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• Visual Studio 2008: Can't connect to known good TFS 2010 beta 2

  - by p.campbell

  A freshly installed TFS 2010 Beta 2 is at http://serverX:8080/tfs. A Windows 7 developer machine with VS 2008 Pro SP1 and the VS2008 Team Explorer (no SP). The TFS 2008 Service Pack 1 didn't work for me - "None of the products that are addressed by this software update are installed on this computer." The developer machine is able to browse the TFS site at the above URL. The Issue is around trying to add the TFS server into the Team Explorer window in Visual Studio 2008. Here's a screenshot showing the error: unable to connect to this Team Foundation Server. Possible reasons for failure include: The Team Foundation Server name, port number or protocol is incorrect. The Team Foundation Server is offline. Password is expired or incorrect. The TFS server is up and running properly. Firewall ports are open, and is accessible via the browser on the dev machine!! larger image Question: how can you connect from VS 2008 Pro to a TFS 2010 Beta 2 server? Resolution Here's how I solved this problem: installed VS 2008 Team Explorer as above. re-install VS 2008 Service Pack 1 when adding a TFS server to Team Explorer, you MUST specify the URL as such: http://[tfsserver]:[port]/[vdir]/[projectCollection] in my case above, it was http://serverX:8080/tfs/AppDev-TestProject you cannot simply add the TFS server name and have VS look for all Project Collections on the server. TFS 2010 has a new URL (by default) and VS 2008 doesn't recognize how to gather that list.

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• What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

  - by David M

  Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

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• How to solve timing problems in automated UI tests with C# and Visual Studio?

  - by Lernkurve

  Question What is the standard approach to solve timing problems in automated UI tests? Concrete example I am using Visual Studio 2010 and Team Foundation Server 2010 to create automated UI tests and want to check whether my application has really stopped running: [TestMethod] public void MyTestMethod() { Assert.IsTrue(!IsMyAppRunning(), "App shouldn't be running, but is."); StartMyApp(); Assert.IsTrue(IsMyAppRunning(), "App should have been started and should be running now."); StopMyApp(); //Pause(500); Assert.IsTrue(!IsMyAppRunning(), "App was stopped and shouldn't be running anymore."); } private bool IsMyAppRunning() { foreach (Process runningProcesse in Process.GetProcesses()) { if (runningProcesse.ProcessName.Equals("Myapp")) { return true; } } return false; } private void Pause(int pauseTimeInMilliseconds) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pauseTimeInMilliseconds); } StartMyApp() and StopMyApp() have been recorded with MS Test Manager 2010 and reside in UIMap.uitest. The last assert fails because the assertion is executed while my application is still in the process of shutting down. If I put a delay after StopApp() the test case passes. The above is just an example to explain my problem. What is the standard approach to solve these kinds of timing issues? One idea would be to wait with the assertion until I get some event notification that my app has been stopped.

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• How to nest shapes in a DSL Tools diagram?

  - by Paul Lalonde

  I have a DSL containing two main domain classes: Area and Entity. Areas are represented visually by a GeometryShape, whereas entities are represented by a CompartmentShape. Entities can be embedded in an Area, or not (in this case they are embedded in the root object, which is a kind of Area). There may be relationships between entities, including between entities in different areas. Areas cannot be embedded inside of other areas, nor entities embedded inside of other entities. My problem is that I cannot get the behavior I want from the diagram. The embedding of entities in areas works perfectly well at the model level, but the visual representation behaves erratically. For example, if I drag an entity that was created in an area outside of that area, it no longer responds to mouse clicks (I have code that performs the re-parenting, but somehow the diagram side of things is broken). I have searched high and low for samples of how to do this, and come up empty. Every example I've found on the web simulates nesting via "references" relationships, whereas I am performing true embedding of the domain classes (and therefore of their associated shape classes). Does anyone have an example of how to do this? While I'm venting, am I the only one who thinks the diagram/shape classes are massively under-documented?

