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  • Multithreaded IOCP Client Issue

    - by Carl
    I am writing a multithreaded client that uses an IO Completion Port. I create and connect the socket that has the WSA_FLAG_OVERLAPPED attribute set. if ((m_socket = socket(AF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, IPPROTO_TCP)) == INVALID_SOCKET) { throw std::exception("Failed to create socket."); } if (WSAConnectByName(m_socket, L"server.com", L"80", &localAddressLength, reinterpret_cast<sockaddr*>(&localAddress), &remoteAddressLength, &remoteAddress, NULL, NULL) == FALSE) { throw std::exception("Failed to connect."); } I associate the IO Completion Port with the socket. if ((m_hIOCP = CreateIoCompletionPort(reinterpret_cast<HANDLE>(m_socket), m_hIOCP, NULL, 8)) == NULL) { throw std::exception("Failed to create IOCP object."); } All appears to go well until I try to send some data over the socket. SocketData* socketData = new SocketData; socketData->hEvent = 0; DWORD bytesSent = 0; if (WSASend(m_socket, socketData->SetBuffer(socketData->GenerateLoginRequestHeader()), 1, &bytesSent, NULL, reinterpret_cast<OVERLAPPED*>(socketData), NULL) == SOCKET_ERROR && WSAGetLastError() != WSA_IO_PENDING) { throw std::exception("Failed to send data."); } Instead of returning SOCKET_ERROR with the last error set to WSA_IO_PENDING, WSASend returns immediately. I need the IO to pend and for it's completion to be handled in my thread function which is also my worker thread. unsigned int __stdcall MyClass::WorkerThread(void* lpThis) { } I've done this before but I don't know what is going wrong in this case, I'd greatly appreciate any efforts in helping me fix this problem.

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  • razor websites not working and all dlls are present

    - by Michael Tot Korsgaard
    I've uploaded a .cshtml website to a surftown server, and I got some problems running the code. But I have a problem with it running the Razor code. This is how the page renders:(Default.cshtml) I've already checked for internal communication problems. And this is my result: But then why isn't it working, and how can I fix it? I've heard that it can be a problem with views but how whould I fix this if that's the case? My websites folder tree: (And some files too) App_Code App_Data packages Microsoft.AspNet.Razor.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Asp.Net.WebPages.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Asp.Net.WebPages.Administration.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Asp.Net.WebPages.Data.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Asp.Net.WebPages.WebData.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Web.Infrastructure.1.0.0.0 NuGet.Core.1.6.2 bin packages jQuery.2.0.3 Content Scripts Tools Microsoft.AspNet.Mvc.4.0.30506.0 lib net40 Microsoft.AspNet.Razor.2.0.30506.0 lib net40 Microsoft.AspNet.WebPages.2.0.30506.0 lib net40 Pages Chapters Read.cshtml Edit Move Chapter.cshtml Entry.cshtml Entries EnterEntry.cshtml EnterNote.cshtml Login Login.cshtml Search Result.cshtml Scripts Addons TinyMCE Styles CSS Views _Layout.cshtml Default.cshtml My web.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0"> <buildProviders> <add extension=".cshtml" type="System.Web.WebPages.Razor.RazorBuildProvider, System.Web.WebPages.Razor"/> </buildProviders> <assemblies> <add assembly="System.Web.Mvc, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </assemblies> </compilation> </system.web> <connectionStrings> <add connectionString="database connection" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> </connectionStrings> </configuration> EDIT: Is it a problem that all my files are .cshtml?

