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• Use external datasource with NUnit's TestCaseAttribute

  - by Hamman359

  Is it possible to get the values for a TestCaseAttribute from an external data source such as an Excel Spreadsheet, CSV file or Database? i.e. Have a .csv file with 1 row of data per test case and pass that data to NUnit one at a time. Here's the specific situation that I'd like to use this for. I'm currently merging some features from one system into another. This is pretty much just a copy and paste process from the old system into the new one. Unfortunately, the code being moved not only does not have any tests, but is not written in a testable manner (i.e. tightly coupled with the database and other code.) Taking the time to make the code testable isn't really possible since its a big mess, i'm on a tight schedule and the entire feature is scheduled to be re-written from the ground up in the next 6-9 months. However, since I don't like the idea of not having any tests around the code, I'm going to create some simple Selenium tests using WebDriver to test the page through the UI. While this is not ideal, it's better than nothing. The page in question has about 10 input values and about 20 values that I need to assert against after the calculations are completed, with about 30 valid combinations of values that I'd like to test. I already have the data in a spreadsheet so it'd be nice to simply be able to pull that out rather than having to re-type it all in Visual Studio.

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• jQuery carousel in a div with display:none

  - by Fred Kafka

  I have to use on my site a jQuery responsive carousel with 4 displayed items that slide one at a time, etc etc. The point is: this carousel is placed in a div with display:none and it appears clicking on a button with a slideToggle script (jQuery). Well, when the div appears the carousel is not displayed. Nothing! Notice that if I remove the display:none the carousel shows perfectly. I've tried a bunch of carousel plugin (bxslider, caroufredsel, elastislide, flexslider) and this issue happens for all of them. And then... I'm going crazy!! Excuse meSorry friends, here is the code: HTML (here is the case of FlexSlider but the code is similar for the other plugins) <div id="hiddenDiv"> <div id="hiddenDivInner"> <div class="flexslider"> <ul class="slides"> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> </ul> </div> </div> </div> CSS #hiddenDiv{ display:none; padding-bottom:10px; background: url("../img/xxx.gif") repeat left bottom #FFFFFF; } SCRIPT (copy-paste from the site. This script is between $(document).ready together with other scripts. Alredy tried to remove the load function) $(window).load(function() { $('.flexslider').flexslider({ animation: "slide", animationLoop: false, itemWidth: 300, itemMargin: 5, minItems: 1, maxItems: 4 }); }); $("#trigger").click(function () { $("#hiddenDiv").slideToggle(400, "easeInOutExpo"); }); I remind you that with this code and no display:none every carousels work, also if I slide up and then down the div using the slideToggle button (#trigger).

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• Just messed up a server misusing chown, how to execute it correctly?

  - by Jack Webb-Heller

  Hi! I'm moving from an old shared host to a dedicated server at MediaTemple. The server is running Plesk CP, but, as far as I can tell, there's no way via the Interface to do what I want to do. On the old shared host, running cPanel, I creative a .zip archive of all the website's files. I downloaded this to my computer, then uploaded it with FTP to the new host account I'd set up. Finally, I logged in via SSH, navigated to the directory the zip was stored in (something like var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ and ran the unzip command on the file sitearchive.zip. This extracted everything just the fine. The site appeared to work just fine. The problem: When I tried to edit a file through FTP, I got Error - 160: Permission Denied. When I Get Info for the file I'm trying to edit, it says the owner and group is swimwir1. I attemped to use chown at this point to change owner - and yes, as you may be able to tell, I'm a little inexperienced in SSH ;) luckily the server was new, since the command I ran - chown -R newuser / appeared to mess a load of stuff up. The reason I used / on the end rather than /var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ was because I'd already cded into their, so I presumed the / was relative to where I was working. This may be the case, I have no idea, either way - Plesk was no longer accessible, although Apache and things continued to work. I realised my mistake, and deciding it wasn't worth the hassle of 1) being an amateur and 2) trying to fix it, I just reprovisioned the server to start afresh. So - what do I do to change the owner of these files correctly? Thanks for helping out a confused beginner! Jack

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• Prevent deferred creation of controls.