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• Doctrine 1.2: How do i prevent a contraint from being assigned to both sides of a One-to-many relati

  - by prodigitalson

  Is there a way to prevent Doctrine from assigning a contraint on both sides of a one-to-one relationship? Ive tried moving the definition from one side to the other and using owning side but it still places a constraint on both tables. when I only want the parent table to have a constraint - ie. its possible for the parent to not have an associated child. For example iwant the following sql schema essentially: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); However im getting something like this: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `child_table_child_id_FK_parent_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `child_table` (`child_id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); I could just remove the constraint manually or modify my accessors to return/set a single entity in the collection (using a one-to-many) but it seems like there should built in way to handle this. Also im using Symfony 1.4.4 (pear installtion ATM) - in case its an sfDoctrinePlugin issue and not necessarily Doctrine itself.

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• how to access control in templatefield gridview with custom id

  - by Mohsen.Tavoosi

  i have a customized gridview.my grid is able to sort for each column just by 1 click in the header without any setting and overloading methods such as sorting,etc by user(programmer).(i do this successfully and work fine) users(programmers) maybe add each column in grid.such as template field,hyperlinkfield,boundfield... . for sorting, i must access datafield of columns. i can access boundfield column by this code.i can access datafield and header text and ... sample: for (int j = 0; j < this.Columns.Count; j++) { BoundField bf; bf = this.Columns[j] as BoundField; if (bf != null) { string ht = bf.HeaderText; string df = bf.DataField; } } but i can access control in the templateField.such as ColumnBound. sample: <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("Name") %>'></asp:Label> i want access "Name" (Bind ("Name") or Eval ("Name")) . how can i? there is a point: i dont now what is the ID (in this case "Label1") of control in templatefield. special thanks

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• RESTful design, how to name pages outside CRUD et al?

  - by sscirrus

  Hi all, I'm working on a site that has quite a few pages that fall outside my limited understanding of RESTful design, which is essentially: Create, Read, Update, Delete, Show, List Here's the question: what is a good system for labeling actions/routes when a page doesn't neatly fall into CRUD/show/list? Some of my pages have info about multiple tables at once. I am building a site that gives some customers a 'home base' after they log on. It does NOT give them any information about themselves so it shouldn't be, for example, /customers/show/1. It does have information about companies, but there are other pages on the site that do that differently. What do you do when you have these situations? This 'home-base' is shown to customers and it mainly has info about companies (but not uniquely so). Second case: I have a table called 'Matchings' in between customers and companies. These matchings are accessed in completely different ways on different parts of the site (different layouts, different CSS sheets, different types of users accessing them, etc. They can't ALL be matchings/show. What's the best way to label the others? Thanks very much. =)

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• ClassCastException When Calling an EJB Remotely that Exists on Same Server

  - by aaronvargas

  I have 2 ejbs. Ejb-A that calls Ejb-B. They are not in the same Ear. For portability Ejb-B may or may not exist on the same server. (There is an external property file that has the provider URLs of Ejb-B. I have no control over this.) Example Code: in Ejb-A EjbBDelegate delegateB = EjbBDelegateHelper.getRemoteDelegate(); // lookup from list of URLs from props... BookOfMagic bom = delegateB.getSomethingInteresting(); Use Cases/Outcomes: When Ejb-B DOES NOT EXIST on the same server as Ejb-A, everything works correctly. (it round-robbins through the URLs) When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A happens to call Ejb-B on the same server, everything works correctly. When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A calls Ejb-B on a different server, I get: javax.ejb.EJBException: nested exception is: java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 I'm using Weblogic 10.0, Java 5, EJB3 Basically, if Ejb-B Exists on the server, it must be called ONLY on that server. Which leads me to believe that the class is getting loaded by a local classloader (on deployment?), then when called remotely, a different classloader is loading it. (causing the Exception) But it should work, as it should be Serialized into the destination classloader... What am I doing wrong?? Also, when reproducing this locally, Ejb-A would favor the Ejb-B on the same server, so it was difficult to reproduce. But this wasn't the case on other machines. NOTE: This all worked correctly for EJB2