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  • Flex 3 - Issues with textArea "editable" property

    - by BS_C3
    Hello Community! I'm having issues with the property "editable" of textArea control. I have a component: OrderView.mxml and it's associated data class OrderViewData.as. Orderview.mxml is inside a viewStack to enable navigation from a component to another. In this particular case, OrderView.mxml is called by another component: SearchResult.mxml. I can thus navigate from SearchResult.mxml to OrderView.mxml, and back to SearchResult.mxml... OrderView.mxml has textArea and textInput control, that have to be editable or nonEditable depending on the property var isEditable:Boolean from OrderViewData.as. When the application is launched, isEditable = true. So, all textInput and textArea controls are editable the first time the user gets to OrderView.mxml. When the user clicks on the button order from OrderView.mxml, isEditable = false. When the user goes back to SearchResult.mxml, isEditable = true (again) -- Until here, everything works fine. The thing is: when the user goes back to OrderView.mxml for the second time (and beyond), even if the property isEditable = true, textArea controls are still non editable... But the textInput controls are editable! Here is some code for your comprehension: OrderView.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" backgroundColor="#F3EDEC"> <mx:TextArea id="contentTA" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTA}" enabled="{OrderViewData.instance.isEnabled}" width="100%" height="51" maxChars="18" styleName="ORTextInput" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTA.setSelection(0, contentTA.length)"/> <mx:TextInput id="contentTI" text="{OrderViewData.instance.contentTI}" width="40" height="18" maxChars="4" styleName="ORTextInput" change="contentTI_change()" focusIn="if(OrderViewData.instance.isEditable) contentTI.setSelection(0, contentTI.length)" editable="{OrderViewData.instance.isEditable}"/> </mx:Canvas> Am I missing something? Thanks for any help you can provide. Regards. BS_C3

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  • I didn't say anything treasonous, quit putting words in my mouth

    - by You guys Lie
    Where at all did I say ANYTHING about organizing some kind of anti-government activity? Nowhere. I do not give a flying fuck about America in case you hadn't realized, I'm talking about what I'm going to do when Jesus Christ returns. Besides, why would I make it easy for them to throw me in a black site prison? Use common sense, sheeple. In the end I guess it doesn't matter anyways, since I do not recognize the government as my ultimate authority. Police/Army/Whatever-- funny outfits and a shiny badge don't make you better than me. Allah will do away with your kind. However, as long as they're with me (as they semi-currently are), we have no problems. I fear the government will have other plans to control the population when things start to further decline, and that is when they will run into problems with me and mine, and probably a large percentage of the public. You'd have to be a fucking fool to think we'd fall into anarchy immediately, given the vast resources and blind loyalty of this country. Saying there are practical limits to free speech for anything I have said in this thread is not only ignorant, it is unpatriotic. I should be being celebrated as the modern day Paul Revere for warning you people about our impending doom. You would do well to study the foundations of this country. Nothing I have said is treasonous at all. Besides, the DoD knows I'm harmless until shit pops off, they have bigger fish to fry right now, go forward. Keep in mind, I don't personally have to do anything to overthrow the government. I just said, I would not advocate for any paramilitary organizations at this time, only if/after we dissolve into (more) tyranny. I am not a terrorist, like some soldiers in Iraq. The machine is doing a great job of ruining itself, while I get to comfortably laugh at it on the nightly news knowing that I'm ready for it to shut down.

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  • Custom basic authentication fails in IIS7

    - by manu08
    I have an ASP.NET MVC application, with some RESTful services that I'm trying to secure using custom basic authentication (they are authenticated against my own database). I have implemented this by writing an HTTPModule. I have one method attached to the HttpApplication.AuthenticateRequest event, which calls this method in the case of authentication failure: private static void RejectWith401(HttpApplication app) { app.Response.StatusCode = 401; app.Response.StatusDescription = "Access Denied"; app.CompleteRequest(); } This method is attached to the HttpApplication.EndRequest event: public void OnEndRequest(object source, EventArgs eventArgs) { var app = (HttpApplication) source; if (app.Response.StatusCode == 401) { string val = String.Format("Basic Realm=\"{0}\"", "MyCustomBasicAuthentication"); app.Response.AppendHeader("WWW-Authenticate", val); } } This code adds the "WWW-Authenticate" header which tells the browser to throw up the login dialog. This works perfectly when I debug locally using Visual Studio's web server. But it fails when I run it in IIS7. For IIS7 I have the built-in authentication modules all turned off, except anonymous. It still returns an HTTP 401 response, but it appears to be removing the WWW-Authenticate header. Any ideas?

