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• App hosting Report Viewer crashes on exit after export

  - by Paul Sasik

  We have a .NET Winforms application that hosts the Crystal Reports Viewer control (Version XI). It works well for the most part but when an export of data from the viewer is performed the application will crash on exit and in unmanaged code. The error message is not very useful and just says that an incorrect memory location was accessed. No other info such a specific DLL etc. is provided. This only happens after the viewer is used to export a report to CSV, XML etc. My guess is that at some point in the export process Crystal creates a resource that attempts an action on shut down to a parent window (perhaps) that no longer exists. I've seen a number of memory leak and shut down issues with Crystal but this one's new. Has anyone seen it and come up with a workaround or has ideas for workarounds? So far we've tried explicitly disposing of all crystal-related objects, setting to null and even setting a Thread.Sleep cycle on shut down to "give Crystal time to clean up." Update: The crash happens only on shut down (so not immediate) All export formats work All export files are created properly CR is installed on the same machine as the hosting .NET app not sure about exporting from the IDE... is that even possible?

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• Disable validation in an object in Ruby on Rails

  - by J. Pablo Fernández

  I have an object which whether validation happens or not should depend on a boolean, or in another way, validation is optional. I haven't found a clean way to do it. What I'm currently doing is this (disclaimer: you cannot unsee, leave this page if you are too sensitive): def valid? if perform_validation super else super # Call valid? so that callbacks get called and things like encrypting passwords and generating salt in before_validation actually happen errors.clear # but then clear the errors true # and claim ourselves to be valid. This is super hacky! end end Any better ways? Before you point to the :if argument of many validations, this is for a user model which is using authlogic so it has a lot of validation rules. You can stop reading here if you belive me. If you don't, authlogic already sets some :ifs like: :if => :email_changed? which I have to turn into :if => Proc.new {|user| user.email_changed? and user.perform_validation} and in some other cases, since I'm also using authlogic-oid (OpenID) I just don't have control over the :if, authlogic-oid sets it in a way I cannot change it (in time) without further monkey patching. So I have to override seemingly unrelated functions, catch exceptions if a method doesn't exist, etc. The previous hacky solution if the best of my two attempts.

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• MVC JsonResult not working with chrome?

  - by Karsten Detmold

  i want jquery to take a JsonResult from my MVC controller but it does'nt receive any data! If I put the output into a textfile and enter its link its working so I think my jQuery is fine. Then I was testing with other browsers like chrome and I saw NOTHING. The requested page was just emtpy.. no errors. Also IE seems to have problems receiving my string.. only firefox displays the string but why? public JsonResult jsonLastRequests() { List<Request> requests = new List<Request>(); while (r.Read()) { requests.Add(new Models.Request() { ID = (int)r[0], SiteID = r[1].ToString(), Lat = r[2].ToString(), City = r[4].ToString(), CreationTime = (DateTime)r[5] }); } r.Close(); return Json(requests); } I found out that also if I want to return the JSON as string its not working! Its working with a string in all browsers now.. but jQuery is still not loading anything var url = "http://../jsonLastRequests"; var source = { datatype: "json", datafields: [ { name: 'ID' }, { name: 'SiteID' }, { name: 'Lat' }, { name: 'CreationTime' }, { name: 'City' }, ], id: 'id', url: url }; var dataAdapter = new $.jqx.dataAdapter(source, { downloadComplete: function (data, status, xhr) { }, loadComplete: function (data) { }, loadError: function (xhr, status, error) { } }); I fixed my problem by adding: access-control-allow-origin:*

