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• Dojo dialog, the iPad and the virtual keyboard issue

  - by Chris Butler

  Recently, I have been working on a project where the interface should work for desktop and tablets (in particular the iPad). One issue I am coming across is with a Dojo dialog on the iPad when text entry is taking place. Basically here is what happens: Load Dojo interface with buttons on iPad - OK Press button (touch) to show dialog (90% height and width) - OK Click on text box (touch) like DateTextBox or TimeTextBox - OK, the virtual keyboard is opened Click the date or time I want in the UI (touch) - OK, but I can't see all of the options since it is longer than the screen size... Try to scroll down (swipe up with two fingers or click 'next' in the keyboard) - not OK and the dialog repositions itself to have it's top at the top of the viewport area. Basically, the issue is that the dialog keeps trying to reposition itself. Am I able to stop dialog resizing and positioning if I catch the window onResize events? Does anyone else have this issue with the iPad and Dojo dialogs? Also, I found this StackOverflow topic on detecting the virtual keyboard, but it wasn't much help in this case... http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2593139/ipad-web-app-detect-virtual-keyboard-using-javascript-in-safari Thanks!

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• Switch between multiple views while respecting orientation

  - by zoul

  Hello! I have an MVC application with a single model and several views (something like skins). I want the user to be able to switch the views and I can’t get it working with interface orientation. The most simple approach looks like this: - (void) switchToADifferentView: (UIView*) newView { // self is a descendant of UIViewController self.view = newView; } This does not work because the incoming view does not get rotated according to current orientation (until the next orientation change, test case). Is there a way to force the orientation on a view? It looks like the system is trying really hard to keep the interface controls for itself. (Or is it as simple as setting the right transform by hand?) I figured I’d better not switch the views directly and switch controllers instead. This makes sense, as it makes the initial code simpler. But how do I switch controllers that have no “navigation relation” between them? I guess I could use presentModalViewController:, but that seems like a hack. Same goes for navigation controller. If I exchange the controllers by hand, I get the wrong orientation again: - (void) switchToAController: (id) incoming { [currentController.view removeFromSuperview]; [window addSubview:incoming.view]; // does not respect current orientation } Now how the heck do I simply exchange the current controller for another one? Again, the controllers are something like “skins” operating above a shared model, so it really makes no sense to pretend that skin A is a “modal” dialog above skin B or that they’re a part of a navigation stack.

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• How to get rid of the GUI access from shared library.

  - by Inso Reiges

  Hello, In my project i have a shared library with cross-platform code that provides a very convenient abstraction for a number of its clients. To be more specific, this library provides data access to encrypted files generated by main application on a number of platforms. There is a great deal of complicated code there that implements cryptographic protocols and as such is very error-prone and should be shared as much as possible across clients and platforms. However parsing all this encrypted stuff requires asking user for a number of different secrets ones in a while. The secret can be either a password, a number of shared passwords or a public key file and this list is a hot target for extension in the future. I can't really ask the user for any of those secrets beforehand from main application, because i really don't know what i need to ask for until i start working with the encrypted data directly in the library code. So i will have to create dialogs and call them from the library code. However i really see this as a bad idea, because (among other things) there is a possibility of a windows service using it and services can't have GUI access. The question is, are there any known ways or patterns to get rid of the GUI calls that are suitable for my case? Thank you.

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• RESTful design, how to name pages outside CRUD et al?

  - by sscirrus

  Hi all, I'm working on a site that has quite a few pages that fall outside my limited understanding of RESTful design, which is essentially: Create, Read, Update, Delete, Show, List Here's the question: what is a good system for labeling actions/routes when a page doesn't neatly fall into CRUD/show/list? Some of my pages have info about multiple tables at once. I am building a site that gives some customers a 'home base' after they log on. It does NOT give them any information about themselves so it shouldn't be, for example, /customers/show/1. It does have information about companies, but there are other pages on the site that do that differently. What do you do when you have these situations? This 'home-base' is shown to customers and it mainly has info about companies (but not uniquely so). Second case: I have a table called 'Matchings' in between customers and companies. These matchings are accessed in completely different ways on different parts of the site (different layouts, different CSS sheets, different types of users accessing them, etc. They can't ALL be matchings/show. What's the best way to label the others? Thanks very much. =)