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  • PostgreSQL insert on primary key failing with contention, even at serializable level

    - by Steven Schlansker
    I'm trying to insert or update data in a PostgreSQL db. The simplest case is a key-value pairing (the actual data is more complicated, but this is the smallest clear example) When you set a value, I'd like it to insert if the key is not there, otherwise update. Sadly Postgres does not have an insert or update statement, so I have to emulate it myself. I've been working with the idea of basically SELECTing whether the key exists, and then running the appropriate INSERT or UPDATE. Now clearly this needs to be be in a transaction or all manner of bad things could happen. However, this is not working exactly how I'd like it to - I understand that there are limitations to serializable transactions, but I'm not sure how to work around this one. Here's the situation - ab: => set transaction isolation level serializable; a: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 b: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 a: => insert into table values(1); --> 1 b: => insert into table values(1); --> ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "serial_test_pkey" Now I would expect it to throw the usual "couldn't commit due to concurrent update" but I'm guessing since the inserts are different "rows" this does not happen. Is there an easy way to work around this?

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  • How to make a mapped field inherited from a superclass transient in JPA?

    - by Russ Hayward
    I have a legacy schema that cannot be changed. I am using a base class for the common features and it contains an embedded object. There is a field that is normally mapped in the embedded object that needs to be in the persistence id for only one (of many) subclasses. I have made a new id class that includes it but then I get the error that the field is mapped twice. Here is some example code that is much simplified to maintain the sanity of the reader: @MappedSuperclass class BaseClass { @Embedded private Data data; } @Entity class SubClass extends BaseClass { @EmbeddedId private SubClassId id; } @Embeddable class Data { private int location; private String name; } @Embeddable class SubClassId { private int thingy; private int location; } I have tried @AttributeOverride but I can only get it to rename the field. I have tried to set it to updatable = false, insertable = false but this did not seem to work when used in the @AttributeOverride annotation. See answer below for the solution to this issue. I realise I could change the base class but I really do not want to split up the embedded object to separate the shared field as it would make the surrounding code more complex and require some ugly wrapping code. I could also redesign the whole system for this corner case but I would really rather not. I am using Hibernate as my JPA provider.

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  • Why don't file type filters work properly with nsIFilePicker on Mac OSX?

    - by Eric Strom
    I am running a chrome app in firefox (started with -app) with the following code to open a filepicker: var nsIFilePicker = Components.interfaces.nsIFilePicker; var fp = Components.classes["@mozilla.org/filepicker;1"] .createInstance(nsIFilePicker); fp.init(window, "Select Files", nsIFilePicker.modeOpenMultiple); fp.appendFilter("video", "*.mov; *.mpg; *.mpeg; *.avi; *.flv; *.m4v; *.mp4"); fp.appendFilter("all", "*.*"); var res = fp.show(); if (res == nsIFilePicker.returnCancel) return; var files = fp.files; var paths = []; while (files.hasMoreElements()) { var arg = files.getNext().QueryInterface( Components.interfaces.nsILocalFile ).path; paths.push(arg); } Everything seems to work fine on Windows, and the file picker itself works on OSX, but the dropdown menu to select between file types only displays in Windows. The first filter (video in this case) is in effect, but the dropdown to select the other type never shows. Is there something extra that is needed to get this working on OSX? I have tried the latest firefox (3.6) and an older one (3.0.13) and both don't show the file type dropdown on OSX.