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• jQuery carousel in a div with display:none

  - by Fred Kafka

  I have to use on my site a jQuery responsive carousel with 4 displayed items that slide one at a time, etc etc. The point is: this carousel is placed in a div with display:none and it appears clicking on a button with a slideToggle script (jQuery). Well, when the div appears the carousel is not displayed. Nothing! Notice that if I remove the display:none the carousel shows perfectly. I've tried a bunch of carousel plugin (bxslider, caroufredsel, elastislide, flexslider) and this issue happens for all of them. And then... I'm going crazy!! Excuse meSorry friends, here is the code: HTML (here is the case of FlexSlider but the code is similar for the other plugins) <div id="hiddenDiv"> <div id="hiddenDivInner"> <div class="flexslider"> <ul class="slides"> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> </ul> </div> </div> </div> CSS #hiddenDiv{ display:none; padding-bottom:10px; background: url("../img/xxx.gif") repeat left bottom #FFFFFF; } SCRIPT (copy-paste from the site. This script is between $(document).ready together with other scripts. Alredy tried to remove the load function) $(window).load(function() { $('.flexslider').flexslider({ animation: "slide", animationLoop: false, itemWidth: 300, itemMargin: 5, minItems: 1, maxItems: 4 }); }); $("#trigger").click(function () { $("#hiddenDiv").slideToggle(400, "easeInOutExpo"); }); I remind you that with this code and no display:none every carousels work, also if I slide up and then down the div using the slideToggle button (#trigger).

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• android & libgdx - disable blurry images rendering

  - by android developer

  i'm trying out libgdx as an opengl wrapper , and i have some issues with its graphical rendering : for some reason , all images (textures) on android device look a little blurred using libgdx . this also includes text (font) . however, for normal images , even though i show the entire image , i expect it to look as sharp as i see it on a computer , especially if i have such a good screen on the device (it's galaxy nexus) . i've tried to set the anti-aliasing off , by using the next code : final AndroidApplicationConfiguration androidApplicationConfiguration=new AndroidApplicationConfiguration(); androidApplicationConfiguration.numSamples=0; //tried the value of 1 too. ... i've also tried to set the scaling method to various methods , but with no luck. example: texture.setFilter(TextureFilter.Nearest,TextureFilter.Nearest); as a test , i've found a sharp image that is exactly the same as the seen resolution on the device (720x1184 for galaxy nexus , because of the buttons bar) , and i've put it to be on the background of the libgdx app . of course , i had to add extra blank space in order for the texute to be loaded , so the final size of the image (which will include content and empty space) is still a power of 2 for both width and height (1024x2048 in my case) . on the desktop app , it look ok . on the device , it looked blurred. a weird thing that i've noticed is that when i change the device's orientation (horizontal <= vertical) , for the very short time before the rotating animation starts , i see both the image and the text very well . can anyone please help me?

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• How to get rid of the GUI access from shared library.

  - by Inso Reiges

  Hello, In my project i have a shared library with cross-platform code that provides a very convenient abstraction for a number of its clients. To be more specific, this library provides data access to encrypted files generated by main application on a number of platforms. There is a great deal of complicated code there that implements cryptographic protocols and as such is very error-prone and should be shared as much as possible across clients and platforms. However parsing all this encrypted stuff requires asking user for a number of different secrets ones in a while. The secret can be either a password, a number of shared passwords or a public key file and this list is a hot target for extension in the future. I can't really ask the user for any of those secrets beforehand from main application, because i really don't know what i need to ask for until i start working with the encrypted data directly in the library code. So i will have to create dialogs and call them from the library code. However i really see this as a bad idea, because (among other things) there is a possibility of a windows service using it and services can't have GUI access. The question is, are there any known ways or patterns to get rid of the GUI calls that are suitable for my case? Thank you.

