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• C# Begin/EndReceive - how do I read large data?

  - by ryeguy

  When reading data in chunks of say, 1024, how do I continue to read from a socket that receives a message bigger than 1024 bytes until there is no data left? Should I just use BeginReceive to read a packet's length prefix only, and then once that is retrieved, use Receive() (in the async thread) to read the rest of the packet? Or is there another way? edit: I thought Jon Skeet's link had the solution, but there is a bit of a speedbump with that code. The code I used is: public class StateObject { public Socket workSocket = null; public const int BUFFER_SIZE = 1024; public byte[] buffer = new byte[BUFFER_SIZE]; public StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); } public static void Read_Callback(IAsyncResult ar) { StateObject so = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket s = so.workSocket; int read = s.EndReceive(ar); if (read > 0) { so.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(so.buffer, 0, read)); if (read == StateObject.BUFFER_SIZE) { s.BeginReceive(so.buffer, 0, StateObject.BUFFER_SIZE, 0, new AyncCallback(Async_Send_Receive.Read_Callback), so); return; } } if (so.sb.Length > 0) { //All of the data has been read, so displays it to the console string strContent; strContent = so.sb.ToString(); Console.WriteLine(String.Format("Read {0} byte from socket" + "data = {1} ", strContent.Length, strContent)); } s.Close(); } Now this corrected works fine most of the time, but it fails when the packet's size is a multiple of the buffer. The reason for this is if the buffer gets filled on a read it is assumed there is more data; but the same problem happens as before. A 2 byte buffer, for exmaple, gets filled twice on a 4 byte packet, and assumes there is more data. It then blocks because there is nothing left to read. The problem is that the receive function doesn't know when the end of the packet is. This got me thinking to two possible solutions: I could either have an end-of-packet delimiter or I could read the packet header to find the length and then receive exactly that amount (as I originally suggested). There's problems with each of these, though. I don't like the idea of using a delimiter, as a user could somehow work that into a packet in an input string from the app and screw it up. It also just seems kinda sloppy to me. The length header sounds ok, but I'm planning on using protocol buffers - I don't know the format of the data. Is there a length header? How many bytes is it? Would this be something I implement myself? Etc.. What should I do?

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• ASP.NET MVC3 Custom Membership Provider - The membership provider name specified is invalid.

  - by David Lively

  I'm implementing a custom membership provider, and everything seems to go swimmingly until I create a MembershipUser object. At that point, I receive the error: The membership provider name specified is invalid. Parameter name: providerName In web.config the membership key is <membership defaultProvider="MembersProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="MembersProvider" type="Members.Providers.MembersProvider" connectionStringName="ApplicationServices" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="false" requiresUniqueEmail="false" maxInvalidPasswordAttempts="5" minRequiredPasswordLength="6" minRequiredNonalphanumericCharacters="0" passwordAttemptWindow="10" applicationName="DeviceDatabase" /> </providers> </membership> When creating the MembershipUser object from my custom User class: public static MembershipUser ToMembershipUser(User user) { MembershipUser member = new MembershipUser ("MembersProvider" , user.Name , user.Id , user.EmailAddress , user.PasswordQuestion , user.Comment , user.IsApproved , user.IsLockedOut , user.DateCreated , user.LastLoginDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastActivityDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastPasswordChangedDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastLockoutDate ?? DateTime.MinValue ); return member; } (I realize I could probably just inherit my User class from MembershipUser, but it's already part of an existing class hierarchy. I honestly think this is the first time I've encountered a legitimate need for for multiple inheritance!) My feeling is that the new MembershipUser(...) providerName parameter is supposed to match what's set in web.config, but, since they match already, I'm at a loss as to how to proceed. Is there a convenient way to get the name of the active membership provider in code? I'm starting to think that using the built-in membership system is overkill and more trouble than it's worth. Edit Not sure if it's relevant, but the custom membership provider class is in a class library, not the main WAP project. Update Here's the contents of the System.Web.Security.Membership.Provider object as show in the VS2010 command window: >eval System.Web.Security.Membership.Provider {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} [Members.Providers.MembersProvider]: {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} base {System.Configuration.Provider.ProviderBase}: {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} ApplicationName: null EnablePasswordReset: true EnablePasswordRetrieval: false MaxInvalidPasswordAttempts: 5 MinRequiredNonAlphanumericCharacters: 0 MinRequiredPasswordLength: 6 PasswordAttemptWindow: 10 PasswordFormat: Function evaluation was aborted. PasswordStrengthRegularExpression: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away . RequiresQuestionAndAnswer: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away . RequiresUniqueEmail: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away .

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• Flex+JPA/Hibernate+BlazeDS+MySQL how to debug this monster?!

  - by Zenzen

  Ok so I'm making a "simple" web app using the technologies from the topic, recently I found http://www.adobe.com/devnet/flex/articles/flex_hibernate.html so I'm following it and I try to apply it to my app, the only difference being I'm working on a Mac and I'm using MAMP for the database (so no command line for me). The thing is I'm having some trouble with retrieving/connecting to the database. I have the remoting-config.xml, persistance.xml, a News.java class (my Entity), a NewsService.java class, a News.as class - all just like in the tutorial. I have of course this line in one of my .mxmls: <mx:RemoteObject id="loaderService" destination="newsService" result="handleLoadResult(event)" fault="handleFault(event)" showBusyCursor="true" /> And my remoting-config.xml looks like this (well part of it): <destination id="newsService"> <properties><source>com.gamelist.news.NewsService</source></properties> </destination> NewsService has a method: public List<News> getLatestNews() { EntityManagerFactory emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(PERSISTENCE_UNIT); EntityManager em = emf.createEntityManager(); Query findLatestQuery = em.createNamedQuery("news.findLatest"); List<News> news = findLatestQuery.getResultList(); return news; } And the named query is in the News class: @Entity @Table(name="GLT_NEWS") @NamedQueries({ @NamedQuery(name="news.findLatest", query="from GLT_NEWS order by new_date_added limit 5 ") }) The handledLoadResult looks like this: private function handleLoadResult(ev:ResultEvent):void { newsList = ev.result as ArrayCollection; newsRecords = newsList.length; } Where: [Bindable] private var newsList:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection(); But when I try to trigger: loaderService.getLatestNews(); nothing happens, newsList is empty. Few things I need to point out: 1) as I said I didn't install mysql manually, but I'm using MAMP (yes, the server's running), could this cause some trouble? 2) I already have a "gladm" database and I have a "GLT_NEWS" table with all the fields, is this bad? Basically the question is how am I suppose to debug this thing so I can find the mistake I'm making? I know that loadData() is executed (did a trace()), but I have no idea what happens with loaderService.getLatestNews()... @EDIT: ok so I see I'm getting an error in the "fault handler" which says "Error: Client.Error.MessageSend - Channel.Connect.Failed error NetConnection.Call.Failed: HTTP: Status 404: url: 'http://localhost:8080/WebContent/messagebroker/amf' - "

