Search Results

Search found 19856 results on 795 pages for 'inversion of control'.

Page 696/795 | < Previous Page | 692 693 694 695 696 697 698 699 700 701 702 703  | Next Page >

  • Get a button in itemscontrol and add eventhandler to its click event

    - by rockdale
    I have a custom control shows a customer info with an itemscontrol shows this customer's invoices. within the itemscontrol, I have button, in my code behind I want to wire the button's click event to my host window, but do now know how. //public event RoutedEventHandler ViewDetailClick; public static readonly RoutedEvent ButtonViewClickEvent = EventManager.RegisterRoutedEvent( "ButtonViewClick", RoutingStrategy.Bubble, typeof(RoutedEventHandler), typeof(custitem)); public event RoutedEventHandler ButtonViewClick { add { AddHandler(ButtonViewClickEvent, value); } remove {RemoveHandler(ButtonViewClickEvent, value);} } public override void OnApplyTemplate() { base.OnApplyTemplate(); this.lstInv = GetTemplateChild("lstInv") as ItemsControl; lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.StatusChanged += new EventHandler(ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged); } private void ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.Status == System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.GeneratorStatus.ContainersGenerated) { lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.StatusChanged -= ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged; for (int i = 0; i < this.lstInv.Items.Count; i++) { ContentPresenter c = lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.ContainerFromItem(lstInv.Items[i]) as ContentPresenter; DataTemplate dt = c.ContentTemplate; Grid grd = dt.LoadContent() as Grid; Button btnView = grd.FindName("btnView") as Button; if (btnView != null) { btnView.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(ButtonView_Click); //btnView.Click+= delegate(object senderObj, RoutedEventArgs eArg) //{ // if (this.ViewDetailClick != null) // { // this.ViewDetailClick(this, eArg); // } //}; } } private void ButtonView_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("clicked"); //e.RoutedEvent = ButtonViewClickEvent; //e.Source = sender; //RaiseEvent(e); } I succeed getting the btnView, then attach the click event, but the click event never get fired. Thanks in advance -rockdale

    Read the article

  • "The data types text and nvarchar are incompatible in the equal to operator" in SQL Query

    - by kenom
    Why i get this error: The data types text and nvarchar are incompatible in the equal to operator. The field of "username" in database is text type... This is my soruce: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="my_answers.ascx.cs" Inherits="kontrole_login_my_answers" %> <div style=" margin-top:-1280px; float:left;"> <p></p> <div id="question"> Add question </div> </div> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1" > </asp:GridView> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:estudent_piooConnectionString %>" SelectCommand="SELECT * FROM [question] WHERE ([username] = @fafa)"> <SelectParameters> <asp:QueryStringParameter Name="fafa" QueryStringField="user" Type="String"/> </SelectParameters> </asp:SqlDataSource>

    Read the article

  • Regular input in ASP.NET

    - by coffeeaddict
    Here's an example of a regular standard HTML input for my radiobuttonlist: <label><input type="radio" name="rbRSelectionGroup" checked value="0" />None</label> <asp:Repeater ID="rptRsOptions" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <div> <label><input type="radio" name="rbRSelectionGroup" value='<%# ((RItem)Container.DataItem).Id %>' /><%# ((RItem)Container.DataItem).Name %></label> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I removed some stuff for this thread, one being I put an r for some name that I do not want to expose here so just an fyi. Now, I would assume that this would or should happen: Page loads the first time, the None radio button is checked / defaulted I go and select a different radiobutton in this radiobutton list I do an F5 refresh in my browser The None radio button is pre-selected again after it has come back from the refresh but #4 is not happening. It's retaining the radiobutton that I selected in #2 and I don't know why. I mean in regular HTML it's stateless. So what could be holding this value? I want this to act like a normal input button. I know the question of "why not use an ASP.NET control" will come up. Well there are 2 reasons: The stupid radiobuttonlist bug that everyone knows about I just want to brush up more on standard input tags We are not moving to MVC so this is as close as I'll get and it's ok, because the rest of the team is on par with having mixed ASP.NET controls with standard HTML controls in our pages Anyway my main question here is I'm surprised that it's retaining the change in selection after postback.

    Read the article

  • How do I change the base class at runtime in C#?

