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  • oracle sequence init

    - by gospodin
    I wanted to export 3 tables from db1 into db2. Before the export starts, I will create the sequences for those 3 tables. CREATE SEQUENCE TEST_SEQ START WITH 1 INCREMENT BY 1; After the export, I will reinitialize sequnce values to match the max(id) + 1 from the table. CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE "TEST_SEQUENCE" AUTHID CURRENT_USER is v_num number; begin select max(ID) into v_num from TABLE_1; EXECUTE IMMEDIATE 'ALTER SEQUENCE TEST_SEQ INCREMENT BY ' || v_num; EXECUTE IMMEDIATE 'ALTER SEQUENCE 1TEST_SEQ INCREMENT BY 1'; end; / show errors; execute TEST_SEQ; This procedure compiles and executes without problems. But when I want to check t he last value of the sequence, like select TEST_SEQ.nextval from dual; I still get the "1". Can someone tell me why my procedure did not impact my sequence? ps. I am using oracle sql developper to pass sql. Thanks

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  • How to prevent parallel builds per build configuration across multiple Build Agents

    - by vanslly
    I have many build configurations in TeamCity, each servicing a large project. In the past if a build is kicked off the Build Agent could be busy for up to 20min! In order to improve throughput I installed a second Build Agent on the same machine such that if a build run is kicked off by say Build Agent 1 and it is busy for 20min and someone from another project makes a change then Build Agent 2 can do the build for the other project without needing to wait on the current build run to finish. All was well until two successive check-ins resulted in both Build Agents running a build for a single build configuration in parallel. Since some resources are shared, IIS directories & databases, I don't want a single build configuration to run on both Build Agents in parallel. How can I ensure a build isn't triggered if a build is currently running for that build configuration on a different build agent? One way seems to involve environmental variables and ensuring a 50/50 split by Build Agent in terms of build configuration compatibility, but that seems a little clunky.

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  • Is there a Post-Build Extensible Installer System

    - by Will Hughes
    We have a product that we need to create an installer for. It has a number of components which can be installed or not as the situation demands. When we ship our installation package, we want to be able to have that include any number of additional components to be installed. For example, Foo Manager Pro contains: Foo Manager Console Foo Manager Database Foo Manager Services That might be shipped as something like: FooManagerInstaller.exe FMPConsole.pkg FMPDatabase.pkg FMPServices.pkg A package might consist of something like: Manifest Files to be deployed Additional scripts to be executed (eg find file foo.config, do some XML Manipulation) If a client wants to add custom skins and a series of plugins as part of the install, they create their own packages: FMPConsoleSkins.pkg ClientWebservices.pkg If that client then ships it to someone else who wants to add more customisation - they can do so in the same way. We can build this from scratch - but wanted to check if this sort of install system already exists. We already have a set of NAnt scripts which do something not too far from this. But they're difficult to maintain, and quite complex. They don't offer any of the 'niceties' that we'd expect from an installer (like tracking deployed files and removing them if the install fails). We've been looking a little bit at NSIS and building MSIs using WiX, but it's not clear that these can offer us the capability for downstream to provide additional packages, without inventing our own installer language.

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  • How do I load an XML document, add and remove nodes, then apply it to a ASP DataGrid control?

    - by JFOX
    I have a pretty simple operation but am struggling with how to implement it. I am loading XML from an external data source using a DataSet.ReadXml(), the creating a new XMLDataDocument from that data set, then syncing the Dataset back to the XMLDataDocument like so: doc = new XmlDataDocument(dsDataSet); dsDataSet.EnforceConstraints = false; dsDataSet= doc.DataSet; Once loaded I do two things to the XmlDataDocument: Loop through and check if a purely meta node, count, exists right beneath the root node and if so remove it. a thumb node exists in a second level nodelist and if not, create and append it. This is all going a expected because the result of doc.save() looks correct. Where I'm having an issue is updating the Dataset, which is being applied as the data source for an ASP DataGrid. Once all the above XMLDoc manipaulation is done I do this: dsDataSet.Merge(doc.DataSet); dsDataSet.AcceptChanges(); I then apply the data set to the grid control: dgList.DataSource = dsDataSet; dgList.DataBind(); But, when I do this I get this error on the site: System.Web.HttpException: DataBinding: 'System.Data.DataRowView' does not contain a property with the name 'thumb'. What did I miss?