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• Lightbox image / link URL

  - by GSTAR

  Basically I have a slightly non-standard implementation of FancyBox. By default you have to include a link to the large version of the image so that the Lightbox can display it. However, in my implementation, the image link URLs point to a script rather than directly to the image file. So for example, instead of: <a href="mysite/images/myimage.jpg" rel="gallery"> I have: <a href="mysite/photos/view/abc123" rel="gallery"> The above URL points to a function: public function actionPhotos($view) { $photo=Photo::model()->find('name=:name', array(':name'=>$view)); if(!empty($photo)) { $this->renderPartial('_photo', array('photo'=>$photo, true)); } } The "$this-renderPartial()" bit simply calls a layout file which includes a standard HTML tag to output. Now when the user clicks on a thumbnail, the above function is called and the large image is displayed in the Lightbox. Now if the user right clicks on the thumbnail and selects "open in new tab/window" then the image is displayed in the browser as per normal, i.e. just the image. I want to change this so that it displays the image within a layout. In the above code I can include the following and put it in an IF statement: $this->render('photos', array('photo'=>$photo)); This will call the layout file "photos" which contains the layout to display the image in. I have a specific limitation for this - the image URL must remain the same, i.e. no additional GET variables in the URL. However if we can pass in a GET variable in the background then that is OK. I will most likely need to change my function above so that it calls a different file for this functionality. EDIT: To demonstrate exactly what I am trying to do, check out the following: http://www.starnow.co.uk/KimberleyMarren Go to the photos tab and hover over a thumbnail - note the URL. Click the thumbnail and it will open up in the Lightbox. Next right click on that same thumbnail and select "open in new tab/new window". You will notice that the image is now displayed in a layout. So that same URL is used for displaying the image in the Lightbox and on its own page. The way StarNow have done this is using some crazy long JavaScript functionality, which I'm not too keen on replicating.

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• Justifying UIVIews on the iPhone: Algorithm Help

  - by coneybeare

  I have been messing around with a way to justify align a collection of UIView subclasses within a containing view. I am having a little bit of trouble with the algorithm and was hoping someone could help spot my errors. Here is pseudocode of where I am now: // 1 see how many items there are int count = [items count]; // 2 figure out how much white space is left in the containing view float whitespace = [containingView width] - [items totalWidth]; // 3 Figure out the extra left margin to be applied to items[1] through items[count-1] float margin = whitespace/(count-1); // 4 Figure out the size of every subcontainer if it was evenly split float subcontainerWidth = [containingView width]/count; // 5 Apply the margin, starting at the second item for (int i = 1; i < [items count]; i++) { UIView *item = [items objectAtIndex:i]; [item setLeftMargin:(margin + i*subcontainerWidth)]; } The items do not appear to be evenly spaced here. Not even close. Where am I going wrong? Here is a shot of this algorithm in action: EDIT: The code above is pseudocode. I added the actual code here but it might not make sense if you are not familiar with the three20 project. @implementation TTTabStrip (JustifiedBarCategory) - (CGSize)layoutTabs { CGSize size = [super layoutTabs]; CGPoint contentOffset = _scrollView.contentOffset; _scrollView.frame = self.bounds; _scrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(size.width + kTabMargin, self.height); CGFloat contentWidth = size.width + kTabMargin; if (contentWidth < _scrollView.size.width) { // do the justify logic // see how many items there are int count = [_tabViews count]; // 2 figure out how much white space is left float whitespace = _scrollView.size.width - contentWidth; // 3 increase the margin on those items somehow to reflect. it should be (whitespace) / count-1 float margin = whitespace/(count-1); // 4 figure out starting point float itemWidth = (_scrollView.size.width-kTabMargin)/count; // apply the margin for (int i = 1; i < [_tabViews count]; i++) { TTTab *tab = [_tabViews objectAtIndex:i]; [tab setLeft:(margin + i*itemWidth)]; } } else { // do the normal, scrollbar logic _scrollView.contentOffset = contentOffset; } return size; } @end

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• Using OpenID as the only authentication method

  - by iconiK

  I have read the other questions and they mostly talk about the security of doing so. That's not entirely my concern, mostly because the website is question is a browser-based game. However, the larger issue is the user - not every user is literate enough to understand OpenID. Sure RPX makes this pretty easy, which is what I'll use, but what if the user does not have an account at Google or Facebook or whatever, or does not trust the system to log in with an existing account? They'd have to get an account at another provide - I'm sure most will know how to do it, let alone be bothered to do it. There is also the problem of how to manage it in the application. A user might want to use multiple identities with a single account, so it's not as simple as username + password to deal with. How do I store the OpenID identities of a user in the database? Using OpenID gives me a benefit too: RPX can provide extensive profile information, so I can just prefill the profile form and ask the user to edit as required. I currently have this: UserID Email ------ --------------- 86000 [email protected] 86001 [email protected] UserOpenID OpenID ---------- ------ 86000 16733 86001 16839 86002 19361 OpenID Provider Identifier ------ -------- ---------------- 16733 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bob#d36bd 16839 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bigbobby#x75af 19361 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\alice#c19fd Is that the right way to store OpenID identifiers in the database? How would I match the identifier RPX gave me with one in the database to log in the user (if the identifier is known). So here are concrete questions: How would I make it accessible to users not having an OpenID or not wanting to use one? (security concerns over say, logging in with their Google account for example) How do I store the identifier in the database? (I'm not sure if the tables above are right) What measures do I need to take in order to prevent someone from logging in as another user and happily doing anything with their account? (as I understand RPX sends the identifier via HTTP, so what anyone would have to do is to just somehow grab it then enter it in the "OpenID" field) What else do I need to be aware of when using OpenID?

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• Which StackOverflow-style MarkDown (WMD) javascript editor should I use?

  - by Edan Maor

  Background I'm working on an application which requires user-entered content, and I've decided to use a StackOverflow-style MarkDown editor. After researching this topic for the last few days, I realize there are numerous forks of the base WMD editor, some with a few basic enhancements and some with serious differences from the StackOverflow one. Since this will be the heart of the application, I'd like to start with the best code base I can. I'd be happy if anyone can recommend which one of the many solutions out there best fits my needs. Below is requirements, plus what I've managed to find already. I'm hoping this question will help me decide which version to go with, and maybe help me discover a port out there that's an even better fit for my needs. The requirements for my project Live Preview Multiple editors on the same page (not know how many in advance, since the user can dynamically add another editing box). Ability to extend with extra buttons (I'd like a button to upload a picture, instead of just adding an img url). Ability to dynamically show/hide the edit box (and only see the preview box). Not an absolute must, but I'd prefer to stick as close to StackOverflow's look and feel, since it's well known. Don't know if this matters, but the backend is written in Django. Editors I've looked at Here are a few of the code bases I've looked at, with thoughts. Obviously, I might be missing another solution out there. The derobins version. From what I can tell, this is the official StackOverflow version. Seems like it doesn't support multiple editors on one page. JQuery.MarkEdit. Looks very good, but is pretty different from the StackOverflow version. MooWMD. Looks like the winner right now, but I'm a little concerned since it looks less active/hackable than MarkEdit. The wmd-new version. Not sure, looks like an old codebase without much use. The SocialSite branch. Seems like it's not for public use.