    - by MatthewMartin
    I may be working on mission impossible here, but I seem to be getting close. I want to extend a ASP.NET control, and I want my code to be unit testable. Also, I'd like to be able to fake behaviors of a real Label (namely things like ID generation, etc), which a real Label can't do in an nUnit host. Here a working example that makes assertions on something that depends on a real base class and something that doesn't-- in a more realistic unit test, the test would depend on both --i.e. an ID existing and some custom behavior. Anyhow the code says it better than I can: public class LabelWrapper : Label //Runtime //public class LabelWrapper : FakeLabel //Unit Test time { private readonly LabelLogic logic= new LabelLogic(); public override string Text { get { return logic.ProcessGetText(base.Text); } set { base.Text=logic.ProcessSetText(value); } } } //Ugh, now I have to test FakeLabelWrapper public class FakeLabelWrapper : FakeLabel //Unit Test time { private readonly LabelLogic logic= new LabelLogic(); public override string Text { get { return logic.ProcessGetText(base.Text); } set { base.Text=logic.ProcessSetText(value); } } } [TestFixture] public class UnitTest { [Test] public void Test() { //Wish this was LabelWrapper label = new LabelWrapper(new FakeBase()) LabelWrapper label = new LabelWrapper(); //FakeLabelWrapper label = new FakeLabelWrapper(); label.Text = "ToUpper"; Assert.AreEqual("TOUPPER",label.Text); StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter(); HtmlTextWriter writer = new HtmlTextWriter(stringWriter); label.RenderControl(writer); Assert.AreEqual(1,label.ID); Assert.AreEqual("<span>TOUPPER</span>", stringWriter.ToString()); } } public class FakeLabel { virtual public string Text { get; set; } public void RenderControl(TextWriter writer) { writer.Write("<span>" + Text + "</span>"); } } //System Under Test internal class LabelLogic { internal string ProcessGetText(string value) { return value.ToUpper(); } internal string ProcessSetText(string value) { return value.ToUpper(); } }

    Read the article

  • Limit iPhone in-app purchase by user's country

    - by Ryan
    Hello everyone. I'm a product manager who works for a small internet company that is developing an iPhone application for a social network. We monetize by offering limited and premium memberships to users (premium members get additional features not available to limited members). For billing on the web, we use a 3rd-party payment gateway that is nearing retirement, and will be replaced by an in-house solution. The business wants a global launch for our iPhone app using iTunes + in-app purchasing as a payment gateway. The problem with going global using this payment method is that for our web service membership level, available features, and subscription costs are defined by country. For example, in the US premium/limited memberships are available at 5 pricing tiers; in France premium/limited memberships are available at 5 different pricing tiers from the US; and in Chile the service is available for free and all features are available to users. Is it possible then to have the server-side, based on the user's country of registration, control the level of access, features, and payment options for users on the iPhone? I'd also note that since iTunes Connect does not allow variable pricing by currency and country, each "region" would need 5 in app purchase options. I argued for a US-only launch for iPhone using iTunes in app purchase until an in-house payment gateway is available. But you know...

    Read the article

  • FFMEPG permission problem, is there any alternative solution instead of FFMPEG?

    - by caglaror
    We have some kind of permenant permission problem on FFMPEG.exe to write JPEG file on to HDD. We are using IIS and try all permission methods to ffmepg.exe, its including folder,folders, cmd.exe and any executable file, related folder, file. Also we tried many many command examples. But never went beyond the "permission denied" error messages. We give up. Do you know another alternative solution to pick images from flv, f4v movie files? Or %100 quaranteed method to achive this permission control on IIS? Thank you. ---last code we try variables etc. aren't shown here. jpegYapKomutu = videoEditorKlasoru &"\ffmpeg.exe -i " & videoEditorKlasoru & "\deneme.flv" &" -s 480×360 -ss 00:00:"&saniyesi&" -vframes 1 -f mjpeg "& "C:\Webhome\normworks\caglarorhan\deneme.jpg" WScript.Run "%COMSPEC% /C dir" & jpegYapKomutu

    Read the article

  • .Net 2.0 ServiceController.GetServices()