  - by Scott Chamberlain

  Here is a test framework to show what I am doing, just create a new project add a tabbed control, on tab 1 put a button on tab 2 put a check box (default names) and paste this code for its code public partial class Form1 : Form { private List<bool> boolList = new List<bool>(); BindingSource bs = new BindingSource(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); boolList.Add(false); bs.DataSource = boolList; checkBox1.DataBindings.Add("Checked", bs, ""); } bool updating = false; private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { updating = true; boolList[0] = true; bs.ResetBindings(false); Application.DoEvents(); updating = false; } private void checkBox1_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!updating) MessageBox.Show("CheckChanged fired outside of updating"); } } The issue is if you run the program and look at tab 2 then press the button on tab 1 the program works as expected, however if you press the button on tab 1 then look at tab 2 the event for the checkbox will not fire untill you look at tab 2. The reason for this is the controll on tab 2 is not in the "created" state, so its binding to change the checkbox from unchecked to checked does not happen until after the control has been "Created". checkbox1.CreateControl() does not do anything because according to MSDN CreateControl does not create a control handle if the control's Visible property is false. You can either call the CreateHandle method or access the Handle property to create the control's handle regardless of the control's visibility, but in this case, no window handles are created for the control's children. I tried getting the value of Handle(there is no CreateHandle for Button) but still the same result. Any suggestions other than have the program quickly flash all of my tabs that have data-bound check boxes when it first loads?

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• Which linear programming package should I use for high numbers of constraints and "warm starts"

  - by davidsd

  I have a "continuous" linear programming problem that involves maximizing a linear function over a curved convex space. In typical LP problems, the convex space is a polytope, but in this case the convex space is piecewise curved -- that is, it has faces, edges, and vertices, but the edges aren't straight and the faces aren't flat. Instead of being specified by a finite number of linear inequalities, I have a continuously infinite number. I'm currently dealing with this by approximating the surface by a polytope, which means discretizing the continuously infinite constraints into a very large finite number of constraints. I'm also in the situation where I'd like to know how the answer changes under small perturbations to the underlying problem. Thus, I'd like to be able to supply an initial condition to the solver based on a nearby solution. I believe this capability is called a "warm start." Can someone help me distinguish between the various LP packages out there? I'm not so concerned with user-friendliness as speed (for large numbers of constraints), high-precision arithmetic, and warm starts. Thanks!

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• How does this code break the Law of Demeter?

  - by Dave Jarvis

  The following code breaks the Law of Demeter: public class Student extends Person { private Grades grades; public Student() { } /** Must never return null; throw an appropriately named exception, instead. */ private synchronized Grades getGrades() throws GradesException { if( this.grades == null ) { this.grades = createGrades(); } return this.grades; } /** Create a new instance of grades for this student. */ protected Grades createGrades() throws GradesException { // Reads the grades from the database, if needed. // return new Grades(); } /** Answers if this student was graded by a teacher with the given name. */ public boolean isTeacher( int year, String name ) throws GradesException, TeacherException { // The method only knows about Teacher instances. // return getTeacher( year ).nameEquals( name ); } private Grades getGradesForYear( int year ) throws GradesException { // The method only knows about Grades instances. // return getGrades().getForYear( year ); } private Teacher getTeacher( int year ) throws GradesException, TeacherException { // This method knows about Grades and Teacher instances. A mistake? // return getGradesForYear( year ).getTeacher(); } } public class Teacher extends Person { public Teacher() { } /** * This method will take into consideration first name, * last name, middle initial, case sensitivity, and * eventually it could answer true to wild cards and * regular expressions. */ public boolean nameEquals( String name ) { return getName().equalsIgnoreCase( name ); } /** Never returns null. */ private synchronized String getName() { if( this.name == null ) { this.name == ""; } return this.name; } } Questions How is the LoD broken? Where is the code breaking the LoD? How should the code be written to uphold the LoD?