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• Really "wow" them in the interview

  - by Juliet

  Let me put it to you this way: I'm a top-notch programmer, but a notoriously bad interviewee. I've flunked 3 interviews consecutively because I get so nervous that my voice tightens at least 2 octaves higher and I start visibly shaking -- mind you, I can handle whatever technical questions the interviewer throws at me in that state, but I think it looks bad to come off as a quivering, squeaky-voiced young woman during a job interview. I've just got the personality type of a shy computer programmer. No matter how technical I am, I'm going to get passed up in favor of a smooth talker. I have another interview coming up shortly, and I want to really impress the company. Here are my trouble spots: What can I do to be less nervous during my interview? I always get really excited when I hear I have a face-to-face interview, but get more and more anxious as D-Day the interview approaches. My employers wants me to explain what I used to do at my prior employment. I'm a very chatty person and tend to talk/squeak for 10 minutes at a time. How long or short should I time my answers? On that note, when I'm explaining what I did at prior jobs, what exactly is my interviewer looking for? At some point, my interviewer will ask "do you have any questions for me while you're here?" I should, but what kinds of questions should I ask to show that I'm interested in being employed? My interviewer always asks why I'm looking for a new job. The real reason is that my present salary is $27K/yr [Edit to add: and I've yet to get a raise since I started], and I want to make more money -- otherwise the work environment is fine. How do I sugarcoat "I want to make more money" into something that sounds nicer? I have only one prior programmer job, and I've worked there for 18 months, but I have the skill of someone with 4 to 6 years of experience. What can I say to compete against applicants with more work experience? I took a low-paying $27K/yr programming job just to get my foot in IT, and I've been trying to leverage that job as a stepping stone to better opportunities. I get interviews because I consistently out-score senior-level developers in aptitude tests, and my desired salary range is right in the ballpark of what most companies want to offer. Unfortunately, while I've been a programming as a hobby for 10 years and I'm geared to graduate with my BA in Comp Sci in May '09, employers see me as a junior-level programmer with no degree. I want to prove them wrong and get a job that matches my skill level. I'd appreciate any advice anyone has to offer, especially if they can help me get a better job in the process.

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• Miller-rabin exception number?

  - by nightcracker

  Hey everyone. This question is about the number 169716931325235658326303. According to http://www.alpertron.com.ar/ECM.HTM it is prime. According to my miller-rabin implementation in python with 7 repetitions is is composite. With 50 repetitions it is still composite. With 5000 repetitions it is STILL composite. I thought, this might be a problem of my implementation. So I tried GNU MP bignum library, which has a miller-rabin primality test built-in. I tested with 1000000 repetitions. Still composite. This is my implementation of the miller-rabin primality test: def isprime(n, precision=7): if n == 1 or n % 2 == 0: return False elif n < 1: raise ValueError("Out of bounds, first argument must be > 0") d = n - 1 s = 0 while d % 2 == 0: d //= 2 s += 1 for repeat in range(precision): a = random.randrange(2, n - 2) x = pow(a, d, n) if x == 1 or x == n - 1: continue for r in range(s - 1): x = pow(x, 2, n) if x == 1: return False if x == n - 1: break else: return False return True And the code for the GMP test: #include <gmp.h> #include <stdio.h> int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { mpz_t test; mpz_init_set_str(test, "169716931325235658326303", 10); printf("%d\n", mpz_probab_prime_p(test, 1000000)); mpz_clear(test); return 0; } As far as I know there are no "exceptions" (which return false positives for any amount of repetitions) to the miller-rabin primality test. Have I stumpled upon one? Is my computer broken? Is the Elliptic Curve Method wrong? What is happening here? EDIT I found the issue, which is http://www.alpertron.com.ar/ECM.HTM. I trusted this applet, I'll contact the author his applet's implementation of the ECM is faulty for this number. Thanks. EDIT2 Hah, the shame! In the end it was something that went wrong with copy/pasting on my side. NOR the applet NOR the miller-rabin algorithm NOR my implementation NOR gmp's implementation of it is wrong, the only thing that's wrong is me. I'm sorry.

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• Problem getting Java Streams in HP Tandem (Non-Stop)

  - by AndreaG

  Hi. We are porting a simple Java application between Tandem NonStop systems, from G-Series to H-Series. Java version is 1.5.0_02. When performing basic I/O tasks like getting output stream from or opening a client socket, we receive exceptions like java.io.IOException: Value out of range or java.net.SocketException: Value out of range ("value out of range" is Tandem native jargon for, well, quite everything I suppose). Has anybody got similar issues? i.e. I/O corruption while for example messing with JNI? I suppose there is something wrong with the system, but where might it be? Thank you. EDIT: adding snippets as requested sample snippet (a) - using Runtime.exec () (adapted) Properties envVars = new Properties(); Process p = r.exec("/bin/env"); envVars.load(p.getInputStream()); Stack trace (a): java.io.IOException: Value out of range (errno:4034) at java.io.FileInputStream.readBytes(Native Method) at java.io.FileInputStream.read(FileInputStream.java:194) at java.lang.UNIXProcess$DeferredCloseInputStream.read(UNIXProcess.java:221) at java.io.BufferedInputStream.read1(BufferedInputStream.java:254) at java.io.BufferedInputStream.read(BufferedInputStream.java:313) at sun.nio.cs.StreamDecoder$CharsetSD.readBytes(StreamDecoder.java:411) at sun.nio.cs.StreamDecoder$CharsetSD.implRead(StreamDecoder.java:453) at sun.nio.cs.StreamDecoder.read(StreamDecoder.java:183) at java.io.InputStreamReader.read(InputStreamReader.java:167) at java.io.BufferedReader.fill(BufferedReader.java:136) at java.io.BufferedReader.readLine(BufferedReader.java:299) at java.io.BufferedReader.readLine(BufferedReader.java:362) at util.Environment.getVariables(Environment.java:39) Last line fails, and output gets redirected to console (!). sample snippet (b) - using HttpURLConnection: public WorkerThread (HttpURLConnection conn, String requestData, Logger logger) { this.conn = conn; ... } public void run () { OutputStream out = conn.getOutputStream (); } Stack trace (b): java.net.SocketException: Value out of range (errno:4034) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(PlainSocketImpl.java:333) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(PlainSocketImpl.java:195) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(PlainSocketImpl.java:182) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:507) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(NetworkClient.java:155) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:365) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:477) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.<init>(HttpsClient.java:280) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.New(HttpsClient.java:337) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:176) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(HttpURLConnection.java:736) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.connect(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:162) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getOutputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:828) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnectionImpl.getOutputStream(HttpsURLConnectionImpl.java:230) Case (a) can be avoided because it was a workaround for other issues with previous JRE version (!), but same behaviour with sockets is really nasty.