    - by Miles
    I've got a website that has windows authentication enable on it. From a page in the website, the users have the ability to start a service that does some stuff with the database. It works fine for me to start the service because I'm a local admin on the server. But I just had a user test it and they can't get the service started. My question is: Does anyone know of a way to get a list of services on a specified computer by name using a different windows account than the one they are currently logged in with? I really don't want to add all the users that need to start the service into a windows group and set them all to a local admin on my IIS server..... Here's some of the code I've got: public static ServiceControllerStatus FindService() { ServiceControllerStatus status = ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped; try { string machineName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceMachineName"]; ServiceController[] services = ServiceController.GetServices(machineName); string serviceName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceName"].ToLower(); foreach (ServiceController service in services) { if (service.ServiceName.ToLower() == serviceName) { status = service.Status; break; } } } catch(Exception ex) { status = ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped; SaveError(ex, "Utilities - FindService()"); } return status; } My exception comes from the second line in the try block. Here's the error: System.InvalidOperationException: Cannot open Service Control Manager on computer 'server.domain.com'. This operation might require other privileges. --- System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception: Access is denied --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.ServiceProcess.ServiceController.GetDataBaseHandleWithAccess(String machineName, Int32 serviceControlManaqerAccess) at System.ServiceProcess.ServiceController.GetServicesOfType(String machineName, Int32 serviceType) at TelemarketingWebSite.Utilities.StartService() Thanks for the help/info

    Read the article

  • Converting an AnsiString to a Unicode String

    - by jrodenhi
    I'm converting a D2006 program to D2010. I have a value stored in a single byte per character string in my database and I need to load it into a control that has a LoadFromStream, so my plan was to write the string to a stream and use that with LoadFromStream. But it did not work. In studying the problem, I see an issue that tells me that I don't really understand how conversion from AnsiString to Unicode string works. Here is some code I am puzzling over: oStringStream := TStringStream.Create(sBuffer); sUnicodeStream := oPayGrid.sStream; //explicit conversion to unicode string iSize1 := StringElementSize(oPaygrid.sStream); iSize2 := StringElementSize(sUnicodeStream); oStringStream.WriteString(sUnicodeStream); When I get to the last line, iSize1 does equal 1 and iSize2 does equal 2, so that part is what I understood from my reading. But, on the last line, after I write the string to the stream, and look at the Bytes Property of the string, it shows this (the string starts as '16,159'): (49 {$31}, 54 {$36}, 44 {$2C}, 49 {$31}, 53 {$35}, 57 {$39} ... I was expecting that it might look something like (49 {$31}, 00 {$00}, 54 {$36}, 00 {$00}, 44 {$2C}, 00 {$00}, 49 {$31}, 00 {$00}, 53 {$35}, 00 {$00}, 57 {$39}, 00 {$00} ... I'm not getting the right results out of the LoadFromStream because it is reading from the stream two bytes at a time, but the data it is receiving is not arranged that way. What is it that I should do to give the LoadFromStream a well formed stream of data based on a unicode string? Thank you for your help.

    Read the article

  • Should client-server code be written in one "project" or two?

    - by Ricket
    I've been beginning a client-server application. At first I naturally created two projects in Eclipse, two source control repositories, etc. But I'm quickly seeing that there is a bit of shared code between the two that would probably benefit to sharing instead of copying. In addition, I've been learning and trying test-driven development, and it seems to me that it would be easier to test based on real client components rather than having to set up a huge amount of code just to mock something, when the code is probably mostly in the client. My biggest concern in merging the client and server is of security; how do I ensure that the server pieces of the code do not reach an user's computer? So especially if you are writing client-server applications yourself (and especially in Java, though this can turn into a language-agnostic question if you'd like to share your experience with this in other languages), what sort of separation do you keep between your client and server code? Are they just in different packages/namespaces or completely different binaries using shared libraries, or something else entirely? How do you test the code together and yet ship separately?

    Read the article

  • AJAX PopupControl Extender with Bing Maps

    - by Morano88
    Hey! I want to use AJAX PopupControl Extender with a text box so when a user clicks on the text box a popup that contains the Bing Map appears. I'm using the following code but I don't know why it is not working ? <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Font-Bold="true" Font-Size="14px" Text="Click inside the textbox to open AJAX Popup Control:"></asp:Label> <div class="clear"><br /></div> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" CssClass="textbox" runat="server" Width="200px"></asp:TextBox> <html> <head> <title></title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ecn.dev.virtualearth.net/mapcontrol/mapcontrol.ashx?v=6.2"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var map = null; function GetMap() { map = new VEMap('myMap'); map.LoadMap(new VELatLong(47.6, -122.33), 10 ,'h' ,false); } </script> </head> <body onload="GetMap();"> <div id='myMap' style="position:relative; width:400px; height:400px;"></div> </body> </html> <ajaxToolkit:PopupControlExtender ID="PopupControlExtender1" runat="server" CommitProperty="foreColor" Position="Right" TargetControlID="TextBox1" PopupControlID="myMap" OffsetX="2" OffsetY="2"> </ajaxToolkit:PopupControlExtender> what's wrong ?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC editor template for property

