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• Pass Element value to $ajax->link in cakephp

  - by TwoThumbs

  I need to pass the value of an element to an $ajax-link without using a form/submit structure. (because I have a dynamically set number of clickable links through which I am triggering the action) I used to do this in Ruby using the Prototype javascript function $F like this: <%= link_to_remote "#{item.to_s}", :url => { :action => :add_mpc }, :with => "'category=' + $F('mpc_category')" -%> But this does not seem to work in Cakephp: <?php echo $ajax->link(substr($vehicle['vehicles']['year'], -2), array('action' => 'add_mpc', 'category' => '$F("mpc_category")'), array('update' => 'results', 'position' => 'top')); ?> PHP sees $F as a variable instead of a call to javascript. I'm not too familiar with Javascript, but is there another way to pass the value of the 'mpc_category' input element to the controller through this link? I have been looking for a couple days and can't find anyone dealing with this specific issue. Thanks for any assistance. Edit: fixed syntax in php statement.

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• jquery asp.net combo box question

  - by coson

  Good Day, I have a small form with a combo box (ASP.NET Drop Down List control) and a text box (with a DIV id txtName). When the selected index of the combo box changes, I want to clear out the text box. I understand that: $("#txtName").val(''); clears the text box value The thing is the combo box. It contains a list of integers representing the months of the year. The drop down control is called ddlMonths. $("#ddlMonths").change(function() { $("#txtName").val(''); }); I thought by using change, an onSelectedIndexChange event handler would be associated with this control. I also tried (because I've ran into the client id being mangled in ASP.NET w/ jQuery) this: $("#<%=ddlMonths.ClientID%>").change(function() { $("#<%=txtName.ClientID%>").val(''); }); and neither approach seems to be working. Am I missing something? TIA, coson

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• UPDATE Table SET Field

  - by davlyo

  This is my Very first Post! Bear with me. I have an Update Statement that I am trying to understand how SQL Server handles it. UPDATE a SET a.vField3 = b.vField3 FROM tableName a INNER JOIN tableName b ON a.vField1 = b.vField1 AND b.nField2 = a.nField2 – 1 This is my query in its simplest form. vField1 is a Varchar nField2 is an int (autonumber) vField3 is a Varchar I have left the WHERE clause out so understand there is logic that otherwise makes this a nessessity. Say vField1 is a Customer Number and that Customer has 3 records The value in nField2 is 1, 2, and 3 consecutively. vField3 is a Status When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 1 there is no a.nField2 -1 so it continues When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 2, b.nField2 = 1 When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 3, b.nField2 = 2 So when the Update is on a.nField2 = 2, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 1) And it SETs the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the Update is on a.nField2 = 3, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 2) And it (should) SET the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the process is complete –the Second of three records looks as expected –hence the value in vField3 of the second record reflects the value in vField3 from the First record However, vField3 of the Third record does not reflect the value in vField3 from the Second record. I think this demonstrates that SQL Server may be producing a transaction of some sort and then an update. Question: How can I get the DB to Update after each transaction so I can reference the values generated by each transaction?

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• receiving signal: EXC_BAD_ACCESS in web service call function