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• WPF binding not updating until after another action

  - by Matthew Stanford

  I have an observable collection bound to a listbox in WPF. One of the options in the window is to use an OpenFileDialog to add an item to the listbox with certain properties. When I use the OpenFileDialog it immeditaely sets two of the properties of the new item in the observable collection. I am using INotifyPropertyChanged to update the listbox. These two new properties are set correctly and now the listbox should display the title contained in the new title property and the title textbox which is bound to the listbox should display the new title as well. However, neither displays the new title upon the closing of the OpenFileDialog and when I click on another item in the listbox and come back to the item I have just changed it updates the title textbox but the title displayed in the list box is not changed until i move the item in the list box that I want to change. Here is the Binding code. ItemsSource="{Binding Path=MyData, Mode=TwoWay, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" And here is the implementation of the browse button that is not working (L1 being the listbox) private void browse_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { OpenFileDialog opf = new OpenFileDialog(); opf.ShowDialog(); MyData[L1.SelectedIndex].Title = System.IO.Path.GetFileNameWithoutExtension(opf.FileName); MyData[L1.SelectedIndex].Command = opf.FileName; } When I simply type in the text boxes and click out of them it updates the list box immediately with the new information I have put in. I also have a create new button and upon clicking it, it immediately adds a new item to the list box and updates its' properties. The only one that is not updating correctly is this peice of code I have given you. Thanks for your help. EDIT: Here is my implementation of INotifyPropertyChanged private OCLB _MyData; public OCLB MyData { get { return _MyData; } set { _MyData= value; FirePropertyNotifyChanged("MyData"); } } OCLB is the obserable collection. Here is the function FirePropertyNotifyChanged public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void FirePropertyNotifyChanged(string propertyName) { if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } Each of these are in the partial class MainWindow for the wpf form. I also have a class for the MyData files (with 4 get/set functions) that are stored in the OCLB(observable collection). There is also a class with functions for the OCLB.

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• ItemsControl ItemTemplate Binding

  - by Wonko the Sane

  Hi All, In WPF4.0, I have a class that contains other class types as properties (combining multiple data types for display). Something like: public partial class Owner { public string OwnerName { get; set; } public int OwnerId { get; set; } } partial class ForDisplay { public Owner OwnerData { get; set; } public int Credit { get; set; } } In my window, I have an ItemsControl with the following (clipped for clarity): <ItemsControl ItemsSource={Binding}> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <local:MyDisplayControl OwnerName={Binding OwnerData.OwnerName} Credit={Binding Credit} /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> I then get a collection of display information from the data layer, and set the DataContext of the ItemsControl to this collection. The "Credit" property gets displayed correctly, but the OwnerName property does not. Instead, I get a binding error: Error 40: BindingExpression path error: 'OwnerName' property not found on 'object' ''ForDisplay' (HashCode=449124874)'. BindingExpression:Path=OwnerName; DataItem='ForDisplay' (HashCode=449124874); target element is 'TextBlock' (Name=txtOwnerName'); target property is 'Text' (type 'String') I don't understand why this is attempting to look for the OwnerName property in the ForDisplay class, rather than in the Owner class from the ForDisplay OwnerData property. Edit It appears that it has something to do with using the custom control. If I bind the same properties to a TextBlock, they work correctly. <ItemsControl ItemsSource={Binding}> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <local:MyDisplayControl OwnerName={Binding OwnerData.OwnerName} Credit={Binding Credit} /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding OwnerData.OwnerName}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Credit}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> Thanks, wTs

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• Catching an exception class within a template

  - by Todd Bauer

  I'm having a problem using the exception class Overflow() for a Stack template I'm creating. If I define the class regularly there is no problem. If I define the class as a template, I cannot make my call to catch() work properly. I have a feeling it's simply syntax, but I can't figure it out for the life of me. #include<iostream> #include<exception> using namespace std; template <class T> class Stack { private: T *stackArray; int size; int top; public: Stack(int size) { this->size = size; stackArray = new T[size]; top = 0; } ~Stack() { delete[] stackArray; } void push(T value) { if (isFull()) throw Overflow(); stackArray[top] = value; top++; } bool isFull() { if (top == size) return true; else return false; } class Overflow {}; }; int main() { try { Stack<double> Stack(5); Stack.push( 5.0); Stack.push(10.1); Stack.push(15.2); Stack.push(20.3); Stack.push(25.4); Stack.push(30.5); } catch (Stack::Overflow) { cout << "ERROR! The stack is full.\n"; } return 0; } The problem is in the catch (Stack::Overflow) statement. As I said, if the class is not a template, this works just fine. However, once I define it as a template, this ceases to work. I've tried all sorts of syntaxes, but I always get one of two sets of error messages from the compiler. If I use catch(Stack::Overflow): ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2955: 'Stack' : use of class template requires template argument list ch18pr01.cpp(13) : see declaration of 'Stack' ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2955: 'Stack' : use of class template requires template argument list ch18pr01.cpp(13) : see declaration of 'Stack' ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2316: 'Stack::Overflow' : cannot be caught as the destructor and/or copy constructor are inaccessible EDIT: I meant If I use catch(Stack<double>::Overflow) or any variety thereof: ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2061: syntax error : identifier 'Stack' ch18pr01.cpp(89) : error C2310: catch handlers must specify one type ch18pr01.cpp(95) : error C2317: 'try' block starting on line '75' has no catch handlers I simply can not figure this out. Does anyone have any idea?

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• Best practices for developing simple ASP.NET sites (built in controls or JQuery + scripts)

  - by Nix

  I was recently reviewing some code written by two different contractors, both were basic ASP.NET management sites. The sites allowed the user to view and edit data. Pretty much simple CRUD gateways. One group did their best to use built in ASP + AJAX Toolkit controls and did their best to use as many built in controls as possible. I found the code much easier to read and maintain. The other used jQuery and the code is heavily marked up with script blocks which are then used to build pages from javascript files. Which one is more common? The one that basically leveraged embedded HTML markup in scripts controled by javascript files screams readability and maintenance issues? Is this just the way of doing asp dev with jQuery? Assuming the second example happens a lot, are there tools that help facilitate jQuery development with visual studio? Do you think they generated the html somewhere else and just copied it in? Example Script block: <script id="HRPanel" type="text/html"> <table cellpadding='0' cellspacing='0' class="atable"><thead class="mHeader"><tr><th>Name</th><th>Description</th><th>Other</th></thead><tbody> <# for(var i=0; i < hrRows.length; i++) { var r = HRRows[i]; #> <tr><td><#=r.Name#></td><td><#=r.Description#></td><td class="taRight"><#=r.Other#></td></tr> <#}#> </tbody><tfoot><th></th><th></th><th></th></tfoot></table> </script> Then in a separate location (js file) you would see something like this. $("#HRPanel").html($("#HRPanel").parseTemplate({ HRRows: response.something.bah.bah }));

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• Mock static method Activator.CreateInstance to return a mock of another class

