Search Results

Search found 22641 results on 906 pages for 'case'.

Page 700/906 | < Previous Page | 696 697 698 699 700 701 702 703 704 705 706 707  | Next Page >

• Technically why is processes in Erlang more efficient than OS threads?

  - by Jonas

  Spawning processes seam to be much more efficient in Erlang than starting new threads using the OS (i.e. by using Java or C). Erlang spawns thousands and millions of processes in a short period of time. I know that they are different since Erlang do per process GC and processes in Erlang are implemented the same way on all platforms which isn't the case with OS threads. But I don't fully understand technically why Erlang processes are so much more efficient and has much smaller memory footprint per process. Both the OS and Erlang VM has to do scheduling, context switches and keep track of the values in the registers and so on... Simply why isn't OS threads implemented in the same way as processes in Erlang? Does it have to support something more? and why does it need a bigger memory footprint? Technically why is processes in Erlang more efficient than OS threads? And why can't threads in the OS be implemented and managed in the same efficient way?

  Read the article

• Visual Studio 2008: Can't connect to known good TFS 2010 beta 2

  - by p.campbell

  A freshly installed TFS 2010 Beta 2 is at http://serverX:8080/tfs. A Windows 7 developer machine with VS 2008 Pro SP1 and the VS2008 Team Explorer (no SP). The TFS 2008 Service Pack 1 didn't work for me - "None of the products that are addressed by this software update are installed on this computer." The developer machine is able to browse the TFS site at the above URL. The Issue is around trying to add the TFS server into the Team Explorer window in Visual Studio 2008. Here's a screenshot showing the error: unable to connect to this Team Foundation Server. Possible reasons for failure include: The Team Foundation Server name, port number or protocol is incorrect. The Team Foundation Server is offline. Password is expired or incorrect. The TFS server is up and running properly. Firewall ports are open, and is accessible via the browser on the dev machine!! larger image Question: how can you connect from VS 2008 Pro to a TFS 2010 Beta 2 server? Resolution Here's how I solved this problem: installed VS 2008 Team Explorer as above. re-install VS 2008 Service Pack 1 when adding a TFS server to Team Explorer, you MUST specify the URL as such: http://[tfsserver]:[port]/[vdir]/[projectCollection] in my case above, it was http://serverX:8080/tfs/AppDev-TestProject you cannot simply add the TFS server name and have VS look for all Project Collections on the server. TFS 2010 has a new URL (by default) and VS 2008 doesn't recognize how to gather that list.

  Read the article

• JavaScript: input validation in the keydown event

  - by c411

  Hi, I'm attempting to do info validation against user text input in the process of keydown event. The reason that I am trying to validate in the keydown event is because I do not want to display the characters those that are considered to be illegal in the input box at the beginning. The validation I am writing is like this, function validateUserInput(){ var code = this.event.keyCode; if ((code<48||code>57) // numerical &&code!==46 //delete &&code!==8 //back space &&code!==37 // <- arrow &&code!==39) // -> arrow { this.event.preventDefault(); } } I can keep going like this, however I am seeing drawbacks on this implmentation. Those are, for example, Conditional statement become longer and longer when I put more conditions to be examined. keyCodes can be different by browsers. I have to not only check what is not legal but also have to check what are exceptionals. In above examples, delete,backspace, and arrow keys are exceptionals. But the feature that I don't want to lose is having not to display the input in the textarea unless it passes the validation. (In case the user try to put illegal characters in the textarea, nothing should appear at all) That is why I am not doing validation upon keyup event. So my question is, Are there better ways to validate input in keydown event than checking keyCode by keyCode? Are there other ways to capture the user inputs other than keydown event before browser displays it? And a way to put the validation on it? Thanks for the help in advance.