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  • Thread Message Loop Hangs in Delphi

    - by erikjw
    Hello all. I have a simple Delphi program that I'm working on, in which I am attempting to use threading to separate the functionality of the program from its GUI, and to keep the GUI responsive during more lengthy tasks, etc. Basically, I have a 'controller' TThread, and a 'view' TForm. The view knows the controller's handle, which it uses to send the controller messages via PostThreadMessage. I have had no problem in the past using this sort of model for forms which are not the main form, but for some reason, when I attempt to use this model for the main form, the message loop of the thread just quits. Here is my code for the threads message loop: procedure TController.Execute; var Msg : TMsg; begin while not Terminated do begin if (Integer(GetMessage(Msg, hwnd(0), 0, 0)) = -1) then begin Synchronize(Terminate); end; TranslateMessage(Msg); DispatchMessage(Msg); case Msg.message of // ...call different methods based on message end; end; To set up the controller, I do this: Controller := TController.Create(true); // Create suspended Controller.FreeOnTerminate := True; Controller.Resume; For processing the main form's messages, I have tried using both Application.Run and the following loop (immediately after Controller.Resume) while not Application.Terminated do begin Application.ProcessMessages; end; I've run stuck here - any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • database schema eligible for delta synchronization

    - by WilliamLou
    it's a question for discussion only. Right now, I need to re-design a mysql database table. Basically, this table contains all the contract records I synchronized from another database. The contract record can be modified, deleted or users can add new contract records via GUI interface. At this stage, the table structure is exactly the same as the Contract info (column: serial number, expiry date etc.). In that case, I can only synchronize the whole table (delete all old records, replace with new ones). If I want to delta(only synchronize with modified, new, deleted records) synchronize the table, how should I change the database schema? here is the method I come up with, but I need your suggestions because I think it's a common scenario in database applications. 1)introduce a sequence number concept/column: for each sequence, mark the new added records, modified records, deleted records with this sequence number. By recording the last synchronized sequence number, only pass those records with higher sequence number; 2) because deleted contracts can be added back, and the original table has primary key constraints, should I create another table for those deleted records? or add a flag column to indicate if this contract has been deleted? I hope I explain my question clearly. Anyway, if you know any articles or your own suggestions about this, please let me know. Thanks!

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  • Replacement for deprecated SQL Server User Defined Type with a bound Rule and Default

    - by Adam Jones
    We have a User Defined Data Type of YesNo which has an which is an alias for char(1). The type has a bound Rule (must be Y or N) and a Default (N). The aim of this is that when any of the development team create a new field of type YesNo the rule and default are automatically bound to the new column. Rules and Defaults have been deprecated and won't be available in the next a future version of SQL Server, is there another way to achieve the same functionality? I should add that I'm aware that I could use CHECK and DEFAULT constraints to replicate the functionality of the bound Rule and Defalut objects, however these would have to be applied at each usage of the type, rather than getting the functionality 'for free' by using a UDT which has a bound Rule and Default. The post relates to a database that backs an existing application, rather than a new development, so I'm aware that our use of UDT's is less than optimal. I suspect the answer to the question is 'No', however normally when features are deprecated there's usually an alternative syntax that can be used as a drop in replacement so I wanted to pose the question in-case someone knew of an alternative.

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  • PHP OOP: Providing Domain Entities with "Identity"

    - by sunwukung
    Bit of an abstract problem here. I'm experimenting with the Domain Model pattern, and barring my other tussles with dependencies - I need some advice on generating Identity for use in an Identity Map. In most examples for the Data Mapper pattern I've seen (including the one outlined in this book: http://apress.com/book/view/9781590599099) - the user appears to manually set the identity for a given Domain Object using a setter: $UserMapper = new UserMapper; //returns a fully formed user object from record sets $User = $UserMapper->find(1); //returns an empty object with appropriate properties for completion $UserBlank = $UserMapper->get(); $UserBlank->setId(); $UserBlank->setOtherProperties(); Now, I don't know if I'm reading the examples wrong - but in the first $User object, the $id property is retrieved from the data store (I'm assuming $id represents a row id). In the latter case, however, how can you set the $id for an object if it has not yet acquired one from the data store? The problem is generating a valid "identity" for the object so that it can be maintained via an Identity Map - so generating an arbitrary integer doesn't solve it. My current thinking is to nominate different fields for identity (i.e. email) and demanding their presence in generating blank Domain Objects. Alternatively, demanding all objects be fully formed, and using all properties as their identity...hardly efficient. (Or alternatively, dump the Domain Model concept and return to DBAL/DAO/Transaction Scripts...which is seeming increasingly elegant compared to the ORM implementations I've seen...)

