Search Results

Search found 21963 results on 879 pages for 'lance may'.

Page 691/879 | < Previous Page | 687 688 689 690 691 692 693 694 695 696 697 698  | Next Page >

  • Obtaining touch location for a uiscrollview touch

    - by LOSnively
    I have a uiscrollview as an element of a uiscrollviewcontroller, along with other view objects. The image scrolls and zooms as expected, when the scrollView is the top subview. However, I also need to get the screen location of the touch, in particular when there is no scroll action. (I understand the location may change during a scroll, but that's not important.) I haven't found a way to do that. In the scrollviewcontroller implementation I have customized all of the standard methods that should do this: "touchesShouldBegin...", "touchesBegan:...", "touchesEnded:...", and so on. As far as I can tell, none of these are being called during a touch event when the scrollView is the top subview. I've tried setting the delayContentTouches property to both YES and NO, and that doesn't seem to make a difference. As an alternative, I've tried putting a UIView as the top subview and then tried passing the touches to the now underlying scrollView. In this configuration, the standard methods are called and I can get the touch location, but I haven't found a mechanism for the touches to be passed to the scrollView so scrolling occurs. Doing something like sending the touch messages to the specific scrollView, or to "super" or just sending them to nextResponder doesn't do it. It seems I can make the scroll work or find the location of the touch but not both, depending on what the "top" subview is. I suspect this is trivial, but after two weeks of struggling, it's time to eat my embarrassment for not being able to do this seemingly simplest of things. I've read all of the related questions here on stackoverflow, tried most if not all of the suggestions, and so far, nothing has worked. I've looked through the various links and references suggested by the answers, including Apple's documentation, but none have pointed out the gap in my understanding. Any ideas would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • mysql prevent displaying a row ONE which has reference in another row TWO but no reference in row THREE

    - by Jayapal Chandran
    I have a table like the following id | name | pid 1 | sam | NULL 2 | sams ref | 1 3 | pam | NULL For the first time the first row gets inserted which will have pid as null I insert a row which is related to the first row and then i insert a row which is new and which may be referred by another row in future. now i want only the third row to be displayed and not the first and second row as the second row contains the reference of first row. so if any row has a reference to another row then both the rows should not be displayed. Only rows which is not having any reference should be displayed. BESIDES, IS IT A GOOD PRACTICE? PLEASE ADVICE ON THIS. Edited When i updated in server the query is always giving empty result. here is what i have and this one When pid is NULL then that row should appear but when another entry in the same table with pid as its parent id or any other rows id appears then both the rows should not appear. so if any pid has been referred then both the rows should not appear. here only one row will refer another row and not more than that. in my localhost i have mysql version 5.0.1 or something like that but when i installed xampp in another system it had 5.5 and in the live server it was 5.3 so in version around 5.0 the query is returning rows but in higher versions it is returning empty rows. so now i this case how to make a query?

    Read the article

  • In Java, howd do I iterate through lines in a textfile from back to front

    - by rogue780
    Basically I need to take a text file such as : Fred Bernie Henry and be able to read them from the file in the order of Henry Bernie Fred The actual file I'm reading from is 30MB and it would be a less than perfect solution to read the whole file, split it into an array, reverse the array and then go from there. It takes way too long. My specific goal is to find the first occurrence of a string (in this case it's "InitGame") and then return the position beginning of the beginning of that line. I did something like this in python before. My method was to seek to the end of the file - 1024, then read lines until I get to the end, then seek another 1024 from my previous starting point and, by using tell(), I would stop when I got to the previous starting point. So I would read those blocks backwards from the end of the file until I found the text I was looking for. So far, I'm having a heck of a time doing this in Java. Any help would be greatly appreciated and if you live near Baltimore it may even end up with you getting some fresh baked cookies. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • UIView: how to do non-destructive drawing?