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• xml attribure in dataset

  - by raging_boner

  I want to bind Repeater control to Dataset which is filled with XML data, but i don't know how to show attributes inside repeater. Xml File: <root> <items> <item id="9" name="111111111111" description="111111245" views="1" galleryID="0" /> </items> </root> Repeater code: <asp:Repeater ID="rptrGalleries" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <a href='Page?id=<%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "id") %>'><%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "name") %></a> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> Codebehind: XDocument doc = XDocument.Load(Server.MapPath("~/xml/gallery.xml")); IEnumerable<XElement> items = from item in doc.Descendants("item") orderby Convert.ToDateTime(item.Attribute("lastChanges").Value) descending where int.Parse(item.Attribute("galleryID").Value) == 0 && bool.Parse(item.Attribute("visible").Value) != false select item; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); ds.ReadXml(new StringReader(doc.ToString())); rptrGalleries.DataSource = ds; rptrGalleries.DataBind(); When I compile site I receive this error: System.Web.HttpException: DataBinding: 'System.Data.DataRowView' does not contain a property with the name 'id'.

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• Why do I get an error while trying to set the content of a tabspec in android?

  - by rushinge

  I have an android activity in which I'm using tabs. public class UnitActivity extends TabActivity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.unit_view); TabHost tabHost = getTabHost(); TabSpec spec; spec = tabHost.newTabSpec("controls"); spec.setIndicator("Control"); spec.setContent(R.layout.unit_control); tabHost.addTab(spec); spec = tabHost.newTabSpec("data"); spec.setIndicator("Data"); spec.setContent(R.layout.unit_data); tabHost.addTab(spec); } } However when I run the program it crashes with the error: "Could not create tab content because could not find view with id 2130903042". I don't understand what the problem is because R.layout.unit_data refers to a layout file in my resource directory (res/layout/unit_data.xml) as far as I can tell unit_data.xml is well formed and I've even referenced it successfully in another activity class UnitData extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.unit_data); Toast.makeText(this, "Hi from UnitData.onCreate", 5); } } which does not give an error and renders the layout just fine. What's going on? Why can't I reference this layout when creating a tab?

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• How to obtain the panel within a treeview (WPF)

  - by sperling

  How can one obtain the panel that is used within a TreeView? I've read that by default TreeView uses a VirtualizingStackPanel for this. When I look at a TreeView template, all I see is <ItemsPresenter />, which seems to hide the details of what panel is used. Possible solutions: 1) On the treeview instance ("tv"), from code, do this: tv.ItemsPanel. The problem is, this does not return a panel, but an ItemsPanelTemplate ("gets or sets the template that defines the panel that controls the layout of the items"). 2) Make a TreeView template that explicitly replaces <ItemsPresenter /> with your own ItemsControl.ItemsPanel. I am providing a special template anyways, so this is fine in my scenario. Then give a part name to the panel that you place within that template, and from code you can obtain that part (i.e. the panel). The problem with this? see below. (I am using a control named VirtualTreeView which is derived from TreeView, as is seen below): , use following: -- [sorry folks about poor formatting here, this is my first post, I tried 4 spaces for code... doesn't seem to work?] [I stripped out all clutter here for visibility...] The problem with this is: this immediately overrides any TreeView layout mechanism. Actually, you just get a blank screen, even when you have TreeViewItems filling the tree. Well, the reason I want to get a hold of the panel is to take some part in the MeaureOverride, but without going into all of that, I certainly do not want to rewrite the book of how to layout a treeview. I.e., doing this the step #2 way seems to invalidate the point of even using a TreeView in the first place. Sorry if there is some confusion here, thanks for any help you can offer.

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• is using private shared objects/variables on class level harmful ?

  - by haansi

  Hello, Thanks for your attention and time. I need your opinion on an basic architectural issue please. In page behind classes I am using a private and shared object and variables (list or just client or simplay int id) to temporary hold data coming from database or class library. This object is used temporarily to catch data and than to return, pass to some function or binding a control. 1st: Can this approach harm any way ? I couldn't analyze it but a thought was using such shared variables may replace data in it when multiple users may be sending request at a time? 2nd: Please comment also on using such variables in BLL (to hold data coming from DAL/database). In this example every time new object of BLL class will be made. Here is sample code: public class ClientManager { Client objclient = new Client(); //Used in 1st and 2nd method List<Client> clientlist = new List<Client>();// used in 3rd and 4th method ClientRepository objclientRep = new ClientRepository(); public List<Client> GetClients() { return clientlist = objclientRep.GetClients(); } public List<Client> SearchClients(string Keyword) { return clientlist = objclientRep.SearchClients(Keyword); } public Client GetaClient(int ClientId) { return objclient = objclientRep.GetaClient(ClientId); } public Client GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(int UserId) { return objclientRep.GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(UserId); } } I am really thankful to you for sparing time and paying kind attention.