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• Valueurl Binding On Large Arrays Causes Sluggish User Interface

  - by Hooligancat

  I have a large data set (some 3500 objects) that returns from a remote server via HTTP. Currently the data is being presented in an NSCollectionView. One aspect of the data is a path pack to the server for a small image that represents the data (think thumbnail for simplicity). Bindings works fantastically for the data that is already returned, and binding the image via a valueurl binding is easy to do. However, the user interface is very sluggish when scrolling through the data set - which makes me think that the NSCollectionView is retrieving all the image data instead of just the image data used to display the currently viewable images. I was under the impression that Cocoa controls were smart enough to only retrieve data for the information that is actually being output to the user interface through lazy loading. This certainly seems to be the case with NSTableView - but I could be misguided on this thought. Should valueurl binding act lazily and, moreover, should it act lazily in an NSCollectionView? I could create a caching mechanism (in fact I already have such a thing in place for another application - see my post here if you are interested http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1740209/populating-nsimage-with-data-from-an-asynchronous-nsurlconnection) but I really don't want to go this route if I don't have to for this specific implementation as the user could potentially change data sets often and may only want small sub-sets of the data. Any suggested approaches? Thanks!

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• jQuery carousel in a div with display:none

  - by Fred Kafka

  I have to use on my site a jQuery responsive carousel with 4 displayed items that slide one at a time, etc etc. The point is: this carousel is placed in a div with display:none and it appears clicking on a button with a slideToggle script (jQuery). Well, when the div appears the carousel is not displayed. Nothing! Notice that if I remove the display:none the carousel shows perfectly. I've tried a bunch of carousel plugin (bxslider, caroufredsel, elastislide, flexslider) and this issue happens for all of them. And then... I'm going crazy!! Excuse meSorry friends, here is the code: HTML (here is the case of FlexSlider but the code is similar for the other plugins) <div id="hiddenDiv"> <div id="hiddenDivInner"> <div class="flexslider"> <ul class="slides"> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> </ul> </div> </div> </div> CSS #hiddenDiv{ display:none; padding-bottom:10px; background: url("../img/xxx.gif") repeat left bottom #FFFFFF; } SCRIPT (copy-paste from the site. This script is between $(document).ready together with other scripts. Alredy tried to remove the load function) $(window).load(function() { $('.flexslider').flexslider({ animation: "slide", animationLoop: false, itemWidth: 300, itemMargin: 5, minItems: 1, maxItems: 4 }); }); $("#trigger").click(function () { $("#hiddenDiv").slideToggle(400, "easeInOutExpo"); }); I remind you that with this code and no display:none every carousels work, also if I slide up and then down the div using the slideToggle button (#trigger).

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• PHP Switch and Login

  - by Steve Rivera

  I'm fairly new with PHP and I am messing around with a login/registration system. I setup my sample website using a PHP-SWITCH script I found a while back: <?php switch($_GET['id']) { default: include('home.php'); /* LOGIN PAGES */ break; case "register_form": include ('includes/user_system/register_form.php'); } ? On the registration page the form links to my "register.php" which checks the validity of the form and to check for any blank fields and so on. "register.php" is supposed to refresh the page and add a reason to what the user did wrong when submitting the form. On my "register_form.php" page, which holds the actual form. This field is hidden until the user makes a mistake. <?php if (isset($reg_error)) { ?> , please try again. My "register.php" checks the form for all the errors. Here's the bit of code that will refresh the page with the reason for the error: // Check if any of the fields are missing if (empty($_POST['username']) || empty($_POST['password']) || empty($_POST['confirmpass'])) { // Reshow the form with an error $reg_error = 'One or more fields missing'; include 'register_form.php'; Now after I submit the form without any fields filled out I get the error code, but it refreshes to the actual "register_form.php". The problem with this is that because of my PHP-SWITCH script (helps me manage the site a lot easier) I don't have any formatting on that page. The actual URL to my "register_form.php" would be: "index.php?id=register_form.php". Now I have tried several different things such as changing it to: include 'index.php?id=register_form.php' And also changing it to: header(location:index.php?id=register_form.php') Unfortunately all this does is refresh the page without the reason for the error. I know this can be easily solved by just adding a Javascript Validator but I'd like to know if it is possible to refresh the page with the error using either "include" or "header()" while having a PHP-SWITCH script on the website.