    - by Caffeine Coma
    My original question: I'm creating a simple drawing application and need to be able to draw over existing, previously drawn content in my drawRect. What is the proper way to draw on top of existing content without entirely replacing it? Based on answers received here and elsewhere, here is the deal. You should be prepared to redraw the entire rectangle whenever drawRect is called. You cannot prevent the contents from being erased by doing the following: [self setClearsContextBeforeDrawing: NO]; This is merely a hint to the graphics engine that there is no point in having it pre-clear the view for you, since you will likely need to re-draw the whole area anyway. It may prevent your view from being automatically erased, but you cannot depend on it. To draw on top of your view without erasing, do your drawing to an off-screen bitmap context (which is never cleared by the system.) Then in your drawRect, copy from this off-screen buffer to the view. Example: - (id) initWithCoder: (NSCoder*) coder { if (self = [super initWithCoder: coder]) { self.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; CGSize size = self.frame.size; drawingContext = [self createDrawingBufferContext: size]; } return self; } - (CGContextRef) createOffscreenContext: (CGSize) size { CGColorSpaceRef colorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); CGContextRef context = CGBitmapContextCreate(NULL, size.width, size.height, 8, size.width*4, colorSpace, kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedLast); CGColorSpaceRelease(colorSpace); CGContextTranslateCTM(context, 0, size.height); CGContextScaleCTM(context, 1.0, -1.0); return context; } - (void)drawRect:(CGRect) rect { UIGraphicsPushContext(drawingContext); CGImageRef cgImage = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(drawingContext); UIImage *uiImage = [[UIImage alloc] initWithCGImage:cgImage]; UIGraphicsPopContext(); CGImageRelease(cgImage); [uiImage drawInRect: rect]; [uiImage release]; } TODO: can anyone optimize the drawRect so that only the (usually tiny) modified rectangle region is used for the copy?

    Read the article

  • Dojox Datagrid contains data, but shows up as empty

    - by Vivek
    I'd really appreciate any help on this. There is this Dojox Datagrid that I'm creating programatically and supplying JSON data. As of now, I'm creating this data within JavaScript itself. Please refer to the below code sample. var upgradeStageStructure =[{ cells:[ { field: "stage", name: "Stage", width: "50%", styles: 'text-align: left;' }, { field:"status", name: "Status", width: "50%", styles: 'text-align: left;' } ] }]; var upgradeStageData = [ {id:1, stage: "Preparation", status: "Complete"}, {id:2, stage: "Formatting", status: "Complete"}, {id:3, stage: "OS Installation", status: "Complete"}, {id:4, stage: "OS Post-Installation", status: "In Progress"}, {id:5, stage: "Application Installation", status: "Not Started"}, {id:6, stage: "Application Post-Installation", status: "Not Started"} ]; var stagestore = new dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore({data:{identifier:"id", items: upgradeStageData}}); var upgradeStatusGrid = new dojox.grid.DataGrid({ autoHeight: true, style: "width:400px;padding:0em;margin:0em;", store: stagestore, clientSort: false, rowSelector: '20px', structure: upgradeStageStructure, columnReordering: false, selectable: false, singleClickEdit: false, selectionMode: 'none', loadingMessage: 'Loading Upgrade Stages', noDataMessage:'There is no data', errorMessage: 'Failed to load Upgrade Status' }); dojo.byId('progressIndicator').innerHTML=''; dojo.byId('progressIndicator').appendChild(upgradeStatusGrid.domNode); upgradeStatusGrid.startup(); The problem is that I am not seeing anything within the grid upon display (no headers, no data). But I know for sure that the data in the grid does exist and the grid is properly initialized, because I called alert (grid.domNode.innerHTML);. The resultant HTML that is thrown up does show a table containing header rows and the above data. This link contains an image which illustrates what I'm seeing when I display the page. (Can't post images since my account is new here) As you may notice, there are 6 rows for 6 pieces of data I have created but the grid is a mess. Please help out if you think you know what could be going wrong. Thanks in advance, Viv

    Read the article

  • Which SCM/VCS cope well with moving text between files?