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  • Best practice - When to evaluate conditionals of function execution

    - by Tesserex
    If I have a function called from a few places, and it requires some condition to be met for anything it does to execute, where should that condition be checked? In my case, it's for drawing - if the mouse button is held down, then execute the drawing logic (this is being done in the mouse movement handler for when you drag.) Option one says put it in the function so that it's guaranteed to be checked. Abstracted, if you will. public function Foo() { DoThing(); } private function DoThing() { if (!condition) return; // do stuff } The problem I have with this is that when reading the code of Foo, which may be far away from DoThing, it looks like a bug. The first thought is that the condition isn't being checked. Option two, then, is to check before calling. public function Foo() { if (condition) DoThing(); } This reads better, but now you have to worry about checking from everywhere you call it. Option three is to rename the function to be more descriptive. public function Foo() { DoThingOnlyIfCondition(); } private function DoThingOnlyIfCondition() { if (!condition) return; // do stuff } Is this the "correct" solution? Or is this going a bit too far? I feel like if everything were like this function names would start to duplicate their code. About this being subjective: of course it is, and there may not be a right answer, but I think it's still perfectly at home here. Getting advice from better programmers than I is the second best way to learn. Subjective questions are exactly the kind of thing Google can't answer.

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  • ASP.net file operations delay

    - by mtranda
    Ok, so here's the problem: I'm reading the stream from a FileUpload control, reading in chunks of n bytes and writing the array in a loop until I reach the stream's end. Now the reason I do this is because I need to check several things while the upload is still going on (rather than doing a Save(); which does the whole thing in one go). Here's the problem: when doing this from the local machine, I can see the file just fine as it's uploading and its size increases (had to add a Sleep(); clause in the loop to actually get to see the file being written). However, when I upload the file from a remote machine, I don't get to see it until the the file has completed uploading. Also, I've added another call to write the progress to a text file as the progress is going on, and I get the same thing. Local: the file updates as the upload goes on, remote: the token file only appears after the upload's done (which is somewhat useless since I need it while the upload's still happening). Is there some sort of security setting in (or ASP.net) that maybe saves files in a temporary location for remote machines as opposed to the local machine and then moves them to the specified destination? I would liken this with ASP.net displaying error messages when browsing from the local machine (even on the public hostname) as opposed to the generic compilation error page/generic exception page that is shown when browsing from a remote machine (and customErrors are not off) Any clues on this? Thanks in advance.

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  • Splitting EJBs and interfaces into separate module -- deployment fails

    - by Hank
    I'm having trouble following this guide to "extract" my interfaces and entities from my EAR to use them from another Web Application: I use NetBeans 6.8 and Glassfish 3.0.1 "Java Class Library" project contains all the entities and interfaces "Java EE Application" project class library added to the project, is packaged into the EAR contains EJB implementations, MDBs, Test "Java Web Application" project class library added to the project, is packaged into the WAR contains REST interface When I build and deploy the Web Application, all goes well. When I build the JEE application, I can see the jar-file (interfaces, entities) being included. But when I try to deploy the EAR, Glassfish refuses it with a java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError error: [#|2010-03-28T18:25:59.875+0200|WARNING|glassfishv3.0|javax.enterprise.system.tools.deployment.org.glassfish.deployment.common|_ThreadID=28;_ThreadName=Thread-1;|Error in annotation processing: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: mvs/core/StoreServiceLocal|#] [#|2010-03-28T18:25:59.876+0200|SEVERE|glassfishv3.0|javax.enterprise.system.core.com.sun.enterprise.v3.server|_ThreadID=28;_ThreadName=Thread-1;|Exception while deploying the app java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Invalid ejb jar [CoreServer]: it contains zero ejb. Note: 1. A valid ejb jar requires at least one session, entity (1.x/2.x style), or message-driven bean. 2. EJB3+ entity beans (@Entity) are POJOs and please package them as library jar. 3. If the jar file contains valid EJBs which are annotated with EJB component level annotations (@Stateless, @Stateful, @MessageDriven, @Singleton), please check server.log to see whether the annotations were processed properly. 'mvs/core/StoreServiceLocal' is an interface which is defined in the library jar file. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Website often sticks, but clicking the link again everything loads fine