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• How Can I: Generate 40/64 Bit WEP Key In Python?

  - by Aktariel

  So, I've been beating my head against the wall of this issue for several months now, partly because it's a side interest and partly because I suck at programming. I've searched and researched all across the web, but have not had any luck (except one small bit of success; see below), so I thought I might try asking the experts. What I am trying to do is, as the title suggests, generate a 40/64 bit WEP key from a passphrase, according to the "de facto" standard. (A site such as [http://www.powerdog.com/wepkey.cgi] produces the expected outputs.) I have already written portions of the script that take inputs and write them to a file; one of the inputs would be the passphrase, sanitized to lower case. For the longest time I had no idea what the defacto standard was, much less how to even go about implementing it. I finally stumbled across a paper (http://www.lava.net/~newsham/wlan/WEP_password_cracker.pdf) that sheds as much light as I've had yet on the issue (page 18 has the relevant bits). Apparently, the passphrase is "mapped to a 32-bit value with XOR," the result of which is then used as the seed for a "linear congruential PRNG (which one of the several PRNGs Python has would fit this description, I don't know), and then from that result several bits of the result are taken. I have no idea how to go about implementing this, since the description is rather vague. What I need is help in writing the generator in Python, and also in understanding how exactly the key is generated. I'm not much of a programmer, so explanations are appreciated as well. (Yes, I know that WEP isn't secure.)

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• HttpURLConnection: What's the deal with having to read the whole response?

  - by stormin986

  My current problem is very similar to this one. I have a downloadFile(URL) function that creates a new HttpURLConnection, opens it, reads it, returns the results. When I call this function on the same URL multiple times, the second time around it almost always returns a response code of -1 (But throws no exception!!!). The top answer in that question is very helpful, but there are a few things I'm trying to understand. So, if setting http.keepAlive to false solves the problem, it indicates what exactly? That the server is responding in a way that violates the http protocol? Or more likely, my code is violating the protocol in some way? What will the trace tell me? What should I look for? And what's the deal with this: You need to read everything from error stream. Otherwise, it's going to confuse next connection and that's the cause of -1. Does this mean if the response is some type of error (which would be what response code(s)?), the stream HAS to be fully read? Also, every time I am attempting an http request I am basically creating a new connection, and then disconnect()ing it at the end. However, in my case I'm not getting a 401 or whatever. It's always a 200. But my second connection almost always fails. Does this mean there's some other data I should be reading that I'm not (in a similar manner that the error stream must be fully read)? Please help shed some light on this? I feel like there's some fundamental http protocol understanding I'm missing.

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• Python: deleting rows in a text file

  - by Jenny

  A sample of the following text file i have is: > 1 -4.6 -4.6 -7.6 > > 2 -1.7 -3.8 -3.1 > > 3 -1.6 -1.6 -3.1 the data is separated by tabs in the text file and the first column indicates the position. I need to iterate through every value in the text file apart from column 0 and find the lowest value. once the lowest value has been found that value needs to be written to a new text file along with the column name and position. Column 0 has the name "position" Column 1 "fifteen", column 2 "sixteen" and column 3 "seventeen" for example the lowest value in the above data is "-7.6" and is in column 3 which has the name "seventeen". Therefore "7.6", "seventeen" and its position value which in this case is 1 need to be written to the new text file. I then need a number of rows deleted from the above text file. E.G. the lowest value above is "-7.6" and is found at position "1" and is found in column 3 which as the name "seventeen". I therefore need seventeen rows deleted from the text file starting from and including position 1 so the the column in which the lowest value is found denotes the amount of rows that needs to be deleted and the position it is found at states the start point of the deletion