  - by murali

  I'm new to iPhone development. I'm using xcode 4.2. When I click on the save button, I'm getting values from the html page and my web service is processing them, and then I get the error: program received signal: EXC_BAD_ACCESS in my web service call function. Here is my code: NSString *val=[WebviewObj stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:@"save()"]; NSLog(@"return value:: %@",val); [adict setObject:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%i",userid5] forKey:@"iUser_Id" ]; [adict setObject:[[val componentsSeparatedByString:@","]objectAtIndex:0] forKey:@"vImage_Url"]; [adict setObject:[[val componentsSeparatedByString:@","]objectAtIndex:1] forKey:@"IGenre_Id"]; [adict setObject:[[val componentsSeparatedByString:@","]objectAtIndex:2] forKey:@"vTrack_Name"]; [adict setObject:[[val componentsSeparatedByString:@","]objectAtIndex:3] forKey:@"vAlbum_Name"]; [adict setObject:[[val componentsSeparatedByString:@","]objectAtIndex:4] forKey:@"vMusic_Url"]; [adict setObject:[[val componentsSeparatedByString:@","]objectAtIndex:5] forKey:@"iTrack_Duration_min"]; [adict setObject:[[val componentsSeparatedByString:@","]objectAtIndex:6] forKey:@"iTrack_Duration_sec"]; [adict setObject:[[val componentsSeparatedByString:@","]objectAtIndex:7] forKey:@"vDescription"]; NSLog(@"dict==%@",[adict description]); NSString *URL2= @"http://184.164.156.55/Music/Track.asmx/AddTrack"; obj=[[UrlController alloc]init]; obj.URL=URL2; obj.InputParameters = adict; [obj WebserviceCall]; obj.delegate= self; //this is my function..it is working for so many function calls -(void)WebserviceCall{ webData = [[NSMutableData alloc] init]; NSMutableURLRequest *urlRequest = [[ NSMutableURLRequest alloc ] initWithURL: [ NSURL URLWithString: URL ] ]; NSString *httpBody = @""; for(id key in InputParameters) { if([httpBody length] == 0){ httpBody=[httpBody stringByAppendingFormat:@"&%@=%@",key,[InputParameters valueForKey:key]]; } else{ httpBody=[httpBody stringByAppendingFormat:@"&%@=%@",key,[InputParameters valueForKey:key]]; } } httpBody = [httpBody stringByAppendingFormat:httpBody];//Here i am getting EXC_BAD_ACCESS [urlRequest setHTTPMethod: @"POST" ]; [urlRequest setHTTPBody:[httpBody dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; [urlRequest setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"content-type"]; NSURLConnection *theConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:urlRequest delegate:self]; } Can any one help me please? thanks in advance

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• Prototype or jQuery for DOM manipulation (client-side dynamic content)

  - by luiggitama

  I need to know which of these two JavaScript frameworks is better for client-side dynamic content modification for known DOM elements (by id), in terms of performance, memory usage, etc.: Prototype's $('id').update(content) jQuery's jQuery('#id').html(content) BTW, both libraries coexist with no conflict in my app, because I'm using RichFaces for JSF development, that's why I can use "jQuery" instead of "$". I have at least 20 updatable areas in my page, and for each one I prepare content (tables, option lists, etc.), based on some user-defined client-side criteria filtering or some AJAX event, etc., like this: var html = []; int idx = 0; ... html[idx++] = '<tr><td class="cell"><span class="link" title="View" onclick="myFunction('; html[idx++] = param; html[idx++] = ')"></span>'; html[idx++] = someText; html[idx++] = '</td></tr>'; ... So here comes the question, which is better to use: // Prototype's $('myId').update(html.join('')); // or jQuery's jQuery('#myId').html(html.join('')); Other needed functions are hide() and show(), which are present in both frameworks. Which is better? Also I'm needing to enable/disable form controls, and to read/set their values. Note that I know my updatable area's id (I don't need CSS selectors at this point). And I must tell that I'm saving these queried objects in some data structure for later use, so they are requested just once when the page is rendered, like this: MyData = {div1:jQuery('#id1'), div2:$('id2'), ...}; ... div1.update('content 1'); div2.html('content 2'); So, which is the best practice?

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• Help - use PHP-broswer, or proxy or get_page_contents or include page, or something else ??