    - by pfctdayelise
    We are having havoc with our project at work, because our VCS is doing some awful merging when we move information across files. The scenario is thus: You have lots of files that, say, contain information about terms from a dictionary, so you have a file for each letter of the alphabet. Users entering terms blindly follow the dictionary order, so they will put an entry like "kick the bucket" under B if that is where the dictionary happened to list it (or it might have been listed under both B, bucket and K, kick). Later, other users move the terms to their correct files. Lots of work is being done on the dictionary terms all the time. e.g. User A may have taken the B file and elaborated on the "kick the bucket" entry. User B took the B and K files, and moved the "kick the bucket" entry to the K file. Whichever order they end up getting committed in, the VCS will probably lose entries and not "figure out" that an entry has been moved. (These entries are later automatically converted to an SQL database. But they are kept in a "human friendly" form for working on them, with lots of comments, examples etc. So it is not acceptable to say "make your users enter SQL directly".) It is so bad that we have taken to almost manually merging these kinds of files now, because we can't trust our VCS. :( So what is the solution? I would love to hear that there is a VCS that could cope with this. Or a better merge algorithm? Or otherwise, maybe someone can suggest a better workflow or file arrangement to try and avoid this problem?

    Read the article

  • Linking AS code to symbols defined in an external SWC?

    - by Ender
    (apologies ahead of time, I only really know Flash; my Flex experience is basically nil. There may be a very standard and obvious workflow solution that Flex people know about) I have a number of UI elements that are graphically quite complex (they're not components, they're just Sprites). Since it takes a long time to compile them, I've been trying to move them into an external .swc. However, I want to associate some code with these classes, but I don't want to have to recompile the graphical assets every time I make a code change. At the moment I have it set up like this: UI elements are created in a separate FLA and exported to a SWC. In my primary FLA, I have actionscript classes that extend each of the graphical assets in the SWC. For example: external.swc: (some symbol defined in the Library and exported for actionscript in frame 1) class: com.foo.WidgetGraphic base: flash.display.Sprite main.fla: Widget.as: package com.foo { public class Widget extends WidgetGraphic { ... } } This works, but is time-consuming and prone to error. I'd rather be able to avoid having to inherit from each graphical asset, and just define them directly. Is there a better way to do what I'm trying to accomplish? Note: the main concern here is compile time. I don't have any movies or audio or fonts, just a lot of vector art assets that appear to be slowing down my compilation time significantly. When I'm debugging I'm only making code changes, and would rather not have to keep recompiling the art...

    Read the article

  • 4.0/WCF: Best approach for bi-idirectional message bus?

    - by TomTom
    Just a technology update, now that .NET 4.0 is out. I write an application that communicates to the server through what is basically a message bus (instead of method calls). This is based on the internal architecture of the application (which is multi threaded, passing the messages around). There are a limited number of messages to go from the client to the server, quite a lot more from the server to the client. Most of those can be handled via a separate specialized mechanism, but at the end we talk of possibly 10-100 small messages per second going from the server to the client. The client is supposed to operate under "internet conditions". THis means possibly home end users behind standard NAT devices (i.e. typical DSL routers) - a firewalled secure and thus "open" network can not be assumed. I want to have as little latency and as little overhad for the communication as possible. What is the technologally best way to handle the message bus callback? I Have no problem regularly calling to the server for message delivery if something needs to be sent... ...but what are my options to handle the messagtes from the server to the client? WsDualHttp does work how? Especially under a NAT scenario? Just as a note: polling is most likely out - the main problem here is that I would have a significant overhead OR a significant delay, both aren ot really wanted. Technically I would love some sort of streaming appraoch, where the server can write messags to a stream while he generates them and they get sent to the client as they come. Not esure this is doable with WCF, though (if not, I may acutally decide to handle the whole message part outside of WCF and just do control / login / setup / destruction via WCF).

