code conversion - Page 690

The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context [...] for 60 seconds

- by BlueRaja The Green Unicorn

I am getting this error on code that used to work. I have not changed the code. Here is the full error: The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context 0x3322d98 to COM context 0x3322f08 for 60 seconds. The thread that owns the destination context/apartment is most likely either doing a non pumping wait or processing a very long running operation without pumping Windows messages. This situation generally has a negative performance impact and may even lead to the application becoming non responsive or memory usage accumulating continually over time. To avoid this problem, all single threaded apartment (STA) threads should use pumping wait primitives (such as CoWaitForMultipleHandles) and routinely pump messages during long running operations. And here is the code that caused it: var openFileDialog1 = new System.Windows.Forms.OpenFileDialog(); openFileDialog1.DefaultExt = "mdb"; openFileDialog1.Filter = "Management Database (manage.mdb)|manage.mdb"; //Stalls indefinitely on the following line, then gives the CLR error //one minute later. The dialog never opens. if(openFileDialog1.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { .... } Yes, I am sure the dialog is not open in the background, and no, I don't have any explicit COM code or unmanaged marshalling or multithreading. I have no idea why the OpenFileDialog won't open - any ideas?

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Adjust static value into dynamic (javascript) value possible in Sharepoint allitems.aspx page?

- by lerac

<SharePoint:SPDataSource runat="server" IncludeHidden="true" SelectCommand="<View><Query><OrderBy><FieldRef Name="EventDate"/></OrderBy><Where><Contains><FieldRef Name="lawyer_x0020_1"/><Value Type="Note">F. Sanches</Value></Contains></Where></Query></View>" id="datasource1" DataSourceMode="List" UseInternalName="true"><InsertParameters><asp:Parameter DefaultValue="{ANUMBER}" Name="ListID"></asp:Parameter> This codeline is just one line of the allitems.aspx of a sharepoint list item. It only displays items where lawyer 1 = F. Sanches. Before I start messing around with the .ASPX page I wonder if it possible to change F. Sanches (in the code) into a dynamical variable (from a javascript value or something else that can be used to place the javascript value in there dynamically). If I put any javascript code in the line it will not work. P.S. Ignore ANUMBER part in code. Let say to make it simple I have javascript variable like this (now static but with my other code it is dynamic). It would be an achievement if it would place a static javascript variable. <SCRIPT type=text/javascript>javaVAR = "P. Janssen";</script> If Yes -- how? If No -- Thank you!

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How to (unit-)test data intensive PL/SQL application

- by doom2.wad

Our team is willing to unit-test a new code written under a running project extending an existing huge Oracle system. The system is written solely in PL/SQL, consists of thousands of tables, hundreds of stored procedures packages, mostly getting data from tables and/or inserting/updating other data. Our extension is not an exception. Most functions return data from a quite complex SELECT statementa over many mutually bound tables (with a little added logic before returning them) or make transformation from one complicated data structure to another (complicated in another way). What is the best approach to unit-test such code? There are no unit tests for existing code base. To make things worse, only packages, triggers and views are source-controlled, table structures (including "alter table" stuff and necessary data transformations are deployed via channel other than version control). There is no way to change this within our project's scope. Maintaining testing data set seems to be impossible since there is new code deployed to the production environment on weekly basis, usually without prior notice, often changing data structure (add a column here, remove one there). I'd be glad for any suggestion or reference to help us. Some team members tend to be tired by figuring out how to even start for our experience with unit-testing does not cover PL/SQL data intensive legacy systems (only those "from-the-book" greenfield Java projects).