  - by userlite

  Hi, I am trying to develop a web application for which I need to capture a specific user-driven event (such as mouse dblclick) occurring on a different-website page loaded through my website. What I want to do is : User visits my website - hosted by me. There, user types in any website URL (e.g.: http://www.example.com) That URL page gets loaded as is. When user double-clicks mouse over any link or image from that page, a popup/side-panel is displayed with content related to that particular image or link. I can do this with a combination of PHP get_page_contents or include-page, and javascript dblclick. However, when user clicks on any link or submits a form, the control goes to that other website, where I cannot show the side-panel. I might be able to handle the links by proxifying them when user clicks on any of them. How do I handle forms submission and other stuff ? I can use a full-featured proxy, but that will be too heavy just for the purpose of capturing the event. My question is that is there a way to write some kind of light PHP script that sits on my website - that loads other websites contents as is, but lets me capture the mouse-dblclick event to show related-content in the side panel . I have already searched the internet, but could not find anything. Any help is really appreciated. Thanks.

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• How do I force a DIV block to extend to the bottom of a page even if it has no content?

  - by Vince Panuccio

  In the markup shown below, I'm trying to get the content div to stretch all the way to the bottom of the page but it's only stretching if there's content to display. The reason I want to do this is so the vertical border still appears down the page even if there isn't any content to display. Here is my code <body> <form id="form1"> <div id="header"> <a title="Home" href="index.html" /> </div> <div id="menuwrapper"> <div id="menu"> </div> </div> <div id="content"> </div> and my CSS body { font-family: Trebuchet MS, Verdana, MS Sans Serif; font-size:0.9em; margin:0; padding:0; } div#header { width: 100%; height: 100px; } #header a { background-position: 100px 30px; background: transparent url(site-style-images/sitelogo.jpg) no-repeat fixed 100px 30px; height: 80px; display: block; } #header, #menuwrapper { background-repeat: repeat; background-image: url(site-style-images/darkblue_background_color.jpg); } #menu #menuwrapper { height:25px; } div#menuwrapper { width:100% } #menu, #content { width:1024px; margin: 0 auto; } div#menu { height: 25px; background-color:#50657a; } Thanks for taking a look.

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• How do you send an extended-ascii AT-command (CCh) from Android bluetooth to a serial device?

  - by softex

  This one really has me banging my head. I'm sending alphanumeric data from an Android app, through the BluetoothChatService, to a serial bluetooth adaptor connected to the serial input of a radio transceiver. Everything works fine except when I try to configure the radio on-the-fly with its AT-commands. The AT+++ (enter command mode) is received OK, but the problem comes with the extended-ascii characters in the next two commands: Changing the radio destination address (which is what I'm trying to do) requires CCh 10h (plus 3 hex radio address bytes), and exiting the command mode requires CCh ATO. I know the radio can be configured OK because I've done it on an earlier prototype with the serial commands from PIC basic, and it also can be configured by entering the commands directly from hyperterm. Both these methods somehow convert that pesky CCh into a form the radio understands. I've have tried just about everything an Android noob could possibly come up with to finagle the encoding such as: private void command_address() { byte[] addrArray = {(byte) 0xCC, 16, 36, 65, 21, 13}; CharSequence addrvalues = EncodingUtils.getString(addrArray, "UTF-8"); sendMessage((String) addrvalues); } but no matter what, I can't seem to get that high-order byte (CCh/204/-52) to behave as it should. All other (< 127) bytes, command or data, transmit with no problem. Any help here would be greatly appreciated. -Dave

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• auto_complete plugin error: Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_...

  - by bgadoci

  I have successfully set up this plugin before so I am curious as to what I am doing wrong here. I have built the ability for users to add tags to questions. I am not using tagging plugin here but that shouldn't matter for this. With respect to the auto complete, I am trying to have the form located in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file access the Tags table and display entries in the tags.tags_name column. When I begin to type in the field I get the following error message: Processing QuestionsController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-31 15:22:20) [GET] Parameters: {"tag"=>{"tag_name"=>"a"}, "id"=>"auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name"} Question Load (0.1ms) SELECT * FROM "questions" WHERE ("questions"."id" = 0) ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name): app/controllers/application_controller.rb:15:in `init_data' For some reason I am actually passing the field name as the Question.id. The plugin set up is fairly simple as you add the following line to your controller: auto_complete_for :tag, :tag_name and the following line in your routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have added the controller line to both my tags and questions controller and also mapped resources for both tags and questions in my routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } map.resources :questions, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have played around with removing either or of the above but can't seem to fix it. Any ideas what I am doing wrong here? UPDATE: My QuestionsController#show action is fishing posts by: @question = Question.find(params[:id])