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• F#, Linux and makefiles

  - by rwallace

  I intend to distribute an F# program as both binary and source so the user has the option of recompiling it if desired. On Windows, I understand how to do this: provide .fsproj and .sln files, which both Visual Studio and MSBuild can understand. On Linux, the traditional solution for C programs is a makefile. This depends on gcc being directly available, which it always is. The F# compiler can be installed on Linux and works under Mono, so that's fine so far. However, as far as I can tell, it doesn't create a scenario where fsc runs the compiler, instead the command is mono ...path.../fsc.exe. This is also fine, except I don't know what the path is going to be. So the full command to run the compiler in my case could be mono ~/FSharp-2.0.0.0/bin/fsc.exe types.fs tptp.fs main.fs -r FSharp.PowerPack.dll except that I'm not sure where fsc.exe will actually be located on the user's machine. Is there a way to find that out within a makefile, or would it be better to fall back on just explaining the above in the documentation and relying on the user to modify the command according to his setup?

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• Working around "one executable per project" in Visual C# for many small test programs

  - by Kevin Ivarsen

  When working with Visual Studio in general (or Visual C# Express in my particular case), it looks like each project can be configured to produce only one output - e.g. a single executable or a library. I'm working on a project that consists of a shared library and a few application, and I already have one project in my solution for each of those. However, during development I find it useful to write small example programs that can run one small subsystem in isolation (at a level that doesn't belong in the unit tests). Is there a good way to handle this in Visual Studio? I'd like to avoid adding several dozen separate projects to my solution for each small test program I write, especially when these programs will typically be less than 100 lines of code. I'm hoping to find something that lets me continue to work in Visual Studio and use its build system (rather than moving to something like NAnt). I could foresee the answer being something like: A way of setting this up in Visual Studio that I haven't found yet A GUI like NUnit's graphical runner that searches an assembly for classes with defined Main() functions that you can select and run A command line tool that lets you specify an assembly and a class with a Main function to run

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• Most unintuitive behaviour in the .Net framework?

  - by BlueRaja

  Intended behavior is often another phrase for bug-which-we-knew-about-when-we-wrote-it, but-we-wrote-it-anyways. Because it was "intended" (or perhaps it is now too late or too difficult), many of these extremely-unintuitive bugs never get fixed. For instance, consider the following code (C#): TextInfo textInfo = Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture.TextInfo; textInfo.ToTitleCase("hello world!"); //Returns "Hello World!" textInfo.ToTitleCase("hElLo WoRld!"); //Returns "Hello World!" textInfo.ToTitleCase("Hello World!"); //Returns "Hello World!" What would you expect textInfo.ToTitleCase("HELLO WORLD!"); to return? In fact, it returns "HELLO WORLD!". This was well-documented "intended behavior," but, in my eyes, is extremely unintuitive, and therefore a bug. What is some other unintuitive behavior like this in this in the .Net framework? Bonus points if you can provide a fix that does not break backwards-compatibility. Remember! Always keep these two simple rules in mind when designing an API (or anything else): Make the common case the default, and Keep It Simple, Stupid!

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• Best Practice - Removing item from generic collection in C#

  - by Matt Davis

  I'm using C# in Visual Studio 2008 with .NET 3.5. I have a generic dictionary that maps types of events to a generic list of subscribers. A subscriber can be subscribed to more than one event. private static Dictionary<EventType, List<ISubscriber>> _subscriptions; To remove a subscriber from the subscription list, I can use either of these two options. Option 1: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { if (_subscriptions[event].Contains(subscriber)) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } } Option 2: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } I have two questions. First, notice that Option 1 checks for existence before removing the item, while Option 2 uses a brute force removal since Remove() does not throw an exception. Of these two, which is the preferred, "best-practice" way to do this? Second, is there another, "cleaner," more elegant way to do this, perhaps with a lambda expression or using a LINQ extension? I'm still getting acclimated to these two features. Thanks. EDIT Just to clarify, I realize that the choice between Options 1 and 2 is a choice of speed (Option 2) versus maintainability (Option 1). In this particular case, I'm not necessarily trying to optimize the code, although that is certainly a worthy consideration. What I'm trying to understand is if there is a generally well-established practice for doing this. If not, which option would you use in your own code?