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• F#, Linux and makefiles

  - by rwallace

  I intend to distribute an F# program as both binary and source so the user has the option of recompiling it if desired. On Windows, I understand how to do this: provide .fsproj and .sln files, which both Visual Studio and MSBuild can understand. On Linux, the traditional solution for C programs is a makefile. This depends on gcc being directly available, which it always is. The F# compiler can be installed on Linux and works under Mono, so that's fine so far. However, as far as I can tell, it doesn't create a scenario where fsc runs the compiler, instead the command is mono ...path.../fsc.exe. This is also fine, except I don't know what the path is going to be. So the full command to run the compiler in my case could be mono ~/FSharp-2.0.0.0/bin/fsc.exe types.fs tptp.fs main.fs -r FSharp.PowerPack.dll except that I'm not sure where fsc.exe will actually be located on the user's machine. Is there a way to find that out within a makefile, or would it be better to fall back on just explaining the above in the documentation and relying on the user to modify the command according to his setup?

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• Reading a .dat file as "rb" read binary

  - by donpal

  I have a web-accessible php script that accesses a folder above the webroot (not web accessible) called \folder\. This is done via setting the path to \folder\ in .htaccess the usual way so that \folder\ becomes part of the project. \folder\ contains a .php script (communicates with the web-accessible script inside the webroot) some .inc files (used by the .php in the same folder, above the webroot) a dat file (used by the .inc in the same folder, above the webroot) All files are accessible to each other as needed: the web-accessible php inside the webroot can communicate with the php above the webroot the php above the webroot can communicate with the inc in the same folder But the inc above the webroot can't communicate with the dat in the same folder, and I have no idea why that's the case The inc myinc.inc is supposed to open the dat mydat.dat in the same folder like this fopen('mydat.dat', "rb"); but I get an error that no file called mydat.dat exists inside \folder\myinc.inc. Of course it does not, the .dat is sibling to .inc and is not supposed to be inside it. Why is php expecting to find the .dat file inside the .inc. The stranger thing is that if I move the .dat in the web-accessible folder, it becomes readable now. Any ideas why php is trying to find the .dat inside the .inc?

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• How is unautenticated site navigation handled in ASP.NET?

  - by Code Sherpa

  Hi. I am wondering how to do the following... I have a registration system. When the user successfully registers, he is then led down a series of data gathering pages (for his profile) and then, finally, ends on his profile's home page where he can start to use the site. All this happens without ever logging into the system so, he is unauthenticated and unconfirmed. My question is, how does this happen? How can I allow my user to be unauthenticated (and unconfirmed, but this I understand) and use all aspects of the Web site? The way I have things set up right now, my code should be doing this: case CreateProfileStatus.Success: //FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(userName, false); Response.Redirect("NextPage.aspx", false); break; but, I am being redirected to the login page after registration which is not the result I want. This is what the relevant nodes in my web.config look like: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name=".AuthCookie" loginUrl="default.aspx" protection="All"/> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?"/> <allow roles="Administrators" /> </authorization> <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="100000" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" cookieProtection="Encryption" cookieless="UseCookies" domain="" /> When the user logs out after the registration and initial interaction with the site he will be required to log in upon return. At this point he must be authenticated but does not need to be confirmed for a period of time. Eventually, he will be reminded. So, how is this done? Thanks in advance.

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• how to access control in templatefield gridview with custom id

  - by Mohsen.Tavoosi

  i have a customized gridview.my grid is able to sort for each column just by 1 click in the header without any setting and overloading methods such as sorting,etc by user(programmer).(i do this successfully and work fine) users(programmers) maybe add each column in grid.such as template field,hyperlinkfield,boundfield... . for sorting, i must access datafield of columns. i can access boundfield column by this code.i can access datafield and header text and ... sample: for (int j = 0; j < this.Columns.Count; j++) { BoundField bf; bf = this.Columns[j] as BoundField; if (bf != null) { string ht = bf.HeaderText; string df = bf.DataField; } } but i can access control in the templateField.such as ColumnBound. sample: <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("Name") %>'></asp:Label> i want access "Name" (Bind ("Name") or Eval ("Name")) . how can i? there is a point: i dont now what is the ID (in this case "Label1") of control in templatefield. special thanks

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• How to prevent Hibernate from nullifying relationship column during entity removal

