msg', { data: msg , user:'max' }); the only difference is i've changed the localhost with atenak.com ! here is my html code var socket = io.connect('http://atenak.com:8000/'); var user = 'jack'; socket.on('newmsg', function (data) { if(data.user == user ) { $('#container').html(data.data); } }); function brodcast(){ var msg = $('#fild').val(); socket.emit('msg', { data: msg , user:'max' }); } </script> </head> <body> <div id="container"> </div> <input id="fild" type="text"> <input name="" type="button" onClick="brodcast();"> </body> i have included the sockt.io.js and server is running ok which means socket.io is installed on the server here is the live page http://atenak.com/client.html

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  • java logging nightmare and log4j not behaving as expected with spring + tomcat6

    - by maverick
    I have a spring application that has configured log4j (via xml) and that runs on Tomcat6 that was working fine until we add a bunch of dependencies via Maven. At some point the whole application just started logging part of what it was supposed to be declared into the log4.xml "a small rant here" Why logging has to be that hard in java world? why suddenly an application that was just fine start behaving so weird and why it's so freaking hard to debug? I've been reading and trying to solve this issue for days but so far no luck, hopefully some expert here can give me some insights on this I've added log4j debug option to check whether log4j is taking reading the config file and its values and this is what part of it shows log4j: Level value for org.springframework.web is [debug]. log4j: org.springframework.web level set to DEBUG log4j: Retreiving an instance of org.apache.log4j.Logger. log4j: Setting [org.compass] additivity to [true]. log4j: Level value for org.compass is [debug]. log4j: org.compass level set to DEBUG As you can see debug is enabled for compass and spring.web but it only shows "INFO" level for both packages. My log4j config file has nothing out of extraordinary just a plain ConsoleAppender <log4j:configuration xmlns:log4j="http://jakarta.apache.org/log4j/"> <!-- Appenders --> <appender name="console" class="org.apache.log4j.ConsoleAppender"> <param name="Target" value="System.out" /> <layout class="org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout"> <param name="ConversionPattern" value="%-5p: %c - %m%n" /> </layout> </appender> What's the trick to make this work? What it's my misunderstanding here? Can someone point me in the right direction and explain how can I make this logging mess more bullet proof?

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  • Dependency Injection: How to maintain multiple configurations?

    - by Malax
    Hi StackOverflow, Lets assume we've build a system with a DI framework which is working quite fine. This system currently uses JMS to "talk" with other systems not maintained by us. The majority of our customers like the JMS approach and uses it according to our specification. The component which does all the messaging is injected with Spring into the rest of the application. Now we got the case that one customer cannot implement the JMS solution and want to use another messaging technology. Thats not a problem because we can simply implement a messaging service using this technology and inject it in the rest of the application. But how are we supposed to handle the deployment and maintenance of the configuration? Since the application uses Spring i could imagine to check in all the configurations i have for this application and the system administrator could start the application and passing the name of the DI XML file to specify which configuration should be loaded. But... it just don't feel right. Are there any solutions for such cases available? What are the best-practices you use? I could even imagine more complex scenarios which do not contain only one service substitution... Thanks a lot!

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  • Threading Practice with Polling.

    - by Stacey
    I have a C# application that has to constantly read from a program; sometimes there is a chance it will not find what it needs, which will throw an exception. This is a limitation of the program it has to read from. This frequently causes the program to lock up as it tries to poll. So I solved it by spawning the 'polling' off into a separate thread. However watching the debugger, the thread is created and destroyed each time. I am uncertain if this is typical or not; but my question is, is this good practice, or am I using the threading for the wrong purpose? ProgramReader { static Thread oThread; public static void Read( Program program ) { // check to see if the program exists if ( false ) oThread = new ThreadStart(program.Poll); if(oThread != null || !oThread.IsAlive ) oThread.Start(); } } This is my general pseudocode. It runs every 10 seconds or so. Is this a huge hit to performance? The operation it performs is relatively small and lightweight; just repetitive.

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  • Dealing with Try/Catch Exceptions in Java bytecode? ("stack height inconsistent")

    - by Cogwirrel
    I am trying to do some error handling in java bytecode. I first tried to implement some catch-like subroutines, where I would check for the error condition, and jump to the appropriate subroutine, a little like: iconst_1 iconst_0 dup ifeq calldiverr goto enddivtest calldiverr: jsr divError enddivtest: idiv ...More instructions... divError: getstatic java/lang/System/out Ljava/io/PrintStream; ldc "Oh dear you divided by 0!" invokevirtual java/io/PrintStream/print(Ljava/lang/String;)V The problem with the above is that when I have multiple instructions that jump to this subroutine, I get an error message when running the bytecode, saying that the stack height is inconsistent. Perhaps using exceptions is the best way to get around this? From some googling I have found that you can create instances of Exception classes and initialise them with something like: new java/lang/Exception dup ldc "exception message!" invokespecial java/lang/Exception/<init>(Ljava/lang/String;)V I have also found that you can throw them with athrow and this seems ok. What is confusing me however is exactly how exceptions are caught. There seems to be a magical "Exception table" which glues the throwing and catching of exceptions together, but I do not know how to define one of these when writing bytecode from scratch (and assembling using Jasmin). Can somebody tell me the secret of creating an exception table? And possibly give me an example of exception handling that will assemble with jasmin?