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  • OutOfMemoryException

    - by Andrew
    I have an application that is pretty memory hungry. It holds a large amount of data in some big arrays. I have recently been noticing the occasional OutOfMemoryException. These OutOfMemoryExceptions are occurring long before my application (ASP.Net) has used up the 800mb available to it. I have track the issue down to the area of code where the array is resized. The array contains a structure that is 74bytes in size. (I know that you shouldn't create struct's that are bigger than 16bytes), but this application is a port from a Vb6 application). I have tried changing the struct to a class and this appears to have fixed the problem for now. I think the reason that changing to a class solves the problem has to do with the fact that when using a struct and the array is resized, a segment of memory that is large enough to store the new array needs to be reserved (e.g. (currentArraySize + increaseBySize)*74) cannot be found. This leads to the OutOfMemoryException. This isn't the case with a class as each element of the array only needs 8bytes to store a pointer to the new object. Is my thinking correct here?

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  • How to nest shapes in a DSL Tools diagram?

    - by Paul Lalonde
    I have a DSL containing two main domain classes: Area and Entity. Areas are represented visually by a GeometryShape, whereas entities are represented by a CompartmentShape. Entities can be embedded in an Area, or not (in this case they are embedded in the root object, which is a kind of Area). There may be relationships between entities, including between entities in different areas. Areas cannot be embedded inside of other areas, nor entities embedded inside of other entities. My problem is that I cannot get the behavior I want from the diagram. The embedding of entities in areas works perfectly well at the model level, but the visual representation behaves erratically. For example, if I drag an entity that was created in an area outside of that area, it no longer responds to mouse clicks (I have code that performs the re-parenting, but somehow the diagram side of things is broken). I have searched high and low for samples of how to do this, and come up empty. Every example I've found on the web simulates nesting via "references" relationships, whereas I am performing true embedding of the domain classes (and therefore of their associated shape classes). Does anyone have an example of how to do this? While I'm venting, am I the only one who thinks the diagram/shape classes are massively under-documented?

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  • SAP related testing

    - by mgj
    Dear all, One notion that has been prevalent mostly as rumours for many aspiring programmers is that the testing phase of the SDLC(Software Development Life Cycle) is not that challenging and interesting as one's job as a tester after a period of time becomes monotonous because a person does the same thing repeatedly over and over again. Thats why many have this complexion of looking for a developers job rather than that of testers. Don't testers have a space for themselves in software companies to grow..? Please feel free to express your views for or against this. How true is that, could you please give e.g.'s of instances( need not be practical, even theoretical would suffice) which actually contradict this statement wrt a tester's career specifically wrt the SAP domain. E.g.'s from other domains are also welcome. This question is not meant to hurt someone's feelings who is in the testing domain. Its just that for e.g. in my case I want to know what actually would be the challenge's a tester could also face in real life situations.Something that would make their job also interesting and fun-filled. I myself am pro-testing and also interested in pursuing testing as a profession in a sw co, just curious to know more about it so...:) Thanks..:)

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  • Convert a Relative URL to an Absolute URL in Actionscript / Flex