    - by Dave
    Hi I have a website, which normally is very fast, however in the last week or two we're run into a problem whereby randomly if you click a link the browser will just sit there with the throbber spinning but the page doesn't appear to load If you click the link again it then responds straight away This doesn't seem to be limited to Chrome, Firefox or IE as we've tried all with all having same problems The site is build in ASP and connects to a MySQL database and runs on a dedicated windows 2003 server The firewalls were changed in the data centre recently to pixies but I've not been able to reproduce the problem outside of the office Within the office, we have 11 people (only 7 today and still experiencing problems) connected to a 7MB ADSL connection with Eclipse I have made some changes to the network in the office, namely wiring 4 desks back to the main 24 port switch rather than to small 5 port which then linked on to the 24 port switch... however we were having problems before this was done, and I did this to try and rule out an issue with the switch We have a backup ADSL connection, so I may try switching to that, or switching to a different router, but do you think this is a likely issue? Failing that, what else would you check? Thanks, sorry for length! Dave

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  • How to validate presence of an uploaded file in rails?

    - by brad
    I'm playing around creating a rails file uploader and have struck a problem that should have an obvious solution. How do I check that a file has been selected in my form and uploaded? Here is my new.html.erb view <h2>Upload File</h2> <% form_for(@upload_file, :url => {:action => 'save'}, :html => {:multipart => true}) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> <%= f.label :file -%> <%= f.file_field :upload -%> </p> <p> <%= f.label :description %> <%= f.text_field :description %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :file_type %> <%= f.select :file_type, ["XML Data"] %> </p> <p><%= f.submit 'Upload File' %></p> <% end %> and here is my upload_file.rb model class UploadFile < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :description validates_presence_of :file_type validates_presence_of :upload def upload=(upload_file_field) self.name = "#{Time.now.strftime("%Y%m%d%H%M%S")}_#{upload_file_field.original_filename}" File.open("#{RAILS_ROOT}/public/upload/#{self.name}", "wb") { |f| f.write(upload_file_field.read) } end end If I use this as shown here, the validation validates_presence_of :upload always fails and I am returned to my form with an error message. I'd be very grateful if someone could explain how to do this validation correctly, and I'd be even more grateful if they could explain why it works. Thanks.

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  • Compressibility Example

    - by user285726
    From my algorithms textbook: The annual county horse race is bringing in three thoroughbreds who have never competed against one another. Excited, you study their past 200 races and summarize these as prob- ability distributions over four outcomes: first (“first place”), second, third, and other. Outcome Aurora Whirlwind Phantasm 0.15 0.30 0.20 first 0.10 0.05 0.30 second 0.70 0.25 0.30 third 0.05 0.40 0.20 other Which horse is the most predictable? One quantitative approach to this question is to look at compressibility. Write down the history of each horse as a string of 200 values (first, second, third, other). The total number of bits needed to encode these track- record strings can then be computed using Huffman’s algorithm. This works out to 290 bits for Aurora, 380 for Whirlwind, and 420 for Phantasm (check it!). Aurora has the shortest encoding and is therefore in a strong sense the most predictable. How did they get 420 for Phantasm? I keep getting 400 bytes, as so: Combine first, other = 0.4, combine second, third = 0.6. End up with 2 bits encoding each position. Is there something I've misunderstood about the Huffman encoding algorithm? Textbook available here: http://www.cs.berkeley.edu/~vazirani/algorithms.html (page 156).

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  • jQuery validation plugin - removing elements

    - by d3020
    I'm using the jQuery validation plugin. On most of my input type... tags I have class='required'. When I submit the page, via JavaScript, the controls on the page that have this class are found. However, there are a handful of checkboxes that I don't need to validate. I've tried removing the class code completely from the input tag, also tried class='cancel', and class='required:false. When doing any of those things though when the form submits it can't find the checkbox control. How do I still keep the ability to do Request.Form and find my checkbox object but at the same time when the form submits don't apply validation to this particular control. Thank you. Edit here. This is what I'm using without the "checked" code and ternary operator. In my input tag I'm calling a function like this... sb.Append(" " + crlf); Inside that function is where I check for the True or False coming back, like this. case "chkFlashedCarton": strResultValue = pst.FlashedCarton.ToString(); if (strResultValue == "True") { strResultValue = " checked"; } break; strResultValue is what is returned back. Does this help to see? Thank you.

