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  • Why in the world is this Moq + NUnit test failing?

    - by Dave Falkner
    I have this dataAccess mock object and I'm trying to verify that one of its methods is being invoked, and that the argument passed into this method fulfills certain constraints. As best I can tell, this method is indeed being invoked, and with the constraints fulfilled. This line of the test throws a MockException: data.Verify(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.Is<Invoice>(i => i.TermPaymentAmount == 0m)), Times.Once()); However, removing the constraint and accepting any invoice passes the test: data.Verify(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.IsAny<Invoice>()), Times.Once()); I've created a test windows form that instantiates this test class, runs its .Setup() method, and then calls the method which I am wishing to test. I insert a breakpoint on the line of code where the mock object is failing the test data.InsertInvoice(invoice); to actually hover over the invoice, and I can confirm that its .TermPaymentAmount decimal property is indeed zero at the time the method is invoked. Out of desperation, I even added a call back to my dataAccess mock: data.Setup(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.IsAny<Invoice>())).Callback((Invoice inv) => System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(inv.TermPaymentAmount.ToString("G17"))); And this gives me a message box showing "0". This is really baffling me, and no one else in my shop has been able to figure this out. Any help would be appreciated. A barely related question, which I should probably ask independently, is whether it is preferable to use Mock.Verify(...) as I have here, or to use Mock.Expect(...).Verifiable followed by Mock.VerifyAll() as I have seen other people doing? If the answer is situational, which situations would warrent the use of one over the other?

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  • Spring security or BCrypt algorithm which one is good for accounts like project?

    - by Ranjith Kumar Nethaji
    I am using spring security for hashing my password.And is it safe ,because am using spring security for first time. my code here <security:http auto-config="true"> <security:intercept-url pattern="/welcome*" access="ROLE_USER" /> <security:form-login login-page="/login" default-target-url="/welcome" authentication-failure-url="/loginfailed" /> <security:logout logout-success-url="/logout" /> </security:http> authentication-failure-url="/loginfailed" /> <security:logout logout-success-url="/logout" /> </security:http> <authentication-manager> <authentication-provider> <password-encoder hash="sha" /> <user-service> <user name="k" password="7c4a8d09ca3762af61e59520943dc26494f8941b" authorities="ROLE_USER" /> </user-service> </authentication-provider> </authentication-manager> .And I havnt used bcrypt algorithm.what is your feedback for both?any recommendation?

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  • getting windows username with javascript

    - by jbkkd
    I have a site which is built in ASP.net and C#. Let's call it webapp. it uses a Form system to log on into it, and cannot be changed easliy. I got a request to change the log in to some kind of windows authentication. I'll explain. Our windows login uses active directory for users to log into their windows account. their login name is sXXXXXXX. X are numbers. in my webapp, I want to take the users numbers from their active directory login, and check if those exist in the webapp database. if it exists, they will automatically log in. If it doesn't, they will be referred to the regular login page for the webapp system which is currently in use. I tried changing my IIS to disable anonymous login and enabling windows authentication, therefore making the user browser to send it's current logged in user name to my webapp. I changed the web config as well from "Forms" to "Windows", which made my whole webapp obsolete as the whole forms system did not work. My question is this - is there a different way for the browser only to send the username to my webapp? I thought maybe javascript, I just don't know how to implement that, if it's even possible. I know it's not very secure, but all this platform and system is built outside the internet, it's on a private network.

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  • What techniques do you use for emitting data from the server that will solely be used in client side scripts?

    - by chuck
    Hi all, I never found an optimal solution for this problem so I am hoping that some of you out there have a few solutions. Let's say I need to render out a list of checkboxes and each checkbox has a set of additional data that goes with it. This data will be used purely in the context of javascript and jquery. My usual strategy is to render this data in hidden fields that are grouped in the same container as the checkbox. My rendered HTML will look something like this: <div> <input type="checkbox" /> <input type="hidden" class="genreId" /> <input type="hidden" class="titleId" /> </div> My only problem with this is that the data in the hidden fields get posted to the server when the form is submitted. For small amounts of data, this is fine. However, I frequently work with large datasets and a large amount of data is needlessly transferred. UPDATE: Before submitting this post, I just saw that I can add a "DISABLED" attribute to my input element to suppress the submission of data. Is this pretty much the best approach that I can take? Thanks