    - by Bear
    I am working with Flex, and I need to take a relative URL source property and convert it to an absolute URL before loading it. The specific case I am working with involves tweaking SoundEffect's load method. I need to determine if a file will be loaded from the local file system or over the network from looking at the source property, and the easiest way I've found to do this is to generate the absolute URL. I'm having trouble generating the absolute URL for sound effect in particular. Here were my initial thoughts, which haven't worked. Look for the DisplayObject that the Sound Effect targets, and use its loaderInfo property. The target is null when the SoundEffect loads, so this doesn't work. Look at FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication, at the url or loaderInfo properties. Neither of these are set, however. Look at the FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication.systemManager.loaderInfo. This was also not set. The SoundEffect.as code basically boils down to var url:String = "mySound.mp3"; /*>> I'd like to convert the URL to absolute form here and tweak it as necessary <<*/ var req:URLRequest = new URLRequest(url); var loader:Loader = new Loader(); loader.load(req); Does anyone know how to do this? Any help clarifying the rules of how relative urls are resolved for URLRequests in ActionScript would also be much appreciated. edit I would also be perfectly satisfied with some way to tell whether the url will be loaded from the local file system or over the network. Looking at an absolute URL it would just be easy to look at the prefix, like file:// or http://.

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  • How can I programmatically add more than just one view object to my view controller?

    - by BeachRunnerJoe
    I'm diving into iPhone OS development and I'm trying to understand how I can add multiple view objects to the "Left/Root" view of my SplitView iPad app. I've figured out how to programmatically add a TableView to that view based on the example code I found in Apple's online documentation... RootViewController.h @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController <NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate, UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { DetailViewController *detailViewController; UITableView *tableView; NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; } RootViewController.m - (void)loadView { UITableView *newTableView = [[UITableView alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame] style:UITableViewStylePlain]; newTableView.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight|UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth; newTableView.delegate = self; newTableView.dataSource = self; [newTableView reloadData]; self.view = newTableView; [newTableView release]; } but there are a few things I don't understand about it and I was hoping you veterans could help clear up some confusion. In the statement self.view = newTableView, I assume I'm setting the entire view to a single UITableView. If that's the case, then how can I add additional view objects to that view alongside the table view? For example, if I wanted to have a DatePicker view object and the TableView object instead of just the TableView object, then how would I programmatically add that? Referencing the code above, how can I resize the table view to make room for the DatePicker view object that I'd like to add? Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm going to continue researching these questions right now.

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  • Convert UCS-2 characters to UTF-8 Using C#

    - by quanticle
    I'm pulling some internationalized text from a MS SQL Server 2005 database. As per the defaults for that DB, the characters are stored as UCS-2. However, I need to output the data in UTF-8 format, as I'm sending it out over the web. Currently, I have the following code to convert: SqlString dbString = resultReader.GetSqlString(0); byte[] dbBytes = dbString.GetUnicodeBytes(); byte[] utf8Bytes = System.Text.Encoding.Convert(System.Text.Encoding.Unicode, System.Text.Encoding.UTF8, dbBytes); System.Text.UTF8Encoding encoder = new System.Text.UTF8Encoding(); string outputString = encoder.GetString(utf8Bytes); However, when I examine the output in the browser, it appears to be garbage, no matter what I set the encoding to. What am I missing? EDIT: In response to the answers below, the reason I thought I had to perform a conversion is because I can output literal multibyte strings just fine. For example: OutputControl.Text = "????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????"; works. Here, OutputControl is an ASP.Net Literal. However, OutputControl.Text = outputString; //Output from above snippet results in mangled output as described above. My hypothesis was that the database's output was somehow getting mangled by ASP.Net. If that's not the case, then what are some other possibilities?

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  • Apache with JBOSS using AJP (mod_jk) giving spikes in thread count.

