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  • WPF Exposing a calculated property for binding (as DependencyProperty)

    - by kubal5003
    Hello, I have a complex WPF control that for some reasons (ie. performance) is not using dependency properties but simple C# properties (at least at the top level these are exposed as properties). The goal is to make it possible to bind to some of those top level properties - I guess I should declare them as DPs.(right? or is there some other way to achieve this? ) I started reading on MSDN about DependencyProperties and DependencyObjects and found an example: public class MyStateControl : ButtonBase { public MyStateControl() : base() { } public Boolean State { get { return (Boolean)this.GetValue(StateProperty); } set { this.SetValue(StateProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty StateProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "State", typeof(Boolean), typeof(MyStateControl),new PropertyMetadata(false)); } If I'm right - this code enforces the property to be backed up by DependencyProperty which restricts it to be a simple property with a store(from functional point of view, not technically) instead of being able to calculate the property value each time getter is called and setting other properties/fields each time setter is called. What can I do about that? Is there any way I could make those two worlds meet at some point?

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  • Implementing Naïve Bayes algorithm in Java - Need some guidance

    - by techventure
    hello stackflow people As a School assignment i'm required to implement Naïve Bayes algorithm which i am intending to do in Java. In trying to understand how its done, i've read the book "Data Mining - Practical Machine Learning Tools and Techniques" which has a section on this topic but am still unsure on some primary points that are blocking my progress. Since i'm seeking guidance not solution in here, i'll tell you guys what i thinking in my head, what i think is the correct approach and in return ask for correction/guidance which will very much be appreciated. please note that i am an absolute beginner on Naïve Bayes algorithm, Data mining and in general programming so you might see stupid comments/calculations below: The training data set i'm given has 4 attributes/features that are numeric and normalized(in range[0 1]) using Weka (no missing values)and one nominal class(yes/no) 1) The data coming from a csv file is numeric HENCE * Given the attributes are numeric i use PDF (probability density function) formula. + To calculate the PDF in java i first separate the attributes based on whether they're in class yes or class no and hold them into different array (array class yes and array class no) + Then calculate the mean(sum of the values in row / number of values in that row) and standard divination for each of the 4 attributes (columns) of each class + Now to find PDF of a given value(n) i do (n-mean)^2/(2*SD^2), + Then to find P( yes | E) and P( no | E) i multiply the PDF value of all 4 given attributes and compare which is larger, which indicates the class it belongs to In temrs of Java, i'm using ArrayList of ArrayList and Double to store the attribute values. lastly i'm unsure how to to get new data? Should i ask for input file (like csv) or command prompt and ask for 4 values? I'll stop here for now (do have more questions) but I'm worried this won't get any responses given how long its got. I will really appreciate for those that give their time reading my problems and comment.

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  • sermyadmin 2.01

    - by lepricon123
    I am able to install sermyadmin 2.0.1 and got everything working. Only user registration is not working. When I register a user the entry goe sin DB etc find but the email is not send to the user. We are using our own smtp server with no authentication. And I am sure there is nothing wrong with the smtp server. I can see that it has received a request from sermyadmin but in the logs Is ee that the FROM adddress is missing. So it is throwing 553 5.1.8 Domain of sender address does not exist. The domain does exist. Here is my resources.xml with all the valid entries. Since I don;t need the smtp authentication which the server is not using, i removed that. <beans xmlns="www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation=" www.springframework.org/schema/beans www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spr...ns-2.0.xsd"> <bean id="mailSender" class="org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl"> <property name="host" value="10.100.22.365" /> </bean> <bean id="mailMessage" class="org.springframework.mail.SimpleMailMessage"> <property name="from" value="[email protected]" /> </bean> </beans>

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  • MATLAB Builder NE (.NET Assembly) Data type question