  - by Jeep87c

  I have this factory class and I want to test it correctly. Let's say I have an abstract class which have many child (inheritance). As you can see in my Factory class the method BuildChild, I want to be able to create an instance of a child class at Runtime. I must be able to create this instance during Runtime because the type won't be know before runtime. And, I can NOT use Unity for this project (if so, I would not ask how to achieve this). Here's my Factory class that I want to test: public class Factory { public AnAbstractClass BuildChild(Type childType, object parameter) { AnAbstractClass child = (AnAbstractClass) Activator.CreateInstance(childType); child.Initialize(parameter); return child; } } To test this, I want to find a way to Mock Activator.CreateInstance to return my own mocked object of a child class. How can I achieve this? Or maybe if you have a better way to do this without using Activator.CreateInstance (and Unity), I'm opened to it if it's easier to test and mock! I'm currently using Moq to create my mocks but since Activator.CreateInstance is a static method from a static class, I can't figure out how to do this (I already know that Moq can only create mock instances of objects). I took a look at Fakes from Microsoft but without success (I had some difficulties to understand how it works and to find some well explained examples). Please help me! EDIT: I need to mock Activator.CreateInstance because I want to force this method to return another mocked object. The correct thing I want is only to stub this method (not to mock it). So when I test BuildChild like this: [TestMethod] public void TestBuildChild() { var mockChildClass = new Mock(AChildClass); // TODO: Stub/Mock Activator.CreateInstance to return mockChildClass when called with "type" and "parameter" as follow. var type = typeof(AChildClass); var parameter = "A parameter"; var child = this._factory.BuildChild(type, parameters); } Activator.CreateInstance called with type and parameter will return my mocked object instead of creating a new instance of the real child class (not yet implemented).

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• NSZombieEnabled breaking working code?

  - by Gordon Fontenot

  I have the following method in UIImageManipulation.m: +(UIImage *)scaleImage:(UIImage *)source toSize:(CGSize)size { UIImage *scaledImage = nil; if (source != nil) { UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(size); [source drawInRect:CGRectMake(0, 0, size.width, size.height)]; scaledImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); } return scaledImage; } I am calling it in a different view with: imageFromFile = [UIImageManipulator scaleImage:imageFromFile toSize:imageView.frame.size]; (imageView is a UIImageView allocated earlier) This is working great in my code. I resizes the image perfectly, and throws zero errors. I also don't have anything pop up under build - analyze. But the second I turn on NSZombieEnabled to debug a different EXC_BAD_ACCESS issue, the code breaks. Every single time. I can turn NSZombieEnabled off, code runs great. I turn it on, and boom. Broken. I comment out the call, and it works again. Every single time, it gives me an error in the console: -[UIImage release]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b1d600. This error doesn't appear if `NSZombieEnabled is turned off. Any ideas? --EDIT-- Ok, This is killing me. I have stuck breakpoints everywhere I can, and I still cannot get a hold of this thing. Here is the full code when I call the scaleImage method: -(void)setupImageButton { UIImage *imageFromFile; if (object.imageAttribute == nil) { imageFromFile = [UIImage imageNamed:@"no-image.png"]; } else { imageFromFile = object.imageAttribute; } UIImage *scaledImage = [UIImageManipulator scaleImage:imageFromFile toSize:imageButton.frame.size]; UIImage *roundedImage = [UIImageManipulator makeRoundCornerImage:scaledImage :10 :10 withBorder:YES]; [imageButton setBackgroundImage:roundedImage forState:UIControlStateNormal]; } The other UIImageManipulator method (makeRoundCornerImage) shouldn't be causing the error, but just in case I'm overlooking something, I threw the entire file up on github here. It's something about this method though. Has to be. If I comment it out, it works great. If I leave it in, Error. But it doesn't throw errors with NSZombieEnabled turned off ever.

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• How do you unit test a unit test?

  - by FlySwat

  I was watching Rob Connerys webcasts on the MVCStoreFront App, and I noticed he was unit testing even the most mundane things, things like: public Decimal DiscountPrice { get { return this.Price - this.Discount; } } Would have a test like: [TestMethod] public void Test_DiscountPrice { Product p = new Product(); p.Price = 100; p.Discount = 20; Assert.IsEqual(p.DiscountPrice,80); } While, I am all for unit testing, I sometimes wonder if this form of test first development is really beneficial, for example, in a real process, you have 3-4 layers above your code (Business Request, Requirements Document, Architecture Document), where the actual defined business rule (Discount Price is Price - Discount) could be misdefined. If that's the situation, your unit test means nothing to you. Additionally, your unit test is another point of failure: [TestMethod] public void Test_DiscountPrice { Product p = new Product(); p.Price = 100; p.Discount = 20; Assert.IsEqual(p.DiscountPrice,90); } Now the test is flawed. Obviously in a simple test, it's no big deal, but say we were testing a complicated business rule. What do we gain here? Fast forward two years into the application's life, when maintenance developers are maintaining it. Now the business changes its rule, and the test breaks again, some rookie developer then fixes the test incorrectly...we now have another point of failure. All I see is more possible points of failure, with no real beneficial return, if the discount price is wrong, the test team will still find the issue, how did unit testing save any work? What am I missing here? Please teach me to love TDD, as I'm having a hard time accepting it as useful so far. I want too, because I want to stay progressive, but it just doesn't make sense to me. EDIT: A couple people keep mentioned that testing helps enforce the spec. It has been my experience that the spec has been wrong as well, more often than not, but maybe I'm doomed to work in an organization where the specs are written by people who shouldn't be writing specs.

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• Why is Oracle using a skip scan for this query?