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Problem in inferring instances that have integer cardinality constraint

- by Mikae Combarado

Hello, I have created an RDF/OWL file using Protege 4.1 alpha. I also created a defined class in Protege called CheapPhone. This class has a restriction which is shown below : (hasPrice some integer[< 350]) Whenever, a price of a phone is below 350, it is inferred as CheapPhone. There is no problem for inferring this in Protege 4.1 alpha. However, I cannot infer this using Jena. I also created a defined class called SmartPhone. This class also has a restriction which is shown below : (has3G value true) and (hasInternet value true) Whenever, a phone has 3G and Internet, it is inferred as SmartPhone. In this situation, there is no problem inferring this in both Protege and Jena. I have started to think that there is a problem in default inference engine of Jena. The code that I use in Java is below : Reasoner reasoner = ReasonerRegistry.getOWLReasoner(); reasoner = reasoner.bindSchema(ontModel); OntModelSpec ontModelSpec = OntModelSpec.OWL_MEM_MINI_RULE_INF; ontModelSpec.setReasoner(reasoner); // Create ontology model with reasoner support // ontModel was created and read before, so I don't share the code in order // not to create garbage here OntModel model = ModelFactory.createOntologyModel(ontModelSpec, ontModel); OntClass sPhone = model.getOntClass(ns + "SmartPhone"); ExtendedIterator s = sPhone.listInstances(); while(s.hasNext()) { OntResource mp = (OntResource)s.next(); System.out.println(mp.getURI()); } This code works perfectly and returns me the instances, but when I change the code below and make it appropriate for CheapPhone, it doesn't return anything. OntClass sPhone = model.getOntClass(ns + "CheapPhone"); Am I doing something wrong ?

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How to scale JPEG images with a non-standard sampling factor in Java?

- by HRJ

I am using Java AWT for scaling a JPEG image, to create thumbnails. The code works fine when the image has a normal sampling factor ( 2x2,1x1,1x1 ) However, an image which has this sampling factor ( 1x1, 1x1, 1x1 ) creates problem when scaled. The colors get corrupted though the features are recognizable. The original and the thumbnail: The code I am using is roughly equivalent to: static BufferedImage awtScaleImage(BufferedImage image, int maxSize, int hint) { // We use AWT Image scaling because it has far superior quality // compared to JAI scaling. It also performs better (speed)! System.out.println("AWT Scaling image to: " + maxSize); int w = image.getWidth(); int h = image.getHeight(); float scaleFactor = 1.0f; if (w > h) scaleFactor = ((float) maxSize / (float) w); else scaleFactor = ((float) maxSize / (float) h); w = (int)(w * scaleFactor); h = (int)(h * scaleFactor); // since this code can run both headless and in a graphics context // we will just create a standard rgb image here and take the // performance hit in a non-compatible image format if any Image i = image.getScaledInstance(w, h, hint); image = new BufferedImage(w, h, BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_RGB); Graphics2D g = image.createGraphics(); g.drawImage(i, null, null); g.dispose(); i.flush(); return image; } (Code courtesy of this page ) Is there a better way to do this? Here's a test image with sampling factor of [ 1x1, 1x1, 1x1 ].

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Do COM Dll References Require Manual Disposal? If so, How?

- by Drew

I have written some code in VB that verifies that a particular port in the Windows Firewall is open, and opens one otherwise. The code uses references to three COM DLLs. I wrote a WindowsFirewall class, which Imports the primary namespace defined by the DLLs. Within members of the WindowsFirewall class I construct some of the types defined by the DLLs referenced. The following code isn't the entire class, but demonstrates what I am doing. Imports NetFwTypeLib Public Class WindowsFirewall Public Shared Function IsFirewallEnabled as Boolean Dim icfMgr As INetFwMgr icfMgr = CType(System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type.GetTypeFromProgID("HNetCfg.FwMgr")), INetFwMgr) Dim profile As INetFwProfile profile = icfMgr.LocalPolicy.CurrentProfile Dim fIsFirewallEnabled as Boolean fIsFirewallEnabled = profile.FirewallEnabled return fIsFirewallEnabled End Function End Class I do not reference COM DLLs very often. I have read that unmanaged code may not be cleaned up by the garbage collector and I would like to know how to make sure that I have not introduced any memory leaks. Please tell me (a) if I have introduced a memory leak, and (b) how I may clean it up. (My theory is that the icfMgr and profile objects do allocate memory that remains unreleased until after the application closes. I am hopeful that setting their references equal to nothing will mark them for garbage collection, since I can find no other way to dispose of them. Neither one implements IDisposable, and neither contains a Finalize method. I suspect they may not even be relevant here, and that both of those methods of releasing memory only apply to .Net types.)