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  • Floating inner div in parent

    - by Ockonal
    Hello, I have two divs: <div id="modalBox" style="position: absolute; border: 1px solid #bababa; width: 400px; height: 180px; background-color: #e3e6ca; text-align: center; -moz-border-radius: 6px; -webkit-border-radius: 6px; display: none;"> <div style="background-color: #98002f; background-image: url(*/images/tab_background.gif); color: white; width: 400px; height: 25px; -moz-border-radius-topright: 6px; -moz-border-radius-topleft: 6px; -webkit-border-top-right-radius: 6px; -webkit-border-top-left-radius: 6px;"> <h3>Please, fill the form to confirm your identity:</h3> </div> ... </div> What I get: How can I make inner div floating top?

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  • Filter Date using Date Picker in Yii

    - by era
    I have generated my crud screens using gii.. I have a search form, where i have put a date picker, where i give the user to select the date he wants. But the problem is that i have the date stored in seconds in the database. and i know that i can convert the date using strtotime. But then how do i filter using the search method in my model? this is my date picker <?php $this->widget('zii.widgets.jui.CJuiDatePicker', array( 'name'=>'ordering_date', 'id'=>'ordering_date', // additional javascript options for the date picker plugin 'options'=>array( 'showAnim'=>'fold', ), 'htmlOptions'=>array( 'style'=>'height:20px;' ), )); ?> and this is my search method in my model. I want to compare the ordering_date public function search() { // Warning: Please modify the following code to remove attributes that // should not be searched. //echo $this->ordering_date; $criteria=new CDbCriteria; $criteria->compare('order_id',$this->order_id); $criteria->compare('customer_id',$this->customer_id); $criteria->compare('delivery_address_id',$this->delivery_address_id); $criteria->compare('billing_address_id',$this->billing_address_id); $criteria->compare('ordering_date',$this->ordering_date); $criteria->compare('ordering_done',$this->ordering_done,true); $criteria->compare('ordering_confirmed',$this->ordering_confirmed); $criteria->compare('payment_method',$this->payment_method); $criteria->compare('shipping_method',$this->shipping_method); $criteria->compare('comment',$this->comment,true); $criteria->compare('status',$this->status,true); $criteria->compare('total_price',$this->total_price); return new CActiveDataProvider($this, array( 'criteria'=>$criteria, )); }

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  • Clarification/explanation of RegisterClientScriptInclude method

    - by mpminnich
    I've been looking on the Internet for a fairly clear explanation of the different methods of registering javascript in an asp.net application. I think I have a basic understating of the difference between registerStartupScript and registerClientScriptBlock (the main difference being where in the form the script is inserted). I'm not sure I understand what the RegisterClientScriptInclude method does or when it is used. From what I can gather, it is used to register an external .js file. Does this then make any and all javascript functions in that file available to the aspx page it was registered on? For example, if it was registered in the onLoad event of a master page, would all pages using that master page be able to use the javascript functions in the .js file? What problems would arise when trying to use document.getElementById in this case, if any? Also, when it is necessary/advantageous to use multiple .js files and register them separately? I appreciate any help you can give. If you know of any really good resources I can use to get a thorough understanding of this concept, I'd appreciate it!

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  • JSONP not firing on IPad

    - by Gemtag
    After trying everything possible I've come to the conclusion this is an issue with IPad Safari. This works in FF, IE, Chrome, and Safari on MacBook. Below is my dumbed-down code. I have 2 separate JSONP calls, This first one works in all browsers including IPad. This simply calls a function based on a blur event $('#gender').blur(function() { reTarget(); }); function reTarget() { $.getJSON("http://host.com/Jsonpgm?jsoncallback=?", function() { } ); } Below is where things break. On the same page as the above code is the following, which calls a function based on a submit button click. $(':submit').bind('click', function(event) { if (checkThis() == false) { return false; }; }); $('form').bind('submit', function(event) { if (checkThis() == false) { return false; }; }); function checkThis() { $.getJSON("http://host.com/Jsonpgm.aspx?jsoncallback=?", function() { } ); } This code will not fire. I've put alerts right before it and they fire. I look at the web logs and there is no entry for this json call. I would take any suggestions on this. At this point I fear it's a problem with firing jsonp from a submit event.