  - by Jason Baker

  Here's the tkprof output for a query that's running extremely slowly (WARNING: it's long :-) ): SELECT mbr_comment_idn, mbr_crt_dt, mbr_data_source, mbr_dol_bl_rmo_ind, mbr_dxcg_ctl_member, mbr_employment_start_dt, mbr_employment_term_dt, mbr_entity_active, mbr_ethnicity_idn, mbr_general_health_status_code, mbr_hand_dominant_code, mbr_hgt_feet, mbr_hgt_inches, mbr_highest_edu_level, mbr_insd_addr_idn, mbr_insd_alt_id, mbr_insd_name, mbr_insd_ssn_tin, mbr_is_smoker, mbr_is_vip, mbr_lmbr_first_name, mbr_lmbr_last_name, mbr_marital_status_cd, mbr_mbr_birth_dt, mbr_mbr_death_dt, mbr_mbr_expired, mbr_mbr_first_name, mbr_mbr_gender_cd, mbr_mbr_idn, mbr_mbr_ins_type, mbr_mbr_isreadonly, mbr_mbr_last_name, mbr_mbr_middle_name, mbr_mbr_name, mbr_mbr_status_idn, mbr_mpi_id, mbr_preferred_am_pm, mbr_preferred_time, mbr_prv_innetwork, mbr_rep_addr_idn, mbr_rep_name, mbr_rp_mbr_id, mbr_same_mbr_ins, mbr_special_needs_cd, mbr_timezone, mbr_upd_dt, mbr_user_idn, mbr_wgt, mbr_work_status_idn FROM (SELECT /*+ FIRST_ROWS(1) */ mbr_comment_idn, mbr_crt_dt, mbr_data_source, mbr_dol_bl_rmo_ind, mbr_dxcg_ctl_member, mbr_employment_start_dt, mbr_employment_term_dt, mbr_entity_active, mbr_ethnicity_idn, mbr_general_health_status_code, mbr_hand_dominant_code, mbr_hgt_feet, mbr_hgt_inches, mbr_highest_edu_level, mbr_insd_addr_idn, mbr_insd_alt_id, mbr_insd_name, mbr_insd_ssn_tin, mbr_is_smoker, mbr_is_vip, mbr_lmbr_first_name, mbr_lmbr_last_name, mbr_marital_status_cd, mbr_mbr_birth_dt, mbr_mbr_death_dt, mbr_mbr_expired, mbr_mbr_first_name, mbr_mbr_gender_cd, mbr_mbr_idn, mbr_mbr_ins_type, mbr_mbr_isreadonly, mbr_mbr_last_name, mbr_mbr_middle_name, mbr_mbr_name, mbr_mbr_status_idn, mbr_mpi_id, mbr_preferred_am_pm, mbr_preferred_time, mbr_prv_innetwork, mbr_rep_addr_idn, mbr_rep_name, mbr_rp_mbr_id, mbr_same_mbr_ins, mbr_special_needs_cd, mbr_timezone, mbr_upd_dt, mbr_user_idn, mbr_wgt, mbr_work_status_idn, ROWNUM AS ora_rn FROM (SELECT mbr.comment_idn AS mbr_comment_idn, mbr.crt_dt AS mbr_crt_dt, mbr.data_source AS mbr_data_source, mbr.dol_bl_rmo_ind AS mbr_dol_bl_rmo_ind, mbr.dxcg_ctl_member AS mbr_dxcg_ctl_member, mbr.employment_start_dt AS mbr_employment_start_dt, mbr.employment_term_dt AS mbr_employment_term_dt, mbr.entity_active AS mbr_entity_active, mbr.ethnicity_idn AS mbr_ethnicity_idn, mbr.general_health_status_code AS mbr_general_health_status_code, mbr.hand_dominant_code AS mbr_hand_dominant_code, mbr.hgt_feet AS mbr_hgt_feet, mbr.hgt_inches AS mbr_hgt_inches, mbr.highest_edu_level AS mbr_highest_edu_level, mbr.insd_addr_idn AS mbr_insd_addr_idn, mbr.insd_alt_id AS mbr_insd_alt_id, mbr.insd_name AS mbr_insd_name, mbr.insd_ssn_tin AS mbr_insd_ssn_tin, mbr.is_smoker AS mbr_is_smoker, mbr.is_vip AS mbr_is_vip, mbr.lmbr_first_name AS mbr_lmbr_first_name, mbr.lmbr_last_name AS mbr_lmbr_last_name, mbr.marital_status_cd AS mbr_marital_status_cd, mbr.mbr_birth_dt AS mbr_mbr_birth_dt, mbr.mbr_death_dt AS mbr_mbr_death_dt, mbr.mbr_expired AS mbr_mbr_expired, mbr.mbr_first_name AS mbr_mbr_first_name, mbr.mbr_gender_cd AS mbr_mbr_gender_cd, mbr.mbr_idn AS mbr_mbr_idn, mbr.mbr_ins_type AS mbr_mbr_ins_type, mbr.mbr_isreadonly AS mbr_mbr_isreadonly, mbr.mbr_last_name AS mbr_mbr_last_name, mbr.mbr_middle_name AS mbr_mbr_middle_name, mbr.mbr_name AS mbr_mbr_name, mbr.mbr_status_idn AS mbr_mbr_status_idn, mbr.mpi_id AS mbr_mpi_id, mbr.preferred_am_pm AS mbr_preferred_am_pm, mbr.preferred_time AS mbr_preferred_time, mbr.prv_innetwork AS mbr_prv_innetwork, mbr.rep_addr_idn AS mbr_rep_addr_idn, mbr.rep_name AS mbr_rep_name, mbr.rp_mbr_id AS mbr_rp_mbr_id, mbr.same_mbr_ins AS mbr_same_mbr_ins, mbr.special_needs_cd AS mbr_special_needs_cd, mbr.timezone AS mbr_timezone, mbr.upd_dt AS mbr_upd_dt, mbr.user_idn AS mbr_user_idn, mbr.wgt AS mbr_wgt, mbr.work_status_idn AS mbr_work_status_idn FROM mbr JOIN mbr_identfn ON mbr.mbr_idn = mbr_identfn.mbr_idn WHERE mbr_identfn.mbr_idn = mbr.mbr_idn AND mbr_identfn.identfd_type = :identfd_type_1 AND mbr_identfn.identfd_number = :identfd_number_1 AND mbr_identfn.entity_active = :entity_active_1) WHERE ROWNUM <= :ROWNUM_1) WHERE ora_rn > :ora_rn_1 call count cpu elapsed disk query current rows ------- ------ -------- ---------- ---------- ---------- ---------- ---------- Parse 9936 0.46 0.49 0 0 0 0 Execute 9936 0.60 0.59 0 0 0 0 Fetch 9936 329.87 404.00 0 136966922 0 0 ------- ------ -------- ---------- ---------- ---------- ---------- ---------- total 29808 330.94 405.09 0 136966922 0 0 Misses in library cache during parse: 0 Optimizer mode: FIRST_ROWS Parsing user id: 36 (JIVA_DEV) Rows Row Source Operation ------- --------------------------------------------------- 0 VIEW (cr=102 pr=0 pw=0 time=2180 us) 0 COUNT STOPKEY (cr=102 pr=0 pw=0 time=2163 us) 0 NESTED LOOPS (cr=102 pr=0 pw=0 time=2152 us) 0 INDEX SKIP SCAN IDX_MBR_IDENTFN (cr=102 pr=0 pw=0 time=2140 us)(object id 341053) 0 TABLE ACCESS BY INDEX ROWID MBR (cr=0 pr=0 pw=0 time=0 us) 0 INDEX UNIQUE SCAN PK_CLAIMANT (cr=0 pr=0 pw=0 time=0 us)(object id 334044) Rows Execution Plan ------- --------------------------------------------------- 0 SELECT STATEMENT MODE: HINT: FIRST_ROWS 0 VIEW 0 COUNT (STOPKEY) 0 NESTED LOOPS 0 INDEX MODE: ANALYZED (SKIP SCAN) OF 'IDX_MBR_IDENTFN' (INDEX (UNIQUE)) 0 TABLE ACCESS MODE: ANALYZED (BY INDEX ROWID) OF 'MBR' (TABLE) 0 INDEX MODE: ANALYZED (UNIQUE SCAN) OF 'PK_CLAIMANT' (INDEX (UNIQUE)) ******************************************************************************** Based on my reading of Oracle's documentation of skip scans, a skip scan is most useful when the first column of an index has a low number of unique values. The thing is that the first index of this column is a unique primary key. So am I correct in assuming that a skip scan is the wrong thing to do here? Also, what kind of scan should it be doing? Should I do some more hinting for this query? EDIT: I should also point out that the query's where clause uses the columns in IDX_MBR_IDENTFN and no columns other than what's in that index. So as far as I can tell, I'm not skipping any columns.