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Problem in printing array of char pointer passing from Python

- by Yan Cheng CHEOK

My following C code works quite well, till my Python code trying to pass an array of char pointer to it. The output I obtain is The file_name is python-file Another 3 string is not being printed out. Anything I had missed out? C Code #include <iostream> #include "c_interface.h" int foo(const char* file_name, const char** names) { std::cout << "The file_name is " << file_name << std::endl; while (*names) { std::cout << "The name is " << *names << std::endl; names++; } return 0; } /* int main() { const char *c[] = {"123gh", "456443432", "789", 0}; foo("hello", c); getchar(); } */ Python Code #!c:/Python27/python.exe -u from ctypes import * name0 = "NAME0" name1 = "NAME1" name2 = "NAME2" names = ((c_char_p * 1024) * 4)() names[0].value = name0 names[1].value = name1 names[2].value = name2 names[3].value = 0 libc = CDLL("foo.dll") libc.foo("python-file", names)

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No Hibernate Exception on the same insert of data

- by Mark Estrada

Hi All, Hibernate Newbie here. I am quite unsure why I am not getting any exception when I am executing below code. On first attempt, this code creates the Book Entry on my Book Table. But my concern is that when I execute below code again, no error was pop out by Hibernate. I was in fact expecting some sort of Violation of Primary Key Constraints as what I have bee doing in JDBC code. public class BookDao { public void createBook(Book bookObj) { Session session = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory() .getCurrentSession(); session.beginTransaction(); session.saveOrUpdate(bookObj); session.getTransaction().commit(); } } public class HibernateUtil { private static final SessionFactory sessionFactory = buildSessionFactory(); private static SessionFactory buildSessionFactory() { try { // Create the SessionFactory from hibernate.cfg.xml return new AnnotationConfiguration().configure() .buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Throwable ex) { // Make sure you log the exception, as it might be swallowed ex.printStackTrace(); throw new ExceptionInInitializerError(ex); } } public static SessionFactory getSessionFactory() { return sessionFactory; } } public class BookDBStarter { public static void main(String[] args) { Book bookHF = new Book(); bookHF.setIsbn("HF-12345"); bookHF.setName("Head First HTML"); bookHF.setPublishDate(new Date()); BookDao daoBook = new BookDao(); daoBook.createBook(bookHF); } } Is this normal hibernate way? And how will I know if my insert is successful? Any thoughts?

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Why isn't the Cache invalidated after table update using the SqlCacheDependency?

- by Jason

I have been trying to get SqlCacheDependency working. I think I have everything set up correctly, but when I update the table, the item in the Cache isn't invalidated. Can you look at my code and see if I am missing anything? I enabled the Service Broker for the Sandbox database. I have placed the following code in the Global.asax file. I also restart IIS to make sure it is called. void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { SqlDependency.Start(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["SandboxConnectionString"].ConnectionString); } I have placed this entry in the web.config file: <system.web> <caching> <sqlCacheDependency enabled="true" pollTime="10000"> <databases> <add name="Sandbox" connectionStringName="SandboxConnectionString"/> </databases> </sqlCacheDependency> </caching> </system.web> I call this code to put the item into the cache: protected void CacheDataSetButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (SqlConnection sqlConnection = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["SandboxConnectionString"].ConnectionString)) { using (SqlCommand sqlCommand = new SqlCommand("SELECT PetID, Name, Breed, Age, Sex, Fixed, Microchipped FROM dbo.Pets", sqlConnection)) { using (SqlDataAdapter sqlDataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(sqlCommand)) { DataSet petsDataSet = new DataSet(); sqlDataAdapter.Fill(petsDataSet, "Pets"); SqlCacheDependency petsSqlCacheDependency = new SqlCacheDependency(sqlCommand); Cache.Insert("Pets", petsDataSet, petsSqlCacheDependency, DateTime.Now.AddSeconds(10), Cache.NoSlidingExpiration); } } } } Then I bind the GridView with this code: protected void BindGridViewButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Cache["Pets"] != null) { GridView1.DataSource = Cache["Pets"] as DataSet; GridView1.DataBind(); } } Between attempts to DataBind the GridView, I change the table's values expecting it to invalidate the Cache["Pets"] item, but it seems to stay in the Cache indefinitely.