    - by Brett
    Hi coders, I am using MATLAB Builder NE (MATLAB's integrated .NET assmebly builder), but I am having an issue with data types. I have compiled a small, very simple, function in matlab and build it for .NET. I am able to call the namespace and even the function just fine. However, my function returns a value, and MATLAB defaults to returning it as an "object[]" data type. However, I know that the value is an integer, but I can't figure out how to cast it. My MATLAB function looks like this: function addValue = Myfunction(value1, value2) addValue=value1+value2; end Pretty simple right? And then in .NET I can call it as: xClass.addValue (1, 3, 4); where xClass is the name of the MATLAB built class but when I try: int x = xClass.addValue (1, 3, 4); C# errors out. Typical .NET casting (int) doesn't work. The compiler states it cannot convert object[] to int. Does anyone have experience with the .NET builder in MATLAB that can help me with this? It is really throwing me for a loop. I have scanned through most of the MATLAB BUILDER doc (484 pages!) with zero help. Thank you, Brett

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  • Auto-sizing and positioning in Flex

    - by Addsy
    I am working on a flex app that uses XML templates to dynamically create DisplayObjects. These templates define different layouts that can be used for each page of content in the app (ie , 2 columns, 3 columns etc etc). The administrator can select from one of these and populate each area with their content. The templates add one of 3 types of DisplayObject - HBox, VBox or a third component - LibraryContentContainer (an mxml component that is defined as part of the app) - which is effectively a canvas element with a TextArea inside. The problem that I am getting is that I need each of these areas to automatically resize to fit the length of the content but don't seem to be able to find an effective way to do so. In the LibraryContentContainer, when the value of the TextArea is set, I am calling .validateNow() on the LibraryContentContainer. I then set the height property on both the TextArea and LibraryContentContainer to match the textHeight property of the TextArea. In the following example, this is the LibraryContentContainer, viewer is the TextArea and the value property of the TextArea is bound to this.__Value. v is the variable containing the content for the textarea this.__Value = v; this.validateNow(); this.viewer.height = this.viewer.textHeight; this.height = this.viewer.height; This works to a degree in that the TextArea grows or shrinks depending on the length of content, but it's still not great - sometimes there are still vertical scrollbars even tho the size of the TextArea has grown. Anyone got any ideas? Thanks Adam

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  • Object.Watch with disabled attribute

    - by Benjamin Fleming
    <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = function() { var btn = document.getElementById("button"); var tog = document.getElementById("toggle"); tog.onclick = function() { if(btn.disabled) { btn.disabled = false; } else { btn.disabled = true; } }; //btn.watch("disabled", function(prop, val, newval) { }); }; </script> </head> <body> <input type="button" value="Button" id="button" /> <input type="button" value="Toggle" id="toggle" /> </body> </html> If you test this code, the Toggle button will successfully enable and disable the other button. However, un-commenting the btn.watch() line will somehow always set the disabled tag to true. Any ideas?

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  • Why is Dispatcher.Invoke not triggering UI update?

    - by Brandon
    I am trying to reuse a UserControl and also borrow some logic that keeps track of progress. I'll try and simplify things. MyWindow.xaml includes a MyUserControl. MyUserControl has its own progress indicator (Formatting in progress..., Copying files..., etc.) and I'd like to mirror this progress somewhere in the MyWindow form. But, the user control has some logic I don't quite understand. I've read and read but I still don't understand the Dispatcher. Here's a summary of the logic in the user control that updates the progress. this.Dispatcher.Invoke(DispatcherPriority.Input, (Action)(() => { DAProgressIndicator = InfiniteProgress.AddNewInstanceToControl(StatusGrid, new SolidColorBrush(new Color() { A = 170, R = 128, G = 128, B = 128 }), string.Empty); DAProgressIndicator.Message = MediaCardAdminRes.ActivatingCard; ActivateInProgress = true; })); I thought I'd be smart and add an event to MyUserControl that would be called in the ActivateInProgress property set logic. public bool ActivateInProgress { get { return _activateInProgress; } set { _activateInProgress = value; if (ActivateInProgressHandler != null) { ActivateInProgressHandler(value); } } } I'm setting the ActivateInProgressHandler within the MyWindow constructor to the following method that sets the view model property that is used for the window's own progress indicator. private void SetActivation(bool activateInProgress) { viewModel.ActivationInProgress = activateInProgress; } However, the window's progress indicator never changes. So, I'm convinced that the Dispatcher.Invoke is doing something that I don't understand. If I put a message box inside the SetActivation method, the thread blocks and the window's progress indicator is updated. I understand basic threads but this whole Dispatcher thing is new to me. What am I missing?