    - by Idsa
    Usually I render my forms by @Html.RenderModel, but this time I have a complex rendering logic and I render it manually. I decided to create a editor template for one property. Here is the code (copy pasted from default object editor template implementation): <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var modelMetadata = ViewData.ModelMetadata; %> <% if (modelMetadata.HideSurroundingHtml) { %> <%= Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> <% } else { %> <% if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(Html.Label(modelMetadata.PropertyName).ToHtmlString())) { %> <div class="editor-label"><%= Html.Label(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %></div> <% } %> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> </div> <% } %> And here is how I use it: @Html.EditorFor(x => x.SomeProperty, "Property") //"Property" is template above But it didn't work: labels are rendered regardless of DisplayName and editors are not rendered at all (in Watches Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName shows empty string). What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Am I a discoverer of a bug in the WPF engine?

    - by bitbonk
    We have a MFC 8 application compiled with /CLR that contains a larger amount of Windows Forms UserControls wich again contain WPF user controls using ElementHost. Due to the architecture of our software we can not use HwndHost directly. We observed an extremely strange behavior here that we can not make any sense of: When the CPU load is very high during startup of the application and there are a lot live of ElementHost instances, the whole property engine completely stops working. For example animations that usually just work fine now never update the values of the bound properties, they just stay at some random value after startup. When I set a property that is not bound to anything the value is correctly stored in the dependency property (calling the getter returns the new value) but the visual representation never reflects that. I set the background to red but the background color does not change. We tested this on a lot of different machines all running Windows XP SP2 and it is pretty reproducible. The funny thing here is, that there is in fact one situation where the bound properties actually pickup a new value from the animation and the visual gets updated based on the property values. It is when I resize the ElementHost or when I hide and reshow the parent native control. As soon as I do this, properties that are bound to an animation pickup a new value and the visuals rerender based on the new property values - but just once - if I want to see another update I have to resize the ElementHost. Do you have any explanation of what could be happening here or how I could approach this problem to find it out? What can I do to debug this? Is there a way I can get more information about what WPF actually does or where WPF might have crashed? To me it currently seems like a bug in WPF itself since it only happens at high CPU load at startup.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight 4 ComboBox - Binding to Nullable data (tried TargetNullValue but not working as expected)

    - by Laurence
    (Please note - I am a Silverlight beginner and am looking for the simplest solution here, e.g. that doesn't involve writing/installing a replacement for the ComboBox control!) This is an issue with a Silverlight 4 application that uses the View Model (MVVM) approach. I have a simple form for editing a "Product" object. Product has a CategoryID property which is nullable (int?). A ComboBox is used to view and set the CategoryID - this is bound to an ObservableCollection of Categories. Product also has number of non-nullable properties bound to TextBoxes. I want the user to see "N/A" in the ComboBox for a product with no category, and to be use this "N/A" option to set CategoryID to null. So, I manually added a Category object with CategoryID=0 and CategoryName="N/A" to the collection; then I set TargetNullValue=0 in the SelectedValue Binding of the ComboBox. My thinking was - when the ComboBox SelectedValue was bound to a null CategoryID it would substitute zero, and therefore select the "N/A" option. When editing a Product with a non-null CategoryID, everything works. However when a null CategoryID is found, two problems occur: No option is selected in the ComboBox (its blank) The ComboBox binding seems broken from this point onwards - any Product I subsequently edit (incl. ones with a non-null CategoryID) have nothing selected in the ComboBox (its still populated with all categories - just no selected item). I've seen reports of problem #2 (here, here) but I was under the impression that #1 should have worked. What am I missing to get the "N/A" option to be selected? XAML for ComboBox: <ComboBox x:Name="cboCategory" ItemsSource="{Binding colCategories, Mode=OneWay}" SelectedValuePath="CategoryID" DisplayMemberPath="CategoryName" SelectedValue="{Binding CurrentProduct.CategoryID, Mode=TwoWay, TargetNullValue=0}" Height="24" Width="344"></ComboBox>