  - by Grzegorz

  I have two entities, A and B. I need to easily retrieve entities A, joined with entities B on the condition of equal values of some column (some column from A equal to some column in B). Those columns are not primary or foreign keys, they contain same business data. I just need to have access from each instance of A to the collection of B's with the same value of this column. So I model it like this: class A { @OneToMany @JoinColumn(name="column_in_B", referencedColumnName="column_in_A") Collection<B> bs; This way, I can run queries like "select A join fetch a.bs b where b...." (Actually, the real relationship here is many-to-many. But when I use @ManyToMany, Hibernate forces me to use join table, which doesnt exist here. So I have to use @OneToMany as workaround). So far so good. The main problem is: whenever I delete an instance of A, hibernate calls "Update B set column_in_B = null", becuase it thinks the column_in_B is foreign key pointing at primary key in A (and because row in A is deleted, it tries to clean the foreign key in B). BUT the column_in_B IS NOT a foreign key, and can't be modified, because it causes data lost (and this column is NOT NULL anyway in my case, causing data integerity exception to be thrown). Plese help me with this. How to model such relationships with Hibernate? (I would call it "virtual relationships", or "secondary relationships" or so: as they are not based on foreign keys, they are just some shortcuts which allows for retrieving related objects and quering for them with HQL)

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• Valueurl Binding On Large Arrays Causes Sluggish User Interface

  - by Hooligancat

  I have a large data set (some 3500 objects) that returns from a remote server via HTTP. Currently the data is being presented in an NSCollectionView. One aspect of the data is a path pack to the server for a small image that represents the data (think thumbnail for simplicity). Bindings works fantastically for the data that is already returned, and binding the image via a valueurl binding is easy to do. However, the user interface is very sluggish when scrolling through the data set - which makes me think that the NSCollectionView is retrieving all the image data instead of just the image data used to display the currently viewable images. I was under the impression that Cocoa controls were smart enough to only retrieve data for the information that is actually being output to the user interface through lazy loading. This certainly seems to be the case with NSTableView - but I could be misguided on this thought. Should valueurl binding act lazily and, moreover, should it act lazily in an NSCollectionView? I could create a caching mechanism (in fact I already have such a thing in place for another application - see my post here if you are interested http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1740209/populating-nsimage-with-data-from-an-asynchronous-nsurlconnection) but I really don't want to go this route if I don't have to for this specific implementation as the user could potentially change data sets often and may only want small sub-sets of the data. Any suggested approaches? Thanks!

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• getting proxies of the correct type in nhibernate

  - by Nir

  I have a problem with uninitialized proxies in nhibernate The Domain Model Let's say I have two parallel class hierarchies: Animal, Dog, Cat and AnimalOwner, DogOwner, CatOwner where Dog and Cat both inherit from Animal and DogOwner and CatOwner both inherit from AnimalOwner. AnimalOwner has a reference of type Animal called OwnedAnimal. Here are the classes in the example: public abstract class Animal { // some properties } public class Dog : Animal { // some more properties } public class Cat : Animal { // some more properties } public class AnimalOwner { public virtual Animal OwnedAnimal {get;set;} // more properties... } public class DogOwner : AnimalOwner { // even more properties } public class CatOwner : AnimalOwner { // even more properties } The classes have proper nhibernate mapping, all properties are persistent and everything that can be lazy loaded is lazy loaded. The application business logic only let you to set a Dog in a DogOwner and a Cat in a CatOwner. The Problem I have code like this: public void ProcessDogOwner(DogOwner owner) { Dog dog = (Dog)owner.OwnedAnimal; .... } This method can be called by many diffrent methods, in most cases the dog is already in memory and everything is ok, but rarely the dog isn't already in memory - in this case I get an nhibernate "uninitialized proxy" but the cast throws an exception because nhibernate genrates a proxy for Animal and not for Dog. I understand that this is how nhibernate works, but I need to know the type without loading the object - or, more correctly I need the uninitialized proxy to be a proxy of Cat or Dog and not a proxy of Animal. Constraints I can't change the domain model, the model is handed to me by another department, I tried to get them to change the model and failed. The actual model is much more complicated then the example and the classes have many references between them, using eager loading or adding joins to the queries is out of the question for performance reasons. I have full control of the source code, the hbm mapping and the database schema and I can change them any way I want (as long as I don't change the relationships between the model classes). I have many methods like the one in the example and I don't want to modify all of them. Thanks, Nir