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  • ASIHTTPRequest POST splits up header + data?

    - by chris.o.
    Hi, I am using ASIHTTPRequest to POST data to a remote server on iPhone 4.2.1. When I make the following post request to our server, I get a 400 response (I removed the IP address): NSString dataString = @"data1=00&data2=00&data3=00"; ASIHTTPRequest *request = [ASIHTTPRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:<ipremoved>]]]; [request appendPostData:[dataString dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; [request setRequestMethod:@"POST"]; [request addRequestHeader:@"User-Agent" value:@"iphone app"]; [request addRequestHeader:@"Content-Type" value:@"application/octet-stream"]; request.delegate = self; [request startAsynchronous]; When I send the same data using curl, I receive a 200 response: curl -H "User-Agent: iphone app" -H "Accept:" -H "Content-Type:application/octet-stream" --data-ascii "data1=00&data2=00&data3=00" --location <ipremoved> -v My colleague is stating that, in the failure case, the ASIHTTPRequest requires two socket reads: one for the header and one for the data. Apparently the server is not presently equipped to parse this correctly, so I am trying to work around it. If I setup a proxy between iPhone and my Mac and run Paros (to see packets), the problem goes away. Paros combine the header and data so that it is all acquired by the server in a single socket read. I've tried a few things suggested in other posts including disabling persistent connections, but I am not having any luck. I've also tried doing a ASIHTTPFormRequest, but the server does not like the generated data format. Any suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • ASP.NET with MS Chart disable the vertical line

    - by Bayonian
    Hi, I have a graph created with MS Chart like the following picture. As you can see the vertical lines are messed up with value of the top of each bar. Here's the mark-up for the graph: <asp:Chart ID="chtNBAChampionships" runat="server"> <Series> <asp:Series Name="Championships" YValueType="Int32" ChartType="Column" ChartArea="MainChartArea" IsValueShownAsLabel="true"> <Points> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Celtics" YValues="17" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Lakers" YValues="15" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Bulls" YValues="6" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Spurs" YValues="4" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="76ers" YValues="3" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Pistons" YValues="3" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Warriors" YValues="3" /> </Points> </asp:Series> </Series> <ChartAreas> <asp:ChartArea Name="MainChartArea"> </asp:ChartArea> </ChartAreas> </asp:Chart> I don't want the display the vertical line because it's messed up with the value on top of the each bar. How can I disable the vertical line? Thank you.

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  • SQL - Rank() on a table

    - by Abhi
    create table v (mydate,value) as select to_date('20/03/2010 00','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),98 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 01','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),124 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 02','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),140 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 03','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),138 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 04','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),416 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 05','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),196 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 06','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),246 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 07','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),176 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 08','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),124 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 09','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),128 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 10','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),32010 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 11','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),384 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 12','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),368 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 13','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),392 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 14','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),374 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 15','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),350 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 16','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),248 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 17','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),396 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 18','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),388 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 19','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),360 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 20','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),194 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 21','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),234 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 22','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),328 from dual union all select to_date('20/03/2010 23','dd/mm/yyyy HH24'),216 from dual From this table, how to rank() over 'value', partitioning by each hour of the day? and select only the 1st ranked result?

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  • Checking if a RoutedEvent has any handlers

    - by AK
    I've got a custom Button class, that always performs the same action when it gets clicked (opening a specific window). I'm adding a Click event that can be assigned in the button's XAML, like a regular button. When it gets clicked, I want to execute the Click event handler if one has been assigned, otherwise I want to execute the default action. The problem is that there's apparently no way to check if any handlers have been added to an event. I thought a null check on the event would do it: if (Click == null) { DefaultClickAction(); } else { RaiseEvent(new RoutedEventArgs(ClickEvent, this));; } ...but that doesn't compile. The compiler tells me that I can't do anything other than += or -= to an event outside of the defining class, event though I'm trying to do this check INSIDE the defining class. I've implemented the correct behavior myself, but it's ugly and verbose and I can't believe there isn't a built-in way to do this. I must be missing something. Here's the relevant code: public class MyButtonClass : Control { //... public static readonly RoutedEvent ClickEvent = EventManager.RegisterRoutedEvent("Click", RoutingStrategy.Bubble, typeof(RoutedEventHandler), typeof(MyButtonClass)); public event RoutedEventHandler Click { add { ClickHandlerCount++; AddHandler(ClickEvent, value); } remove { ClickHandlerCount--; RemoveHandler(ClickEvent, value); } } private int ClickHandlerCount = 0; private Boolean ClickHandlerExists { get { return ClickHandlerCount > 0; } } //... }