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• Multiple generic parameters on a html helper extension method

  - by WestDiscGolf

  What I'm trying to do is create an extension method for the HtmlHelper to create a specific output and associated details like TextBoxFor<. What I want to do is specify the property from the model class as per TextBoxFor<, then an associated controller action and other parameters. So far the signature of the method looks like: public static MvcHtmlString Create<TModel, TProperty, TController>(this HtmlHelper<TModel> htmlHelper, Expression<Func<TModel, TProperty>> expression, Expression<Action<TController>> action, object htmlAttributes) where TController : Controller where TModel : class The issue occurs when I go to call it. In my view if I call it as per the TextBoxFor without specifying the Model type I am able to specify the lambda expression to set the property which it's for, but when I go to specify the action I am unable to. However, when I specify the controller type Html.Create<HomeController>( ... ) I am unable to specify the model property that the control is to be created for. I want to be able to call it like <%= Html.Create(x => x.Title, controller => controller.action, null) %> I've been hitting my head for a few hours now on this issue over the past day, can anyone point me in the right direction?

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• Can't get KnownType to work with WCF

  - by Kelly Cline

  I have an interface and a class defined in separate assemblies, like this: namespace DataInterfaces { public interface IPerson { string Name { get; set; } } } namespace DataObjects { [DataContract] [KnownType( typeof( IPerson ) ) ] public class Person : IPerson { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } } } This is my Service Interface: public interface ICalculator { [OperationContract] IPerson GetPerson ( ); } When I update my Service Reference for my Client, I get this in the Reference.cs: public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); I was hoping that KnownType would give me IPerson instead of "object" here. I have also tried [KnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] with the same result. I have control of both client and server, so I have my DataObjects (where Person is defined) and DataInterfaces (where IPerson is defined) assemblies in both places. Is there something obvious I am missing? I thought KnownType was the answer to being able to use interfaces with WCF. ----- FURTHER INFORMATION ----- I removed the KnownType from the Person class and added [ServiceKnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] to my service interface, as suggested by Richard. The client-side proxy still looks the same, public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); , but now it doesn't blow up. The client just has an "object", though, so it has to cast it to IPerson before it is useful. var person = client.GetPerson ( ); Console.WriteLine ( ( ( IPerson ) person ).Name );

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• Why is my Repeater null in code behind?

  - by Rob Stevenson-Leggett

  I'm just starting a new project and I am getting some really weird stuff happening. ASP.NET 3.5, VS2008. I've tried rebuild, close VS, delete everything and get from svn again but I cannot understand why the repeater in the following is null on page_load. I know this is going to be a headslapping moment. Help me out? Markup: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="GalleryControl.ascx.cs" Inherits="Site.UserControls.GalleryControl" %> <asp:Repeater ID="rptGalleries" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate><ul></HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li>wqe</li> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate></ul></FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> Code behind public partial class GalleryControl : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { rptGalleries.DataSource = new[] {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}; rptGalleries.DataBind(); } } Why is my repeater null? What the F is going on?

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• How can I intercept an exception occurred during serialization in WCF?