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• Pinax TemplateSyntaxError

  - by Spikie

  hi, i ran into this errors while trying to modify pinax database model i am using eclipse pydev i have this error on the pydev Exception Type: TemplateSyntaxError at / Exception Value: Caught an exception while rendering: (1146, "Table 'test1.announcements_announcement' doesn't exist") please how do i correct this UPDATE: i asked this question and left unresolved some months back and you what ran into the bug again this week and typed the error message in google hit the page with the question and unanswered so i think i have to answer it and hope it help someone in the future have the same problem. some the problem is that the sqlite path is out of place so django or this case pinax can not find it so to resolve that change the absolute path to sqlite like it DATABASE_ENGINE = 'sqlite3' # 'postgresql_psycopg2', 'postgresql', 'mysql', 'sqlite3' or 'ado_mssql'. DATABASE_NAME = os.path.join(PROJECT_ROOT,'dev.db' ) # Or path to database file if using sqlite3. DATABASE_USER = '' # Not used with sqlite3. DATABASE_PASSWORD = '' # Not used with sqlite3. DATABASE_HOST = '' # Set to empty string for localhost. Not used with sqlite3. DATABASE_PORT = '' # Set to empty string for default. Not used with sqlite3. i hope that help

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• ActiveScaffold custom action_link that should respond like update

  - by doug316

  I have a custom action link which is :inline and :post. It's a quick-link to update an attribute, and that part works just fine. After the action, my intent is to respond just like it was an update, so the row is re-rendered in the index. After the record is updated in my controller action, I call respond_to_action(:create) Just like in the create method in active scaffold. It seems like the content of the javascript response is returned correctly to the client, however, the problem: The content-type of the response header is "text/html" instead of "text/javascript", unlike with an actual update. So the JS is not executed and the row doesn't update. I can't figure out what the difference could possibly be here, I've traced extensively and even have replaced the respond_to_action with: respond_to do |format| format.js do render ... end end And it still won't set the content-type like every other action in the app. Anybody have a clue here? Something in active scaffold must be overriding the content-type and I can't figure out what it might be. Surprising this isn't documented, this doesn't seem like an unusual use-case, making an action a slave to the update re-render.

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• PostgreSQL insert on primary key failing with contention, even at serializable level

  - by Steven Schlansker

  I'm trying to insert or update data in a PostgreSQL db. The simplest case is a key-value pairing (the actual data is more complicated, but this is the smallest clear example) When you set a value, I'd like it to insert if the key is not there, otherwise update. Sadly Postgres does not have an insert or update statement, so I have to emulate it myself. I've been working with the idea of basically SELECTing whether the key exists, and then running the appropriate INSERT or UPDATE. Now clearly this needs to be be in a transaction or all manner of bad things could happen. However, this is not working exactly how I'd like it to - I understand that there are limitations to serializable transactions, but I'm not sure how to work around this one. Here's the situation - ab: => set transaction isolation level serializable; a: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 b: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 a: => insert into table values(1); --> 1 b: => insert into table values(1); --> ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "serial_test_pkey" Now I would expect it to throw the usual "couldn't commit due to concurrent update" but I'm guessing since the inserts are different "rows" this does not happen. Is there an easy way to work around this?

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• Database Error Handling: What if You have to Call Outside service and the Transaction Fails?

  - by Ngu Soon Hui

  We all know that we can always wrap our database call in transaction ( with or without a proper ORM), in a form like this: $con = Propel::getConnection(EventPeer::DATABASE_NAME); try { $con->begin(); // do your update, save, delete or whatever here. $con->commit(); } catch (PropelException $e) { $con->rollback(); throw $e; } This way would guarantee that if the transaction fails, the database is restored to the correct status. But the problem is that let's say when I do a transaction, in addition to that transaction, I need to update another database ( an example would be when I update an entry in a column in databaseA, another entry in a column in databaseB must be updated). How to handle this case? Let's say, this is my code, I have three databases that need to be updated ( dbA, dbB, dbc): $con = Propel::getConnection("dbA"); try { $con->begin(); // update to dbA // update to dbB //update to dbc $con->commit(); } catch (PropelException $e) { $con->rollback(); throw $e; } If dbc fails, I can rollback the dbA but I can't rollback dbb. I think this problem should be database independent. And since I am using ORM, this should be ORM independent as well. Update: Some of the database transactions are wrapped in ORM, some are using naked PDO, oledb ( or whatever bare minimum language provided database calls). So my solution has to take care this. Any idea?