  Read the article

• Nested Groups in Regex

  - by cryptic-star

  I'm constructing a regex that is looking for dates. I would like to return the date found and the sentence it was found in. In the code below, the strings on either side of date_string should check for the conditions of a sentence. For your sake, I've omitted the regex for date_string - sufficed to say, it works for picking out dates. While the inside of date_string isn't important, it is grouped as one entire regex. "((?:[^.|?|!]*)"+date_string+"(?:[^.|?|!]*[.|?|!]\s*))" The problem is that date_string is only matching the last number of any given date, presumably because the regex in front of date_string is matching too far and overrunning the date regex. For example, if I say "Independence Day is July 4.", I will get the sentence and 4, even though it should match 'July 4'. In case you're wondering, my regex inside date_string are ordered in such a way that 'July 4' should match first. Is there any way to do this all in one regex? Or do I need to split it up somehow (i.e. split up all text into sentences, and then check each sentence)?

  Read the article

• Associations and the Grails webflow

  - by callie16

  Hi, it's my first time using webflows in Grails and I can't seem to solve this. I have 3 domain classes with associations that look something like this: class A { ... static hasMany = [ b : B ] ... } class B { ... static belongsTo = [ a : A ] static hasMany = [ c : C ] ... } class C { ... static belongsTo = [ b : B ] ... } Now, the GSP communicates with the controller via Javascript (due to my use of Dojo). When I try to remoteFunction a normal action, I can do something like this: def action1 = { def anId = params.id def currA = A.get(anId) def sample = currA.b?.c // I can get all the way to 'c' without any problems ... } However, I have a webflow and the contents of that action is in the webflow... It looks something like this: def someFlow = { ... someState { on("next") { def anId = params.id // this does NOT return a null value def currA = A.get(anId) // this does NOT return a null value def sample = currA.b // error already occurs here and I need to get 'c'! }.("somePage") ... } ... } In this case, it tells me that b doesn't exist... so I can't even get to 'c'. Any suggestions on what to do??? Thanks... getting real desperate...

  Read the article

• How to draw multiple rectangles using c#

  - by Nivas

  I have drawn and saved the Rectangle on the image i loaded in the picture box. How i like to draw multiple rectangles for that i tried array in the rectangle but it gives error ("Object reference not set to an instance of an object." (Null reference Exception was unhandled). private void pictureBox1_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (mybitmap == null) { mybitmap = new Bitmap(sz.Width, sz.Height); } rect[count] = new Rectangle(e.X, e.Y, 0, 0); this.Invalidate(); } private void pictureBox1_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { switch (e.Button) { case MouseButtons.Left: { rect[count] = new Rectangle(rect[count].Left, rect[count].Top, e.X - rect[count].Left, e.Y - rect[count].Top); pictureBox1.Invalidate(); count++: break; } } } } private void pictureBox1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { button1.Visible = true; button2.Visible = true; if (mybitmap == null) { return; } using (g = Graphics.FromImage(mybitmap)) { using (Pen pen = new Pen(Color.Red, 2)) { //g.Clear(Color.Transparent); e.Graphics.DrawRectangle(pen, rect); label1.Top = rect[count].Top; label1[count].Left = rect[count].Left; label1.Width = rect[count].Width; label1.Height = rect[count].Height; if (label1.TextAlign == ContentAlignment.TopLeft) { e.Graphics.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawRectangle(pen, rect[count]); } } } } } How can i do this.....

  Read the article

• Is it possible to read data that has been separately copied to the Android sd card without having ro

  - by icecream

  I am developing an application that needs to access data on the sd card. When I run on my development device (an odroid with Android 2.1) I have root access and can construct the path using: File sdcard = Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory(); String path = sdcard.getAbsolutePath() + File.separator + "mydata" File data = new File(path); File[] files = data.listFiles(new FilenameFilter() { @Override public boolean accept(File dir, String filename) { return filename.toLowerCase().endsWith(".xyz"); }}); However, when I install this on a phone (2.1) where I do not have root access I get files == null. I assume this is because I do not have the right permissions to read the data from the sd card. I also get files == null when just trying to list files on /sdcard. So the same applies without my constructed path. Also, this app is not intended to be distributed through the app store and is needs to use data copied separately to the sd card so this is a real use-case. It is too much data to put in res/raw (I have tried, it did not work). I have also tried adding: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" /> to the manifest, even though I only want to read the sd card, but it did not help. I have not found a permission type for reading the storage. There is probably a correct way to do this, but I haven't been able to find it. Any hints would be useful.