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• create text inside a rectangle using inkscape

  - by mr calendar

  I've put some text inside a rectangle using inkscape so the tree is like <svg:rect><svg:text><svg:tspan>text.... The problem is, I can't see the text. I've tried fiddling with the opacity of the rect to no avail. There should be a way of doing this from the UI? Edit example as requested <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <!-- Created with Inkscape (http://www.inkscape.org/) --> <svg xmlns:dc="http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/" xmlns:cc="http://creativecommons.org/ns#" xmlns:rdf="http://www.w3.org/1999/02/22-rdf-syntax-ns#" xmlns:svg="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:sodipodi="http://sodipodi.sourceforge.net/DTD/sodipodi-0.dtd" xmlns:inkscape="http://www.inkscape.org/namespaces/inkscape" width="184.25197" height="262.20471" id="svg2" sodipodi:version="0.32" inkscape:version="0.46" version="1.0" sodipodi:docname="ex1.svg" inkscape:output_extension="org.inkscape.output.svg.inkscape"> <defs id="defs4"> <inkscape:perspective sodipodi:type="inkscape:persp3d" inkscape:vp_x="0 : 526.18109 : 1" inkscape:vp_y="0 : 1000 : 0" inkscape:vp_z="744.09448 : 526.18109 : 1" inkscape:persp3d-origin="372.04724 : 350.78739 : 1" id="perspective10" /> </defs> <sodipodi:namedview id="base" pagecolor="#ffffff" bordercolor="#666666" borderopacity="1.0" gridtolerance="10000" guidetolerance="10" objecttolerance="10" inkscape:pageopacity="0.0" inkscape:pageshadow="2" inkscape:zoom="0.64" inkscape:cx="195.9221" inkscape:cy="335.3072" inkscape:document-units="px" inkscape:current-layer="layer1" showgrid="false" inkscape:window-width="640" inkscape:window-height="675" inkscape:window-x="44" inkscape:window-y="44" /> <metadata id="metadata7"> <rdf:RDF> <cc:Work rdf:about=""> <dc:format>image/svg+xml</dc:format> <dc:type rdf:resource="http://purl.org/dc/dcmitype/StillImage" /> </cc:Work> </rdf:RDF> </metadata> <g inkscape:label="Layer 1" inkscape:groupmode="layer" id="layer1"> <rect style="opacity:0.25480766;fill:#ff0000;fill-opacity:1;stroke:#000000;stroke-width:12.94795799;stroke-miterlimit:4;stroke-dasharray:none;stroke-opacity:1" id="rect2383" width="150.87796" height="84.226181" x="18.221733" y="39.557121"> <text xml:space="preserve" style="font-size:56.0331955px;font-style:normal;font-weight:normal;fill:#000000;fill-opacity:1;stroke:none;stroke-width:1px;stroke-linecap:butt;stroke-linejoin:miter;stroke-opacity:1;font-family:Bitstream Vera Sans" x="44.815186" y="114.0088" id="text2385" transform="scale(1.0054479,0.9945816)"><tspan sodipodi:role="line" id="tspan2387" x="44.815186" y="114.0088">text</tspan></text> </rect> </g> </svg> I'd expect to be able to see this in inkscape. The workaround is to put text on a layer above the box (the intent is that the box obscures the layers below it) and not try and get clever with nested tags. Shame it doesn't work though.

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• How to interpolate hue values in HSV colour space?

  - by nick

  Hi, I'm trying to interpolate between two colours in HSV colour space to produce a smooth colour gradient. I'm using a linear interpolation, eg: h = (1 - p) * h1 + p * h2 s = (1 - p) * s1 + p * s2 v = (1 - p) * v1 + p * v2 (where p is the percentage, and h1, h2, s1, s2, v1, v2 are the hue, saturation and value components of the two colours) This produces a good result for s and v but not for h. As the hue component is an angle, the calculation needs to work out the shortest distance between h1 and h2 and then do the interpolation in the right direction (either clockwise or anti-clockwise). What formula or algorithm should I use? EDIT: By following Jack's suggestions I modified my JavaScript gradient function and it works well. For anyone interested, here's what I ended up with: // create gradient from yellow to red to black with 100 steps var gradient = hsbGradient(100, [{h:0.14, s:0.5, b:1}, {h:0, s:1, b:1}, {h:0, s:1, b:0}]); function hsbGradient(steps, colours) { var parts = colours.length - 1; var gradient = new Array(steps); var gradientIndex = 0; var partSteps = Math.floor(steps / parts); var remainder = steps - (partSteps * parts); for (var col = 0; col < parts; col++) { // get colours var c1 = colours[col], c2 = colours[col + 1]; // determine clockwise and counter-clockwise distance between hues var distCCW = (c1.h >= c2.h) ? c1.h - c2.h : 1 + c1.h - c2.h; distCW = (c1.h >= c2.h) ? 1 + c2.h - c1.h : c2.h - c1.h; // ensure we get the right number of steps by adding remainder to final part if (col == parts - 1) partSteps += remainder; // make gradient for this part for (var step = 0; step < partSteps; step ++) { var p = step / partSteps; // interpolate h var h = (distCW <= distCCW) ? c1.h + (distCW * p) : c1.h - (distCCW * p); if (h < 0) h = 1 + h; if (h > 1) h = h - 1; // interpolate s, b var s = (1 - p) * c1.s + p * c2.s; var b = (1 - p) * c1.b + p * c2.b; // add to gradient array gradient[gradientIndex] = {h:h, s:s, b:b}; gradientIndex ++; } } return gradient; }

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• T-SQL - Left Outer Joins - Filters in the where clause versus the on clause.

  - by Greg Potter

  I am trying to compare two tables to find rows in each table that is not in the other. Table 1 has a groupby column to create 2 sets of data within table one. groupby number ----------- ----------- 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 Table 2 has only one column. number ----------- 1 3 4 So Table 1 has the values 1,2,4 in group 2 and Table 2 has the values 1,3,4. I expect the following result when joining for Group 2: `Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL `Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 The only way I can get this to work is if I put a where clause for the first join: PRINT 'Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2, with WHERE clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL and a filter in the ON for the second: PRINT 'Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1, with ON clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Can anyone come up with a way of not using the filter in the on clause but in the where clause? The context of this is I have a staging area in a database and I want to identify new records and records that have been deleted. The groupby field is the equivalent of a batchid for an extract and I am comparing the latest extract in a temp table to a the batch from yesterday stored in a partioneds table, which also has all the previously extracted batches as well. Code to create table 1 and 2: create table table1 (number int, groupby int) create table table2 (number int) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (3) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (4, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (4) EDIT: A bit more context - depending on where I put the filter I different results. As stated above the where clause gives me the correct result in one state and the ON in the other. I am looking for a consistent way of doing this. Where - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 1 1 NULL 2 2 NULL 1 2 NULL Where (table 2 this time) - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL AND table1.groupby = 2 Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- (0) rows returned

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• CKEDITOR - Is there anyway to prevent formatting code in SOURCE mode?