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• What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

  - by David M

  Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

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• Database Error Handling: What if You have to Call Outside service and the Transaction Fails?

  - by Ngu Soon Hui

  We all know that we can always wrap our database call in transaction ( with or without a proper ORM), in a form like this: $con = Propel::getConnection(EventPeer::DATABASE_NAME); try { $con->begin(); // do your update, save, delete or whatever here. $con->commit(); } catch (PropelException $e) { $con->rollback(); throw $e; } This way would guarantee that if the transaction fails, the database is restored to the correct status. But the problem is that let's say when I do a transaction, in addition to that transaction, I need to update another database ( an example would be when I update an entry in a column in databaseA, another entry in a column in databaseB must be updated). How to handle this case? Let's say, this is my code, I have three databases that need to be updated ( dbA, dbB, dbc): $con = Propel::getConnection("dbA"); try { $con->begin(); // update to dbA // update to dbB //update to dbc $con->commit(); } catch (PropelException $e) { $con->rollback(); throw $e; } If dbc fails, I can rollback the dbA but I can't rollback dbb. I think this problem should be database independent. And since I am using ORM, this should be ORM independent as well. Update: Some of the database transactions are wrapped in ORM, some are using naked PDO, oledb ( or whatever bare minimum language provided database calls). So my solution has to take care this. Any idea?

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• Visual Studio 2008: Can't connect to known good TFS 2010 beta 2

  - by p.campbell

  A freshly installed TFS 2010 Beta 2 is at http://serverX:8080/tfs. A Windows 7 developer machine with VS 2008 Pro SP1 and the VS2008 Team Explorer (no SP). The TFS 2008 Service Pack 1 didn't work for me - "None of the products that are addressed by this software update are installed on this computer." The developer machine is able to browse the TFS site at the above URL. The Issue is around trying to add the TFS server into the Team Explorer window in Visual Studio 2008. Here's a screenshot showing the error: unable to connect to this Team Foundation Server. Possible reasons for failure include: The Team Foundation Server name, port number or protocol is incorrect. The Team Foundation Server is offline. Password is expired or incorrect. The TFS server is up and running properly. Firewall ports are open, and is accessible via the browser on the dev machine!! larger image Question: how can you connect from VS 2008 Pro to a TFS 2010 Beta 2 server? Resolution Here's how I solved this problem: installed VS 2008 Team Explorer as above. re-install VS 2008 Service Pack 1 when adding a TFS server to Team Explorer, you MUST specify the URL as such: http://[tfsserver]:[port]/[vdir]/[projectCollection] in my case above, it was http://serverX:8080/tfs/AppDev-TestProject you cannot simply add the TFS server name and have VS look for all Project Collections on the server. TFS 2010 has a new URL (by default) and VS 2008 doesn't recognize how to gather that list.

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• database schema eligible for delta synchronization

  - by WilliamLou

  it's a question for discussion only. Right now, I need to re-design a mysql database table. Basically, this table contains all the contract records I synchronized from another database. The contract record can be modified, deleted or users can add new contract records via GUI interface. At this stage, the table structure is exactly the same as the Contract info (column: serial number, expiry date etc.). In that case, I can only synchronize the whole table (delete all old records, replace with new ones). If I want to delta(only synchronize with modified, new, deleted records) synchronize the table, how should I change the database schema? here is the method I come up with, but I need your suggestions because I think it's a common scenario in database applications. 1)introduce a sequence number concept/column: for each sequence, mark the new added records, modified records, deleted records with this sequence number. By recording the last synchronized sequence number, only pass those records with higher sequence number; 2) because deleted contracts can be added back, and the original table has primary key constraints, should I create another table for those deleted records? or add a flag column to indicate if this contract has been deleted? I hope I explain my question clearly. Anyway, if you know any articles or your own suggestions about this, please let me know. Thanks!