  Read the article

• Use external datasource with NUnit's TestCaseAttribute

  - by Hamman359

  Is it possible to get the values for a TestCaseAttribute from an external data source such as an Excel Spreadsheet, CSV file or Database? i.e. Have a .csv file with 1 row of data per test case and pass that data to NUnit one at a time. Here's the specific situation that I'd like to use this for. I'm currently merging some features from one system into another. This is pretty much just a copy and paste process from the old system into the new one. Unfortunately, the code being moved not only does not have any tests, but is not written in a testable manner (i.e. tightly coupled with the database and other code.) Taking the time to make the code testable isn't really possible since its a big mess, i'm on a tight schedule and the entire feature is scheduled to be re-written from the ground up in the next 6-9 months. However, since I don't like the idea of not having any tests around the code, I'm going to create some simple Selenium tests using WebDriver to test the page through the UI. While this is not ideal, it's better than nothing. The page in question has about 10 input values and about 20 values that I need to assert against after the calculations are completed, with about 30 valid combinations of values that I'd like to test. I already have the data in a spreadsheet so it'd be nice to simply be able to pull that out rather than having to re-type it all in Visual Studio.

  Read the article

• nedmalloc: where does mem<fm come from?

  - by Suma

  While implementing nedmalloc into my application, I am frequently hitting a situation when nedmalloc refuses to free a block of memory, claiming it did not allocate it. While debugging I have come up to the point I see a particular condition which is failing, all other (including magic numbers) succeed. The condition is this: if((size_t)mem-(size_t)fm>=(size_t)1<<(SIZE_T_BITSIZE-1)) return 0; On Win32 this seems to be equivalent to: if((int)((size_t)mem-(size_t)fm)<0) return 0; Which seems to be the same as: if((size_t)mem<(size_t)fm) return 0; In my case I really see mem < fm. What I do not understand now is, where does this condition come from. I cannot find anything which would guarantee the fm <= m anywhere in code. Yet, "select isn't broken": I doubt it would really be a bug in nedmalloc, most likely I am doing something wrong somewhere, but I cannot find it. Once I turn debugging features of nedmalloc on, the problem goes away. If someone here understands inner working of nedmalloc, could you please explain to me why is fm <= m?

  Read the article

• Accessing selected node of richfaces tree from Javascript

  - by kazanaki

  Hello This should be a very simple question. I have a richfaces tree that is rendered using JSF. When the user clicks on a node I want a javascript function to run. Nothing more nothing less. No redirects, no re-submit, no-rerender, no Ajax. Just plain old Javascript. I have seen the onselected attribute of the tree and it indeed fires a Javascript method. But of course I want to know which node was clicked. Here is what I have so far <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function documentClicked(nodeRef) { alert("Node is "+nodeRef); } </script> </head> <rich:tree switchType="client" value="#{ajaxDocumentTree.rootNode}" var="document" onselected="documentClicked()" > <rich:treeNode iconLeaf="../images/tree/doc.gif" icon="../images/tree/doc.gif"> <h:outputText value="#{doc.friendlyName}" /> </rich:treeNode> But this does not work because nodeRef is undefined. I expected that the first argument of the callback would be the selected node but this is not the case. So the question is this: How do I fire a Javascript function with the selected node from a richfaces tree?

  Read the article

• How can I save an entire list of items true or false?