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  • Jackrabbit version delete -- name is unexpected

    - by Scudworth
    I'm using Apache Jackrabbit to store versioned data. I'm following the template listed on the Jackrabbit wiki for versioning basics, but there's one thing that isn't working as expected. After I run the code from the wiki, I try saving another version of the node, then getting its version string: child = parentNode.getNode("childNode"); child.checkout(); child.setProperty("anyProperty", "Blah3"); session.save(); Version thisVersion = child.checkin(); System.out.println(thisVersion.getName()); The output of this code is 1.0.0 , when I want it to be 1.1 . My goal is to be able to remove the last -- and only the last -- version of a node, and have the next version have the same name as the removed version. I only care about doing this when the node is being added; if I can check in the node, and read the name (to get the version number) without an exception being thrown, I'm fine with not being able to remove the version. Looking around the internet, I can't find a way to accomplish this.

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  • dynamically created controls and responding to control events

    - by Dirk
    I'm working on an ASP.NET project in which the vast majority of the forms are generated dynamically at run time (form definitions are stored in a DB for customizability). Therefore, I have to dynamically create and add my controls to the Page every time OnLoad fires, regardless of IsPostBack. This has been working just fine and .NET takes care of managing ViewState for these controls. protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.OnLoad(e); RenderDynamicControls() } private void RenderDynamicControls(){ //1. call service layer to retrieve form definition //2. create and add controls to page container } I have a new requirement in which if a user clicks on a given button (this button is created at design time) the page should be re-rendered in a slightly different way. So in addition to the code that executes in OnLoad (i.e. RenderDynamicControls()), I have this code: protected void MyButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() } private void RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() (){ //1. clear all controls from the page container added in RenderDynamicControls() //2. call service layer to retrieve form definition //3. create and add controls to page container } My question is, is this really the only way to accomplish what I'm after? It seems beyond hacky to effectively render the form twice simply to respond to a button click. I gather from my research that this is simply how the page-lifecycle works in ASP.NET: Namely, that OnLoad must fire on every Postback before child events are invoked. Still, it's worthwhile to check with the SO community before having to drink the kool-aid. On a related note, once I get this feature completed, I'm planning on throwing an UpdatePanel on the page to perform the page updates via Ajax. Any code/advice that make that transition easier would be much appreciated. Thanks

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  • SecurityManager StackOverflowError

    - by Tom Brito
    Running the following code, I get a StackOverflowError at the getPackage() line. How can I grant permission just to classes inside package I want, if I can't access the getPackage() to check the package? package myPkg.security; import java.security.Permission; import javax.swing.JOptionPane; public class SimpleSecurityManager extends SecurityManager { @Override public void checkPermission(Permission perm) { Class<?>[] contextArray = getClassContext(); for (Class<?> c : contextArray) { checkPermission(perm, c); } } @Override public void checkPermission(Permission perm, Object context) { if (context instanceof Class) { Class clazz = (Class) context; Package pkg = clazz.getPackage(); // StackOverflowError String name = pkg.getName(); if (name.startsWith("java.")) { // permission granted return; } if (name.startsWith("sun.")) { // permission granted return; } if (name.startsWith("myPkg.")) { // permission granted return; } } // permission denied throw new SecurityException("Permission denied for " + context); } public static void main(String[] args) { System.setSecurityManager(new SimpleSecurityManager()); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null, "test"); } }

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  • Using a UITableViewController with a small-sized table?

    - by rpj
    When using a UITableViewController, the initWithStyle: method automatically creates the underlying UITableView with - according to the documentation - "the correct dimensions". My problem is that these "correct dimensions" seem 320x460 (the iPhone's screen size), but I'm pushing this TableView/Controller pair into a UINavigationController which is itself contained in a UIView, which itself is about half the height of the screen. No frame or bounds wrangling I can come up with seems to correctly reset the table's size, and as such it's "too long", meaning there are a collection of rows that are pushed off the bottom of the screen and are not visible nor reachable by scrolling. So my question comes down to: what is the proper way to tell a UITableViewController to resize its component UITableView to a specified rectangle? Thanks! Update I've tried all the techniques suggested here to no avail, but I did find one interesting thing: if I eschew the UINavigationController altogether (which I'm not yet willing to do for production, but as an experiment), and add the table view as a direct subview of the enclosing view I mentioned, the frame size given is respected. The very moment I re-introduce the UINavigationController into the mix, no matter if it is added as a subview before or after the table view, and no matter if alloc/init it before or after the table view is added as a subview, the result is the same as it was before. I'm beginning to suspect UINavigationController isn't much of a team player... Update 2 The suggestion to check frame size after the table view on screen was a good one: turns out that the navigation controller is in fact resizing it some time in between load and display. My solution, hacky at best, has been to cache the frame given on load and to reset it if changed at the beginning of tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath:. Why there you ask? Because it's the one place I found that worked, that's why! I don't consider this a solution as it's obviously improper, but for the benefit of anyone else reading, it does seem to work.