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• How do I locate a particular word in a text file using C#

  - by cmrhema

  Hi, I am sending mails (in asp.net ,c#), having a template in text file (.txt) like below User Name :<User Name> Address : <Address>. I used to replace the words within the angle brackets in the text file using the below code StreamReader sr; sr = File.OpenText(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(txt)); copy = sr.ReadToEnd(); sr.Close(); //close the reader copy = copy.Replace(word.ToUpper(),"#" + word.ToUpper()); //remove the word specified UC //save new copy into existing text file FileInfo newText = new FileInfo(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(txt)); StreamWriter newCopy = newText.CreateText(); newCopy.WriteLine(copy); newCopy.Write(newCopy.NewLine); newCopy.Close(); Now I have a new problem, the user will be adding new words within an angle, say for eg, they will be adding <Salary>. In that case i have to read out and find the word <Salary>. In other words, I have to find all the words, that are located with the angle brackets (<). How do I do that. Kindly do let me know. Thanks.

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• Multhreading in Java

  - by Vijay Selvaraj

  I'm working with core java and IBM Websphere MQ 6.0. We have a standalone module say DBcomponent that hits the database and fetches a resultset based on the runtime query. The query is passed to the application via MQ messaging medium. We have a trigger configured for the queue which invokes the DBComponent whenever a message is available in the queue. The DBComponent consumes the message, constructs the query and returns the resultset to another queue. In this overall process we use log4j to log statements on a log file for auditing. The connection is pooled to the database using Apache pool. I am trying to check whether the log messages are logged correctly using a sample program. The program places the input message to the queue and checks for the logs in the log file. Its expected for the trigger method invocation to complete before i try to check for the message in log file, but every time my program to check for log message gets executed first leading my check to failure. Even if i introduce a Thread.sleep(time) doesn't solves the case. How can i make it to keep my method execution waiting until the trigger operation completes? Any suggestion will be helpful.

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• .NET 4: Process.Start using credentials returns empty output

  - by alexey

  I run an external program from ASP.NET: var process = new Process(); var startInfo = process.StartInfo; startInfo.FileName = filePath; startInfo.Arguments = arguments; startInfo.UseShellExecute = false; startInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; startInfo.RedirectStandardError = true; process.Start(); process.WaitForExit(); Console.Write("Output: {0}", process.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd()); Console.Write("Error Output: {0}", process.StandardError.ReadToEnd()); Everything works fine with this code: the external program is executed and process.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd() returns the correct output. But after I add these two lines before process.Start() (to run the program in the context of another user account): startInfo.UserName = userName; startInfo.Password = securePassword; The program is not executed and process.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd() returns an empty string. No exceptions are thrown. userName and securePassword are correct (in case of incorrect credentials an exception is thrown). How to run the program in the context of another user account?

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• Best way for launching html/jsp to communicate with GWT module

  - by h2g2java

  I asked this at the GWT forum but I'm impatient for the answer and I seem to get rather good responses here. A html or jsp file is used to launch the xxx.nocache.js, which then decides which browser "permutation" to use. <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8"> <title>xxx</title> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="xxx.nocache.js"></script> </head> In my case, I am using a jsp. When the JSP is executed, it discovers some conditions. I wish to pass these conditions as values to the GWT module being launched. The "elegant" GWT way to pass these values would be to persist them as request/memcache attributes and then have the GWT module perform RPC to retrieve those values. For example, the JSP discovers that the current user is Whoopy. Shouldn't I simply have the JSP generate javascript to store user = "Whoopy" as a top or namedframe level javascript variable and use JSNI within the module to retrieve the value for user? I have not tried it yet, but I would like to know how anyone might have done it without having to use RPC.