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• jQuery toggle content-div from menubar

  - by nuclearsugar

  I'm having trouble getting jQuery to allow only one content-DIV to be visible at a time. So that clicking between the menu buttons (about, newsletter, contact) this will allow only one content-DIV to be visible. --- Then the content-DIV needs to hide when the associated menu button is clicked (like it does currently). --- Upon clicking the header 'alliteration', any content-DIVs that are open need to hide. http://home.jasonfletcher.info/all/alliteration/index.html $('#collapse_about').hide(); $('#collapse_newsletter').hide(); $('#collapse_contact').hide(); $('#menu1').click(function() { $('#collapse_about').slideToggle(400); return false; }); $('#menu2').click(function() { $('#collapse_newsletter').slideToggle(400); return false; }); $('#menu3').click(function() { $('#collapse_contact').slideToggle(400); return false; }); I understand that this is a pretty simple bit of code... but the form of it evades me. Any help is much appreciated.

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• How can I call a function in a parent movieclip from an externally-loaded child?

  - by Doug Wolfgram

  I have a swf file that is my 'shell' program that contains many functions. This shell program loads child movies. In the root timeline of the child movie, I have the following code: function putresponse(q,r) { trace (r); _root.debug(r); } _root.debug("foo"); Debug is a function that writes some text to the screen. When I run this locally, the putresponse function gets called and the trace happens. When I run it remotely (inside the shell) the first debug happens immediately on load (as you'd expect) but then later when putresponse is called, the debug(r) is not executed. The external clip is at the same url as the shell so I don't think it is a security issue. Also, as I said, the debug("foo") works fine. This one really has me perplexed. Can anyone shed some light as to why I can't call the debug from _root when called from a function rather than on the first-level timeline? EDIT: The call to putresponse is coming form two layers deep in local (within the child MC) MCs. The actual call is: _parent._parent.putrepsonse(q,r);

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• What kind of online hosting do I need for a WCF-based service?

  - by mafutrct

  First of all, I'm not sure if SO is the right place to ask. Please migrate me if needed. I would like to host a WCF-based service so it is available for everyone. While hosting it on my personal, local servers succeeded, I would prefer to move it to an external service provider for various reasons. I'll be blunt: I have no clue about hosting providers. I know there are webhosters, virtual and root servers and several other services. What I would like to know is what kind of hosting I need in my case. I understand that a root server would easily fulfill my requirements, but that is not exactly cheap. The program I'd like to run on the server requires .NET 4, preferably on a windows machine. Access to a folder in the file system is much appreciated (1 GB storage is enough by far). Communication with clients (in form of an applications written in .NET) via opening a port on the server. Traffic is low (<<1 GB/month?) There is no website. Having the provider perform updates would be nice. My understanding is that a virtual server would be a possible solution. Prices seem start at around 5€/month, which is ok for me. However, I read that for these cheap solutions RAM is severely limited (~400 MB), and I'm not confident that is enough to run windows and a .NET application.

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• What type of data store should I use for my ios app?