    - by Beginner
    We used Apache with JBOSS for hosting our Application, but we found some issues related to thread handling of mod_jk. Our website comes under low traffic websites and has maximum 200-300 concurrent users during our website's peak activity time. As the traffic grows (not in terms of concurrent users, but in terms of cumulative requests which came to our server), the server stopped serving requests for long, although it didn't crash but could not serve the request till 20 mins. The JBOSS server console showed that 350 thread were busy on both servers although there was enough free memory say, more than 1-1.5 GB (2 servers for JBOSS were used which were 64 bits, 4 GB RAM allocated for JBOSS) In order to check the problem we were using JBOSS and Apache Web Consoles, and we were seeing that the thread were showing in S state for as long as minutes although our pages take around 4-5 seconds to be served. We took the thread dump and found that the threads were mostly in WAITING state which means that they were waiting indefinitely. These threads were not of our Application Classes but of AJP 8009 port. Could somebody help me in this, as somebody else might also got this issue and solved it somehow. In case any more information is required then let me know. Also is mod_proxy better than using mod_jk, or there are some other problems with mod_proxy which can be fatal for me if I switch to mod__proxy? The versions I used are as follows: Apache 2.0.52 JBOSS: 4.2.2 MOD_JK: 1.2.20 JDK: 1.6 Operating System: RHEL 4 Thanks for the help.

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  • Configuring zend to use gmail smtp: Windows Apache dev-environment: "Could not open socket" error - repeatedly - going mad

    - by confused
    My dev environment is Win XP SP2 / Apache 2.something PHP 5.something_or_other My prod env is Linux Ubuntu / Apache 2.something_else PHP 5.something_or_other_else The code is all Zend Framework Version: 1.11.1 I can telnet to: smtp.gmail.com 465 from the PC. I have Mercury configured on my PC to use gmail as it's smtp host and it works just fine. (MercuryC SMTP Client). Mercury is set to use port 465 and SSL on smtp.gmail.com -- No problem. Zend mail works just fine on my production environment using the production mail server to send out mail. It's the same basic application.ini but with different values in the mail variables. On my local PC dev setup, my application.ini contains: (same values as I use in Mercury) mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "myAccount" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.gmail.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "myPassWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I have been doing trial and error for hours trying to get a single email out with no success. In every case, regardless of server or port settings it throws an error and reports: Could not open socket. Both Apache and Mercury Core are exceptions in my Windows Firewall config. Mercury seems to be having no problem. I have searched stackoverflow before posting this and have been googling for hours -- with no success. I am slowly losing my mind I would be very much obliged for any tip as to what might be wrong. Thanks for reading. =================== BTW When I use the SAME application.ini values on my local PC as on the production host, I get the same "Could not open socket" error. Those values are: mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "otherUser" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.otherServer.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "otherPAssWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I know these work in the production (Ubuntu) environment. I'm utterly baffled.

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  • Prevent deferred creation of controls.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    Here is a test framework to show what I am doing, just create a new project add a tabbed control, on tab 1 put a button on tab 2 put a check box (default names) and paste this code for its code public partial class Form1 : Form { private List<bool> boolList = new List<bool>(); BindingSource bs = new BindingSource(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); boolList.Add(false); bs.DataSource = boolList; checkBox1.DataBindings.Add("Checked", bs, ""); } bool updating = false; private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { updating = true; boolList[0] = true; bs.ResetBindings(false); Application.DoEvents(); updating = false; } private void checkBox1_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!updating) MessageBox.Show("CheckChanged fired outside of updating"); } } The issue is if you run the program and look at tab 2 then press the button on tab 1 the program works as expected, however if you press the button on tab 1 then look at tab 2 the event for the checkbox will not fire untill you look at tab 2. The reason for this is the controll on tab 2 is not in the "created" state, so its binding to change the checkbox from unchecked to checked does not happen until after the control has been "Created". checkbox1.CreateControl() does not do anything because according to MSDN CreateControl does not create a control handle if the control's Visible property is false. You can either call the CreateHandle method or access the Handle property to create the control's handle regardless of the control's visibility, but in this case, no window handles are created for the control's children. I tried getting the value of Handle(there is no CreateHandle for Button) but still the same result. Any suggestions other than have the program quickly flash all of my tabs that have data-bound check boxes when it first loads?