  - by JZ

  I'm following Ryan Bates, Railscast episode 52 and I've translated relevant parts of the code to work with Rails 3.0.0.beta2. In Ryan's case, he simply marks items incomplete and saves a timestamp. If an Item contains a timestamp the model returns the item in the completed list. I'm attempting to save ALL values true or false, depending on whether the check_box_tag is selected or not (using boolean). I am able to save ONLY selected items, true or false. How can I save an entire list of items true or false, depending on whether the checkbox is selected? The following is my attempt: controller logic: def yardsign Add.update_all(["yardsign=?", true], :id => params[:yard_ids]) redirect_to adds_path end html.erb: <%= form_tag yardsign_adds_path, :method => :put do %> <% @adds.each do |add| %> <td><%= check_box_tag "yard_ids[]", add.id %></td> <% end %> <% end %> routes.rb resources :adds do collection do put :yardsign end end Terminal Started POST "/adds/yardsign" for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-15 19:22:49 Processing by AddsController#yardsign as HTML Parameters: {"commit"=>"Update", "yardsigntakers"=>["1", "2"], "authenticity_token"=>"3arhsxg/Ky+0W7RNM2T3QditMTJmOnLR5CqmMYWN4Qw="} User Load (0.3ms) SELECT "users".* FROM "users" WHERE ("users"."id" = 1) LIMIT 1 SQL (1.8ms) UPDATE "adds" SET yardsign='t' WHERE ("adds"."id" IN (1, 2)) Redirected to http://localhost:3000/adds

  Read the article

• PHP OOP: Providing Domain Entities with "Identity"

  - by sunwukung

  Bit of an abstract problem here. I'm experimenting with the Domain Model pattern, and barring my other tussles with dependencies - I need some advice on generating Identity for use in an Identity Map. In most examples for the Data Mapper pattern I've seen (including the one outlined in this book: http://apress.com/book/view/9781590599099) - the user appears to manually set the identity for a given Domain Object using a setter: $UserMapper = new UserMapper; //returns a fully formed user object from record sets $User = $UserMapper->find(1); //returns an empty object with appropriate properties for completion $UserBlank = $UserMapper->get(); $UserBlank->setId(); $UserBlank->setOtherProperties(); Now, I don't know if I'm reading the examples wrong - but in the first $User object, the $id property is retrieved from the data store (I'm assuming $id represents a row id). In the latter case, however, how can you set the $id for an object if it has not yet acquired one from the data store? The problem is generating a valid "identity" for the object so that it can be maintained via an Identity Map - so generating an arbitrary integer doesn't solve it. My current thinking is to nominate different fields for identity (i.e. email) and demanding their presence in generating blank Domain Objects. Alternatively, demanding all objects be fully formed, and using all properties as their identity...hardly efficient. (Or alternatively, dump the Domain Model concept and return to DBAL/DAO/Transaction Scripts...which is seeming increasingly elegant compared to the ORM implementations I've seen...)

  Read the article

• Flex List ItemRenderer with image looses BitmapData when scrolling

  - by Dominik

  Hi i have a mx:List with a DataProvider. This data Provider is a ArrayCollection if FotoItems public class FotoItem extends EventDispatcher { [Bindable] public var data:Bitmap; [Bindable] public var id:int; [Bindable] public var duration:Number; public function FotoItem(data:Bitmap, id:int, duration:Number, target:IEventDispatcher=null) { super(target); this.data = data; this.id = id; this.duration = duration; } } my itemRenderer looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:VBox xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" > <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; ]]> </fx:Script> <s:Label text="index"/> <mx:Image source="{data.data}" maxHeight="100" maxWidth="100"/> <s:Label text="Duration: {data.duration}ms"/> <s:Label text="ID: {data.id}"/> </mx:VBox> Now when i am scrolling then all images that leave the screen disappear :( When i take a look at the arrayCollection every item's BitmapData is null. Why is this the case?