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  • database design - empty fields

    - by imanc
    Hey, I am currently debating an issue with a guy on my dev team. He believes that empty fields are bad news. For instance, if we have a customer details table that stores data for customers from different countries, and each country has a slightly different address configuration - plus 1-2 extra fields, e.g. French customer details may also store details for entry code, and floor/level plus title fields (madamme, etc.). South Africa would have a security number. And so on. Given that we're talking about minor variances my idea is to put all of the fields into the table and use what is needed on each form. My colleague believes we should have a separate table with extra data. E.g. customer_info_fr. But this seams to totally defeat the purpose of a combined table in the first place. His argument is that empty fields / columns is bad - but I'm struggling to find justification in terms of database design principles for or against this argument and preferred solutions. Another option is a separate mini EAV table that stores extra data with parent_id, key, val fields. Or to serialise extra data into an extra_data column in the main customer_data table. I think I am confused because what I'm discussing is not covered by 3NF which is what I would typically use as a reference for how to structure data. So my question specifically: - if you have slight variances in data for each record (1-2 different fields for instance) what is the best way to proceed?

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  • How can I prevent infinite recursion when using events to bind UI elements to fields?

    - by Billy ONeal
    The following seems to be a relatively common pattern (to me, not to the community at large) to bind a string variable to the contents of a TextBox. class MyBackEndClass { public event EventHandler DataChanged; string _Data; public string Data { get { return _Data; } set { _Data = value; //Fire the DataChanged event } } } class SomeForm : // Form stuff { MyBackEndClass mbe; TextBox someTextBox; SomeForm() { someTextBox.TextChanged += HandleTextBox(); mbe.DataChanged += HandleData(); } void HandleTextBox(Object sender, EventArgs e) { mbe.Data = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } void HandleData(Object sender, EventArgs e) { someTextBox.Text = ((MyBackEndClass) sender).Data; } } The problem is that changing the TextBox fires the changes the data value in the backend, which causes the textbox to change, etc. That runs forever. Is there a better design pattern (other than resorting to a nasty boolean flag) that handles this case correctly? EDIT: To be clear, in the real design the backend class is used to synchronize changes between multiple forms. Therefore I can't just use the SomeTextBox.Text property directly. Billy3

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  • What's the best practice for make username check like Twitter ?

    - by Space Cracker
    I develop registration form and it have username field, and it's required to be like twitter username check ( real time check ) .. i already develop as in every textbox key up I use jquery to pass textbox.Text to page that return if is username exist or not as following code : function Check() { var userName = $('#<%= TextBox1.ClientID %>').val(); if (userName.length < 3) { $('#checkUserNameDIV').html("user name must be between 3 and 20"); return; } $('#checkUserNameDIV').html('<img src="loader.gif" />'); //setTimeout("CheckExistance('" + userName + "')", 5000); CheckExistance(userName); } function CheckExistance(userName) { $.get( "JQueryPage.aspx", { name: userName }, function(result) { var msg = ""; if (result == "1") msg = "Not Exist " + '<img src="unOK.gif" />'; else if (result == "0") msg = "Exist" ; else if (result == "error") msg = "Error , try again"; $('#checkUserNameDIV').html(msg); } ); } but i don't know if is it the best way to do that ? specially i do check every keyup .. is there any design pattern for this problem or nay good practice for doing that ?

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  • Calling base Text method on custom TextBox

    - by The Demigeek
    I'm trying to create a CurrencyTextBox that inherits from TextBox. I'm seeing some really weird behavior that I just don't understand. After lots of testing, I think I can summarize as follows: In the class code, when I access base.Text (to get the textbox's text), I'm actually getting the return value of my overridden Text property. I thought the base keyword would ensure that the underlying object's methods get called. To demonstrate: public class cTestTextBox : System.Windows.Forms.TextBox { string strText = ""; public cTestTextBox() { SetVal("AAA"); base.Text = "TEST"; } public override string Text { get { string s = strText; s = "++" + s + "++"; return s; } } public void SetVal(string val) { strText = val; } } Place this control on a form and set a breakpoint on the constructor. Run the app. Hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltip shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. Execute the SetVal() statement and again hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltop shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. How do I reliably access the Text property of the textbox from which I'm inheriting?