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  • OJB Reference Descriptor 1:0 relationship? Should I set auto-retrieve to false?

    - by godzillasdm
    Hi, I am having an issue while using Apache OJB with Spring 2 inside my web app. I'm using OJB reference-descriptor with 2 foreign key properties. I have an object A (parent) and object B (referenced object). The thing is, for an object A, there may or may not be an object B. In the case where there is no object B to go with Object A, the object B seems to be instantiated (through Spring?) anyways. However, I am unable to access object B's members. Whenever I test if Object B == null, it always returns false even though there is no matching value in the database. Since this Object is never null, I figured I can test the object's member like so: if( objectb.getDocumentNumber == null) { return false; } However, I get an exception in the jsp: javax.servlet.jsp.el.ELException: An error occurred while getting property "documentNumber" from an instance class org.sample.pojo.Objectb$$EnhancerByCGLIB$$78022a2 and this exception in the debugger when it's creating the objectB: com.sun.jdi.InvocationException occurred invoking method. I am guessing that the reference-descriptor must be a 1:1+ relationship, instead of a 1:0+ relationship. I was wondering if I should set the property 'auto-retrieve' to false, and then use the PersistenceBroker.retrieveAllReferences(Object obj); method as directed. However, this method's return value is 'void', so I am guessing that Spring somehow creates, and sets the reference class for me. (Returning me back to the same issue I'm having.) I will need a way to test whether the reference object exists first. If not, don't call this retrieveAllReferences method, but I don't see how. Am I going about this all wrong? Does reference-descriptor not allow 1:0 relations? Any work around to my problem? Your suggestions are greatly appreciated!

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  • Any way for a class to prevent outside code from declaring variables of its type?

    - by supercat
    Is it possible for a class of exposing a type for function returns, without allowing users of that class to create variables of that type? A couple usage scenarios: A Fluent interface on a large class; a statement like "foo=bar.WithX(5).WithY(9).WithZ(19);" would be inefficient if it had to create three new instances of the class, but could be much more efficient if the WithX could create one instance, and the other statements could simply use it. A class may wish to support a statement like "foo[19].x = 9;" even when foo itself isn't an array, and does not hold the data in class instances that can be exposed to the public; one way to do that is to have foo[19] return a struct which holds a reference to 'foo' and the value '19', and has a member property 'x' which could call "foo.SetXValue(19, 9);" Such a struct could have a conversion operator to convert itself to the "apparent" type of foo[19]. In both of these scenarios, storing the value returned by a method or property into a variable and then using it more than once would cause strange behavior. It would be desirable if the designer of the class exposing such methods or properties could ensure that callers wouldn't be able to use them more than once. Is there any practical way to accomplish that?

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  • Django inlineformset validation and delete

    - by Andrew Gee
    Hi, Can someone tell me if a form in an inlineformset should go through validation if the DELETE field is checked. I have a form that uses an inlineformset and when I check the DELETE box it fails because the required fields are blank. If I put data in the fields it will pass validation and then be deleted. Is that how it is supposed to work, I would have thought that if it is marked for delete it would bypass the validation for that form. Regards Andrew Follow up - but I would still appreciate some others opinions/help What I have figured out is that for validation to work the a formset form must either be empty or complete(valid) otherwise it will have errors when it is created and will not be deleted. As I have a couple of hidden fields in my formset forms and they are pre-populated when the page loads via javascript the form fails validation on the other required fields which might still be blank. The way I have gotten around this by adding in a check in the add_fields that tests if the DELETE input is True and if it is it makes all fields on the form not required, which means it passes validation and will then delete. def add_fields(self, form, index) #add other fields that are required.... deleteValue = form.fields['DELETE'].widget.value_from datadict(form.data, form.files, form.add_prefix('DELETE')) if bool(deleteValue) or deleteValue == '': for name, field in form.fields.items(): form.fields[name].required= False This seems to be an odd way to do things but I cannot figure out another way. Is there a simpler way that I am missing? I have also noticed that when I add the new form to my page and check the Delete box, there is no value passed back via the request, however an existing form (one loaded from the database) has a value of on when the Delete box is checked. If the box is not checked then the input is not in the request at all. Thanks Andrew