  Read the article

• SWT: problems with clicking button after using setEnabled() on Linux

  - by Laimoncijus

  Hi, I have a strange case with SWT and Button after using setEnabled() - seems if I disable and enable button at least once - I cannot properly click with mouse on it anymore... Already minify code to very basic: import org.eclipse.swt.SWT; import org.eclipse.swt.events.SelectionEvent; import org.eclipse.swt.events.SelectionListener; import org.eclipse.swt.layout.GridLayout; import org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Button; import org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Display; import org.eclipse.swt.widgets.Shell; public class TestButton { public TestButton() { Display display = new Display(); Shell shell = new Shell(display); GridLayout mainLayout = new GridLayout(); shell.setLayout(mainLayout); shell.setSize(100, 100); Button testButton = new Button(shell, SWT.PUSH); testButton.addSelectionListener(new TestClickListener()); testButton.setText("Click me!"); //testButton.setEnabled(false); //testButton.setEnabled(true); shell.open(); while (!shell.isDisposed()) { if (!display.readAndDispatch()) display.sleep(); } display.dispose(); } class TestClickListener implements SelectionListener { @Override public void widgetDefaultSelected(SelectionEvent e) { } @Override public void widgetSelected(SelectionEvent e) { System.out.println("Click!"); } } public static void main(String[] args) { new TestButton(); } } When I keep these 2 lines commented out - I can properly click on a button and always get "Click!" logged, but if I uncomment them - then I can't click on button properly with mouse anymore - button visually seems to be clicked, but nothing is logged... Am I doing something wrong here? Or maybe it's some kind of bug on Linux platform? Because on Mac running the same code I never experienced such problems... Thanks for any hint! P.S. Running code on Ubuntu 9.10, Gnome + Compiz, Sun Java 1.6.0.16

  Read the article

• ActiveScaffold custom action_link that should respond like update

  - by doug316

  I have a custom action link which is :inline and :post. It's a quick-link to update an attribute, and that part works just fine. After the action, my intent is to respond just like it was an update, so the row is re-rendered in the index. After the record is updated in my controller action, I call respond_to_action(:create) Just like in the create method in active scaffold. It seems like the content of the javascript response is returned correctly to the client, however, the problem: The content-type of the response header is "text/html" instead of "text/javascript", unlike with an actual update. So the JS is not executed and the row doesn't update. I can't figure out what the difference could possibly be here, I've traced extensively and even have replaced the respond_to_action with: respond_to do |format| format.js do render ... end end And it still won't set the content-type like every other action in the app. Anybody have a clue here? Something in active scaffold must be overriding the content-type and I can't figure out what it might be. Surprising this isn't documented, this doesn't seem like an unusual use-case, making an action a slave to the update re-render.

  Read the article

• rails HABTM versus view (formtastic)

  - by VP

  I have two models: The model NetworkObject try to describe "hosts". I want to have a rule with source and destination, so i'm trying to use both objects from the same class since it dont makes sense to create two different classes. class NetworkObject < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :ip, :netmask, :name has_many :statements has_many :rules, :through =>:statements end class Rule < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :active, :destination_ids, :source_ids has_many :statements has_many :sources, :through=> :statements, :source=> :network_object has_many :destinations, :through => :statements, :source=> :network_object end To build the HABTM i did choose the Model JOIN. so in this case i created a model named Statement with: class Statement < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :source_id, :rule_id, :destination_id belongs_to :network_object, :foreign_key => :source_id belongs_to :network_object, :foreign_key => :destination_id belongs_to :rule end The problem is: is right to add two belongs_to to the same class using different foreign_keys? I tried all combinations like: belongs_to :sources, :class_name => :network_object, :foreign_key => :source_id but no success.. anything that i am doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Plink SSH: '-m file' option not working

  - by Technext

  Hi, I am trying to use Plink for running commands on remote server. Both, local & remote machine are Windows. Though I am able to connect to the remote machine using Plink, i am not able to use the '-m file' option. I tried the following three ways but to no avail: Try 1: plink.exe -ssh -pw mypwd gchhabra@machine -m file.txt Could not chdir to home directory /home/gchhabra: No such file or directory dir: not found file.txt only contains one command i.e., dir Try 2: plink.exe -ssh -pw mypwd gchhabra@machine dir Could not chdir to home directory /home/gchhabra: No such file or directory dir: not found Try 3: plink.exe -ssh -pw mypwd gchhabra@machine < file.txt In this case, I get the following output: Using username "gchhabra". ****USAGE WARNING**** This is a private computer system. This computer system, including all ..... including personal information, placed or sent over this system may be monitored. Use of this computer system, authorized or unauthorized, constitutes consent ... constitutes consent to monitoring for these purposes. dirCould not chdir to home directory /home/gchhabra: No such file or directory Microsoft Windows [Version x.x.xxx] (C) Copyright 1985-2003 Microsoft Corp. C:\Program Files\OpenSSH After I get the above prompt, it hangs. Can anyone please help me with this? Regards, Gaurav

  Read the article

• Most efficient way to check for DBNull and then assign to a variable?