    Read the article

  • Multiple Table Inheritance vs. Single Table Inheritance in Ruby on Rails

    - by Tony
    I have been struggling for the past few hours thinking about which route I should go. I have a Notification model. Up until now I have used a notification_type column to manage the types but I think it will be better to create separate classes for the types of notifications as they behave differently. Right now, there are 3 ways notifications can get sent out: SMS, Twitter, Email Each notification would have: id subject message valediction sent_people_count deliver_by geotarget event_id list_id processed_at deleted_at created_at updated_at Seems like STI is a good candidate right? Of course Twitter/SMS won't have a subject and Twitter won't have a sent_people_count, valediction. I would say in this case they share most of their fields. However what if I add a "reply_to" field for twitter and a boolean for DM? My point here is that right now STI makes sense but is this a case where I may be kicking myself in the future for not just starting with MTI? To further complicate things, I want a Newsletter model which is sort of a notification but the difference is that it won't use event_id or deliver_by. I could see all subclasses of notification using about 2/3 of the notification base class fields. Is STI a no-brainer, or should I use MTI? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Colour manipulation of custom tags in niceEdit HTML editor ( JS / DOM )

    - by Chris
    Hi, I would like to be able to highlight, during typing and in real time, certain custom tags in the format #tag_name# within the text of a nicEdit instance ( http://nicedit.com/ ). My current attempt to implement as close to this as possible revolves around using the blur event of the editor to highlight the tags once the editor loses focus. I then use the following logic to wrap the tags in a span with a highlight class.. htmlEditor.addEvent( "blur", function( ) { str = nicEditors.findEditor( "html_content" ).getContent( ); // Remove existing spans first, leaving just the tag ( this could mess up if the html has been edited directly ) str = str.replace( /(<span class=\"highlight\">)(.[^<]+)(<\/span>)/gi, "$2" ); // Then wrap all instances of a particular tag with the highlight span str = str.replace( /#tag_name#/gi, "<span class='highlight'>#tag_name#</span>" ); nicEditors.findEditor( "html_content" ).setContent( str ); }); This is not ideal as my actual text now contains unwanted spans ( I only want the highlighting for the user's input experience, not to be saved to the database ). Obviously I could remove the spans before saving the text but the whole system is currently open to errors ( If the html is directly edited then other text may get highlighted etc ). What I would like to know is.. Is there any way to directly change the colour of the tags in the editor or DOM without using a mechanism such as this? Perhaps a way of colouring the text in memory rather than changing the HTML ? Any ideas ? Regards Chris P

    Read the article

  • Troubleshooting FORM POST problems

    - by brettr
    I'm using the following code to submit to a WCF service. I keep getting an error that the key is invalid. I have a webpage on the same server that I submit the same data (but different key) using a FORM POST. It works fine that way. I put the URL below all in a URL (including valid key from server webpage) and get the key is invalid error. I'm thinking the data I'm submitting through the iPhone isn't really going across as a FORM POST but rather as a URL. Is there anything I may be doing wrong in the following code or any other suggestions? NSString *stringForURL = @"https://abc.com/someservice.aspx"; NSURL *URL=[[NSURL alloc] initWithString:stringForURL]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:URL]; NSString *request_body = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"prop1=value1&key=%@", [@"r2xHEuzgDTQEWA5Xe6+k9BSVrgsMX2mWQBW/39nqT4s=" stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSData *postData = [request_body dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding allowLossyConversion:YES]; NSString *postLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [postData length]]; [request setValue:postLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [request setHTTPBody:postData]; NSURLConnection *connection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:request delegate:self]; [NSThread sleepForTimeInterval:1]; self.receivedData = [[NSMutableData data] retain];

    Read the article

  • How does the overall view hierarchy change when using UIKit view manipulations?