    Read the article

  • How to create custom pages (Drupal 6.x)

    - by jc70
    In the template.php file I inserted the code below: I found a tutorial online that gives the code, but I'm confused on how to get it to work. I copied the code below and inserted it into the template.php from the theme HTML5_base. I duplicated the page.tpl.php file and created custom pages -- page-gallery.tpl.php and page-articles.tpl.php. I inserted some text to the files just see that I've navigated to the pages w/ the changes. It looks like Drupal is not recognizing gallery.tpl.php and page-articles.tpl.php. In the template.php there are the following functions: html5_base_preprocess_page() html5_base_preprocess_node() html5_base_preprocess_block() In the tutorial it uses these functions: phptemplate_preprocess_page() phptemplate_preprocess_block() phptemplate_preprocess_node() function phptemplate_preprocess_page(&$vars) { //code block from the Drupal handbook //the path module is required and must be activated if(module_exists('path')) { //gets the "clean" URL of the current page $alias = drupal_get_path_alias($_GET['q']); $suggestions = array(); $template_filename = 'page'; foreach(explode('/', $alias) as $path_part) { $template_filename = $template_filename.'-'.$path_part; $suggestions[] = $template_filename; } $vars['template_files'] = $suggestions; } } function phptemplate_preprocess_node(&$vars) { //default template suggestions for all nodes $vars['template_files'] = array(); $vars['template_files'][] = 'node'; //individual node being displayed if($vars['page']) { $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-page'; $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->type.'-page'; $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->nid.'-page'; } //multiple nodes being displayed on one page in either teaser //or full view else { //template suggestions for nodes in general $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->type; $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->nid; //template suggestions for nodes in teaser view //more granular control if($vars['teaser']) { $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->type.'-teaser'; $vars['template_files'][] = 'node-'.$vars['node']->nid.'-teaser'; } } } function phptemplate_preprocess_block(&$vars) { //the "cleaned-up" block title to be used for suggestion file name $subject = str_replace(" ", "-", strtolower($vars['block']->subject)); $vars['template_files'] = array('block', 'block-'.$vars['block']->delta, 'block-'.$subject); }

    Read the article

  • Google Chrome and (cache or memory leaks).

    - by Alexey Ogarkov
    Hello All, I have a big problem with Google Chrome and its memory. My app is displaying to user several image charts and reloads them every 10s. In the interval i have code like that var image = new Image(); var src = 'myurl/image'+new Date().getTime(); image.onload = function() { document.getElementById('myimage').src = src; image.onload = image.onabort = image.onerror = null; } image.src = src; So i have no memory leaks in Firefox and IE. Here the response headers for images Server Apache-Coyote/1.1 Vary * Cache-Control no-store (// I try no-cache, must-revalidate and so on here) Content-Type image/png Content-Length 11131 Date Mon, 31 May 2010 14:00:28 GMT Vary * taken from here In about:cache page there is no my cached images. If i enable purge-memory-button for chrome (--purge-memory-button parameter) it`s not help. Images is in PNG24. So i think that the problem is not in cache. May be Google Chrome is not releasing memory for old images. Please help. Any suggestions. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • what makes a Tomcat5.5 cannot be "aware" of new Java Web Applications?

    - by Michael Mao
    This is for uni homework, but I reckon it is more a generic problem to the Tomcat Server(version 5.5.27) on my uni. The problem is, I first did a skeleton Java Web Application (Just a simple Servlet and a welcome-file, nothing complicated, no lib included) using NetBeans 6.8 with the bundled Tomcat 6.0.20 (localhost:8084/WSD) Then, to test and prove it is "portable" and "auto-deploy-able", I cleaned and built a WSD.war file and dropped it onto my Xampp Tomcat (localhost:8080/WSD). The war extracted everything accordingly and I can see identical output from this Tomcat. So far, so good. However, after I tried to drop to war onto uni server, funny thing happens: uni server Even though I've changed the war permission to 755, it is simply not "responding". I then copied the extracted files to uni server, the MainServlet cannot be recognized from within its Context Path "/WSD", basically nothing works, expect the static index.jsp. I tried several times to stop and restart uni Tomcat, it doesn't help? I wonder what makes this happen? Is there anything I did wrong with my approach? To be frank I paid no attention to a server not under my control, and I am unfortunately not a real active day-to-day Java Programmer now. I understand the fundamentals of MVC, Servelets, JSPs, JavaBeans, but I really feel frustrated by this, as I cannot see why... Or, should I ask, a Java Web Application, after cleaned and built by NetBeans6.8, is self-contained and self-configured so ready to be deployed to any Java Web Container? I know, I can certainly program everything in plain old JSP, but this is soooo... unacceptable to myself... Update : I am now wondering if there is any free Tomcat Hosting so that I would like to see if my war file and/or my web app can go with them without any configuration at all?