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  • Problem with JSONResult

    - by vikitor
    Hi, I' still newby to this so I'll try to explain what I'm doing. Basically what I want is to load a dropdownlist depending on the value of a previous one, and I want it to load the data and appear when the other one is changed. This is the code I've written in my controller: public ActionResult GetClassesSearch(bool ajax, string phylumID, string kingdom){ IList<TaxClass> lists = null; int _phylumID = int.Parse(phylumID); int _kingdom = int.Parse(kingdom); lists = _taxon.getClassByPhylumSearch(_phylumID, _kingdom); return Json(lists.count); } and this is how I call the method from the javascript function: function loadClasses(_phylum) { var phylum = _phylum.value; $.getJSON("/Suspension/GetClassesSearch/", { ajax: true, phylumID: phylum, kingdom: kingdom }, function(data) { alert(data); alert('no fallo') document.getElementById("pClass").style.display = "block"; document.getElementById("sClass").options[0] = new Option("-select-", "0", true, true); //for (i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { // $('#sClass').addOption(data[i].classID, data[i].className); //} }); } The thing is that just like this it works, I pass the function the number of classes within a selected phylum, and it displays the pclass element, the problem gets when I try to populate the slist with data (which should contain the objects retrieved from the database), because when there is data returned by the database changing return Json(lists) instead of return Json(lists.count) I keep getting the same error: A circular reference was detected while serializing an object of type 'SubSonic.Schema.DatabaseColumn'. I've been going round and round debugging and making tests but I can't make it work, and it is suppossed to be a simple thing, but I'm missing something. I have commented the for loop because I'm not quite sure if that's the way you access the data, because I've not been able to make it work when it finds records. Can anyone help me? Thanks in advance, Victor

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  • Why does ICEfaces send dispose-window request on page unload when using view-scoped bean?

    - by woflrevo
    in our application ICEfaces always sends a dispose-window request just before navigating to another JSF Page. as much as i understand this should not happen when having org.icefaces.lazyWindowScope set to true and there is no window-scoped bean involved in current request. but it happens on each link and makes our UI less responsive. but we don't have any window-scoped bean in our application. is that a bug in icefaces that the dispose request is sent when using view-scoped beans? Is it possible to disable? ViewScope is defined in JSF not in ICEfaces, it should work without this dispose request i guess... @ManagedBean(name="viewScopeBean") @ViewScoped public class ViewScopeBean { public void doSomething(){ // } } And here the example jsf: <ice:form> <ice:commandButton value="doSomething" action="#{viewScopeBean.doSomething}"/> <h:link outcome="index" value="Link to same page"/> </ice:form> To reproduce do the following using the code above: open firebug's net tab and activate persist option click doSomething-Button click "link to same page" = dispose-window will be send before navigation Dispose Request Parameters: ice.submit.type=ice.dispose.window ice.window=4guthcbue javax.faces.ViewState=-8138151632882151449%3A-6709064564386098402 Environment: ICEfaces-EE 2.0.0.GA ICEpush-EE 2.0.0.GA Mojarra 2.1.1 JRockit 1.6.0_22 WebLogic Server 10.3.4.0 ICEfaces Configuration: org.icefaces.render.auto: true [default] org.icefaces.autoid: true [default] org.icefaces.aria.enabled: true [default] org.icefaces.blockUIOnSubmit: false [default] org.icefaces.compressDOM: false [default] org.icefaces.compressResources: true [default] org.icefaces.connectionLostRedirectURI: /pages/main.jsf org.icefaces.deltaSubmit: false [default] org.icefaces.lazyPush: true [default] org.icefaces.sessionExpiredRedirectURI: /pages/main.jsf org.icefaces.standardFormSerialization: false [default] org.icefaces.strictSessionTimeout: false [default] org.icefaces.windowScopeExpiration = 1000 [default] org.icefaces.mandatoryResourceConfiguration: null [default] org.icefaces.uniqueResourceURLs: true [default] org.icefaces.lazyWindowScope: true [default] org.icefaces.disableDefaultErrorPopups: false [default]