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• F#, Linux and makefiles

  - by rwallace

  I intend to distribute an F# program as both binary and source so the user has the option of recompiling it if desired. On Windows, I understand how to do this: provide .fsproj and .sln files, which both Visual Studio and MSBuild can understand. On Linux, the traditional solution for C programs is a makefile. This depends on gcc being directly available, which it always is. The F# compiler can be installed on Linux and works under Mono, so that's fine so far. However, as far as I can tell, it doesn't create a scenario where fsc runs the compiler, instead the command is mono ...path.../fsc.exe. This is also fine, except I don't know what the path is going to be. So the full command to run the compiler in my case could be mono ~/FSharp-2.0.0.0/bin/fsc.exe types.fs tptp.fs main.fs -r FSharp.PowerPack.dll except that I'm not sure where fsc.exe will actually be located on the user's machine. Is there a way to find that out within a makefile, or would it be better to fall back on just explaining the above in the documentation and relying on the user to modify the command according to his setup?

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• Best Practice - Removing item from generic collection in C#

  - by Matt Davis

  I'm using C# in Visual Studio 2008 with .NET 3.5. I have a generic dictionary that maps types of events to a generic list of subscribers. A subscriber can be subscribed to more than one event. private static Dictionary<EventType, List<ISubscriber>> _subscriptions; To remove a subscriber from the subscription list, I can use either of these two options. Option 1: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { if (_subscriptions[event].Contains(subscriber)) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } } Option 2: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } I have two questions. First, notice that Option 1 checks for existence before removing the item, while Option 2 uses a brute force removal since Remove() does not throw an exception. Of these two, which is the preferred, "best-practice" way to do this? Second, is there another, "cleaner," more elegant way to do this, perhaps with a lambda expression or using a LINQ extension? I'm still getting acclimated to these two features. Thanks. EDIT Just to clarify, I realize that the choice between Options 1 and 2 is a choice of speed (Option 2) versus maintainability (Option 1). In this particular case, I'm not necessarily trying to optimize the code, although that is certainly a worthy consideration. What I'm trying to understand is if there is a generally well-established practice for doing this. If not, which option would you use in your own code?

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• Can't seem to load a webview from xml, why?

  - by Bilthon

  Well, I'm trying to follow the tutorial from http://rapidandroid.org/wiki/Graphing. But I found a problem just in the first part of it. I'll describe the problem here, I just cannot understand how this could be wrong, it's pretty simple stuff. What am I doing wrong here? First I created a xml file called statistics.xml, in it among other things I put this code: <WebView android:id="@+id/webview" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_width="fill_parent"/> Now in the activity that is supposed to display this webview I'm doing this: public class DisplayStatistics extends Activity { public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); WebView wv = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.webview); The problem arises here, as I seem to be getting null for wv whenever I test for it. Which means of course that findViewById(R.id.webview) couldn't find the view. But again, what am I doing wrong?? Of course I know I could also instantiate the webview directly from code without the need to specify it from the xml, but I was just wondering what was wrong about this way of doing it. Just in case I also added the following line in my android manifest file: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> I'm not really sure if it's necessary for displaying the webview (I think not) but I just put it there to see if that was the problem, and it turned out it isn't. Thanks Nelson

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• Can addition of an ActionListener be short? Can I add arguments to the actionPerformed?

  - by Roman

  I have a big table containing a button in each cell. These buttons are very similar and do almost the same. If I add an action listener to every button in this way: tmp.addActionListener(new ActionListener(){ @Override public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent evt) { proposition = proposition + action; SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { updatePropositionPanel(); } }); } }); Actually, every action listener differ from all others by the value of the action. proposition and updatePropositionPanel are a field and a method of the class. First i thought that I can make it shorter if I do not use inner classes. So, I decided to program a new ActionListener class. But than I realized that in this case "proposition" will not be visible to the instances of this class. Then I decided to add the actionPerformed method to the current class and do that: addActionListener(this). But than I realized that I do not know how give arguments to the actionPerformed method. So, how does it work. Can I add an action listener in a short and elegent way?