    - by executor21
    I've been trying to figure out what happens in the view hierarchy when methods like pushViewController:animated, presentModalViewController:animated, and tab switches in UITabBarViewController are used, as well as UIAlertView and UIActionSheet. (Side note: I'm doing this because I need to know whether a specific UIView of my creation is visible on screen when I do not know anything about how it or its superview may have been added to the view hierarchy. If someone knows a good way to determine this, I'd welcome the knowledge.) To figure it out, I've been logging out the hierarchy of [[UIApplication sharedApplication] keyWindow] subviews in different circumstances. Is the following correct: When a new viewController is pushed onto the stack of a UINavigationController, the old viewController's view is no longer in the view hierarchy. That is, only the top view controller's view is a subview of UINavigationController's view (according to logs, it's actually several private classes such as UILayoutContainerView). Are the views of view controllers below the top controller of the stack actually removed from the window? A very similar thing happens when a new viewController is presented via presentModalViewController:animated. The new viewController's view is the only subview of the kew window. Is this correct? The easiest thing to understand: a UIAlertView creates its own window and makes it key. The strangest thing I encountered: a UIActionSheet is shown via showInView: method, the actionSheet isn't in the view hierarchy at all. It's not a subview of the view passed as an argument to showInView:, it isn't added as a subview of the key window, and it doesn't create its own window. How does it appear, then? I haven't tried this yet, so I'd like to know what happens in the keyWindow hierarchy when tabs in a UITabBarController are switched. Is the view of the selected UIViewController moved to the top, or does it work like with pushViewController:animated and presentModalViewController:animated, where only the displayed view is in the window hierarchy?

    Read the article

  • Simulating O_NOFOLLOW (2): Is this other approach safe?

    - by Daniel Trebbien
    As a follow-up question to this one, I thought of another approach which builds off of @caf's answer for the case where I want to append to file name and create it if it does not exist. Here is what I came up with: Create a temporary directory with mode 0700 in a system temporary directory on the same filesystem as file name. Create an empty, temporary, regular file (temp_name) in the temporary directory (only serves as placeholder). Open file name for reading only, just to create it if it does not exist. The OS may follow name if it is a symbolic link; I don't care at this point. Make a hard link to name at temp_name (overwriting the placeholder file). If the link call fails, then exit. (Maybe someone has come along and removed the file at name, who knows?) Use lstat on temp_name (now a hard link). If S_ISLNK(lst.st_mode), then exit. open temp_name for writing, append (O_WRONLY | O_APPEND). Write everything out. Close the file descriptor. unlink the hard link. Remove the temporary directory. (All of this, by the way, is for an open source project that I am working on. You can view the source of my implementation of this approach here.) Is this procedure safe against symbolic link attacks? For example, is it possible for a malicious process to ensure that the inode for name represents a regular file for the duration of the lstat check, then make the inode a symbolic link with the temp_name hard link now pointing to the new, symbolic link? I am assuming that a malicious process cannot affect temp_name.

    Read the article

  • jQuery capture all changes to named inpt on a form

    - by Brian M. Hunt
    I'm trying to determine when any of a set of named input/select/radio/checked/hidden fields in a form change. In particular, I'd like to capture when any changes are made to fields matching jQuery's selector $("form :input"), and where that input is has a name attribute. However, the form isn't static i.e. some of the fields are dynamically added later. My initial thought is to keep track of when new named elements matching :input are added, and then add an event handler, like this: function on_change() { alert("The form element with name " + $(this).attr("name") + " has changed"); } function reg_new_e_handler(input_element) { input_element.change(on_change); } However, I'm quite hopeful I can avoid this with some jQuery magic. In particular, is there a way to register an event handler in jQuery that would handle input elements that match the following: $("form :input").filter( function () { $(this).attr("name") } ).change(on_change); However, have this event set update whenever new input elements are added. I've thought that it may be possible to capture keyup event on the form node with $("form").keyup(on_change), but I'm not so sure how one could capture change events. I'd also like this to capture keyup events. Thank you for reading. Brian

    Read the article

  • future-proofing java version check in ant script

    - by carneades
    The script provided here gave a great way to check if Ant is using Java 6. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project name="project" default="default"> <target name="default" depends="javaCheck" if="isJava6"> <echo message="Hello, World!" /> </target> <target name="javaCheck"> <echo message="ant.java.version=${ant.java.version}" /> <condition property="isJava6"> <equals arg1="${ant.java.version}" arg2="1.6" /> </condition> </target> </project> However, I have good reason to think the next person holding my position may not be a Java programmer and I want to make sure the builds don't fail because of Java 7. Is there any way to pick apart a String or otherwise ask for Java 6 or higher?