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  • validating wsdl/schema using cxf

    - by SGB
    I am having a hard time getting cxf to validate an xml request that my service creates for a 3rd party. My project uses maven. Here is my project structure Main Module : + Sub-Module1 = Application + sub-Module2 = Interfaces In Interfaces, inside src/main/resources I have my wsdl and xsd. so, src/main/resources + mywsdl.wsdl. + myschema.xsd The interface submodule is listed as a dependency in the Application-sub-module. inside Application sub-module, there is a cxsf file in src/maim/resources. <jaxws:client name="{myTargerNameSpaceName}port" createdFromAPI="true"> <jaxws:properties> <entry key="schema-validation-enabled" value="true" /> </jaxws:properties> </jaxws:client> AND:. <jaxws:endpoint name="{myTargetNameSpaceName}port" wsdlLocation="/mywsdl.wsdl" createdFromAPI="true"> <jaxws:properties> <entry key="schema-validation-enabled" value="true" /> </jaxws:properties> </jaxws:endpoint> I tried changing the "name="{myTargetNameSpaceName}port" to "name="{myEndPointName}port" But to no anvil. My application works. But it just do not validate the xml I am producing that has to be consumed by a 3rd party application. I would like to get the validation working, so that any request that I send would be a valid one. Any suggestions?

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  • Binding an ASP.NET GridView Control to a string array

    - by Michael Kniskern
    I am trying to bind an ASP.NET GridView control to an string array and I get the following item: A field or property with the name 'Item' was not found on the selected data source. What is correct value I should use for DataField property of the asp:BoundField column in my GridView control. Here is my source code: ASPX page <asp:GridView ID="MyGridView" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false"> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="Item" /> <asp:CommandField ButtonType="Link" ShowSelectButton="true" SelectText="Click Me!" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> Code Behind: string[] MyArray = new string[1]; MyArray[0] = "My Value"; MyGridView.DataSource = MyArray; MyGridView.DataBind(); UPDATE I need to have the AutoGenerateColumns attribute set to false because I need to generate additional asp:CommandField columns. I have updated my code sample to reflect this scenarion

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  • How to pass a random User/Pass (for Basic Authentication) with JMeter?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm using JMeter to stress test an API. I've got Basic Authentication set up - seems to be working great. Now, i'm trying to randomize the credentials that JMeter passes across the wire. So, there's two ways I know I can do this. Add a custom HTTP Header (via an HTTP Header Manager Element) and set then value to the random fields (ie. something I've read in from a csv file) Use the HTTP Authorization Manager Element and pass in the username and password there. Now, if I try and use method (1) above, I need to create the following header/data :- Authorization: Basic <some Base64 encoded string in the format username:password> eg. Authorization: Basic OnVzZXIxOnBhc3Mx Kewl. simple. BUT that header value is not getting passed across the wire :( I can add any other header type and it's passed across the wire.. hmm .. ok then .. lets try method (2). Now that works .. but I can only hardcode in the username & password. I can't see how I can pass in a username VARIABLE (ie. ${usernmae} ) or a password VARIABLE (ie. ${password} ).... If it's hardcoded, then the server correctly replies with the correct page/data. so .. can someone please help?