    Read the article

  • Managing multiple customer databases in ASP.NET MVC application

    - by Robert Harvey
    I am building an application that requires separate SQL Server databases for each customer. To achieve this, I need to be able to create a new customer folder, put a copy of a prototype database in the folder, change the name of the database, and attach it as a new "database instance" to SQL Server. The prototype database contains all of the required table, field and index definitions, but no data records. I will be using SMO to manage attaching, detaching and renaming the databases. In the process of creating the prototype database, I tried attaching a copy of the database (companion .MDF, .LDF pair) to SQL Server, using Sql Server Management Studio, and discovered that SSMS expects the database to reside in c:\program files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL.1\MSSQL\DATA\MyDatabaseName.MDF Is this a "feature" of SQL Server? Is there a way to manage individual databases in separate directories? Or am I going to have to put all of the customer databases in the same directory? (I was hoping for a little better control than this). NOTE: I am currently using SQL Server Express, but for testing purposes only. The production database will be SQL Server 2008, Enterprise version. So "User Instances" are not an option.

    Read the article

  • What is a good automated data import method for SQL Server?

    - by Joel Potter
    I'm in the process of porting some SQL Server 2005 databases to SQL Server 2008. One of these databases has an associated import application (Windows task) which uses SSIS with a DTS package to import a large dataset from an MS Access database nightly. In upgrading to SQL Server 2008, I discovered that I can't run the same console application which has been performing the imports due to the missing manageddts DLL in SQL Server 2008. It's several years old and in need of a rewrite for various reason, plus, I've been fairly unhappy with DTS in general. The original reason DTS was chosen was for speed (5 min import time compared to 30+ for ADO.NET). The format of the data to import is out of my control (the client likes Access). I would also like to be able to run the import from a machine completely separate from the server hosting SQL Server and preferably with minimal SQL features installed. Options I've considered: Creating an Access application to connect to both databases (SQL Server and Access) and perform the import (Ugh!) Revisiting ADO.NET to see if the original implementation was poorly written. Updated SSIS packages. What other technologies should I be considering for this job?

    Read the article

  • Setting the default stack size on Linux globally for the program

    - by wowus
    So I've noticed that the default stack size for threads on linux is 8MB (if I'm wrong, PLEASE correct me), and, incidentally, 1MB on Windows. This is quite bad for my application, as on a 4-core processor that means 64 MB is space is used JUST for threads! The worst part is, I'm never using more than 100kb of stack per thread (I abuse the heap a LOT ;)). My solution right now is to limit the stack size of threads. However, I have no idea how to do this portably. Just for context, I'm using Boost.Thread for my threading needs. I'm okay with a little bit of #ifdef hell, but I'd like to know how to do it easily first. Basically, I want something like this (where windows_* is linked on windows builds, and posix_* is linked under linux builds) // windows_stack_limiter.c int limit_stack_size() { // Windows impl. return 0; } // posix_stack_limiter.c int limit_stack_size() { // Linux impl. return 0; } // stack_limiter.cpp int limit_stack_size(); static volatile int placeholder = limit_stack_size(); How do I flesh out those functions? Or, alternatively, am I just doing this entirely wrong? Remember I have no control over the actual thread creation (no new params to CreateThread on Windows), as I'm using Boost.Thread.

    Read the article

  • Tools\addin's for formating or cleaning up xaml?