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• c# web extracting programming, which libraries, examples samples please

  - by user287745

  I have just started programming and have made a few small applications in C and C#. My understanding is that programming for web and thing related to web is nowadays a very easy task. Please note this is for personnel learning, not for rent a coder or any money making. An application which can run on any Windows platform even Windows 98. The application should start automatically at a scheduled time and do the following. Connect to a site which displays stock prices summary (high low current open). Capture the data (excluding the other things in the site.) And save it to disk (an SQL database) Please note:- Internet connection is assumed to be there always. Do not want to know how to make database schema or database. The stock exchange has no law prohibiting the use of the data provided on its site, but I do not want to mention the name in case I am wrong, but it's for personal private use only. The data of summary of pricing is arranged in a table such that when copied pasted to MS Excel it automatically forms a table. need steps guidance please, examples, lbraries

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• What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

  - by David M

  Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

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• Replacement for deprecated SQL Server User Defined Type with a bound Rule and Default

  - by Adam Jones

  We have a User Defined Data Type of YesNo which has an which is an alias for char(1). The type has a bound Rule (must be Y or N) and a Default (N). The aim of this is that when any of the development team create a new field of type YesNo the rule and default are automatically bound to the new column. Rules and Defaults have been deprecated and won't be available in the next a future version of SQL Server, is there another way to achieve the same functionality? I should add that I'm aware that I could use CHECK and DEFAULT constraints to replicate the functionality of the bound Rule and Defalut objects, however these would have to be applied at each usage of the type, rather than getting the functionality 'for free' by using a UDT which has a bound Rule and Default. The post relates to a database that backs an existing application, rather than a new development, so I'm aware that our use of UDT's is less than optimal. I suspect the answer to the question is 'No', however normally when features are deprecated there's usually an alternative syntax that can be used as a drop in replacement so I wanted to pose the question in-case someone knew of an alternative.

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• Unit tests - The benefit from unit tests with contract changes?

  - by Stefan Hendriks

  Recently I had an interesting discussion with a colleague about unit tests. We where discussing when maintaining unit tests became less productive, when your contracts change. Perhaps anyone can enlight me how to approach this problem. Let me elaborate: So lets say there is a class which does some nifty calculations. The contract says that it should calculate a number, or it returns -1 when it fails for some reason. I have contract tests who test that. And in all my other tests I stub this nifty calculator thingy. So now I change the contract, whenever it cannot calculate it will throw a CannotCalculateException. My contract tests will fail, and I will fix them accordingly. But, all my mocked/stubbed objects will still use the old contract rules. These tests will succeed, while they should not! The question that rises, is that with this faith in unit testing, how much faith can be placed in such changes... The unit tests succeed, but bugs will occur when testing the application. The tests using this calculator will need to be fixed, which costs time and may even be stubbed/mocked a lot of times... How do you think about this case? I never thought about it thourougly. In my opinion, these changes to unit tests would be acceptable. If I do not use unit tests, I would also see such bugs arise within test phase (by testers). Yet I am not confident enough to point out what will cost more time (or less). Any thoughts?

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• Join + IEqualityComparer<T> and HashCode

  - by Jesus Rodriguez

  Im writing my own LINQ reference but Im getting troubles with some of the more complicated operators implementations. There is a Join implementation that takes a IEqualityComparer Im getting just crazy. Im trying to understand it first before I write (obviously) Image this two lists: List<string> initials = new List<string> {"A", "B", "C", "D", "E"}; List<string> words = new List<string> {"Ant", "Crawl", "Pig", "Boat", "Elephant", "Arc"}; Nothing weird here. I want to join both lists by the Initial, something like: Initial=A Word=Ant Initial=A Word=Arc Initial=B Word=Boat ... I need a comparator, I wrote this: public class InitialComparator : IEqualityComparer<string> { public bool Equals(string x, string y) { return x.StartsWith(y); } public int GetHashCode(string obj) { return obj[0].GetHashCode(); } } The Join itself: var blah = initials.Join(words, initial => initial, word => word, (initial, word) => new {Initial = initial, Word = word}, new InitialComparator()); It's the first time Im using HashCodes, after a good session of debugging I see that every word go to the comparator and look at its HashCode, if another word has the same HashCode it calls equals. Since I want to compare just the initial I though that I just need the first letter Hash (Am I wrong?) The thing is that this is not working correctly. Its says that "Ant" and "Arc" are equals, Ok, its comparing every word in the same list or not, But it adds only the last word it finds, in this case Arc, ignoring Ant and Ant is equals to "A" too... If I put "Ant" and "Ant" it add both. In short, What is the way of doing something like that? I know that Im doing something wrong. Thank you.