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  • weird result with c# winForms array of Lists

    - by jello
    so I'm trying to store values in an array of Lists in C# winForms. In the for loop in which I make the sql statment, everything works fine: the message box outputs a different medication name each time. for (int i = 0; i < numberOfMeds; i++) { queryStr = "select * from biological where medication_name = '" + med_names[i] + "' and patient_id = " + patientID.patient_id; using (var conn = new SqlConnection(connStr)) using (var cmd = new SqlCommand(queryStr, conn)) { conn.Open(); using (SqlDataReader rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { while (rdr.Read()) { medObject.medication_date = (DateTime)rdr["patient_history_date_bio"]; medObject.medication_name = rdr["medication_name"].ToString(); medObject.medication_dose = Convert.ToInt32(rdr["medication_dose"]); medsList[i].Add(medObject); } } conn.Close(); MedicationTimelineClass medObjectx = medsList[i][0] as MedicationTimelineClass; MessageBox.Show(medObjectx.medication_name); } } but then, when I take the message box code out of the loop, meaning that the array of Lists is supposed to be populated, I always get the same value: the last value entered. the same medication name, no matter what number I put between those brackets. It's like if the whole array of Lists is populated with the same data. for (int i = 0; i < numberOfMeds; i++) { queryStr = "select * from biological where medication_name = '" + med_names[i] + "' and patient_id = " + patientID.patient_id; using (var conn = new SqlConnection(connStr)) using (var cmd = new SqlCommand(queryStr, conn)) { conn.Open(); using (SqlDataReader rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { while (rdr.Read()) { medObject.medication_date = (DateTime)rdr["patient_history_date_bio"]; medObject.medication_name = rdr["medication_name"].ToString(); medObject.medication_dose = Convert.ToInt32(rdr["medication_dose"]); medsList[i].Add(medObject); } } conn.Close(); } } MedicationTimelineClass medObjectx = medsList[0][0] as MedicationTimelineClass; MessageBox.Show(medObjectx.medication_name); what's going on here?

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  • Monotouch serialize UIImage

    - by cvista
    Hi I need to cache images locally and was thinking about saving them as SerializableDictionary SerializableDictionary is from: http://weblogs.asp.net/pwelter34/archive/2006/05/03/444961.aspx I was wondering if this was a: a good way of handling caching of images (for offline mode - the data is constantly updated so pulls from the web first). b: how can i do this? I seem to be only left with the following xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="us-ascii"?> <dictionary> <item> <key> <string>http://img.theguidestar.com/thumb/491520.png</string> </key> <value> <UIImage xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Handle /> <Size> <Width>0</Width> <Height>0</Height> </Size> </UIImage> </value> </item> </dictionary> Is there anything specific i should be doing to make it serialize the image itself? w://

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  • WPF TabBarControl Setting Focus to element when tab changes

    - by Aran Mulholland
    I have a TabControl that is bound to a view model <TabControl ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ViewModelCollection}" > <TabControl.ItemContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="TabItem" BasedOn="{StaticResource {x:Type TabItem}}"> <Setter Property="Header" Value="{Binding Title}" /> <Setter Property="Content" Value="{Binding}" /> </Style> </TabControl.ItemContainerStyle> </TabControl> Each Tab simply contains a View Model Item. I use a data template to display this. <!-- View Model Template --> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModelItem}"> <DockPanel> <TextBox Text="I want this to have the focus"/> </DockPanel> </DataTemplate> When the current tab is changed i want the focus to be on the textbox (this is a simple example, in my production code i have a datagrid) in the data template. how do i accomplish this?

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  • Web service SSL handshake fails in production environment unless SSL debugging enabled