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• Multhreading in Java

  - by Vijay Selvaraj

  I'm working with core java and IBM Websphere MQ 6.0. We have a standalone module say DBcomponent that hits the database and fetches a resultset based on the runtime query. The query is passed to the application via MQ messaging medium. We have a trigger configured for the queue which invokes the DBComponent whenever a message is available in the queue. The DBComponent consumes the message, constructs the query and returns the resultset to another queue. In this overall process we use log4j to log statements on a log file for auditing. The connection is pooled to the database using Apache pool. I am trying to check whether the log messages are logged correctly using a sample program. The program places the input message to the queue and checks for the logs in the log file. Its expected for the trigger method invocation to complete before i try to check for the message in log file, but every time my program to check for log message gets executed first leading my check to failure. Even if i introduce a Thread.sleep(time) doesn't solves the case. How can i make it to keep my method execution waiting until the trigger operation completes? Any suggestion will be helpful.

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• Doctrine 1.2: How do i prevent a contraint from being assigned to both sides of a One-to-many relati

  - by prodigitalson

  Is there a way to prevent Doctrine from assigning a contraint on both sides of a one-to-one relationship? Ive tried moving the definition from one side to the other and using owning side but it still places a constraint on both tables. when I only want the parent table to have a constraint - ie. its possible for the parent to not have an associated child. For example iwant the following sql schema essentially: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); However im getting something like this: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `child_table_child_id_FK_parent_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `child_table` (`child_id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); I could just remove the constraint manually or modify my accessors to return/set a single entity in the collection (using a one-to-many) but it seems like there should built in way to handle this. Also im using Symfony 1.4.4 (pear installtion ATM) - in case its an sfDoctrinePlugin issue and not necessarily Doctrine itself.

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• How can I work around SQL Server - Inline Table Value Function execution plan variation based on par

  - by Ovidiu Pacurar

  Here is the situation: I have a table value function with a datetime parameter ,lest's say tdf(p_date) , that filters about two million rows selecting those with column date smaller than p_date and computes some aggregate values on other columns. It works great but if p_date is a custom scalar value function (returning the end of day in my case) the execution plan is altered an the query goes from 1 sec to 1 minute execution time. A proof of concept table - 1K products, 2M rows: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[POC]( [Date] [datetime] NOT NULL, [idProduct] [int] NOT NULL, [Quantity] [int] NOT NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] The inline table value function: CREATE FUNCTION tdf (@p_date datetime) RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN ( SELECT idProduct, SUM(Quantity) AS TotalQuantity, max(Date) as LastDate FROM POC WHERE (Date < @p_date) GROUP BY idProduct ) The scalar value function: CREATE FUNCTION [dbo].[EndOfDay] (@date datetime) RETURNS datetime AS BEGIN DECLARE @res datetime SET @res=dateadd(second, -1, dateadd(day, 1, dateadd(ms, -datepart(ms, @date), dateadd(ss, -datepart(ss, @date), dateadd(mi,- datepart(mi,@date), dateadd(hh, -datepart(hh, @date), @date)))))) RETURN @res END Query 1 - Working great SELECT * FROM [dbo].[tdf] (getdate()) The end of execution plan: Stream Aggregate Cost 13% <--- Clustered Index Scan Cost 86% Query 2 - Not so great SELECT * FROM [dbo].[tdf] (dbo.EndOfDay(getdate())) The end of execution plan: Stream Aggregate Cost 4% <--- Filter Cost 12% <--- Clustered Index Scan Cost 86%

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• ClassCastException When Calling an EJB Remotely that Exists on Same Server

  - by aaronvargas

  I have 2 ejbs. Ejb-A that calls Ejb-B. They are not in the same Ear. For portability Ejb-B may or may not exist on the same server. (There is an external property file that has the provider URLs of Ejb-B. I have no control over this.) Example Code: in Ejb-A EjbBDelegate delegateB = EjbBDelegateHelper.getRemoteDelegate(); // lookup from list of URLs from props... BookOfMagic bom = delegateB.getSomethingInteresting(); Use Cases/Outcomes: When Ejb-B DOES NOT EXIST on the same server as Ejb-A, everything works correctly. (it round-robbins through the URLs) When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A happens to call Ejb-B on the same server, everything works correctly. When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A calls Ejb-B on a different server, I get: javax.ejb.EJBException: nested exception is: java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 I'm using Weblogic 10.0, Java 5, EJB3 Basically, if Ejb-B Exists on the server, it must be called ONLY on that server. Which leads me to believe that the class is getting loaded by a local classloader (on deployment?), then when called remotely, a different classloader is loading it. (causing the Exception) But it should work, as it should be Serialized into the destination classloader... What am I doing wrong?? Also, when reproducing this locally, Ejb-A would favor the Ejb-B on the same server, so it was difficult to reproduce. But this wasn't the case on other machines. NOTE: This all worked correctly for EJB2