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xml schema putting both sequence and all under one complexType node

- by exiang

Here is the xml file: <section> <number>1</number> <title>A Title goes here...</title> <code>TheCode</code> <element></element> <element></element> </section> In section node, there are number, title and code node. Their sequence must not be fixed. Then, there are multiple element under section node as well. The idea is to use the following schema: <xs:complexType name="Type-section"> <xs:all> <xs:element name="number" minOccurs="0"></xs:element> <xs:element name="code" minOccurs="1"></xs:element> <xs:element name="title" minOccurs="1"></xs:element> </xs:all> <xs:sequence> <xs:element maxOccurs="unbounded" name="element"></xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> But it is invalid. I just cant put "sequence" and "all" together in the same level. How can i fix it?

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Cursor returns zero rows from query to table

- by brockoli

I've created an SQLiteDatabase in my app and populated it with some data. I can connect to my AVD with a terminal and when I issue select * from articles; I get a list of all the rows in my table and everything looks fine. However, in my code when I query my table, I get a cursor back that has my tables columns, but zero rows of data. Here is my code.. mDbHelper.open(); Cursor articles = mDbHelper.fetchAllArticles(); startManagingCursor(articles); Cursor feeds = mDbHelper.fetchAllFeeds(); startManagingCursor(feeds); mDbHelper.close(); int titleColumn = articles.getColumnIndex("title"); int feedIdColumn = articles.getColumnIndex("feed_id"); int feedTitleColumn = feeds.getColumnIndex("title"); /* Check if our result was valid. */ if (articles != null) { int count = articles.getCount(); /* Check if at least one Result was returned. */ if (articles.moveToFirst()) { In the above code, my Cursor articles returns with my 4 columns, but when I call getCount() it returns zero, even though I can see hundreds of rows of data in that table from command line. Any idea what I might be doing wrong here? Also.. here is my code for fetchAllArticles.. public Cursor fetchAllArticles() { return mDb.query(ARTICLES_TABLE, new String[] {ARTICLE_KEY_ROWID, ARTICLE_KEY_FEED_ID, ARTICLE_KEY_TITLE, ARTICLE_KEY_URL}, null, null, null, null, null); } Rob W.

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Given a main function and a cleanup function, how (canonically) do I return an exit status in Bash/Linux?

- by Zac B

Context: I have a bash script (a wrapper for other scripts, really), that does the following pseudocode: do a main function if the main function returns: $returncode = $? #most recent return code if the main function runs longer than a timeout: kill the main function $returncode = 140 #the semi-canonical "exceeded allowed wall clock time" status run a cleanup function if the cleanup function returns an error: #nonzero return code exit $? #exit the program with the status returned from the cleanup function else #cleanup was successful .... Question: What should happen after the last line? If the cleanup function was successful, but the main function was not, should my program return 0 (for the successful cleanup), or $returncode, which contains the (possibly nonzero and unsuccessful) return code of the main function? For a specific application, the answer would be easy: "it depends on what you need the script for." However, this is more of a general/canonical question (and if this is the wrong place for it, kill it with fire): in Bash (or Linux in general) programming, do you typically want to return the status that "means" something (i.e. $returncode) or do you ignore such subjectivities and simply return the code of the most recent function? This isn't Bash-specific: if I have a standalone executable of any kind, how, canonically should it behave in these cases? Obviously, this is somewhat debatable. Even if there is a system for these things, I'm sure that a lot of people ignore it. All the same, I'd like to know. Cheers!