    - by JST
    Scenario: calling a client web service over SSL (https) with mutual SSL authentication. Different service endpoint URLs and certs (both keystore and truststore) for test vs. production environments. Both test and production environments run tomcat / JBoss clustered. Production environment has load balancing / BigIP, runs Blade and non-Blade machines. Truststore is set (using -Djavax.net.ssl.trustStore=value) at startup. Keystore is set using System.setProperty("javax.net.ssl.keyStore", "value") in Java code. Web service call made using Axis2. All works fine in test environment, but when we moved to production environment (6 servers), it appears certs are not being forwarded for the handshake. Here's what we've done: in test environment, handshake using test versions of certs has been working all along, with no ssl debugging enabled confirmed in test environment that handshake with client production endpoint succeeds (production certs, both ours and theirs, are fine) -- this was done using -Djavax.net.debug=handshake,ssl confirmed that the error condition occurs on all 6 production servers took one server out of the cluster, turned on ssl debugging for just that one (with a restart), hit it directly, handshake works! switched to a different server without the debugging turned on, handshake error condition occurs turned debugging on on that second server (with a restart), hit it directly, handshake works! From the evidence, it seems like somehow the debugging being enabled causes the certificates to be properly retrieved/conveyed, although that makes no sense! I wonder whether somehow the enabled debugging makes the system pay attention to the System.setProperty call, and ignore it otherwise. However, in local and test environments, handshake worked without debugging enabled. Do I maybe need to be setting keystore on server startup like I'm setting truststore? Have been avoiding that because the keystore will differ for each of our test environments (16 of them).

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  • How can parallelism affect number of results?

    - by spender
    I have a fairly complex query that looks something like this: create table Items(SomeOtherTableID int,SomeField int) create table SomeOtherTable(Id int,GroupID int) with cte1 as ( select SomeOtherTableID,COUNT(*) SubItemCount from Items t where t.SomeField is not null group by SomeOtherTableID ),cte2 as ( select tc.SomeOtherTableID,ROW_NUMBER() over (partition by a.GroupID order by tc.SubItemCount desc) SubItemRank from Items t inner join SomeOtherTable a on a.Id=t.SomeOtherTableID inner join cte1 tc on tc.SomeOtherTableID=t.SomeOtherTableID where t.SomeField is not null ),cte3 as ( select SomeOtherTableID from cte2 where SubItemRank=1 ) select * from cte3 t1 inner join cte3 t2 on t1.SomeOtherTableID<t2.SomeOtherTableID option (maxdop 1) The query is such that cte3 is filled with 6222 distinct results. In the final select, I am performing a cross join on cte3 with itself, (so that I can compare every value in the table with every other value in the table at a later point). Notice the final line : option (maxdop 1) Apparently, this switches off parallelism. So, with 6222 results rows in cte3, I would expect (6222*6221)/2, or 19353531 results in the subsequent cross joining select, and with the final maxdop line in place, that is indeed the case. However, when I remove the maxdop line, the number of results jumps to 19380454. I have 4 cores on my dev box. WTF? Can anyone explain why this is? Do I need to reconsider previous queries that cross join in this way?

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  • overriding enumeration base type using pragma or code change

    - by vprajan
    Problem: I am using a big C/C++ code base which works on gcc & visual studio compilers where enum base type is by default 32-bit(integer type). This code also has lots of inline + embedded assembly which treats enum as integer type and enum data is used as 32-bit flags in many cases. When compiled this code with realview ARM RVCT 2.2 compiler, we started getting many issues since realview compiler decides enum base type automatically based on the value an enum is set to. http://www.keil.com/support/man/docs/armccref/armccref_Babjddhe.htm For example, Consider the below enum, enum Scale { TimesOne, //0 TimesTwo, //1 TimesFour, //2 TimesEight, //3 }; This enum is used as a 32-bit flag. but compiler optimizes it to unsigned char type for this enum. Using --enum_is_int compiler option is not a good solution for our case, since it converts all the enum's to 32-bit which will break interaction with any external code compiled without --enum_is_int. This is warning i found in RVCT compilers & Library guide, The --enum_is_int option is not recommended for general use and is not required for ISO-compatible source. Code compiled with this option is not compliant with the ABI for the ARM Architecture (base standard) [BSABI], and incorrect use might result in a failure at runtime. This option is not supported by the C++ libraries. Question How to convert all enum's base type (by hand-coded changes) to use 32-bit without affecting value ordering? enum Scale { TimesOne=0x00000000, TimesTwo, // 0x00000001 TimesFour, // 0x00000002 TimesEight, //0x00000003 }; I tried the above change. But compiler optimizes this also for our bad luck. :( There is some syntax in .NET like enum Scale: int Is this a ISO C++ standard and ARM compiler lacks it? There is no #pragma to control this enum in ARM RVCT 2.2 compiler. Is there any hidden pragma available ?

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