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  • How to prevent parallel builds per build configuration across multiple Build Agents

    - by vanslly
    I have many build configurations in TeamCity, each servicing a large project. In the past if a build is kicked off the Build Agent could be busy for up to 20min! In order to improve throughput I installed a second Build Agent on the same machine such that if a build run is kicked off by say Build Agent 1 and it is busy for 20min and someone from another project makes a change then Build Agent 2 can do the build for the other project without needing to wait on the current build run to finish. All was well until two successive check-ins resulted in both Build Agents running a build for a single build configuration in parallel. Since some resources are shared, IIS directories & databases, I don't want a single build configuration to run on both Build Agents in parallel. How can I ensure a build isn't triggered if a build is currently running for that build configuration on a different build agent? One way seems to involve environmental variables and ensuring a 50/50 split by Build Agent in terms of build configuration compatibility, but that seems a little clunky.

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  • Help understanding linux/tcp.h

    - by Chris
    I'm learning to use raw sockets, and im trying to prase out the tcp header data, but i can't seem to figure out what res1, ece, and cwr are. Through my networking book and google i know what the rest stand for, but can't seem to find anything on those three. Below is the tcphdr struct in my includes area. Ive commented the parts a bit as i was figureing out what they stood for. struct tcphdr { __be16 source; __be16 dest; __be32 seq; __be32 ack_seq; #if defined(__LITTLE_ENDIAN_BITFIELD) _u16 res1:4, doff:4,//tcp header length fin:1,//final syn:1,//synchronization rst:1,//reset psh:1,//push ack:1,//ack urg:1,// urge ece:1, cwr:1; #elif defined(_BIG_ENDIAN_BITFIELD) __u16 doff:4,//tcp header length res1:4, cwr:1, ece:1, urg:1,//urge ack:1,//ack psh:1,//push rst:1,//reset syn:1,//synchronization fin:1;//final #else #error "Adjust your defines" #endif __be16 window; __sum16 check; __be16 urg_ptr; };

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  • ClassNotFoundException com.mysql.jdbc.Driver

    - by Dusk
    This question might have asked here number of times . After doing some google search for the above error and doing some update, I can't understand why I'm still getting that error. I've already put my driver-- mysql-connector-java-5.1.5-bin in the classpath: Java_Home\jre\lib\ Java_Home\jre\lib\ext\ Java_Home\lib and the code which I'm using to connect to mysql database is: try{ Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"); Connection con=DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/mail","root",""); Statement stmt = con.createStatement(); ResultSet rs = stmt.executeQuery("select message_body from deadletter"); String dbtime; while (rs.next()) { dbtime = rs.getString(1); System.out.println(dbtime); } con.close(); } catch (SQLException e) { System.out.println("Connection Failed! Check output console"); e.printStackTrace(); } } and the complete stacktrace of the above exception is: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.mysql.jdbc:Driver at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:307) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:320) at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:169) at mail.main(mail.java:114) Now, what's wrong I'm doing here?

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  • Using Javascript to expand DIVs and go to anchor text

    - by radiantjoy
    I apologize that this question is so similar to "How can you check for a #hash in a URL using JavaScript?" but would appreciate your help with the following. I would like to use Javascript to display text that is a) identified by an anchor. b) contained within 2 collapsed DIVs....ONLY WHEN the anchor is in the URL. Otherwise, the page should display with all DIVs collapsed. Something like this: if (theHashIsABC) { Expand 2 DIVs on the page and go to the anchor; } else { just display the page; } Specifics: 1. Using IE7 2. DIVs ids to be expanded '8589' and '6212' out of several DIVs on the page 3. Anchor name is anchorABC I have been told that it is not possible to expand some DIVs in IE7 so I am thinking I need to expand all DIVs on the page. [ I can expand just the 2 with a link within the page: <a class="jumplink" href="javascript:toggleBlock('6212');toggleBlock('8589')";link to expand DIVs</a> ] This is what I have so far (in head section)... if(window.location.hash = "anchorABC") { //this works with a button on the page that expand all divs function showAll(pstrClass) { var aElts = document.getElementsByTagName('div'); setDisplay(pstrClass, aElts, 'show', 'Block'); aElts = document.getElementsByTagName('span'); setDisplay(pstrClass, aElts, 'show', 'Inline'); //would also like the page to move to the anchor } else { // just display the page } In advance, thank you for your time.