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Javascript AJAX function not working properly

- by Or W

I have a function that sends a GET request to a php script and checks if the script returned any output. It works great, but when I try to add another function that checks for something similar, both of them fail. What am I missing? function checkUsername(usr,n) { var user = usr.val(), xmlhttp; //var str = document.getElementById('email').value; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { //document.getElementById("txtHint").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; if (xmlhttp.responseText != "") { usr.addClass( "ui-state-error" ); updateTips( n ); return false; } else { return true; } } } xmlhttp.open("GET","ajaxValidate.php?type=user&q="+user,true); xmlhttp.send(); } The above works perfectly, when adding this function, none of them work: function checkEmail(em,n) { var email = em.val(), xmlhttp; //var str = document.getElementById('email').value; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { //document.getElementById("txtHint").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; if (xmlhttp.responseText != "") { em.addClass( "ui-state-error" ); updateTips( n ); return false; } else { return true; } } } xmlhttp.open("GET","ajaxValidate.php?type=email&q="+email,true); xmlhttp.send(); }

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Concatenate 2 text elements on a line with full-width border using CSS only

- by Michael Horne

Okay, I'm a newbie to CSS3, so please be gentle. ;-) I'm working with some Wordpress code (Woocommerce plugin, to be exact), and I'm trying to format a line of code in a sidebar so that 2 separate text items (one in an <a, the other in a <span are all on the same line, the full width of the column, and with a bottom border. It looks something like this (except the bottom border on each text do not go all the way across the enclosing sidebar box): http://www.dalluva.com/temp/browse-catalog.JPG (sorry, I'm new and can't post inline images yet) Here's the code fragment I'm trying to live with (i.e. I don't want to change it): <div class="widget"> ... <ul class="product-categories"> <li class="cat-item"> <a href="http://localhost/dalluva/shop/product-category/books/">Books</a> <span class="count">(5)</span> </li> ... And here's the CSS I have now: .widget ul li a { border-bottom: 1px solid #e9e9e9; line-height:1.0; padding: 5px 0 5px 22px; display: inline-block; } .widget ul li span { border-bottom: 1px solid #e9e9e9; line-height: 1.0; padding: 5px 0 5px 0; display: inline-block; } The output in the image above looks right for this CSS code, but when I change the 'span' CSS to include a width:100%, it causes the span element to wrap to the next line, looking like this: http://www.dalluva.com/temp/browse-catalog-2.JPG I've played with white-space:nowrap, overflow:hidden, etc, but I can't seem to find a way to have both the <a and the <span text on the same line with the border extending the full width of the column. Any suggestions on getting the desired effect through CSS only? Thanks. Michael

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systematizing error codes for a web app in php?

- by user151841

I'm working on a class-based php web app. I have some places where objects are interacting, and I have certain situations where I'm using error codes to communicate to the end user -- typically when form values are missing or invalid. These are situations where exceptions are unwarranted ( and I'm not sure I could avoid the situations with exceptions anyways). In one object, I have some 20 code numbers, each of which correspond to a user-facing message, and a admin/developer-facing message, so both parties know what's going on. Now that I've worked over the code several times, I find that it's difficult to quickly figure out what code numbers in the series I've already used, so I accidentally create conflicting code numbers. For instance, I just did that today with 12, 13, 14 and 15. How can I better organize this so I don't create conflicting error codes? Should I create one singleton class, errorCodes, that has a master list of all error codes for all classes, systematizing them across the whole web app? Or should each object have its own set of error codes, when appropriate, and I just keep a list in the commentary of the object, to use and update that as I go along?