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  • multiple-to-one relationship mysql, submissions

    - by Yulia
    Hello, I have the following problem. Basically I have a form with an option to submit up to 3 images. Right now, after each submission it creates 3 records for album table and 3 records for images. I need it to be one record for album and 3 for images, plus to link images to the album. I hope it all makes sense... Here is my structure. TABLE `albums` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `title` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `fullname` varchar(40) NOT NULL, `email` varchar(100) NOT NULL, `created_at` datetime NOT NULL, `theme_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `description` int(11) NOT NULL, `vote_cache` int(11) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=20 ; TABLE `images` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `album_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `name` varchar(30) NOT NULL, and my code function create_album($params) { db_connect(); $query = sprintf("INSERT INTO albums set albums.title = '%s', albums.email = '%s', albums.discuss_url = '%s', albums.theme_id = '%s', albums.fullname = '%s', albums.description = '%s', created_at = NOW()", mysql_real_escape_string($params['title']), mysql_real_escape_string($params['email']), mysql_real_escape_string($params['theme_id']), mysql_real_escape_string($params['fullname']), mysql_real_escape_string($params['description']) ); $result = mysql_query($query); if(!$result) { return false; } $album_id = mysql_insert_id(); return $album_id; } if(!is_uploaded_file($_FILES['userfile']['tmp_name'][$i])) { $warning = 'No file uploaded'; } elseif is_valid_file_size($_FILES['userfile']['size'][$i])) { $_POST['album']['theme_id'] = $theme['id']; create_album($_POST['album']); mysql_query("INSERT INTO images(name) VALUES('$newName')"); copy($_FILES['userfile']['tmp_name'][$i], './photos/'.$original_dir.'/' .$newName.'.jpg');

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  • Importing a C DLL's functions into a C++ program

    - by bobobobo
    I have a 3rd party library that's written in C. It exports all of its functions to a DLL. I have the .h file, and I'm trying to load the DLL from my C++ program. The first thing I tried was surrounding the parts where I #include the 3rd party lib in #ifdef __cplusplus extern "C" { #endif and, at the end #ifdef __cplusplus } // extern "C" #endif But the problem there was, all of the DLL file function linkage looked like this in their header files: a_function = (void *)GetProcAddress(dll, "a_function"); While really a_function had type int (*a_function) (int *). Apparently MSVC++ compiler doesn't like this, while MSVC compiler does not seem to mind. So I went through (brutal torture) and fixed them all to the pattern typedef int (*_a_function) (int *); _a_function a_function ; Then, to link it to the DLL code, in main(): a_function = (_a_function)GetProcAddress(dll, "a_function"); This SEEMS to make the compiler MUCH, MUCH happier, but it STILL complains with this final set of 143 errors, each saying for each of the DLL link attempts: error LNK2005: _a_function already defined in main.obj main.obj Multiple symbol definition errors.. sounds like a job for extern! SO I went and made ALL the function pointer declarations as follows: function_pointers.h typedef int (*_a_function) (int *); extern _a_function a_function ; And in a cpp file: function_pointers.cpp #include "function_pointers.h" _a_function a_function ; ALL fine and dandy.. except for linker errors now of the form: error LNK2001: unresolved external symbol _a_function main.obj Main.cpp includes "function_pointers.h", so it should know where to find each of the functions.. I am bamboozled. Does any one have any pointers to get me functional? (Pardon the pun..)

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  • Why it's can be compiled in GNU/C++, can't compiled in VC++2010 RTM?