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  • Lightweight alternative to Manual/AutoResetEvent in C#

    - by sweetlilmre
    Hi, I have written what I hope is a lightweight alternative to using the ManualResetEvent and AutoResetEvent classes in C#/.NET. The reasoning behind this was to have Event like functionality without the weight of using a kernel locking object. Although the code seems to work well in both testing and production, getting this kind of thing right for all possibilities can be a fraught undertaking and I would humbly request any constructive comments and or criticism from the StackOverflow crowd on this. Hopefully (after review) this will be useful to others. Usage should be similar to the Manual/AutoResetEvent classes with Notify() used for Set(). Here goes: using System; using System.Threading; public class Signal { private readonly object _lock = new object(); private readonly bool _autoResetSignal; private bool _notified; public Signal() : this(false, false) { } public Signal(bool initialState, bool autoReset) { _autoResetSignal = autoReset; _notified = initialState; } public virtual void Notify() { lock (_lock) { // first time? if (!_notified) { // set the flag _notified = true; // unblock a thread which is waiting on this signal Monitor.Pulse(_lock); } } } public void Wait() { Wait(Timeout.Infinite); } public virtual bool Wait(int milliseconds) { lock (_lock) { bool ret = true; // this check needs to be inside the lock otherwise you can get nailed // with a race condition where the notify thread sets the flag AFTER // the waiting thread has checked it and acquires the lock and does the // pulse before the Monitor.Wait below - when this happens the caller // will wait forever as he "just missed" the only pulse which is ever // going to happen if (!_notified) { ret = Monitor.Wait(_lock, milliseconds); } if (_autoResetSignal) { _notified = false; } return (ret); } } }

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  • Using a UITableViewController with a small-sized table?

    - by rpj
    When using a UITableViewController, the initWithStyle: method automatically creates the underlying UITableView with - according to the documentation - "the correct dimensions". My problem is that these "correct dimensions" seem 320x460 (the iPhone's screen size), but I'm pushing this TableView/Controller pair into a UINavigationController which is itself contained in a UIView, which itself is about half the height of the screen. No frame or bounds wrangling I can come up with seems to correctly reset the table's size, and as such it's "too long", meaning there are a collection of rows that are pushed off the bottom of the screen and are not visible nor reachable by scrolling. So my question comes down to: what is the proper way to tell a UITableViewController to resize its component UITableView to a specified rectangle? Thanks! Update I've tried all the techniques suggested here to no avail, but I did find one interesting thing: if I eschew the UINavigationController altogether (which I'm not yet willing to do for production, but as an experiment), and add the table view as a direct subview of the enclosing view I mentioned, the frame size given is respected. The very moment I re-introduce the UINavigationController into the mix, no matter if it is added as a subview before or after the table view, and no matter if alloc/init it before or after the table view is added as a subview, the result is the same as it was before. I'm beginning to suspect UINavigationController isn't much of a team player... Update 2 The suggestion to check frame size after the table view on screen was a good one: turns out that the navigation controller is in fact resizing it some time in between load and display. My solution, hacky at best, has been to cache the frame given on load and to reset it if changed at the beginning of tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath:. Why there you ask? Because it's the one place I found that worked, that's why! I don't consider this a solution as it's obviously improper, but for the benefit of anyone else reading, it does seem to work.

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  • Missing files on branch after cvs2svn import

    - by cafebabe
    A colleague has imported a CVS repository into a pre-existing SVN repository using a cvs2svn dumpfile (like "svnadmin load --parent-dir /path < dumpfile") , which I originally created from the CVS repo. Now that I'm trying to checkout and build from SVN, I've noticed that some files seem to be missing in the SVN checkout that were present when I checked out the same branch from CVS, although the majority are present. They are mostly but not exclusively binary files (jars and gifs etc.) and I think (though I haven't checked exhaustively) that they are also files that have not been modified on the branch that I'm trying to check out. I should also point out that they don't show up using cvsweb (I would provide a link to the cvsweb documentation but I have no way of knowing its version etc), although they do appear doing a standard checkout of the branch. If anyone has any idea what's wrong here, or where to start looking to address this, I'd be very grateful! New to SVN so not sure if this is normal! Also, I know I could fairly easily "fix" it by copying over the files but I'd ideally like to keep their revision history so a more complete solution would be preferable. Thanks!