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read the currency format

- by user485783

perhaps for some people this is easy, but I want to learn There are 2 currency formats: first currency format is 1,123,123.12 and this format may be like $1,123,123.12 or 1,123,123.12€ and second currency format is 1.123.123,12 and this may be such $1.123.123,12 or 1.123.123,12€ so the difference is the placement of dots and commas The above format will be $this->value('one of the currency format insert here'); e.g. $this->value('$1,123,123.12'); or $this->value('1.123.123,12€'); that I want to know is the code if (first currency format) {use blah .. blah ..} elseif (second currency format) {use blah .. blah ..} else {/ / unsupported format} so how the code to identify whether the entry is input the first currency format or second currency format? thanks for the your pointers and ideas. UPDATED: I apologize for mistake in giving examples When I tried to test the code I have a little confused because it seems not working then I changed my prevoious parts, so that $value['amount'] it may be use first currency format 1,123,123.12 and this format may be like $1,123,123.12 or 1,123,123.12€ and second currency format 1.123.123,12 and this may be such $1.123.123,12 or 1.123.123,12€ then the value['amount'] will identify first with code like the following conditional class curr_format { private bla...bla..1 private bla...bla..2 var etc.. public function curr_format ($bla...,$and_bla..) { //then make conditional is here if (first currency format) {//use blah .. blah ..} elseif (second currency format) {//use blah .. blah ..} else {/ / unsupported format} //another codes.. at the end output as look like: $identify = new curr_format(); echo $identify->curr_format($value['amount'],$else_statement);

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Problem with UITextView

- by user367039

I have a strange problem with trying to pass a string from one viewcontroller to another view controller if the string originates from a UITextview instead of UITextfield. Both UITextview.text and UITextfield.text are of type NSString. The following code takes either Textfield.text or Textview.text depending on the fieldType and puts it into a string called aString. NSString *aString = [[NSString alloc] init]; if (fieldType == 3) { aString = textView.text; } else { aString = textField.text; } When I examine aString on either cases, I can see that it has successfully assigned the text into aString. I then pass the string to the other view controller using this code. [delegate updateSite:aString :editedFieldKey :fieldType]; [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; This works fine if aString originated from textfield.text but nothing happens except the view controller is popped if aString was from textview.text This is the code that takes aString and does stuff with it, however it doesn't even execute the first line of code "NSLog(@"Returned object: %@, field type:%@", aString,editedFieldKey);" if aString was from textview.text Any help will be appreciated. -(void)updateSite:(NSString *)aString :(NSString *)editedFieldKey :(int)fieldType { NSLog(@"Returned object: %@, field type:%@", aString,editedFieldKey); switch (fieldType) { case 0: //string [aDiveSite setValue:aString forKey:editedFieldKey] ; NSLog(@"String set %@",[aDiveSite valueForKey:editedFieldKey] ); break; case 1: //int [aDiveSite setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aString.intValue] forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Integer set"); break; case 2: //float NSLog(@"Saving floating value"); [aDiveSite setValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:aString.floatValue] forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Float set"); break; case 3: //Text view [aDiveSite setValue:aString forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Textview text saved"); default: break; } [self.tableView reloadData]; }

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Have you had DLL's fail after upgrading to 64 bit server?

- by quakkels

Hey All, I'm wondering if anyone else has experienced failed DLL's after upgrading their servers. My company is in the process of upgrading our code and server's after ten years of using classic ASP. We've set up our new server running Windows 2008 and IIS 7. Our classic ASP code and our new asp.net mvc code work pretty well. Our problems started happening when we began moving our old websites to the new server. When trying to load the page on the actual server machine's browser, we initially got a 500 error. If we refreshed the page then some of the page would load but then display an error: Server object error 'ASP 0177 : 800401f3' Server.CreateObject Failed /folder/scriptname.asp, line 24 800401f3 btw: On remote machines we would just get 500 errors. Line 24 is the first executable code in the script: '23 lines of comments set A0SQL_DATA = server.createobject("olddllname.Data") 'the rest of the script That specific line is trying to use a ten year old DLL to create a server object. I don't think the server configuration is a problem because I'm able to create "adodb.recordset" server objects without any problems. Is there an issue when running correctly registered old DLL's on 64 bit systems? Is there a way to get old DLL's working on 64 bit systems?