    Read the article

  • How can I factor out repeated expressions in an SQL Query? Column aliases don't seem to be the ticke

    - by Weston C
    So, I've got a query that looks something like this: SELECT id, DATE_FORMAT(CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00'),'%b %d %Y') as callDate, DATE_FORMAT(CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00'),'%H:%i') as callTimeOfDay, SEC_TO_TIME(callLength) as callLength FROM cs_calldata WHERE customerCode='999999-abc-blahblahblah' AND CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00') >= '2010-04-25' AND CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00') <= '2010-05-25' If you're like me, you probably start thinking that maybe it would improve readability and possibly the performance of this query if I wasn't asking it to compute CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00') four separate times. So I try to create a column alias for that expression and replace further occurances with that alias: SELECT id, CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00') as callTimeZoned, DATE_FORMAT(callTimeZoned,'%b %d %Y') as callDate, DATE_FORMAT(callTimeZoned,'%H:%i') as callTimeOfDay, SEC_TO_TIME(callLength) as callLength FROM cs_calldata WHERE customerCode='5999999-abc-blahblahblah' AND callTimeZoned >= '2010-04-25' AND callTimeZoned <= '2010-05-25' This is when I learned, to quote the MySQL manual: Standard SQL disallows references to column aliases in a WHERE clause. This restriction is imposed because when the WHERE clause is evaluated, the column value may not yet have been determined. So, that approach would seem to be dead in the water. How is someone writing queries with recurring expressions like this supposed to deal with it?

    Read the article

  • Core Data - How to check if a managed object's properties have been deallocated?

    - by georryan
    I've created a program that uses core data and it works beautifully. I've since attempted to move all my core data methods calls and fetch routines into a class that is self contained. My main program then instantiates that class and makes some basic method calls into that class, and the class then does all the core data stuff behind the scenes. What I'm running into, is that sometimes I'll find that when I grab a managed object from the context, I'll have a valid object, but its properties have been deallocated, and I'll cause a crash. I've played with the zombies and looked for memory leaks, and what I have gathered is it seems that the run loop is probably responsible for deallocating the memory, but I'm not sure. Is there a way to determine if that memory has been deallocated and force the core data to get it back if I need to access it? My managedObjectContext never gets deallocated, and the fetchedResultsController never does, either. I thought maybe I needed to use the [managedObjectContext refreshObject:mergeData:] method, or the [managedObjectContext setRetainsRegisteredObjects:] method. Although, I'm under the impression that last one may not be the best bet since it will be more memory intensive (from what I understand). These errors only popped up when I moved the core data calls into another class file, and they are random when they show up. Any insight would be appreciated. -Ryan

    Read the article

  • What is faster- Java or C# (Or good old C)?

    - by Rexsung
    I'm currently deciding on a platform to build a scientific computational product on, and am deciding on either C#, Java, or plain C with Intels compiler on Core2 Quad CPU's. It's mostly integer arithmetic. My benchmarks so far show Java and C are about on par with each other, and dotNET/C# trails by about 5%- however a number of my coworkers are claiming that dotNET with the right optimizations will beat both of these given enough time for the JIT to do its work. I always assume that the JIT would have done it's job within a few minutes of the app starting (Probably a few seconds in my case, as it's mostly tight loops), so I'm not sure whether to believe them Can anyone shed any light on the situation? Would dotNET beat Java? (Or am I best just sticking with C at this point?). The code is highly multithreaded and data sets are several terabytes in size. Haskell/erlang etc are not options in this case as there is a significant quantity of existing legacy C code that will be ported to the new system, and porting C to Java/C# is a lot simpler than to Haskell or Erlang. (Unless of course these provide a significant speedup). Edit: We are considering moving to C# or Java because they may, in theory, be faster. Every percent we can shave off our processing time saves us tens of thousands of dollars per year. At this point we are just trying to evaluate whether C, Java, or c# would be faster.

    Read the article

  • What harm can javascript do?