  - by bonomo

  I have a legit data object with all data contract / data member attributes. For some reason the WCF service crashes after the operation has completed and the result is passed as a return value. I believe it has something to do with WCF not being able to serialize that result properly. The test client doesn't say anything specific: The underlying connection was closed: The connection was closed unexpectedly. Server stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.RequestChannel.Request(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.RequestChannelBinder.Request(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.InvokeService(IMethodCallMessage methodCall, ProxyOperationRuntime operation) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.Invoke(IMessage message) Exception rethrown at [0]: at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) at IFacade.PickSecurities(String pattern, Int32 atMost) at FacadeClient.PickSecurities(String pattern, Int32 atMost) Inner Exception: The underlying connection was closed: The connection was closed unexpectedly. at System.Net.HttpWebRequest.GetResponse() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) I am in control of creating the instance of the service using a customized service host factory. I know I can set up trace listeners and check the logs, but it's a lot of hassle to do. So I would rather handle it explicitly on the server at the time it happens. So I how can I intercept that exception programmatically and return an appropriate fault meassage?

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• Using IAM for user authentication

  - by mdavis6890

  I've read lots and lots of posts that touch on what I think should be a very common use case - but without finding exactly what I want, or a simple reason why it can't be done. I have some files on S3. I want to be able to grant certain users access to certain files, via a front end that I build. So far, I've made it work this way: I built the front end in Django, using it's built-in Users and Groups I have a model for Buckets, in which I mirror my S3 buckets. I have a m2m relationship from groups to buckets representing the S3 permissions. The user logs in and authenticates against Django's users. I grab from Django the list of buckets that the user is allowed to see I use boto to grab a list of links to files from those buckets and display to user. This works, but isn't ideal, and also just doesn't feel right. I've got to keep a mirror of the buckets, and I also have to maintain my own list of user/passwords and permissions, when AWS already has all that built in. What I really want is to simply create the users in IAM and use group permissions in IAM to control access to the S3 buckets. No duplication of data or function. My app would request a UN/PW from the user and use that to connect to IAM/S3 to pull the list of buckets and files, then display links to the user. Simple. How can I, or why can't I? Am I looking at this the wrong way? What's the "right" way to address this (I assume) very common use case?

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• How can I make keyword order more relevant in my search?

  - by Atomiton

  In my database, I have a keywords field that stores a comma-delimited list of keywords. For example, a Shrek doll might have the following keywords: ogre, green, plush, hero, boys' toys A "Beanie Baby" doll ( that happens to be an ogre ) might have: beanie baby, kids toys, beanbag toys, soft, infant, ogre (That's a completely contrived example.) What I'd like to do is if the consumer searches for "ogre" I'd like the "Shrek" doll to come up higher in the search results. My content administrator feels that if the keyword is earlier in the list, it should get a higher ranking. ( This makes sense to me and it makes it easy for me to let them control the search result relevance ). Here's a simplified query: SELECT p.ProductID AS ContentID , p.ProductName AS Title , p.ProductCode AS Subtitle , 100 AS Rank , p.ProductKeywords AS Keywords FROM Products AS p WHERE FREETEXT( p.ProductKeywords, @SearchPredicate ) I'm thinking something along the lines of replacing the RANK with: , 200 - INDEXOF(@SearchTerm) AS Rank This "should" rank the keyword results by their relevance I know INDEXOF isn't a SQL command... but it's something LIKE that I would like to accomplish. Am I approaching this the right way? Is it possible to do something like this? Does this make sense?

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• NSTimer as a timeout mechanism

  - by alexantd

  I'm pretty sure this is really simple, and I'm just missing something obvious. I have an app that needs to download data from a web service for display in a UITableView, and I want to display a UIAlertView if the operation takes more than X seconds to complete. So this is what I've got (simplified for brevity): MyViewController.h @interface MyViewController : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSTimer *timer; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSTimer *timer; MyViewController.m @implementation MyViewController @synthesize timer; - (void)viewDidLoad { timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:20 target:self selector:@selector(initializationTimedOut:) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime]; [timer invalidate]; } - (void)doSomethingThatTakesALongTime { sleep(30); // for testing only // web service calls etc. go here } - (void)initializationTimedOut:(NSTimer *)theTimer { // show the alert view } My problem is that I'm expecting the [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime] call to block while the timer keeps counting, and I'm thinking that if it finishes before the timer is done counting down, it will return control of the thread to viewDidLoad where [timer invalidate] will proceed to cancel the timer. Obviously my understanding of how timers/threads work is flawed here because the way the code is written, the timer never goes off. However, if I remove the [timer invalidate], it does.