    - by cody
    I'm guessing these don't exist since I searched around for these but I'm looking for a few tools: 1) A tool that cleans up my xaml so that the properties of elements are consistent through a file. I think enforcing that consistence would make the xaml easier to read. Maybe there could be a hierarchy of what comes first but if not alphabetical might work. Example before: TextBox Name="myTextBox1" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="1" Margin="4" TextBox Grid.Column="1" Margin="4" Name="t2" Grid.Row="3" Example after: TextBox Name="myTextBox1" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="1" Margin="4" TextBox Name="t2" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="1" Margin="4" (note < / has been remove from the above since control seem to have issues parsing whe the after section was added) 2) Along the same lines as above, to increase readability, a tool to align properties, so from the above code example similar props would start in the same place. <TextBox Name="myTextBox1" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="1" Margin="4"/> <TextBox Name="t2" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="1" Margin="4"/> I know VS has default settings for XAML documents so props can be on one line or separate lines so maybe if there was a tool as described in (1) this would not be needed...but it would still be nice if you like your props all on one line. 3) A tool that adds X to the any of the Grid.Row values and Y to any of the Grid.Column values in the selected text. Every time I add a new row\column I have to go manually fix these. From my understanding Expression Blend can help with this but seem excessive to open Blend just to increment some numbers (and just don't grok Blend). Maybe vs2010 with the designer will help but right now I'm on VS08 and Silverlight. Any one know of any tools to help with this? Anyone planning to write something like this...I'm looking at you JetBrains and\or DevExpress. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why Illegal cookies are send by Browser and received by web servers (rfc2109)?

    - by Artyom
    Hello, According to RFC 2109 cookie's value can be either HTTP token or quoted string, and token can't include non-ASCII characters. Cookie's RFC 2109: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2109#page-3 HTTP's RFC 2068 token definition: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2068#page-16 However I had found that Firefox browser (3.0.6) sends cookies with utf-8 string as-is and three web servers I tested (apache2, lighttpd, nginx) pass this string as-is to the application. For example, raw request from browser: $ nc -l -p 8080 GET /hello HTTP/1.1 Host: localhost:8080 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux x86_64; en-US; rv:1.9.0.9) Gecko/2009050519 Firefox/2.0.0.13 (Debian-3.0.6-1) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1255,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? Cache-Control: max-age=0 And raw response of apache, nginx and lighttpd HTTP_COOKIE CGI variable: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? What do I miss? Can somebody explain me?

    Read the article

  • Practical non-image based CAPTCHA approaches?

    - by Jeff Atwood
    It looks like we'll be adding CAPTCHA support to Stack Overflow. This is necessary to prevent bots, spammers, and other malicious scripted activity. We only want human beings to post or edit things here! We'll be using a JavaScript (jQuery) CAPTCHA as a first line of defense: http://docs.jquery.com/Tutorials:Safer_Contact_Forms_Without_CAPTCHAs The advantage of this approach is that, for most people, the CAPTCHA won't ever be visible! However, for people with JavaScript disabled, we still need a fallback and this is where it gets tricky. I have written a traditional CAPTCHA control for ASP.NET which we can re-use. However, I'd prefer to go with something textual to avoid the overhead of creating all these images on the server with each request. I've seen things like.. ASCII text captcha: \/\/(_)\/\/ math puzzles: what is 7 minus 3 times 2? trivia questions: what tastes better, a toad or a popsicle? Maybe I'm just tilting at windmills here, but I'd like to have a less resource intensive, non-image based <noscript> compatible CAPTCHA if possible. Ideas?

    Read the article

  • Using JQuery to traverse DOM structure, finding a specific <table> element located after HTML 'comme

    - by Shadow
    I currently have a website source code (no control over the source) which contains certain content that needs to be manipulated. This would be simple on the surface, however there is no unique ID attribute on the tag in question that can uniquely identify it, and therefore allow for further traversal. Here is a snippet of the source code, surrounding the tag in question. ... <td width="100%"> <!--This table snaps the content columns(one or two)--> <table border="0" width="100%"> ... Essentially, the HTML comment stuck out as an easy way to gain access to that element. Using the JQuery comment add-on from this question, and some help from snowlord comment below, I have been able to identify the comment and retrieve the following output using the 'dump' extension. $('td').comments().filter(":contains('This table snaps the content columns(one or two)')").dump(); returns; jQuery Object { 0 = DOMElement [ nodeName: DIV nodeValue: null innerHTML: [ 0 = String: This table snaps the content columns(one or two) ] ] } However I am not sure how to traverse to the sibling element in the DOM. This should be simple, but I haven't had much selector experience with JQuery. Any suggestions are appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Ext JS 4.2.1 loading controller - best practice