    - by The King
    I just happen to read the joel's blog here... So for example if you have a web page that says “What is your name?” with an edit box and then submitting that page takes you to another page that says, Hello, Elmer! (assuming the user’s name is Elmer), well, that’s a security vulnerability, because the user could type in all kinds of weird HTML and JavaScript instead of “Elmer” and their weird JavaScript could do narsty things, and now those narsty things appear to come from you, so for example they can read cookies that you put there and forward them on to Dr. Evil’s evil site. Since javascript runs on client end. All it can access or do is only on the client end. It can read informations stored in hidden fields and change them. It can read, write or manipulate cookies... But I feel, these informations are anyway available to him. (if he is smart enough to pass javascript in a textbox. So we are not empowering him with new information or providing him undue access to our server... Just curious to know whether I miss something. Can you list the things that a malicious user can do with this security hole. Edit : Thanks to all for enlightening . As kizzx2 pointed out in one of the comments... I was overlooking the fact that a JavaScript written by User A may get executed in the browser of User B under numerous circumstances, in which case it becomes a great risk.

    Read the article

  • tinymce and jquery

    - by tirso
    hi to all I am using tinymce and simple modal (jquery plugin). Initially, it was not worked (meaning I cannot type in the textarea) for the second or more opening modal dialog unless I refreshed the page. Now I changed my code and now I could type but the problem persist is the submit button doesn't work anymore. I tried to trace in firebug and I found some errors like this Thanks in advance Permission denied to get property XULElement.accessibleType [Break on this error] var tinymce={majorVersion:"3",minorVersi...hanged();return true}return false})})(); here is the revised code $(document).ready(function() { $('.basic').click(function (e) { e.preventDefault(); $('#basic-modal-content').modal({onShow: function (dialog) { tinyMCE.init({ // General options mode : "textareas", theme : "advanced", setup : function (ed) { ed.onKeyPress.add( function (ed, evt) { var y = tinyMCE.get('test').getContent(); $('#rem_char').html(100 - y.length); if (y.length == 100){ //ed.getWin().document.body.innerHTML = y.substring(0,100); alert("Your element has exceeded the 100 character limit. If you add anymore text it may be truncated when saved.") return; } } ); }, plugins : "safari,pagebreak,style,layer,table,save,advhr,advimage,advlink,emotions,iespell,inlinepopups,insertdatetime,preview,media,searchreplace,print,contextmenu,paste,directionality,fullscreen,noneditable,visualchars,nonbreaking,xhtmlxtras,template,wordcount", // Theme options theme_advanced_buttons1 : "bold,italic,underline,strikethrough,|,justifyleft,justifycenter,justifyright,justifyfull", theme_advanced_buttons2 : "fontselect,fontsizeselect,bullist,numlist,forecolor,backcolor", theme_advanced_buttons3 : "", theme_advanced_toolbar_location : "top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align : "left", dialog_type : "modal" }); return false; }}); }); $('.close').click(function (e) { e.preventDefault(); $.modal.close(); }); });

    Read the article

  • Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

    - by Oddthinking
    Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

    Read the article

  • Writing fortran robust and "modern" code

    - by Blklight
    In some scientific environments, you often cannot go without FORTRAN as most of the developers only know that idiom, and there is lot of legacy code and related experience. And frankly, there are not many other cross-platform options for high performance programming ( C++ would do the task, but the syntax, zero-starting arrays, and pointers are too much for most engineers ;-) ). I'm a C++ guy but I'm stuck with some F90 projects. So, let's assume a new project must use FORTRAN (F90), but I want to build the most modern software architecture out of it. while being compatible with most "recent" compilers (intel ifort, but also including sun/HP/IBM own compilers) So I'm thinking of imposing: global variable forbidden, no gotos, no jump labels, "implicit none", etc. "object-oriented programming" (modules with datatypes + related subroutines) modular/reusable functions, well documented, reusable libraries assertions/preconditions/invariants (implemented using preprocessor statements) unit tests for all (most) subroutines and "objects" an intense "debug mode" (#ifdef DEBUG) with more checks and all possible Intel compiler checks possible (array bounds, subroutine interfaces, etc.) uniform and enforced legible coding style, using code processing tools C stubs/wrappers for libpthread, libDL (and eventually GPU kernels, etc.) C/C++ implementation of utility functions (strings, file operations, sockets, memory alloc/dealloc reference counting for debug mode, etc.) ( This may all seem "evident" modern programming assumptions, but in a legacy fortran world, most of these are big changes in the typical programmer workflow ) The goal with all that is to have trustworthy, maintainable and modular code. Whereas, in typical fortran, modularity is often not a primary goal, and code is trustworthy only if the original developer was very clever, and the code was not changed since then ! (i'm a bit joking here, but not much) I searched around for references about object-oriented fortran, programming-by-contract (assertions/preconditions/etc.), and found only ugly and outdated documents, syntaxes and papers done by people with no large-scale project involvement, and dead projects. Any good URL, advice, reference paper/books on the subject?