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• C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

  - by zinking

  there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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• Test if Java trusts an SSL certificate

  - by Eric R. Rath

  My java web application uses the standard mail libraries to establish an IMAPS connection to a mail server under my control. The mail server used a valid SSL cert issued by a CA. When the cert expired, I renewed it from the same CA, and put the cert into use. But my web application wouldn't trust the new cert. We had never explicitly trusted the old cert, or managed any trust stores. I talked with someone from the CA, and we tracked it down to a difference in the intermediate certs between the old and new cert. The old one used multiple intermediates, including one tied to a root that must've been trusted by default by our version of Java. The new cert used only one intermediate cert, and it was tied to a root missing from our Java version's default trusted cert store. When we renew this cert again in the future, is there an easy way, given a new crt and intermediate crt file, test if Java will consider that cert valid? I didn't see anything in keytool that looked promising. A code solution is okay, but I'd prefer one based on the Java command-line tools.

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• Reporting Services "cannot connect to the report server database"

  - by Dano

  We have Reporting Services running, and twice in the past 6 months it has been down for 1-3 days, and suddenly it will start working again. The errors range from not being able to view the tree root in a browser, down to being able to insert parameters on a report, but crashing before the report can generate. Looking at the logs, there is 1 error and 1 warning which seem to correspond somewhat. ERROR:Event Type: Error Event Source: Report Server (SQL2K5) Event Category: Management Event ID: 107 Date: 2/13/2009 Time: 11:17:19 AM User: N/A Computer: ******** Description: Report Server (SQL2K5) cannot connect to the report server database. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. WARNING: always comes before the previous error Event code: 3005 Event message: An unhandled exception has occurred. Event time: 2/13/2009 11:06:48 AM Event time (UTC): 2/13/2009 5:06:48 PM Event ID: 2efdff9e05b14f4fb8dda5ebf16d6772 Event sequence: 550 Event occurrence: 5 Event detail code: 0 Process information: Process ID: 5368 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Exception information: Exception type: ReportServerException Exception message: For more information about this error navigate to the report server on the local server machine, or enable remote errors. During the downtime we tried restarting everything from the server RS runs on, to the database it calls to fill reports with no success. When I came in monday morning it was working again. Anyone out there have any ideas on what could be causing these issues? Edit Tried both suggestions below several months ago to no avail. This issue hasn't arisen since, maybe something out of my control has changed....

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• Determine if the current thread has low I/O priority

  - by Magnus Hoff

  I have a background thread that does some I/O-intensive background type work. To please the other threads and processes running, I set the thread priority to "background mode" using SetThreadPriority, like this: SetThreadPriority(GetCurrentThread(), THREAD_MODE_BACKGROUND_BEGIN); However, THREAD_MODE_BACKGROUND_BEGIN is only available in Windows Server 2008 or newer, as well as Windows Vista and newer, but the program needs to work well on Windows Server 2003 and XP as well. So the real code is more like this: if (!SetThreadPriority(GetCurrentThread(), THREAD_MODE_BACKGROUND_BEGIN)) { SetThreadPriority(GetCurrentThread(), THREAD_PRIORITY_LOWEST); } The problem with this is that on Windows XP it will totally disrupt the system by using too much I/O. I have a plan for a ugly and shameful way of mitigating this problem, but that depends on me being able to determine if the current thread has low I/O priority or not. Now, I know I can store which thread priority I ended up setting, but the control flow in the program is not really well suited for this. I would rather like to be able to test later whether or not the current thread has low I/O priority -- if it is in "background mode". GetThreadPriority does not seem to give me this information. Is there any way to determine if the current thread has low I/O priority?