    - by Hown_
    I am currently developing a Ext JS application with many views/controlers/... I am wondering myself what the best practice is for loading the JS controllers/views/and so on... currently i have my application defined like this: // enable javascript cache for debugging, otherwise Chrome breakpoints are lost Ext.Loader.setConfig({ disableCaching: false }); Ext.require('Ext.util.History'); Ext.require('app.Sitemap'); Ext.require('app.Error'); Ext.define('app.Application', { name: 'app', extend: 'Ext.app.Application', views: [ // TODO: add views here 'app.view.Viewport', 'app.view.BaseMain', 'app.view.Main', 'app.view.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.view.administration.User' ... ], controllers: [ 'app.controller.Viewport', 'app.controller.Main', 'app.controller.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.controller.administration.User', ... ], stores: [ // stores in there.. ] }); somehow this forces the client to load all my views and controllers at startup and is calling all init methods of all controllers of course.. i need to load data everytime i chnage my view.. and now i cant load it in my controllers init function. I would have to do something like this i assume: init: function () { this.control({ '#administration_User': { afterrender: this.onAfterRender } }); }, Is there a better way to do this? Or just an other event? Though the main thing i am questioning myself is if it is the best practice to load all the javascript at startup. Wouldnt it be better to only load the controllers/views/... which the client does need right now? Or should i load all the JS at startup? If i do want to load the controllers dynamicly how could i do this? I assume a would have to remove them from my application arrays (views, controllers, stores) and create an instance if i do need it and mby set the view in the controllers init?! What's best practice??

    Read the article

  • Counting entries in a list of dictionaries: for loop vs. list comprehension with map(itemgetter)

    - by Dennis Williamson
    In a Python program I'm writing I've compared using a for loop and increment variables versus list comprehension with map(itemgetter) and len() when counting entries in dictionaries which are in a list. It takes the same time using a each method. Am I doing something wrong or is there a better approach? Here is a greatly simplified and shortened data structure: list = [ {'key1': True, 'dontcare': False, 'ignoreme': False, 'key2': True, 'filenotfound': 'biscuits and gravy'}, {'key1': False, 'dontcare': False, 'ignoreme': False, 'key2': True, 'filenotfound': 'peaches and cream'}, {'key1': True, 'dontcare': False, 'ignoreme': False, 'key2': False, 'filenotfound': 'Abbott and Costello'}, {'key1': False, 'dontcare': False, 'ignoreme': True, 'key2': False, 'filenotfound': 'over and under'}, {'key1': True, 'dontcare': True, 'ignoreme': False, 'key2': True, 'filenotfound': 'Scotch and... well... neat, thanks'} ] Here is the for loop version: #!/usr/bin/env python # Python 2.6 # count the entries where key1 is True # keep a separate count for the subset that also have key2 True key1 = key2 = 0 for dictionary in list: if dictionary["key1"]: key1 += 1 if dictionary["key2"]: key2 += 1 print "Counts: key1: " + str(key1) + ", subset key2: " + str(key2) Output for the data above: Counts: key1: 3, subset key2: 2 Here is the other, perhaps more Pythonic, version: #!/usr/bin/env python # Python 2.6 # count the entries where key1 is True # keep a separate count for the subset that also have key2 True from operator import itemgetter KEY1 = 0 KEY2 = 1 getentries = itemgetter("key1", "key2") entries = map(getentries, list) key1 = len([x for x in entries if x[KEY1]]) key2 = len([x for x in entries if x[KEY1] and x[KEY2]]) print "Counts: key1: " + str(key1) + ", subset key2: " + str(key2) Output for the data above (same as before): Counts: key1: 3, subset key2: 2 I'm a tiny bit surprised these take the same amount of time. I wonder if there's something faster. I'm sure I'm overlooking something simple. One alternative I've considered is loading the data into a database and doing SQL queries, but the data doesn't need to persist and I'd have to profile the overhead of the data transfer, etc., and a database may not always be available. I have no control over the original form of the data. The code above is not going for style points.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 692 693 694 695 696 697 698 699 700 701 702 703  | Next Page >