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iPhone: Calling dealloc on parentViewController causes an exception

- by arielcamus

Hi, I'm dealing with viewDidUnload and dealloc methods and I've founded a problem when calling [super dealloc]; in parent view controller. I have a lot of view controllers with custom code which I have putted outside on a parent view controller. So, when defining my view controllers I set a reference to the super class: @interface LoginViewController : AbstractViewController Then, at the dealloc method I call the AbstractViewController dealloc method: //(Login View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [user release]; [passwd release]; [super dealloc]; } [super dealloc] execute the following code: //(Abstract View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [dbUtils release]; [loadingView release]; [super dealloc]; } If I simulate a memory warning on iPhone Simulator, the following exception is thrown: 2010-03-03 11:27:45.805 MyApp[71563:40b] Received simulated memory warning. 2010-03-03 11:27:45.808 MyApp[71563:40b] *** -[LoginViewController isViewLoaded]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x13b51b0 kill quit However, if I comment the [super dealloc] line in AbstractViewController the exception is not thrown and my app still running. Thank you for your help once again!

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c# "==" operator : compiler behaviour with different structs

- by Moe Sisko

Code to illustrate : public struct MyStruct { public int SomeNumber; } public string DoSomethingWithMyStruct(MyStruct s) { if (s == null) return "this can't happen"; else return "ok"; } private string DoSomethingWithDateTime(DateTime s) { if (s == null) return "this can't happen"; // XX else return "ok"; } Now, "DoSomethingWithStruct" fails to compile with : "Operator '==' cannot be applied to operands of type 'MyStruct' and '<null>'". This makes sense, since it doesn't make sense to try a reference comparison with a struct, which is a value type. OTOH, "DoSomethingWithDateTime" compiles, but with compiler warning : "Unreachable code detected" at line marked "XX". Now, I'm assuming that there is no compiler error here, because the DateTime struct overloads the "==" operator. But how does the compiler know that the code is unreachable ? e.g. Does it look inside the code which overloads the "==" operator ? (This is using Visual Studio 2005 in case that makes a difference). Note : I'm more curious than anything about the above. I don't usually try to use "==" on structs and nulls.

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Jquery grid overlay in wordpress

- by Anders Kitson

I am adding this simple plugin that I have working in a static html site, and am trying to add it to a wordpress development site based off of 960 gs. The jquery code links are correct but the console gives me this error "Uncaught TypeError: Cannot call method 'addGrid' of null" I got the code from this turtorial http://www.badlydrawntoy.com/2009/04/21/960gs-grid-overlay-a-jquery-plugin/ Here is the code I am using /*<![CDATA[*/ // onload $(function() { $("body").addGrid(12, {img_path: 'img/'}); }); /*]]>*/ Here is the code for the plugin /* * @ description: Plugin to display 960.gs gridlines See http://960.gs/ * @author: badlyDrawnToy sharp / http://www.badlydrawntoy.com * @license: Creative Commons License - ShareAlike http://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/ * @version: 1.0 20th April 2009 */ (function($){$.fn.addGrid=function(cols,options){var defaults={default_cols:12,z_index:999,img_path:'/images/',opacity:.6};var opts=$.extend(defaults,options);var cols=cols!=null&&(cols===12||cols===16)?cols:12;var cols=cols===opts.default_cols?'12_col':'16_col';return this.each(function(){var $el=$(this);var height=$el.height();var wrapper=$('<div id="'+opts.grid_id+'"/>').appendTo($el).css({'display':'none','position':'absolute','top':0,'z-index':(opts.z_index-1),'height':height,'opacity':opts.opacity,'width':'100%'});$('<div/>').addClass('container_12').css({'margin':'0 auto','width':'960px','height':height,'background-image':'url('+opts.img_path+cols+'.png)','background-repeat':'repeat-y'}).appendTo(wrapper);$('<div>grid on</div>').appendTo($el).css({'position':'absolute','top':0,'left':0,'z-index':opts.z_index,'background':'#222','color':'#fff','padding':'3px 6px','width':'40px','text-align':'center'}).hover(function(){$(this).css("cursor","pointer");},function(){$(this).css("cursor","default");}).toggle(function(){$(this).text("grid off");$('#'+opts.grid_id).slideDown();},function(){$(this).text("grid on");$('#'+opts.grid_id).slideUp();});});};})(jQuery);