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  • Validate domain against LDAP?

    - by lucian.jp
    I have a procedure to get the name of the logged user show on the site. I get it this way : var winIdentity = (WindowsIdentity) HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; if (winIdentity != null) { string domainUser = winIdentity.Name.Replace(@"\", "/"); string domain = winIdentity.Name.Split('\\')[0]; string user = winIdentity.Name.Split('\\')[1]; var myDe = new DirectoryEntry(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["LDAP"].ConnectionString, ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["LDAPCredentials"].Split(';')[0], ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["LDAPCredentials"].Split(';')[1]); var deSearcher = new DirectorySearcher(myDe) {Filter = "(&(sAMAccountName=" + user + "))"}; SearchResult result = deSearcher.FindOne(); if (result != null) { DirectoryEntry userDe = result.GetDirectoryEntry(); lblNameAD.Text = string.Format(lblNameAD.Text, userDe.Properties["givenName"].Value, userDe.Properties["sn"].Value); } else { var adEntry = new DirectoryEntry("WinNT://" + domainUser); string fullname = adEntry.Properties["FullName"].Value.ToString(); lblNameAD.Text = string.Format(lblNameAD.Text, !string.IsNullOrEmpty(fullname) ? fullname : user, null); } } Probleme id that if I have a local useraccount with the same username that one from LDAP, it passes the check and return the name. EX: local\MyUser domain\MyUser Both return the name from AD even if the one from local isn't a domain account. It would be perfect if I could search in LDAP for domainuser, but it seems I can't. I also tried to restrict the DC with the DirectorySearcher but the domain name is "domain", but I only have "dc=dom" and "dc=com" and no DC for full domain name.

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  • sending email in php unable to use HTML tags

    - by JPro
    I am trying to send an email through the result sets generated in MySQL in PHP This is the code. <?php $txtMsg = '<table><th>Name</th>'; $txtMsg = ''; mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "pop") or die(mysql_error()); mysql_select_db("jpd") or die(mysql_error()); $oustanding = mysql_query("select Name from results") or die(mysql_error()); $num=mysql_num_rows($oustanding); while($row1 = mysql_fetch_array( $oustanding )) { ?> <tr> <td><h3><?php echo $row1['Name']; ?></h3></td> </tr> <?php $txtMsg .= "<tr><td>".$row1['Name']."</td></tr>"; } ini_set ( "SMTP", "xy.domain.com" ); $mail_to= '[email protected]'; $mail_from='[email protected]'; $mail_sub='OutStanding Results'; $mail_mesg=$txtMsg; //Check for success/failure of delivery if(mail($mail_to,$mail_sub,$mail_mesg,"From: $mail_from")) echo "<br><br>Email Successfully Sent!"; else echo "<br><br>Error Sending Email!"; } ?> The problem is , I want the results to be displayed in table format. But instead of processing the html tags, they are getting printed as well. How to get the email with table format? Thanks.

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  • Simply if Statement for checking co-ordinate square.

    - by JonB
    I have an UIImageView and taking the raw touch input. I need to check if a touch is within a certain set of squares. At the moment... I have this if statement.... if(46 < touchedAt.x && touchedAt.x < 124 && 18 < touchedAt.y && touchedAt.y < 75) but I have tried to simplify it to this one... if(46 < touchedAt.x < 124 && 18 < touchedAt.y < 75) It didn't work. Is it possible to simplify like this or am I stuck with the slightly lengthier version at the top? Is there a reason why the types of comparisons in the bottom if don't work? Many Thanks.

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  • Error handling in PHP

    - by Industrial
    Hi guys, We're building a PHP app based on Good old MVC (codeigniter framework) and have run into trouble with a massive chained action that consists of multiple model calls, that together is a part of a big transaction to the database. We want to be able to do a list of actions and get a status report of each one back from the function, whatever the outcome is. Our first initial idea was to utilize the exceptions of PHP5, but since we want to also need status messages that doesnt break the execution of the script, this was our solution that we came up with. It goes a little something like this: $sku = $this->addSku( $name ); if ($sku === false) { $status[] = 'Something gone terrible wrong'; $this->db->trans_rollback(); return $status; } $image= $this->addImage( $filename); if ($image=== false) { $error[] = 'Image could not be uploaded, check filesize'; $this->db->trans_rollback(); return $status; } Our controller looks like this: $var = $this->products->addProductGroup($array); if (is_array($var)) { foreach ($var as $error) { echo $error . '<br />'; } } It appears to be a very fragile solution to do what we need, but it's neither scalable, neither effective when compared to pure PHP exceptions for instance. Is this really the way that this kind of stuff generally is handled in MVC based apps? Thanks!