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  • Custom view transition in OpenGL ES

    - by melfar
    I'm trying to create a custom transition, to serve as a replacement for a default transition you would get here, for example: [self.navigationController pushViewController:someController animated:YES]; I have prepared an OpenGL-based view that performs an effect on some static texture mapped to a plane (let's say it's a copy of the flip effect in Core Animation). What I don't know how to do is: grab current view content and make a texture out of it (I remember seeing a function that does just that, but can't find it) how to do the same for the view that is currently offscreen and is going to replace current view are there some APIs I can hook to in order to make my transition class as native as possible (make it a kind of Core Animation effect)? Any thoughts or links are greatly appreciated! UPDATE Jeffrey Forbes's answer works great as a solution to capture the content of a view. What I haven't figured out yet is how to capture the content of the view I want to transition to, which should be invisible until the transition is done. Also, which method should I use to present the OpenGL view? For demonstration purposes I used pushViewController. That affects the navbar, though, which I actually want to go one item back, with animation, check this vid for explanation: http://vimeo.com/4649397. Another option would be to go with presentViewController, but that shows fullscreen. Do you think maybe creating another window (or view?) could be useful?

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  • Where does IE store the ASP.NET_SessionId cookie?

    - by scherand
    I am a bit baffled here; using IE7, ASP.NET 2.0 and Cassini (the VS built-in web server; although the same thing seems to be true for "real" applications deployed in IIS) I am looking for the session-id-cookie. My test page shows a session id (by printing out Session.SessionId) and Response.Cookies.Keys contains ASP.NET_SessionId. So far so good. But I cannot find the cookie in IEs cookie-store! Nor does "remove all cookies" reset the session (as it does in FF)... So where - I am tempted to write that four letter word - does IE store that bloody cookie? Or am I missing something? By the way there is no hidden field with a session id either, as far as I can see. If I check in FF there is a cookie called ASP.NET_SessionId as I would expect. And as mentioned above deleting that cookie does start a new session; as I would expect. Can anybody imagine what is happening here?

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  • Can't install do_mysql gem?

    - by maccy1
    I'm trying to install the do_mysql on my Snow Leopord system Macbook Pro 13", but I keep getting this error: n216-160:~ myself$ sudo gem1.9 install do_mysql Password: Building native extensions. This could take a while... ERROR: Error installing do_mysql: ERROR: Failed to build gem native extension. /opt/local/bin/ruby1.9 extconf.rb checking for mysql_query() in -lmysqlclient... no *** extconf.rb failed *** Could not create Makefile due to some reason, probably lack of necessary libraries and/or headers. Check the mkmf.log file for more details. You may need configuration options. Provided configuration options: --with-opt-dir --without-opt-dir --with-opt-include --without-opt-include=${opt-dir}/include --with-opt-lib --without-opt-lib=${opt-dir}/lib --with-make-prog --without-make-prog --srcdir=. --curdir --ruby=/opt/local/bin/ruby1.9 --with-mysql-config --without-mysql-config --with-mysql-dir --without-mysql-dir --with-mysql-include --without-mysql-include=${mysql-dir}/include --with-mysql-lib --without-mysql-lib=${mysql-dir}/lib --with-mysqlclientlib --without-mysqlclientlib Gem files will remain installed in /opt/local/lib/ruby1.9/gems/1.9.1/gems/do_mysql-0.10.0 for inspection. Results logged to /opt/local/lib/ruby1.9/gems/1.9.1/gems/do_mysql-0.10.0/ext/do_mysql_ext/gem_make.out n216-160:~ myself$ I have no idea why. I also reinstalled my verison of MySQL with the MySQL 5.4.3 beta, 64-bit as others suggested but no dice. Does anyone have any idea what is wrong?

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  • How can I validate/secure/authenticate a JavaScript-based POST request?

    - by Bungle
    A product I'm helping to develop will basically work like this: A Web publisher creates a new page on their site that includes a <script> from our server. When a visitor reaches that new page, that <script> gathers the text content of the page and sends it to our server via a POST request (cross-domain, using a <form> inside of an <iframe>). Our server processes the text content and returns a response (via JSONP) that includes an HTML fragment listing links to related content around the Web. This response is cached and served to subsequent visitors until we receive another POST request with text content from the same URL, at which point we regenerate a "fresh" response. These POSTs only happen when our cached TTL expires, at which point the server signifies that and prompts the <script> on the page to gather and POST the text content again. The problem is that this system seems inherently insecure. In theory, anyone could spoof the HTTP POST request (including the referer header, so we couldn't just check for that) that sends a page's content to our server. This could include any text content, which we would then use to generate the related content links for that page. The primary difficulty in making this secure is that our JavaScript is publicly visible. We can't use any kind of private key or other cryptic identifier or pattern because that won't be secret. Ideally, we need a method that somehow verifies that a POST request corresponding to a particular Web page is authentic. We can't just scrape the Web page and compare the content with what's been POSTed, since the purpose of having JavaScript submit the content is that it may be behind a login system. Any ideas? I hope I've explained the problem well enough. Thanks in advance for any suggestions.

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