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• Is there the equivalent of cloud computing for modems?

  - by morpheous

  I asked this question on SF, and someone recommended that I ask it here - (I don't think I have enough points to move a question from SF to SO - and in any case, I don't know how to do it - so here is the question again): I am interested in the concept of PAAS (platform as a service). However, all talk about SAAS/PAAS seems to focus on only the computer itself - not its peripherals. Is it possible to 'outsource' modems as a resource - so that an app running remotely can pump data to a modem in the cloud? As a bit of background to the question, a group of us are thinking of starting a company that offers similar services to companies like twilio etc - but I want to 'outsource' both the computing hardware (thats PAAS - the easy bit) and the modems (thats what I cant seem to find any info on). Does anyone know if modems can be bundled as part of a PAAS service? - alternatively, is there a way that an application running on one computer can communicate (i.e. pump data) to a remote modem residing on another machine?. I assume I can come up with some protocol over UDP or TCP - but there is no point reinventing the wheel - if such a protocol like that already exists (or if it some open source software allows one to do this). Any suggestions on how to solve this problem?

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• Why is curl in Ruby slower than command-line curl?

  - by Stiivi

  I am trying to download more than 1m pages (URLs ending by a sequence ID). I have implemented kind of multi-purpose download manager with configurable number of download threads and one processing thread. The downloader downloads files in batches: curl = Curl::Easy.new batch_urls.each { |url_info| curl.url = url_info[:url] curl.perform file = File.new(url_info[:file], "wb") file << curl.body_str file.close # ... some other stuff } I have tried to download 8000 pages sample. When using the code above, I get 1000 in 2 minutes. When I write all URLs into a file and do in shell: cat list | xargs curl I gen all 8000 pages in two minutes. Thing is, I need it to have it in ruby code, because there is other monitoring and processing code. I have tried: Curl::Multi - it is somehow faster, but misses 50-90% of files (does not download them and gives no reason/code) multiple threads with Curl::Easy - around the same speed as single threaded Why is reused Curl::Easy slower than subsequent command line curl calls and how can I make it faster? Or what I am doing wrong? I would prefer to fix my download manager code than to make downloading for this case in a different way. Before this, I was calling command-line wget which I provided with a file with list of URLs. Howerver, not all errors were handled, also it was not possible to specify output file for each URL separately when using URL list. Now it seems to me that the best way would be to use multiple threads with system call to 'curl' command. But why when I can use directly Curl in Ruby? Code for the download manager is here, if it might help: Download Manager (I have played with timeouts, from not-setting it to various values, it did not seem help) Any hints appreciated.

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• Divide a path into N sections using Java or PostgreSQL/PostGIS

  - by Guido

  Imagine a GPS tracking system that is following the position of several objects. The points are stored in a database (PostgreSQL + PostGIS). Each path is composed by a different number of points. That is the reason why, in order to compare a pair of paths, I need to divide every path in a set of 100 points. Do you know any PostGIS function that already implement this algorithm? I've not been able to find it. If not, I'd like to solve it using Java. In this case I'd like to know an efficient and easy to implement algorithm to divide a path into N points. The most simple example could be to divide this path into three points: position 1 : x=1, y=2 position 2 : x=1, y=3 And the result should be: position 1 : x=1, y=2 (starting point) position 2 : x=5, y=2.5 position 3 : x=9, y=3 (end point) Edit: By 'compare a pair of paths' I mean to calculate the distance between two paths. I plan to divide each path in 100 points, and sum the euclidean distance between each one of these points as the distance between the two paths.

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