  - by mwiederrecht

  I am pretty new to ios and using servers so forgive me. I am building an ios app for research. I need to monitor things that the user does and then push it up to a server for analysis (yes, with user and IRB permission). On the client's side I need to keep quite a bit of data that won't really change except in the case of pulling an updated version from the server, and then a minimal amount of user-specific data. Most of the data I will collect needs to be pushed to a server for analysis and then can be deleted from the client side. I am struggling to figure out what kind of data store I need to use, especially since I am not quite sure how the pushing and pulling from the server process works yet. Does it make sense to use Core Data? XML? SQLite? I like the Core Data idea, but I am not sure what kind of problems I will run into when I need to send large amounts of data to it and from it from the server. I imagine I might need to send data in a different form than it is probably stored in on either end - so what kind of overhead am I likely to run into in the process of converting that data? Is there a good format to save stuff in that would work well for me on both ends AND for sending the data? As you can probably tell, I could use some advice. Thanks!

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• Query not being executed

  - by user2385241

  I'm trying to create a script that allows me to upload an image, grab the details sent through inputs (a description and chosen project number) and insert this information into a table. I currently have this function: public function NewEntry() { $connect = new dbconnect; $_SESSION['rnd'] = substr(number_format(time() * rand(),0,'',''),0,15); $allowedExts = array("gif", "jpeg", "jpg", "png"); $size = $_FILES["file"]["size"]; $path = $_FILES["file"]["name"]; $extension = pathinfo($path, PATHINFO_EXTENSION); $pr = $_POST['project']; $cl = $_POST['changelog']; $file = $_SESSION['rnd'] . "." . $extension; if (in_array($extension, $allowedExts) && $size < 200000000) { if ($_FILES["file"]["error"] == 0) { if (!file_exists("../uploads/" . $_SESSION['rnd'])) { move_uploaded_file($_FILES["file"]["tmp_name"], "../uploads/" . $_SESSION['rnd'] . "." . $extension); } } } else { echo "File validation failed."; } $row = $connect->queryExecute("INSERT INTO entries(project,file,changelog)VALUES($pr,$file,$cl)"); header('location:http://www.example.com/admin'); } When the form is posted the function runs, the image uploads but the query isn't executed. The dbconnect class isn't at fault as it's untampered and has been used in past projects. The error logs don't give any output and no MySQL errors show. Any ideas?

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• How can you pass an object from the form_for helper to a method?

  - by Alex

  So let's say I have a form which is being sent somewhere strange (and by strange we mean, NOT the default route: <% form_for @form_object, :url => {:controller => 'application', :action => 'form_action_thing'} do |f| %> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= submit_tag 'Login' %> <% end %> Now let's say that we have the method that accepts it. def form_action_thing User.find(????? :email ?????) end My questions are thus: How does can I make the object @form_object available to the receiving method (in this case, form_action_tag)? I've tried params[:form_object], and I've scoured this site and the API, which I have to post below because SO doesn't believe I'm not a spammer (I'm a new member), as well as Googled as many permutations of this idea as I could think of. Nothing. Sorry if I missed something, i'm really trying. How do I address the object, once I've made it accessible to the method? Not params[:form_object], I'm guessing.

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• Combining two exe files

  - by Sophia

  Here's some background to my problem: I have a project in Visual C++ 2006 and a project in in Visual C++ 2010 Express. Both compiles to form an exe file each. I cannot convert my 2006 project to 2010 because I get a lot of "unable to load project" errors. I also cannot port my 2010 project code to 2006 (I always get errors no matter what I try, something to do with libraries). My final solution requires me to only have ONE executable. Is there anything I can do to achieve that? I've done some quick search on Google and found there to be exe joiners, but I've also heard that those things are often used to make malware. For reference, I am working with "dummy" clients, and therefore want to simplify things on their end as much as possible. Thus, having them executing one exe is better than having them execute two. Also, I do not wish for their antivirus to go haywire because I used some program to join two exe together. What do? Edit: The two project files do different things. For example, the project in VS2006 one sets up a server, and the project in VS2010 one grabs info on the user's OS. The code for the "server", I think, has a lot of dependencies and for some reason cannot convert to Visual c++ 2010. The code for "grabbing" requires some newer libraries and compiling options, and would not work if I port to 2006.

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• Hot to set class variable to be visible to its public static methods?