  - by ilitirit

  This question comes up occasionally but I haven't seen a satisfactory answer. A typical pattern is (row is a DataRow): if (row["value"] != DBNull.Value) { someObject.Member = row["value"]; } My first question is which is more efficient (I've flipped the condition): row["value"] == DBNull.Value; // Or row["value"] is DBNull; // Or row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull) // Or... any suggestions? This indicates that .GetType() should be faster, but maybe the compiler knows a few tricks I don't? Second question, is it worth caching the value of row["value"] or does the compiler optimize the indexer away anyway? eg. object valueHolder; if (DBNull.Value == (valueHolder = row["value"])) {} Disclaimers: row["value"] exists. I don't know the column index of the column (hence the column name lookup) I'm asking specifically about checking for DBNull and then assignment (not about premature optimization etc). Edit: I benchmarked a few scenarios (time in seconds, 10000000 trials): row["value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:01.5478995 row["value"] is DBNull: 00:00:01.6306578 row["value"].GetType() == typeof(DBNull): 00:00:02.0138757 Object.ReferenceEquals has the same performance as "==" The most interesting result? If you mismatch the name of the column by case (eg. "Value" instead of "value", it takes roughly ten times longer (for a string): row["Value"] == DBNull.Value: 00:00:12.2792374 The moral of the story seems to be that if you can't look up a column by it's index, then ensure that the column name you feed to the indexer matches the DataColumn's name exactly. Caching the value also appears to be nearly twice as fast: No Caching: 00:00:03.0996622 With Caching: 00:00:01.5659920 So the most efficient method seems to be: object temp; string variable; if (DBNull.Value != (temp = row["value"]) { variable = temp.ToString(); } This was a good learning experience.

  Read the article

• Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

  - by Russ

  [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

  Read the article

• Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

  - by Russ

  [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

  Read the article

• Trouble Shoot JavaScript Function in IE

  - by CreativeNotice

  So this function works fine in geko and webkit browsers, but not IE7. I've busted my brain trying to spot the issue. Anything stick out for you? Basic premise is you pass in a data object (in this case a response from jQuery's $.getJSON) we check for a response code, set the notification's class, append a layer and show it to the user. Then reverse the process after a time limit. function userNotice(data){ // change class based on error code returned var myClass = ''; if(data.code == 200){ myClass='success'; } else if(data.code == 400){ myClass='error'; } else{ myClass='notice'; } // create message html, add to DOM, FadeIn var myNotice = '<div id="notice" class="ajaxMsg '+myClass+'">'+data.msg+'</div>'; $("body").append(myNotice); $("#notice").fadeIn('fast'); // fadeout and remove from DOM after delay var t = setTimeout(function(){ $("#notice").fadeOut('slow',function(){ $(this).remove(); }); },5000); }

  Read the article

• Find actual value of PHP variable

  - by Simon S

  Hi all. I am having a real headache with reading in a tab delimited text file and inserting it into a MySQL Database. The tab delimited text file was generated (I think) from a MS SQL Database, and I have written a simple script to read in the file and insert it into an existing table in my MySQL database. However, there seems to be some problem with the data in the txt file. When my PHP script parses the file and I output the INSERT statements, the values in each of the fields are longer than they should be. For example, the first field should be a simple two character alphanumeric value. If I echo out the INSERT statements, using Firebug (in Firefox), between each of the characters is a question mark in a black diamond. If I var_dump the values, I get the following: string(5) "A1" Now, this clearly shows a two character string, but var_dump tells me it is five characters long!! If I trim() the value, all I get is the first character (in this case "A"). How can I get at the other characters, even if it is only to remove them? Additionally, this appears to be forcing MySQL to insert the value as a BLOB, not as a varchar as it should. Simon