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Jquery cant get facebox working inside ajax call

- by John

From my main page I call an ajax file via jquery, in that ajax file is some additional jquery code. Original link looks like this: <a href="/page1.php" class="guest-action notify-function"><img src="/icon1.png"></a> Then the code: $(document).ready(function(){ $('a[rel*=facebox]').facebox(); $('.guest-action').click( function() { $.get( $(this).attr('href'), function(responseText) { $.jGrowl(responseText); }); return false; }); $('.notify-function').click( function() { $(this).find('img').attr('src','/icon2.png'); $(this).attr('href','/page2.php'); $(this).removeClass('guest-action').removeClass('notify-function').attr('rel','facebox'); }); }); So basically after notify-function is clicked I am changing the icon and the url of the link, I then am removing the classes so that the click wont be ran again and add rel="facebox" to the link so that the facebox window will pop up if they try to click the new icon2.png that shows up. The problem is after I click the initial icon everything works just fine except when I try to click the new icon2.png it still executes the jgrowl code from the guest-action. But when I view the source it shows this: <a href="/page2.php" rel="facebox" class=""><img src="/icon2.png"></a> So it seemed that should work right? What am I doing wrong? I tried adding the facebox code to the main page that is calling the ajax file as well and still same issue.

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jQuery sliding animation not working

- by Jake Zeitz

I have three divs stacked on each other but offset so that a part of each div is visible. When one of the bottom divs is clicked I want the top div to animate out and back into the stack at the bottom, then the div that is clicked will appear at the top. So far I only have the code for when the middle div is clicked, but I cannot get it to work properly. What am I doing wrong? (I also realize that the code I wrote is probably terrible, this is the first jQuery code I have written.) The css is very very simple: .first { z-index: 3; } .second { z-index: 2; } .third { z-index: 1; } The basic html is this: <div class="first"></div> <div class="second"></div> <div class="third"></div> Here is my code: $("div.second").click(function () { $("div.first").animate({ left: "-=200px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.first").removeClass("first").addClass("third").animate({left: "+=350px", top: "+=60px"}, "fast"); } }); $("div.second").animate({ left: "-=24px", top: "-=30px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.second").removeClass("second").addClass("first"); } }); $("div.third").animate({ left: "-=24px", top: "-=30px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.third").removeClass("third").addClass("second"); } }); }); I can get the div.first to move to the side and back. But now I can't get the classes to stay changed. What keeps happening is the div.second will remove it's class and add .first in the animation, but when the animation is complete, it acts like it still has a class of .second.

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Python modules not updating after restarting the main module.

- by Ian

I've recently come back to a project having had to stop for about 6 months, and after reinstalling my operating system and coming back to it I'm having all kinds of crazy things happen. I made sure to install the same version(2.6) of python that I was using before. It started by giving me strange tkinter error that I hadn't had trouble with before, the program is relatively simple and the 2 or 3 bugs that were left when i quit, I had documented and weren't related to the interface. Things got even weirder when the same error would pop up even after I had removed the offending section of code. In fact, the traceback pointed to a line that didn't even exist in the module it was referencing, eg: line 262 when the module was only 200 lines long. After just starting a completely new file for the main module and copy/pasting it finally recognized that the offending code was gone and I stopped getting the error only to find that any updates to the code I made in another module didn't show up when I restarted the program through the shell. (I didn't forget to save.) After fiddling with this, of course, the old interface error came back, only in a different section of code that had been working previously. In fact, if I revert back to the files I had six months ago, the program works fine. As soon as I change anything in the main module, however, the interface bug comes back. Here's the original error: Exception in Tkinter callback Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Python26\lib\lib-tk\Tkinter.py", line 1410, in __call__ return self.func(*args) File "C:\PyStuff\interface.py", line 202, in dispOne __main__.top.destroy() File "C:\Python26\lib\lib-tk\Tkinter.py", line 1938, in destroy self.tk.call('destroy', self._w) TclError: can't invoke "destroy" command: application has been destroyed I'm guessing something else is going on here other than my own poor programming. Anyone have any ideas?

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