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• Using a "take-home" coding component in interview process

  - by Jeff Sargent

  In recent interviews I have been asking candidates to code through some questions on the whiteboard. I don't feel I'm getting a clear enough picture of the candidates technical ability with this approach. Granted, the questions might not be good enough, maybe the interview needs to be longer, etc, but I'm wondering if a different approach would be better. What I'd like to try is to create a simple, working project in Visual Studio and have it checked into source control. The candidate can check that code out from home/wherever and then check back in work representing their response to the assignment that I'll provide. I'm thinking that if the window of time is short enough and the assignment clear enough then the solution will be safe enough from all-out Googling (i.e. they couldn't search for and find the entire solution online). I would then be able to review the candidates work. Has enough worked with something like this before, either to vet a candidate or as a candidate yourself? Any thoughts in general? P.S. my first StackOverflow question - hi guys and gals. EDIT: I've seen comments about asking someone to work for free - I wouldn't mind paying the person for their time.

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• How to organize and manage multiple database credentials in application?

  - by Polaris878

  Okay, so I'm designing a stand-alone web service (using RestLET as my framework). My application is divided in to 3 layers: Data Layer (just above the database, provides APIs for connecting to/querying database, and a database object) Object layer (responsible for serialization from the data layer... provides objects which the client layer can use without worrying about database) Client layer (This layer is the RestLET web service... basically just creates objects from the object layer and fulfills webservice request) Now, for each object I create in the object layer, I want to use different credentials (so I can sandbox each object...). The object layer should not know the exact credentials (IE the login/pw/DB URL etc). What would be the best way to manage this? I'm thinking that I should have a super class Database object in my data layer... and each subclass will contain the required log-in information... this way my object layer can just go Database db = new SubDatabase(); and then continue using that database. On the client level, they would just be able to go ItemCollection items = new ItemCollection(); and have no idea/control over the database that gets connected. I'm asking this because I am trying to make my platform extensible, so that others can easily create services off of my platform. If anyone has any experience with these architectural problems or how to manage this sort of thing I'd appreciate any insight or advice... Feel free to ask questions if this is confusing. Thanks! My platform is Java, the REST framework I'm using is RestLET, my database is MySQL.

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• URL protocol handler shell execute problem

  - by Chuck

  Hi, I'm working on a small hobby web site where I'm able to launch a local app with certain arguments based on links. Setting up a protocol wasn't difficult, as described in http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa767914(VS.85).aspx, but I have one dilemma: Let's say the protocol is: foo:127.0.0.1:1111, so a link like href="foo:127.0.0.1:1111" would launch an app like: bar.exe "%1". Since I don't have any control over bar.exe (if I had, then it would be no problem to just parse it, obviously), I need some help parsing %1. bar.exe will launch correctly if it's run as bar.exe 127.0.0.1:1111, but not if it's run as bar.exe foo:127.0.0.1:1111. So I guess my question is... is there ANY way to tell the registry to pass on not %1, but a trimmed %1? (Thinking in terms of regexp where you have match[0] = all of the matched, match[1] = first capture in the matched text). I can solve it by having a .bat instead of .exe, but as I would like to make it as easy as possible for the user to use, I would LOVE it if I could handle it all stricly in registry. Any help is greatly appreciated! Chuck

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• Visual Studio hangs when deploying a cube