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• How to fix codesign when it says user cancelled the operation? (And I didn't)

  - by eipipuz

  I'm compiling an iPhone app meant to be Distributed. It's my first app so I followed the "iPhone Provisioning Profiles" instructions. Unfortunately it fails with this: CodeSign build/*_*_.app cd "/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_" setenv IGNORE_CODESIGN_ALLOCATE_RADAR_7181968 /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/usr/bin/codesign_allocate setenv PATH "/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/usr/bin:/Developer/usr/bin:/usr/bin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/sbin" /usr/bin/codesign -f -s "iPhone Distribution: ******" "--resource-rules=/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/*_*_.app/ResourceRules.plist" --entitlements "/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/Unity-iPhone.build/Distribution-iphoneos/Unity-iPhone.build/*_*_.xcent" "/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/*_*_.app" /Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/*_*_.app: The operation was cancelled by the user. Command /usr/bin/codesign failed with exit code 1 I thought Keychain wasn't allowing Codesign to work but as far as I can tell that isn't the case. I also attempted running these commands from a terminal and it failed with this message: Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/Unity-iPhone.build/Distribution-iphoneos/Unity-iPhone.build/*_*_.xcent: cannot read entitlement data I have made the xcode setting from scratch three times. Googled it. No results. I don't have any idea what else to try. Any suggestions?

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• Are there scenarios where the ViewModel needs to invoke methods on the View w.r.t. MVVM in WPF?

  - by Gishu

  As per the pattern, the ViewModel exposes Properties(with change notification) and Commands (to notify the VM of user actions) that the View binds to. The only communication that flows from the VM to the View is the property change notifications (so that the View can refresh itself with updated data). In MVP or PresentationModel form of the pattern (if I'm not mistaken), the View implements a plain vanilla interface (consisting of methods, properties and/or events). With MVVM, it feels methods on the IView have been outlawed (along with IView itself). One scenario I could think of was to set the focus to a certain control in the View. (When the user does ActionX, the focus should immediately be set to FieldY). In MVP, I'd write this as IView.ActivateField(NameConstant), which the presenter or PM would invoke. In MVVM, this seems to be a fringe case that needs a workaround / little bit of code-behind. The VM implements an ActiveField Property, which it sets to NameConstant. The view picks up the change notification event and in a code-behind event handler, activates the Name control. Is the above just an exception to the norm? Or are there other such scenarios, where the VM needs to invoke a method on the View ?

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• DAL Layer : EF 4.0 or Normal Data access layer with Stored Procedure

  - by Harryboy

  Hello Experts, Application : I am working on one mid-large size application which will be used as a product, we need to decide on our DAL layer. Application UI is in Silverlight and DAL layer is going to be behind service layer. We are also moving ahead with domain model, so our DB tables and domain classes are not having same structure. So patterns like Data Mapper and Repository will definitely come into picture. I need to design DAL Layer considering below mentioned factors in priority manner Speed of Development with above average performance Maintenance Future support and stability of the technology Performance Limitation : 1) As we need to strictly go ahead with microsoft, we can not use NHibernate or any other ORM except EF 4.0 2) We can use any code generation tool (Should be Open source or very cheap) but it should only generate code in .Net, so there would not be any licensing issue on per copy basis. Questions I read so many articles about EF 4.0, on outset it looks like that it is still lacking in features from NHibernate but it is considerably better then EF 1.0 So, Do you people feel that we should go ahead with EF 4.0 or we should stick to ADO .Net and use any code geneartion tool like code smith or any other you feel best Also i need to answer questions like what time it will take to port application from EF 4.0 to ADO .Net if in future we stuck up with EF 4.0 for some features or we are having serious performance issue. In reverse case if we go ahead and choose ADO .Net then what time it will take to swith to EF 4.0 Lastly..as i was going through the article i found the code only approach (with POCO classes) seems to be best suited for our requirement as switching is really easy from one technology to other. Please share your thoughts on the same and please guide on the above questions

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• Combo box in a scrollable panel causing problems