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  • Using bitwise operators on > 32 bit integers

    - by dqhendricks
    I am using bitwise operations in order to represent many access control flags within one integer. ADMIN_ACCESS = 1; EDIT_ACCOUNT_ACCESS = 2; EDIT_ORDER_ACCESS = 4; var myAccess = 3; // ie: ( ADMIN_ACCESS | EDIT_ACCOUNT_ACCESS ) if ( myAccess & EDIT_ACCOUNT_ACCESS ) { // check for correct access // allow for editing of account } Most of this is occurring on the PHP side of my project. There is one piece however where Javascript is used to join several access flags using | when saving someone's access level. This works fine to a point. I have found that once an integer (flag) gets too large ( 32bit), it no longer works correctly with bitwise operators in Javascript. For instance: alert( 4294967296 | 1 ); // equals 1, but should equal 4294967297 I am trying to find a workaround for this so that I do not have to limit my number of access control flags to 32. Each access control flag is two times the previous control flag so that each control flag will not interfere with other control flags. dec(4) = bin(100) dec(8) = bin(1000) dec(16) = bin(10000) I have noticed that when adding two of these flags together with a simple +, it seems to come out with the same answer as a bitwise or operation, but am having trouble wrapping my head around whether this is a simple substitution, or if there might be problems with doing this. Can anyone comment on the validity of this workaround? Example: (4294967296 | 262144 | 524288) == (4294967296 + 262144 + 524288)

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  • XML problem in the basic menu example

    - by arakn0
    Hi there, I am trying to create an app with some menus, an I am following the basic example available in the official android site: http://developer.android.com/guide/topics/ui/menus.html My problems appear when I define the menu in the XML. After creating the folder res/menu and creating the menu_option.xml file from eclipse.... The project (in general) gives an error that can be read from the Problems tab: Unparsed aapt error(s)! Check the console for output Android Packaging Problem So, changing to the Console tab to get more information about the problem, this can be read: [2010-06-02 11:35:54 - TestAudio] Error in an XML file: aborting build. [2010-06-02 11:35:54 - TestAudio] W/ResourceType(11566): Bad XML block: header size 63327 or total size -144759824 is larger than data size 0 [2010-06-02 11:35:54 - TestAudio] /home/User/workspace/TestAudio/res/menu/options_menu.xml:1: error: Error parsing XML: no element found The strange thing is that eclipse recognizes the menu items that I've defined in the XML,I can reference them in the code with no problems and my main activity builds. (and the rest of the files too). Could it be that when eclipse creates a file, for some reason, the Android SDK has problems to read it, or something similar?? The XML code is exactly the same as the one in the example, so I don't really know what is happening. The code in options_menu.xml is this: <menu xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" <item android:id="@+id/new_game" android:title="New Game" / <item android:id="@+id/quit" android:title="Quit" / </menu Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • Best support now on windows: Mercurial or Git?

    - by mamcx
    I want to change my current subversion setup to Mercurial or Git. I read about the two and I have a conflicted view about how well they work on windows. Alot of pages say Git is sub-par on windows, slow and badly integrated. And almost everyone say Mercurial is better. But some say Git now is better and Mercurial is behind. I check the screenshots of TortoiseHG and TortoiseGIT and the mercurial one look "worse"... but maybe is just crappy screenshots? I read about the two, prefer the command-line interface of Mercurial, but seriously, I don't pretend to touch the command line. And if one of the two is a real improvenment to SVN, I don't have to do that (In SVN is necesary go to the metal because something need fix). In SVN I have issues when commit or get code made on OSX (I code on Windows, OSX, Solaris. Mainly windows). So I hope don't get that issues again (I mean, failure to commit to the repo). I have a small repository, doing solo.

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  • Is there an MVVM-friendly way to swap views without value converters firing unnecessarily?