  - by RCola

  Why I can noy access my variable p in mull form iterate method? How to resolve a problem? Hot to set class variable to be visible to its public static methods? public class mull { public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { final JPanel p = createAndShowGUI(); Timer timer = new Timer(1000, new MyTimerActionListener()); timer.start(); try { Thread.sleep(10000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { } timer.stop(); public static void iterate(){ for (int i = 0; i < 55; i++){ // "p cannot be resolved" p.moveSquare(i*10, i*10); p.setParamsRing(i*5, i*7, 200, 200); // p.repaint(); } } } class MyPanel extends JPanel { .... } How to access variable set in another method (in this example main())? Why Eclipse forces me to use this ((MyPanel) p).setParamsRing(i*5, i*7, 200, 200); instead of this p.setParamsRing(i*5, i*7, 200, 200);?

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• Can anyone help with this (Javascript arrays)?

  - by Rich

  Hi I am new to Netui and Javascript so go easy on me please. I have a form that is populated with container.item data retuned from a database. I am adding a checkbox beside each repeater item returned and I want to add the container item data to an array when one of the checkboxes is checked for future processing. The old code used Anchor tag to capture the data but that does not work for me. <!--netui:parameter name="lineupNo" value="{container.item.lineupIdent.lineupNo}" /> here is my checkbox that is a repeater. <netui:checkBox dataSource="{pageFlow.checkIsSelected}" onClick="checkBoxClicked()" tagId="pceChecked"/> this is my Javascript function so far but I want to a way to store the container.item.lineupIdent.lineupNo in the array. function checkBoxClicked() { var checkedPce = []; var elem = document.getElementById("PceList").elements; for (var i = 0; i < elem.length; i ++) { if (elem[i].name == netui_names.pceChecked) { if (elem[i].checked == true) { //do some code. } } } } I hope this is enough info for someone to help me. I have searched the web but could not find any examples. Thanks.

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• Android while getting HTTP response to file how to know it wasn't fully loaded?

  - by Stan

  I'm using this approach to store a big-sized response from server to parse it later: final HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(new BasicHttpParams()); final HttpGet mHttpGetRequest = new HttpGet(strUrl); mHttpGetRequest.setHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); FileOutputStream fos = null; try { final HttpResponse response = client.execute(mHttpGetRequest); final StatusLine statusLine = response.getStatusLine(); lastHttpErrorCode = statusLine.getStatusCode(); lastHttpErrorMsg = statusLine.getReasonPhrase(); if (lastHttpErrorCode == 200) { HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); fos = new FileOutputStream(reponseFile); entity.writeTo(fos); entity.consumeContent(); fos.flush(); } } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { e.printStackTrace(); lastHttpErrorMsg = e.toString(); return null; } catch (final ParseException e) { e.printStackTrace(); lastHttpErrorMsg = e.toString(); return null; } catch (final UnknownHostException e) { e.printStackTrace(); lastHttpErrorMsg = e.toString(); return null; } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); lastHttpErrorMsg = e.toString(); } finally{ if (fos!=null) try{ fos.close(); } catch (IOException e){} } now how could I ensure the response was completely received and thus saved to file? Assume client's device lost Internet connection while this code was running. So the app received only some part of real response. And I'm pretty sure it happens cuz I got parsing exceptions like "tag not closed", "unexpected end of file" etc. So I need to detect somehow this situation to prevent code from parsing partial response but can't see how. Is it possible at all and how to do it? Or has it has to raise IOException in such cases?