  Read the article

• Dynamically created operators

  - by Gero

  I created a program using dev-cpp and wxwidgets which solves a puzzle. The user must fill the operations blocks and the results blocks, and the program will solve it. Im solving it using bruteforce, i generate all non repeated 9 length number combinations using a recursive algorithm. It does it pretty fast. Up to here all is great! But the problem is when my program operates depending the character on the blocks. Its extremely slow (it never gets the answer), because of the chars comparation against +, -, *, etc. Im doing a CASE. Is there some way or some programming language wich allows dinamic creation of operators? So i can define the operator ROW1COL2 to be a +, and the same way to all other operations. I leave a screenshot of the app, so its easier to understand how the puzzle works. http://www.imageshare.web.id/images/9gg5cev8vyokp8rhlot9.png PD: The algorithm works, i tryed it with a trivial puzzle, and solved it in a second.

  Read the article

• How to use boost::bind with non-copyable params, for example boost::promise ?

  - by zhengxi

  Some C++ objects have no copy constructor, but have move constructor. For example, boost::promise. How can I bind those objects using their move constructors ? #include <boost/thread.hpp> void fullfil_1(boost::promise<int>& prom, int x) { prom.set_value(x); } boost::function<void()> get_functor() { // boost::promise is not copyable, but movable boost::promise<int> pi; // compilation error boost::function<void()> f_set_one = boost::bind(&fullfil_1, pi, 1); // compilation error as well boost::function<void()> f_set_one = boost::bind(&fullfil_1, std::move(pi), 1); // PS. I know, it is possible to bind a pointer to the object instead of // the object itself. But it is weird solution, in this case I will have // to take cake about lifetime of the object instead of delegating that to // boost::bind (by moving object into boost::function object) // // weird: pi will be destroyed on leaving the scope boost::function<void()> f_set_one = boost::bind(&fullfil_1, boost::ref(pi), 1); return f_set_one; }

  Read the article

• python NameError: name '<anything>' is not defined (but it is!)

  - by BenjaminGolder

  Note: Solved. It turned out that I was importing a previous version of the same module. It is easy to find similar topics on StackOverflow, where someone ran into a NameError. But most of the questions deal with specific modules and the solution is often to update the module. In my case, I am trying to import a function from a module that I wrote myself. The module is named InfraPy, and it is definitely on sys.path. One particular function (called listToText) in InfraPy returns a NameError, but only when I try to import it into another script. Inside InfraPy, under if __name__=='__main__':, the listToText function works just fine. From InfraPy I can import other functions with no problems. Including from InfraPy import * in my script does not return any errors until I try to use the listToText function. How can this occur? How can importing one particular function return a NameError, while importing all the other functions in the same module works fine? Using python 2.6 on MacOSX 10.6, also encountered the same error running the script on Windows 7, using IronPython 2.6 for .NET 4.0 Thanks. If there are other details you think would be helpful in solving this, I'd be happy to provide them. As requested, here is the function definition inside of InfraPy: def listToText(inputList, folder=None, outputName='list.txt'): ''' Creates a text file from a list (with each list item on a separate line). May be placed in any given folder, but will otherwise be created in the working directory of the python interpreter. ''' fname = outputName if folder != None: fname = folder+'/'+fname f = open(fname, 'w') for file in inputList: f.write(file+'\n') f.close() This function is defined above and outside of if __name__=='__main__': I've tried moving InfraPy around in relation to the script. The most baffling situation is that when InfraPy is in the same folder as the script, and I import using from InfraPy import listToText, I receive this error: NameError: name listToText is not defined. Again, the other functions import fine, they are all defined outside of if __name__=='__main__': in InfraPy.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 696 697 698 699 700 701 702 703 704 705 706 707  | Next Page >