    - by volnet
    #include #include #include #include "copy_of_auto_ptr.h" #ifdef _MSC_VER #pragma message("#include ") #include // http://gcc.gnu.org/onlinedocs/gcc/Diagnostic-Pragmas.html#Diagnostic-Pragmas #endif /* case 1-4 is the requirement of the auto_ptr. which form http://ptgmedia.pearsoncmg.com/images/020163371X/autoptrupdate/auto_ptr_update.html */ /* case 1. (1) Direct-initialization, same type, e.g. */ std::auto_ptr source_int() { // return std::auto_ptr(new int(3)); std::auto_ptr tmp(new int(3)); return tmp; } /* case 2. (2) Copy-initialization, same type, e.g. */ void sink_int(std::auto_ptr p) { std::cout source_derived() { // return std::auto_ptr(new Derived()); std::auto_ptr tmp(new Derived()); return tmp; } /* case 4. (4) Copy-initialization, base-from-derived, e.g. */ void sink_base( std::auto_ptr p) { p-go(); } int main(void) { /* // auto_ptr */ // case 1. // auto_ptr std::auto_ptr p_int(source_int()); std::cout p_derived(source_derived()); p_derived-go(); // case 4. // auto_ptr sink_base(source_derived()); return 0; } In Eclipse(GNU C++.exe -v gcc version 3.4.5 (mingw-vista special r3)) it's two compile error: Description Resource Path Location Type initializing argument 1 of void sink_base(std::auto_ptr<Base>)' from result ofstd::auto_ptr<_Tp::operator std::auto_ptr<_Tp1() [with _Tp1 = Base, _Tp = Derived]' auto_ptr_ref_research.cpp auto_ptr_ref_research/auto_ptr_ref_research 190 C/C++ Problem Description Resource Path Location Type no matching function for call to `std::auto_ptr::auto_ptr(std::auto_ptr)' auto_ptr_ref_research.cpp auto_ptr_ref_research/auto_ptr_ref_research 190 C/C++ Problem But it's right in VS2010 RTM. Questions: Which compiler stand for the ISO C++ standard? The content of case 4 is the problem "auto_ptr & auto_ptr_ref want to resolve?"

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  • RichTextBox text is not shown C#

    - by user271077
    using richtextbox control programatically i'm appending text to the richtextbox . richTextBox1.AppendText("hello"); somehow the text appears in the richTextBox1.Text but is not shown in the form. any idea of what might be the problem? (I checked the forecolor seems ok). Thanks in advance Edit: found the root cause (had by mistake the initializeComponent() twice. ) private void InitializeComponent() { this.richTextBox1 = new System.Windows.Forms.RichTextBox(); this.SuspendLayout(); // // richTextBox1 // this.richTextBox1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(114, 104); this.richTextBox1.Name = "richTextBox1"; this.richTextBox1.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(100, 96); this.richTextBox1.TabIndex = 0; this.richTextBox1.Text = ""; // // Form1 // this.AutoScaleDimensions = new System.Drawing.SizeF(6F, 13F); this.AutoScaleMode = System.Windows.Forms.AutoScaleMode.Font; this.ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(284, 262); this.Controls.Add(this.richTextBox1); this.Name = "Form1"; this.Text = "Form1"; this.Load += new System.EventHandler(this.Form1_Load); this.ResumeLayout(false); } public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { richTextBox1.AppendText("hello world"); }` but still curious about why did this cause this weird behavior?

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  • ASP.NET DropDownList control doesn't postback correctly inside of UserControl

    - by RichardAZ
    I have a situation where a DropDownList control is not posting back correctly. The AutoPost property is set to true, so the postback does happen, but the SelectedValue is not set to the correct value. In addition, the onSelectedIndexChanged event doesn't fire. The exact same code works perfect fine on an ASPX page, but does not work in a ASCX control. I have tried all the obvious things, I hope, trying to figure this one out, but no luck so far. I have even investigated what comes back in Request.Form["__EVENTTARGET"] and __EVENTARGUMENT. __EVENTTARGET does point to the drop down list, but the argument is empty. Can the folks of StackOverflow help lead me in the right direction to debug this issue. Of course, it is further complicated by master pages and the usual overcomplication of ASP.NET. Here is the code: <div> <asp:DropDownList ID="testDrop" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" EnableViewState="true" onselectedindexchanged="testDrop_SelectedIndexChanged"> <asp:ListItem Value="1" Text="1">1</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="2" Text="2">2</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> </div> And here is the generated html: <select id="ctl00_MainContent_rptAccordion_ctl00_statControl_testDrop" onchange="javascript:setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'ctl00$MainContent$rptAccordion$ctl00$statControl$testDrop\',\'\')', 0)" name="ctl00$MainContent$rptAccordion$ctl00$statControl$testDrop"> <option value="1" selected="selected">1</option> <option value="2">2</option> THANKS!