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• Magento - save quote_address on cart addAction using observer

  - by Byron

  I am writing a custom Magento module that gives rate quotes (based on an external API) on the product page. After I get the response on the product page, it adds some of the info from the response into the product view's form. The goal is to save the address (as well as some other things, but those can be in the session for now). The address needs to be saved to the quote, so that the checkout (onestepcheckout, free version) will automatically fill those values in (city, state, zip, country, shipping method [of which there are 3]) and load the rate quote via ajax (which it's already doing). I have gone about this by using an Observer, and watching for the cart events. I fill in the address and save it. When I end up on the cart page or checkout page ~4/5 times the data is lost, and the sql table shows that the quote_address is getting save with no address info, even though there is an explicit save. The observer method's I've used are: checkout_cart_update_item_complete checkout_cart_product_add_after The code saving is: (I've tried this with the address, quote and cart all not calling save() with the same results, as well as not calling setQuote() $quote->getShippingAddress() ->setCountryId($params['estimate_to_country']) ->setCity($params['estimate_to_city']) ->setPostcode($params['estimate_to_zip_code']) ->setRegionId($params['estimate_to_state_code']) ->setRegion($params['estimate_to_state']) ->setCollectShippingRates(true) ->setShippingMethod($params['carrier_method']) ->setQuote($quote) ->save(); $quote->getBillingAddress() ->setCountryId($params['estimate_to_country']) ->setCity($params['estimate_to_city']) ->setPostcode($params['estimate_to_zip_code']) ->setRegionId($params['estimate_to_state_code']) ->setRegion($params['estimate_to_state']) ->setCollectShippingRates(true) ->setShippingMethod($params['carrier_method']) ->setQuote($quote) ->save(); $quote->save(); $cart->save(); I imagine there's a good chance this is not the best place to save this info, but I am not quite sure. I was wondering if there is a good place to do this without overriding a whole controller to save the address on the add to cart action. Thanks so much, let me know if I need to clarify

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• how the get estimated output in timer

  - by ratty

  i have working with twp timer,the code below using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace example { public partial class Form1 : Form { int i = 0; int j = 0; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); timer1.Interval = 3000; } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { timer1.Enabled = true; } private void timer1_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { i++; timer2.Enabled = true; if (i < 3) time1(i); else timer1.Enabled = false; } private void timer2_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { j++; timer2.Interval = timer1.Interval / 5; if (j < 5) time2(j); else timer2.Enabled = false; } private void time1(int i) { MessageBox.Show(i.ToString(), "First Timer"); } private void time2(int j) { MessageBox.Show(j.ToString(), "SecondTimer"); } } } when running this program it gives output like this firsttimer:1 secondTimer:1 secondTimer:2 secondTimer:3 secondTimer:4 firsttimer:2 in message box but when debugging debug cannot move that order.after finisheg the secondtimer:2 it gose back to first timer. but i need to go for how i am output get i need for this in another application. why it occurs

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• Why ajax doesn't work unless I refresh or use location.href?

  - by Connor Tang

  I am working on a html project, which will eventually package by Phonegap. So I am trying to encode the data from html form to JSON format, then use ajax send to a php file resides on server, and receive the response to do something else. Now I use <a href='login.html'> in my index.html to open the login page. In my login page, I have this <script> $(document).ready(function(e) { $('#loginform').submit(function(){ var jData = { "email": $('#emailLogin').val(), "password": $('#Password').val()}; $.ajax({ url: 'PHP/login.php', type:'POST', data: jData, dataType: 'json', async: false, error: function(xhr,status){ //reload(); location.href='index.html'; alert('Wrong email and password'); }, success: function(data){ if(data[1] == 1){ var Id_user = data[0]; location.href='loginSuccess.html'; } } }); }); }); </script> to send my data to server. But I found that it won't work, it's still in the login page. I tried to enter data and submit again, it's still nothing happen. Until I refresh the login page and enter data again, it can give an error message or go to the loginsuccess page. However, when I use <script> function loadLogin(){ location.href='login.html'; } </script> to open the login page, everything works well. So what cause this? How can I modify this piece of code to make it better?