  - by Dennis

  I have a panel with AutoScroll set to true. In it, I am programmatically adding ComboBox controls. If I add enough controls to exceed the viewable size of the panel a scroll bar appears (so far so good). However, if I open one of the combo boxes near the bottom of the viewable area the combo list isn't properly displayed and the scrollable area seems to be expanded. This results in all of the controls being "pulled" to the new bottom of the panel with some new blank space at the top. If I continue to tap on the drop down at the bottom of the panel the scrollable area will continue to expand indefinitely. I'm anchoring the controls to the left, right and top so I don't think anchoring is involved. Is there something obvious that could be causing this? Update: It looks like the problem lies with anchoring the controls to the right. If I don't anchor to the right then I don't get the strange behavior. However, without right anchoring the control gets cut off by the scroll bar. Here's a simplified test case I built that shows the issue: public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); Panel panel = new Panel(); panel.Size = new Size(80, 200); panel.AutoScroll = true; for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { ComboBox cb = new ComboBox(); cb.Anchor = AnchorStyles.Left | AnchorStyles.Right | AnchorStyles.Top; cb.Items.Add("Option 1"); cb.Items.Add("Option 2"); cb.Items.Add("Option 3"); cb.Items.Add("Option 4"); cb.Location = new Point(0, i * 24); panel.Controls.Add(cb); } Controls.Add(panel); } If you scroll the bottom of the panel and tap on the combo boxes near the bottom you'll notice the strange behavior.

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• How can I work around SQL Server - Inline Table Value Function execution plan variation based on par

  - by Ovidiu Pacurar

  Here is the situation: I have a table value function with a datetime parameter ,lest's say tdf(p_date) , that filters about two million rows selecting those with column date smaller than p_date and computes some aggregate values on other columns. It works great but if p_date is a custom scalar value function (returning the end of day in my case) the execution plan is altered an the query goes from 1 sec to 1 minute execution time. A proof of concept table - 1K products, 2M rows: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[POC]( [Date] [datetime] NOT NULL, [idProduct] [int] NOT NULL, [Quantity] [int] NOT NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] The inline table value function: CREATE FUNCTION tdf (@p_date datetime) RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN ( SELECT idProduct, SUM(Quantity) AS TotalQuantity, max(Date) as LastDate FROM POC WHERE (Date < @p_date) GROUP BY idProduct ) The scalar value function: CREATE FUNCTION [dbo].[EndOfDay] (@date datetime) RETURNS datetime AS BEGIN DECLARE @res datetime SET @res=dateadd(second, -1, dateadd(day, 1, dateadd(ms, -datepart(ms, @date), dateadd(ss, -datepart(ss, @date), dateadd(mi,- datepart(mi,@date), dateadd(hh, -datepart(hh, @date), @date)))))) RETURN @res END Query 1 - Working great SELECT * FROM [dbo].[tdf] (getdate()) The end of execution plan: Stream Aggregate Cost 13% <--- Clustered Index Scan Cost 86% Query 2 - Not so great SELECT * FROM [dbo].[tdf] (dbo.EndOfDay(getdate())) The end of execution plan: Stream Aggregate Cost 4% <--- Filter Cost 12% <--- Clustered Index Scan Cost 86%

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• Is there the equivalent of cloud computing for modems?

  - by morpheous

  I asked this question on SF, and someone recommended that I ask it here - (I don't think I have enough points to move a question from SF to SO - and in any case, I don't know how to do it - so here is the question again): I am interested in the concept of PAAS (platform as a service). However, all talk about SAAS/PAAS seems to focus on only the computer itself - not its peripherals. Is it possible to 'outsource' modems as a resource - so that an app running remotely can pump data to a modem in the cloud? As a bit of background to the question, a group of us are thinking of starting a company that offers similar services to companies like twilio etc - but I want to 'outsource' both the computing hardware (thats PAAS - the easy bit) and the modems (thats what I cant seem to find any info on). Does anyone know if modems can be bundled as part of a PAAS service? - alternatively, is there a way that an application running on one computer can communicate (i.e. pump data) to a remote modem residing on another machine?. I assume I can come up with some protocol over UDP or TCP - but there is no point reinventing the wheel - if such a protocol like that already exists (or if it some open source software allows one to do this). Any suggestions on how to solve this problem?

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