  - by Lev

  I've spent the good portion of my day trying to figure this out, and I figured I'd finally just give in and ask. How can you prevent ANY automatic formatting when in SOURCE mode? I like to edit HTML source code directly instead of using the WYSIWYG interface, but whenever I write new lines, or layout tags how I would indent them, it all gets formatted when I switch to WYSIWYG mode and then back to SOURCE mode again. I stumbled upon this earlier: http://dev.fckeditor.net/ticket/993 That alluded to a setting which may have existed once upon a time which would be exactly what I'm after. I just want to know how I can completely turn off all automatic formatting when editing in SOURCE mode. After browsing this site for hours on end and finding absolutely nothing on here or on Google, I came up with a solution I thought would be foolproof (albeit not a pleasant one). I learned about the "protectedSource" setting, so I thought, well maybe I can just use that and create an HTML comment tag before all my HTML and another after it and then push a regular expression finding the comment tags into the protectedSource array, but even that (believe it or not) doesn't work. I've tried my expression straight up in the browser outside of CKEDITOR and it is working, but CKEDITOR doesn't protect the code as expected (which I suspect is a bug involving comment tags, since I can get it to work with other strings). In case you are wondering, this is what I had hoped would work as a work-around, but doesn't: config.protectedSource.push( /<!-- src -->[\s\S]*<!-- end src-->/gi ); .. and what I planned on doing (for what appears to be the lack of a setting to disable formatting in SOURCE mode) was to nest all my HTML within the commented tags like this: <!-- src --> <div>some code that shouldn't be messed with (but is)</div> <!-- end src --> I'd love to hear if you anyone has any suggestions for this scenario, or knows of a setting which I have described, or even if someone can just fill me in as to why I can't get protectedSource to work properly with two comment tags. I really thing it's gotta be a bug because I can get so many other expressions to work fine, and I can even protect HTML within the area of a single comment tag, but I simply cannot get HTML within two different comment tags to stay untouched. :( I've wasted about 6-7 hours on this so far today so if anyone can shed any light on it I would be very grateful! Thanks for reading! ;)

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• SQL Server stored procedures - update column based on variable name..?

  - by ClarkeyBoy

  Hi, I have a data driven site with many stored procedures. What I want to eventually be able to do is to say something like: For Each @variable in sproc inputs UPDATE @TableName SET @variable.toString = @variable Next I would like it to be able to accept any number of arguments. It will basically loop through all of the inputs and update the column with the name of the variable with the value of the variable - for example column "Name" would be updated with the value of @Name. I would like to basically have one stored procedure for updating and one for creating. However to do this I will need to be able to convert the actual name of a variable, not the value, to a string. Question 1: Is it possible to do this in T-SQL, and if so how? Question 2: Are there any major drawbacks to using something like this (like performance or CPU usage)? I know if a value is not valid then it will only prevent the update involving that variable and any subsequent ones, but all the data is validated in the vb.net code anyway so will always be valid on submitting to the database, and I will ensure that only variables where the column exists are able to be submitted. Many thanks in advance, Regards, Richard Clarke Edit: I know about using SQL strings and the risk of SQL injection attacks - I studied this a bit in my dissertation a few weeks ago. Basically the website uses an object oriented architecture. There are many classes - for example Product - which have many "Attributes" (I created my own class called Attribute, which has properties such as DataField, Name and Value where DataField is used to get or update data, Name is displayed on the administration frontend when creating or updating a Product and the Value, which may be displayed on the customer frontend, is set by the administrator. DataField is the field I will be using in the "UPDATE Blah SET @Field = @Value". I know this is probably confusing but its really complicated to explain - I have a really good understanding of the entire system in my head but I cant put it into words easily. Basically the structure is set up such that no user will be able to change the value of DataField or Name, but they can change Value. I think if I were to use dynamic parameterised SQL strings there will therefore be no risk of SQL injection attacks. I mean basically loop through all the attributes so that it ends up like: UPDATE Products SET [Name] = '@Name', Description = '@Description', Display = @Display Then loop through all the attributes again and add the parameter values - this will have the same effect as using stored procedures, right?? I dont mind adding to the page load time since this is mainly going to affect the administration frontend, and will marginly affect the customer frontend.

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• Adding simple marker clusterer to google map

  - by take2

  Hi, I'm having problems with adding marker clusterer functionality to my map. What I want is to use custom icon for my markers and every marker has its own info window which I want to be able to edit. I did accomplish that, but now I have problems adding marker clusterer library functionality. I read something about adding markers to array, but I'm not sure what would it exactly mean. Besides, all of the examples with array I have found, don't have info windows and searching through the code I didn't find appropriate way to add them. Here is my code (mostly from Geocodezip.com): <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://google-maps-utility-library-v3.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/markerclusterer/src/markerclusterer.js"></script> <style type="text/css"> html, body { height: 100%; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ var map = null; function initialize() { var myOptions = { zoom: 8, center: new google.maps.LatLng(43.907787,-79.359741), mapTypeControl: true, mapTypeControlOptions: {style: google.maps.MapTypeControlStyle.DROPDOWN_MENU}, navigationControl: true, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP } map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); var mcOptions = {gridSize: 50, maxZoom: 15}; var mc = new MarkerClusterer(map, [], mcOptions); google.maps.event.addListener(map, 'click', function() { infowindow.close(); }); // Add markers to the map // Set up three markers with info windows var point = new google.maps.LatLng(43.65654,-79.90138); var marker1 = createMarker(point,'Abc'); var point = new google.maps.LatLng(43.91892,-78.89231); var marker2 = createMarker(point,'Abc'); var point = new google.maps.LatLng(43.82589,-79.10040); var marker3 = createMarker(point,'Abc'); var markerArray = new Array(marker1, marker2, marker3); mc.addMarkers(markerArray, true); } var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow( { size: new google.maps.Size(150,50) }); function createMarker(latlng, html) { var image = '/321.png'; var contentString = html; var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: latlng, map: map, icon: image, zIndex: Math.round(latlng.lat()*-100000)<<5 }); google.maps.event.addListener(marker, 'click', function() { infowindow.setContent(contentString); infowindow.open(map,marker); }); } //]]> </script>

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• JavaScript: Doing some stuff right before the user exits the page

  - by Mike

  I have seen some questions here regarding what I want to achieve and have based what I have so far on those answer. But there is a slight misbehavior that is still irritating me. What I have is sort of a recovery feature. Whenever you are typing text, the client sends a sync request to the server every 45 seconds. It does 2 things. First, it extends the lease the client has on the record (only one person may edit at one time) for another 60 seconds. Second, it sends the text typed so far to the server in case the server crashes, internet connection fails, etc. In that case, the next time the user enters our application, the user is notified that something has gone wrong and that some text was recovered. Think of Microsoft or OpenOffice recovery whenever they crash! Of course, if the user leaves the page willingly, the user does not need to be notified and as a result, the recovery is deleted. I do that final request via a beforeunload event. Everything went fine until I was asked to make a final adjustment... The same behavior you have here at stack overflow when you exit the editor... a confirm dialogue. This works so far, BUT, the confirm dialogue is shown twice. Here is the code. The event if (local.sync.autosave_textelement) { window.onbeforeunload = exitConfirm; } The function function exitConfirm() { var local = Core; if (confirm('blub?')) { local.sync.autosave_destroy = true; sync(false); return true; } else { return false; } }; Some problem irrelevant clarifications: Core is a global Object that contains a lot of variables that are used everywhere. sync makes an ajax request. The values are based on the values that the Core.sync object contains. The parameter determines if the call should be async (default) or sync.

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