    Read the article

  • When is a>a true ?

    - by Cricri
    Right, I think I really am living a dream. I have the following piece of code which I compile and run on an AIX machine: AIX 3 5 PowerPC_POWER5 processor type IBM XL C/C++ for AIX, V10.1 Version: 10.01.0000.0003 #include <stdio.h> #include <math.h> #define RADIAN(x) ((x) * acos(0.0) / 90.0) double nearest_distance(double radius,double lon1, double lat1, double lon2, double lat2){ double rlat1=RADIAN(lat1); double rlat2=RADIAN(lat2); double rlon1=lon1; double rlon2=lon2; double a=0,b=0,c=0; a = sin(rlat1)*sin(rlat2)+ cos(rlat1)*cos(rlat2)*cos(rlon2-rlon1); printf("%lf\n",a); if (a > 1) { printf("aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa\n"); } b = acos(a); c = radius * b; return radius*(acos(sin(rlat1)*sin(rlat2)+ cos(rlat1)*cos(rlat2)*cos(rlon2-rlon1))); } int main(int argc, char** argv) { nearest_distance(6367.47,10,64,10,64); return 0; } Now, the value of 'a' after the calculation is reported as being '1'. And, on this AIX machine, it looks like 1 1 is true as my 'if' is entered !!! And my acos of what I think is '1' returns NanQ since 1 is bigger than 1. May I ask how that is even possible ? I do not know what to think anymore ! The code works just fine on other architectures where 'a' really takes the value of what I think is 1 and acos(a) is 0.

    Read the article

  • WPD on XP, Vista, and 7 (need to transfer photo and video files)

    - by Bradley Dean
    I need to transfer files (still photos and videos) from any portable device that a user may connect (still camera, video camera, mobile phone, etc.) I don't need to worry about plain storage devices as these have drive letters. And I only care about existing files, I don't care about live video, preview video, taking new pictures, etc. I originally tried WIA, which works great except it can not transfer video files. So then I tried WPD, following along with dimeby8's tutorial: http://blogs.msdn.com/b/dimeby8/archive/2006/09/27/774259.aspx I haven't gotten the transfer working yet (I'm converting it over to C#), but I can at least see the device and enumerate the files in Win7. In XP I get nothing. It's pointed out in this thread that WPD won't enumerate devices on XP (see Lisa O [MSFT]'s post): http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en/windowssdk/thread/56459945-b757-45df-8c9f-4ebdbbb18a2c So WIA is out because it won't do video. And WPD is out because it won't do XP. Has anyone gotten this to work? Am I missing something simple here? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to identify HTML elements (in javascript) in a browser agnostic fashion

    - by gatapia
    Hi All, I need to identify all html elements on a page in a browser agnostic fashion. What I am basically doing is using mouse events to record clicks on the page. I need to record which element was clicked. So I add a mouse down listener to the document.body element. And on mouse down I get the element under the mouse. Lets say its a div. I then use the index of that div inside the document.getElementsByTagName('*') nodelist and the nodeName ('div') to identify that div. A sample element id would be div45 which means its a div and its the 45th element in the '*' nodelist. This is all fine and good until I use IE which gives me different indexes. So div45 in FireFox may be div47 in IE. Anyone have any ideas? I just need the id of all elements on the page to be the same in any browser, perhaps indexing is not good enough but I really don't have any more ideas. Thanks Guido

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 687 688 689 690 691 692 693 694 695 696 697 698  | Next Page >