    - by DanM
    I thought what I was doing was right out of the Josh Smith MVVM handbook, but I seem to be having a lot of problems with value converters firing when no data in the view-model has changed. So, I have a ContentControl defined in XAML like this: <ContentControl Grid.Row="0" Content="{Binding CurrentViewModel}" /> The Window containing this ContentControl references a resource dictionary that looks something like this: <ResourceDictionary ...> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type lib_vm:SetupPanelViewModel}"> <lib_v:SetupPanel /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type lib_vm:InstructionsPanelViewModel}"> <lib_v:InstructionsPanel /> </DataTemplate> </ResourceDictionary> So, basically, the two data templates specify which view to show with which view-model. This switches the views as expected whenever the CurrentViewModel property on my window's view-model changes, but it also seems to cause value converters on the views to fire even when no data has changed. It's a particular problem with IMultiValueConverter classes, because the values in the value array get set to DependencyProperty.UnsetValue, which causes exceptions unless I specifically check for that. But I'm getting other weird side effects too. This has me wondering if I shouldn't just do everything manually, like this: Instantiate each view. Set the DataContext of each view to the appropriate view-model. Give the ContentControl a name and make it public. Handle the PropertyChanged event for the window. In the event handler, manually set the Content property of the ContentControl to the appropriate view, based the CurrentViewModel (using if statements). This seems to work, but it also seems very inelegant. I'm hoping there's a better way. Could you please advise me the best way to handle view switching so that value converters don't fire unnecessarily?

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  • How do I stop ValueConverters from firing when swapping the content of a ContentControl

    - by DanM
    I thought what I was doing was right out of the Josh Smith MVVM handbook, but I seem to be having a lot of problems with value converters firing when no data in the view-model has changed. So, I have a ContentControl defined in XAML like this: <ContentControl Grid.Row="0" Content="{Binding CurrentViewModel}" /> The Window containing this ContentControl references a resource dictionary that looks something like this: <ResourceDictionary ...> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type lib_vm:SetupPanelViewModel}"> <lib_v:SetupPanel /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type lib_vm:InstructionsPanelViewModel}"> <lib_v:InstructionsPanel /> </DataTemplate> </ResourceDictionary> So, basically, the two data templates specify which view to show with which view-model. This switches the views as expected whenever the CurrentViewModel property on my window's view-model changes, but it also seems to cause value converters on the views to fire even when no data has changed. It's a particular problem with IMultiValueConverter classes, because the values in the value array get set to DependencyProperty.UnsetValue, which causes exceptions unless I specifically check for that. But I'm getting other weird side effects too. This has me wondering if I shouldn't just do everything manually, like this: Instantiate each view. Set the DataContext of each view to the appropriate view-model. Give the ContentControl a name and make it public. Handle the PropertyChanged event for the window. In the event handler, manually set the Content property of the ContentControl to the appropriate view, based the CurrentViewModel (using if statements). This seems to work, but it also seems very inelegant. I'm hoping there's a better way. Could you please advise me the best way to handle view switching so that value converters don't fire unnecessarily?

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  • Python Regular Expressions: Capture lookahead value (capturing text without consuming it)

    - by Lattyware
    I wish to use regular expressions to split words into groups of (vowels, not_vowels, more_vowels), using a marker to ensure every word begins and ends with a vowel. import re MARKER = "~" VOWELS = {"a", "e", "i", "o", "u", MARKER} word = "dog" if word[0] not in VOWELS: word = MARKER+word if word[-1] not in VOWELS: word += MARKER re.findall("([%]+)([^%]+)([%]+)".replace("%", "".join(VOWELS)), word) In this example we get: [('~', 'd', 'o')] The issue is that I wish the matches to overlap - the last set of vowels should become the first set of the next match. This appears possible with lookaheads, if we replace the regex as follows: re.findall("([%]+)([^%]+)(?=[%]+)".replace("%", "".join(VOWELS)), word) We get: [('~', 'd'), ('o', 'g')] Which means we are matching what I want. However, it now doesn't return the last set of vowels. The output I want is: [('~', 'd', 'o'), ('o', 'g', '~')] I feel this should be possible (if the regex can check for the second set of vowels, I see no reason it can't return them), but I can't find any way of doing it beyond the brute force method, looping through the results after I have them and appending the first character of the next match to the last match, and the last character of the string to the last match. Is there a better way in which I can do this? The two things that would work would be capturing the lookahead value, or not consuming the text on a match, while capturing the value - I can't find any way of doing either.

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