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• OOP + MVC advice on Member Controller

  - by dan727

  Hi, I am trying to follow good practices as much as possible while I'm learning using OOP in an MVC structure, so i'm turning to you guys for a bit of advice on something which is bothering me a little here. I am writing a site where I will have a number of different forms for members to fill in (mainly data about themselves), so i've decided to set up a Member controller where all of the forms relating to the member are represented as individual methods. This includes login/logout methods, as well as editing profile data etc. In addition to these methods, i also have a method to generate the member's control panel widget, which is a constant on every page on the site while the member is logged in. The only thing is, all of the other methods in this controller all have the same dependencies and form templates, so it would be great to generate all this in the constructor, but as the control_panel method does not have the same dependencies etc, I cannot use the constructor for this purpose, and instead I have to redeclare the dependencies and same template snippets in each method. This obviously isn't ideal and doesn't follow DRY principle, but I'm wondering what I should do with the control_panel method, as it is related to the member and that's why I put it in that controller in the first place. Am I just over-complicating things here and does it make sense to just move the control_panel method into a simple helper class? Here are the basic methods of the controller: class Member_Controller extends Website_Controller { public function __construct() { parent::__construct(); if (request::is_ajax()) { $this->auto_render = FALSE; // disable auto render } } public static function control_panel() { //load control panel view $panel = new View('user/control_panel'); return $panel; } public function login() { } public function register() { } public function profile() { } public function household() { } public function edit_profile() { } public function logout() { } }

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• Regex preg_match issue with commas

  - by Serge Sf

  This is my code to pre_match when an amount looks like this: $ 99.00 and it works if (preg_match_all('/[$]\s\d+(\.\d+)?/', $tout, $matches)) { $tot2 = $matches[0]; $tot2 = preg_replace("/\\\$/", '', $tot2);} I need to do the same thing for a amount that looks like this (with a comma): $ 99,00 Thank you for your help (changing dot for comma do not help, there is an "escape" thing I do not understand... Idealy I need to preg_match any number that looks like an amount with dot or commas and with or without dollar sign before or after (I know, it's a lot to ask :) since on the result form I want to scan there are phone and street numbers... UPDATE (For some reason I cannot comment on replies) : To test properly, I need to preg_replace the comma by a dot (since we are dealings with sums, I don't think calculations can be done on numbers with commas in it). So to clarify my question, I should say : I need to transform, let's say "$ 200,24" to "200.24". (could be amounts bettween 0.10 to 1000.99) : $tot2 = preg_replace("/\\\$/", '', $tot2);} (this code just deals with the $ (it works), I need adaptation to deal also with the change of (,) for (.))

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• Should I re-use UI elements across view controllers?

  - by Endemic

  In the iPhone app I'm currently working on, I'd like two navigation controllers (I'll call them A and B) to have toolbars that are identical in appearance and function. The toolbar in question will look like this: [(button) (flexible-space) (label)] For posterity's sake, the label is actually a UIBarButtonItem with a custom view. My design requires that A always appear directly before B on the navigation stack, so B will never be loaded without A having been loaded. Given this layout, I started wondering, "Is it worth it to re-use A's toolbar items in B's toolbar?" As I see it, my options are: 1. Don't worry about re-use, create the toolbar items twice 2. Create the toolbar items in A and pass them to B in a custom initializer 3. Use some more obscure method that I haven't thought of to hold the toolbar constant when pushing a view controller As far as I can see, option 1 may violate DRY, but guarantees that there won't be any confusion on the off chance that (for example) the button may be required to perform two different (no matter how similar) functions for either view controller in future versions of the app. Were that to happen, options 2 or 3 would require the target-action of the button to change when B is loaded and unloaded. Even if the button were never required to perform different functions, I'm not sure what its proper target would be under option 2. All in all, it's not a huge problem, even if I have to go with option 1. I'm probably overthinking this anyway, trying to apply the dependency injection pattern where it's not appropriate. I just want to know the best practice should this situation arise in a more extreme form, like if a long chain of view controllers need to use identical (in appearance and function) UI elements.

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