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  • Add double tap action (presentModalViewController) to UISCOLLVIEW

    - by R.J.
    I have been wrestling this issue for a while now and cannot seem to get the following "touchesEnded" method to execute within a UISCROLLVIEW. I have read on many of the forums that UISCROLLVIEW will take control of all touch events unless it is subclassed, but I cannot seem to get the code right (still new to the SDK). Basically I have a scrollview made uo with several UIIMAGEVIEW's and currenlty have scrolling with paging (much like the photo app). I have been studying the SCROLLING MADDNESS example without success. All I want to do is anywhere in the UISCROLLVIEW have the user double tap to presentModalViewController back to my info page (i.e.) (void)touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { NSSet *allTouches = [event allTouches]; switch ([allTouches count]) { case 1: {// One finger touch UITouch *touch = [[allTouches allObjects] objectAtIndex:0]; if ([touch tapCount] == 2) {InfoButtonViewController *scroll = [[InfoButtonViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; scroll.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:scroll animated:YES]; [scroll release]; } } } } Any code assistance would be greatly appreciated. The UISCROLLVIEW is implemented as follows (let me know if I need to provide additional details). Thank you in advance... MyViewController.h @interface MyViewController : UIViewController { } @end

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  • web.config + asp.net MVC + location > system.web > authorization + Integrated Security

    - by vdh_ant
    Hi guys I have an ASP.Net MVC app using Integrated Security that I need to be able grant open access to a specific route. The route in question is '~/Agreements/Upload' and the config I have setup looks like this: <configuration> ... <location path="~/Agreements/Upload"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> ... </configuration> I have tried a few things and nothing has worked thus far. In IIS under Directory Security Authentication Methods I only have "Integrated Windows Authentication" selected. Now this could be part of my problem (as even though IIS allows the above IIS doesn't). But if that's the case how do I configure it so that Integrated Security works but allows people who aren't authenticated to access the given route. Cheers Anthony

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  • How is conversion of float/double to int handled in printf?

    - by Sandip
    Consider this program int main() { float f = 11.22; double d = 44.55; int i,j; i = f; //cast float to int j = d; //cast double to int printf("i = %d, j = %d, f = %d, d = %d", i,j,f,d); //This prints the following: // i = 11, j = 44, f = -536870912, d = 1076261027 return 0; } Can someone explain why the casting from double/float to int works correctly in the first case, and does not work when done in printf? This program was compiled on gcc-4.1.2 on 32-bit linux machine. EDIT: Zach's answer seems logical, i.e. use of format specifiers to figure out what to pop off the stack. However then consider this follow up question: int main() { char c = 'd'; // sizeof c is 1, however sizeof character literal // 'd' is equal to sizeof(int) in ANSI C printf("lit = %c, lit = %d , c = %c, c = %d", 'd', 'd', c, c); //this prints: lit = d, lit = 100 , c = d, c = 100 //how does printf here pop off the right number of bytes even when //the size represented by format specifiers doesn't actually match //the size of the passed arguments(char(1 byte) & char_literal(4 bytes)) return 0; } How does this work?

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  • Which linear programming package should I use for high numbers of constraints and "warm starts"

    - by davidsd
    I have a "continuous" linear programming problem that involves maximizing a linear function over a curved convex space. In typical LP problems, the convex space is a polytope, but in this case the convex space is piecewise curved -- that is, it has faces, edges, and vertices, but the edges aren't straight and the faces aren't flat. Instead of being specified by a finite number of linear inequalities, I have a continuously infinite number. I'm currently dealing with this by approximating the surface by a polytope, which means discretizing the continuously infinite constraints into a very large finite number of constraints. I'm also in the situation where I'd like to know how the answer changes under small perturbations to the underlying problem. Thus, I'd like to be able to supply an initial condition to the solver based on a nearby solution. I believe this capability is called a "warm start." Can someone help me distinguish between the various LP packages out there? I'm not so concerned with user-friendliness as speed (for large numbers of constraints), high-precision arithmetic, and warm starts. Thanks!

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