  - by Richie

  Hello All, I'm having an issue with an Analysis Services project in Visual Studio 2005. My project always builds but only occasionally deploys. No errors are reported and VS just hangs. This is my first Analysis Services project so I am hoping that there is something obvious that I am just missing. Here is the situation I have a cube that I have successfully deployed. I then make some change, e.g., adding a hierarchy to a dimension. When I try to deploy again VS hangs. I have to restart Analysis Services to regain control of VS so I can shut it down. I restart everything sometimes once, sometimes twice or more before the project will eventually deploy. This happens with any change I make there seems to be no pattern to this behaviour. Sometimes I have to delete the cube from Analysis Services before restarting everything to get a successful deploy. Also I have successfully deployed the cube, and then subsequently successfully reprocessed a dimension then when I open a query window in SQL Server Management Studio it says that it can find any cubes. As a test I have deployed a cube successfully. I have then deleted it in Analysis Services and attempted to redeploy it, without making any changes to the cube, only to have the same behaviour mentioned above. VS just hangs with no reason so I have no idea where to start hunting down the problem. It is taking 15-20 minutes to make a change as simple as setting the NameColumn of a dimension attribute. As you can imagine this is taking hours of my time so I would greatly appreciate any assistance anyone can give me.

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• key-words highlight in <textarea> (again)

  - by Halst

  Wait, I know! I know that this "syntax highlight in textarea"-question was raised like a million times on stackoverflow! But, please, listen. offtopic: I'm not a web-developer, and technically I'm not a programmer at all. I study mechatronics and deal mostly with control-engineering and digital-hardware. And I'm so pissed off that whenever I want to share some application (that would be helpful in my field) and embed it into the web, I need to know such a crazy amount of technologies, like html, css, javascript, flash, etc.. that takes time, which I could have been spending for the benefit of my own field. Right now I'm playing with hardware-description-languages and I'm writing some Python-libraries to convert one HDL into another. And I wanted to embed such feature on the web: http://xhdl2vhdl.appspot.com/ I wanted to implement some basic syntax highlighting (only keywords highlighting will be enough) so that the code could be readable. But the whole idea highlighting something in textarea is not trivial at all. The other difficulty is that the languages I work with are rare, and there are no out-of-box solutions for them. I tried to dig into these solutions, but they are very complicated for me: http://www.nicolarizzo.com/gamesroom/experimental/CodeEditor.html http://marijn.haverbeke.nl/codemirror/jstest.html and there is no clear descriptions how to use them (for my level of knowledge of web-development). So, is there a simple solution, just to highlight a bunch of key-words in textarea or perform something equivalent? Thank you.

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• How do I tweak columns in a Flat File Destination in SSIS?

  - by theog

  I have an OLE DB Data source and a Flat File Destination in the Data Flow of my SSIS Project. The goal is simply to pump data into a text file, and it does that. Where I'm having problems is with the formatting. I need to be able to rtrim() a couple of columns to remove trailing spaces, and I have a couple more that need their leading zeros preserved. The current process is losing all the leading zeros. The rtrim() can be done by simple truncation and ignoring the truncation errors, but that's very inelegant and error prone. I'd like to find a better way, like actually doing the rtrim() function where needed. Exploring similar SSIS questions & answers on SO, the thing to do seems to be "Use a Script Task", but that's ususally just thrown out there with no details, and it's not at all an intuitive thing to set up. I don't see how to use scripting to do what I need. Do I use a Script Task on the Control Flow, or a Script Component in the Data Flow? Can I do rtrim() and pad strings where needed in a script? Anybody got an example of doing this or similar things? Many thanks in advance.

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• Is there a way to transfrom a list of key/value pairs into a data transfer object

  - by weevie

  ...apart from the obvious looping through the list and a dirty great case statement! I've turned over a few Linq queries in my head but nothing seems to get anywhere close. Here's the an example DTO if it helps: class ClientCompany { public string Title { get; private set; } public string Forenames { get; private set; } public string Surname { get; private set; } public string EmailAddress { get; private set; } public string TelephoneNumber { get; private set; } public string AlternativeTelephoneNumber { get; private set; } public string Address1 { get; private set; } public string Address2 { get; private set; } public string TownOrDistrict { get; private set; } public string CountyOrState { get; private set; } public string PostCode { get; private set; } } We have no control over the fact that we're getting the data in as KV pairs, I'm afraid.

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