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  • Setting up App Engine to receive email addresses with ids in the address

    - by Mark M
    I am writing an App Engine app that is supposed to receive emails in this form: [email protected] (someID is an alphanumeric ID that I generate). I have this in my web.xml thinking it would catch emails that start with 'addcontact.': <servlet> <servlet-name>addNewContactServlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>com.mycompany.server.AddNewContactServlet</servlet- class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>addNewContactServlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/_ah/mail/addcontact.*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> However, both on my dev machine and on google's servers email is not received. On the dev machine I get this message (I get a similar error in the deployed log) Message send failure HTTP ERROR 404 Problem accessing /_ah/mail/ [email protected]. Reason: NOT_FOUND I can receive email at fully specified addresses or when I use /_ah/mail/* The google documentation made me believe it was possible to include partial email addresses in web.xml. Am I not using the wildcard correctly? Does the period have something to do with it? Can this be done somehow?

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  • Passing additional data value to strongly typed partial views in ASP.NET MVC

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    I have an OrderForm domain class, which has property subclasses, something like: interface IOrderForm { int OrderId { get; } ICustomerDetails CustomerDetails { get; set; } IDeliveryDetails DeliveryDetails{ get; set; } IPaymentsDetails PaymentsDetails { get; set; } IOrderDetails OrderDetails { get; set; } } My "Details" view is strongly typed inheriting from IOrderForm. I then have a strongly type partial for rendering each section: <div id="CustomerDetails"> <% Html.RenderPartial("CustomerDetails", Model.CustomerDetails); %> </div> <div id="DeliveryDetails"> <% Html.RenderPartial("DeliveryDetails", Model.DeliveryDetails); %> </div> ... etc This works ok up to this point, but I'm trying to add some nice ajax bits for updating some parts of the order form, and I've realised that each of my partial views also needs access to the IOrderForm.OrderId. Whats the easiest way to give my partials access to this value?

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  • Building a structure/object in a place other than the constructor

    - by Vishal Naidu
    I have different types of objects representing the same business entity. UIObject, PowershellObject, DevCodeModelObject, WMIObject all are different representation to the same entity. So say if the entity is Animal then I have AnimalUIObject, AnimalPSObject, AnimalModelObject, AnimalWMIObject, etc. Now the implementations of AnimalUIObject, AnimalPSObject, AnimalModelObject are all in separate assemblies. Now my scenario is I want to verify the contents of business entity Animal irrespective of the assembly it came from. So I created a GenericAnimal class to represent the Animal entity. Now in GenericAnimal I added the following constructors: GenericAnimal(AnimalUIObject) GenericAnimal(AnimalPSObject) GenericAnimal(AnimalModelObject) Basically I made GenericAnimal depend on all the underlying assemblies so that while verifying I deal with this abstraction. Now the other approach to do this is have GenericAnimal with an empty constructor an allow these underlying assemblies to have a Transform() method which would build the GenericAnimal. Both approaches have some pros and cons: The 1st approach: Pros: All construction logic is in one place in one class GenericAnimal Cons: GenericAnimal class must be touched every-time there is a new representation form. The 2nd approach: Pros: construction responsibility is delegated to the underlying assembly. Cons: As construction logic is spread accross assemblies, tomorrow if I need to add a property X in GenericAnimal then I have to touch all the assemblies to change the Transform method. Which approach looks better ? or Which would you consider a lesser evil ? Is there any alternative way better than the above two ?

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  • Is it OK to set state within Event Raising methods?

    - by Greg
    I ran across this pattern in the code of a library I'm using. It sets state within the event raising method, but only if the event is not null. protected virtual void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { if(MyEvent != null) { State = "Executing"; // Only sets state if MyEvent != null. MyEvent(this,e); } } Which means that the state is not set when overriding the method: protected override void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { base.OnMyEvent(e); Debug.Assert( State == "Executing" ); // This fails } but is only set when handling the event: foo.MyEvent += (o, args) => Debug.Assert(State == "Executing"); // This passes Setting state within the if(MyEvent != null) seems like bad form, but I've checked the Event Design Guidelines and it doesn't mention this. Do you think this code is incorrect? If so, why? (Reference to design guidelines would be helpful). Edit for Context: It's a Control, I'm trying to create subclass of it, and the state that it's setting is calling EnsureChildControls() conditionally based upon there being an event handler. I can call EnsureChildControls() myself, but I consider that something of a hack.