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• Dojo dialog, the iPad and the virtual keyboard issue

  - by Chris Butler

  Recently, I have been working on a project where the interface should work for desktop and tablets (in particular the iPad). One issue I am coming across is with a Dojo dialog on the iPad when text entry is taking place. Basically here is what happens: Load Dojo interface with buttons on iPad - OK Press button (touch) to show dialog (90% height and width) - OK Click on text box (touch) like DateTextBox or TimeTextBox - OK, the virtual keyboard is opened Click the date or time I want in the UI (touch) - OK, but I can't see all of the options since it is longer than the screen size... Try to scroll down (swipe up with two fingers or click 'next' in the keyboard) - not OK and the dialog repositions itself to have it's top at the top of the viewport area. Basically, the issue is that the dialog keeps trying to reposition itself. Am I able to stop dialog resizing and positioning if I catch the window onResize events? Does anyone else have this issue with the iPad and Dojo dialogs? Also, I found this StackOverflow topic on detecting the virtual keyboard, but it wasn't much help in this case... http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2593139/ipad-web-app-detect-virtual-keyboard-using-javascript-in-safari Thanks!

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• PHP Switch and Login

  - by Steve Rivera

  I'm fairly new with PHP and I am messing around with a login/registration system. I setup my sample website using a PHP-SWITCH script I found a while back: <?php switch($_GET['id']) { default: include('home.php'); /* LOGIN PAGES */ break; case "register_form": include ('includes/user_system/register_form.php'); } ? On the registration page the form links to my "register.php" which checks the validity of the form and to check for any blank fields and so on. "register.php" is supposed to refresh the page and add a reason to what the user did wrong when submitting the form. On my "register_form.php" page, which holds the actual form. This field is hidden until the user makes a mistake. <?php if (isset($reg_error)) { ?> , please try again. My "register.php" checks the form for all the errors. Here's the bit of code that will refresh the page with the reason for the error: // Check if any of the fields are missing if (empty($_POST['username']) || empty($_POST['password']) || empty($_POST['confirmpass'])) { // Reshow the form with an error $reg_error = 'One or more fields missing'; include 'register_form.php'; Now after I submit the form without any fields filled out I get the error code, but it refreshes to the actual "register_form.php". The problem with this is that because of my PHP-SWITCH script (helps me manage the site a lot easier) I don't have any formatting on that page. The actual URL to my "register_form.php" would be: "index.php?id=register_form.php". Now I have tried several different things such as changing it to: include 'index.php?id=register_form.php' And also changing it to: header(location:index.php?id=register_form.php') Unfortunately all this does is refresh the page without the reason for the error. I know this can be easily solved by just adding a Javascript Validator but I'd like to know if it is possible to refresh the page with the error using either "include" or "header()" while having a PHP-SWITCH script on the website.

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• Calling a SLSB with Seam security from a servlet

  - by wilth

  Hello, I have an existing application written in SEAM that uses SEAM Security (http://docs.jboss.org/seam/2.1.1.GA/reference/en-US/html/security.html). In a stateless EJB, I might find something like this: @In Identity identity; ... if(identity.hasRole("admin")) throw new AuthException(); As far as I understand, Seam injects the Identity object from the SessionContext of the servlet that invokes the EJB (this happens "behind the scenes", since Seam doesn't really use servlets) and removes it after the call. Is this correct? Is it now possible to access this EJB from another servlet (in this case, that servlet is the server side of a GWT application)? Do I have to "inject" the correct Identity instance? If I don't do anything, Seam injects an instance, but doesn't correctly correlate the sessions and instances of Identity (so the instances of Identity are shared between sessions and sometimes calls get new instances etc.). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

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