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  • Converted PHP query to PDO and now getting no results

    - by jaw
    I had a query working just fine, but after converting it to PDO I am getting no results when I do a var_dump($row). But there are no error messages. Can anyone see what I might be doing wrong? //Here is the original query that worked fine and returned results global $wpdb; $results = $wpdb->get_results("SELECT stories.story_name, stories.category, stories.SID, wp_users.ID, wp_users.display_name FROM stories LEFT JOIN wp_users ON stories.ID=wp_users.ID where stories.active = 1"); //Here is the query in PDO form which returns no results $results = $dbh->prepare("select wp_users.ID, wp_users.display_name, stories.SID, stories.story_name, stories.category, FROM stories LEFT JOIN wp_users ON stories.ID=wp_users.ID WHERE stories.active=1"); $results->bindParam(':wp_users.ID', $user_ID, PDO::PARAM_INT); $results->bindParam(':display_name', $display_name, PDO::PARAM_STR); $results->bindParam(':stories.SID', $SID, PDO::PARAM_INT); $results->bindParam(':story_name', $story_name, PDO::PARAM_STR); $results->bindParam(':category', $category, PDO::PARAM_STR); $results->execute(); $row = $results->fetchAll(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); //returns 0 results but should return 8 as original code above did echo var_dump($row);

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  • .NET security mechanism to restrict access between two Types in the same project?

    - by jdk
    Question: Is there a mechanism in the .NET Framework to hide one custom Type from another without using separate projects/assemblies? I'm using C# with ASP.NET in a Website project. Note: I'm not talking about access modifiers to hide members of a Type from another type - I mean to hide the Type itself. Background: I'm working in an ASP.NET Website project and the team has decided not to use separate project assemblies for different software layers. Therefore I'm looking for a way to have, for example, a DataAccess/ folder of which I disallow its classes to access other Types in the same ASP.NET Website project. In other words I want to fake the layers and have some kind of security mechanism around each layer to prevent it from accessing another. Obviously there's not a way to enforce this restriction using language-specific OO keywords so I am looking for something else, for example: maybe a permission framework or code access mechanism, maybe something that uses meta data like Attributes. Even something that restricts one namespace from accessing another. I'm unsure the final form it might take. If this were C++ I'd likely be using friend to make as solution, which doesn't translate to C# internal in this case although they're often compared. I don't really care whether the solution actually hides Types from each other or just makes them inaccessible; however I don't want to lock down one Type from all others, another reason access modifiers are not a solution. A runtime or design time answer will suffice. Looking for something easy to implement otherwise it's not worth the effort ...

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  • Dojo: Setting a CheckBox label programmatically

    - by Mitchell Flaherty
    Let me preface by saying that I saw this other question on the subject of CheckBox labels that was asked and answered well over a year ago. I was confused by the answers and am hoping that someone can clarify or that there has been new dojo functionality introduced since then that allows me to do this without resorting to HTML. So without further ado, I would like to know how to programmatically create labels for check boxes. I have a check box like so: this.pubBoxId = new dijit.form.CheckBox({ label: "IdChannel", checked: false, channel: that.idChannel }, that.name + "_PBI"); As you can see I've tried to edit the "label" field, but the label never actually shows up on the page. I have multiple CheckBoxes that I am adding to a ContentPane and simply want a label to the left or right of the check box. Is there any way I can do this without having to write separate HTML? Also, making a separate ContentPane for each individual label would be a big pain because of how many CheckBoxes I plan to have. Thank you for reading, and let me know if further clarification is needed!

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  • Logging in to website with saved username and password

    - by DGund
    One of the functions of an app I am making involves logging the user into our Campus Portal website. For ease of use, the user may enter a username and password into the app once, and it will be saved for all future log-ins. When the user clicks a button, the information will automatically be sent to log in, and the website will be displayed in a UIWebView. Let us say that the username and password are each stored in an NSString. How can I use this data to log in to this website programmatically and display the page it in a UIWebView? I know little about posting and forms, so any help is appreciated. Would something like this Stackoverflow answer help? Here's the shell of my code for this - (IBAction)btnGo:(id)sender { username = usernameField.text; password = passwordField.text; if (saveSwitch.isOn) { //Save data if the user wants AppDelegate *appDelegate = (AppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; usernameSaved = username; passwordSaved = password; [appDelegate.listOfPortalCredentials replaceObjectAtIndex:0 withObject:usernameSaved]; [appDelegate.listOfPortalCredentials replaceObjectAtIndex:1 withObject:passwordSaved]; } //Insert username and password to web form, log in to portal //This is where I need help }

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