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  • onLoad focus() event within jquerytools overlay effect

    - by tomcritchlow
    Hi, I'm using the overlay jquery from here: http://flowplayer.org/tools/overlay/index.html Within my overlay I have a search box like this: <div class="simple_overlay" id="asearch"> <div id="searchbox"> <form id="amazonsearch" style='float:left;'> <input class="title" id="amazon-terms" style="width:400px;font-size:2em;"> <button class="sexybutton sexysimple sexygreen">Search</button> </form> <div id="amazon-results"></div> </div><!--seachbox--> </div><!--Overlay--> What I want to happen is when you load the overlay the search box within the overlay gains focus so you can start typing into it. I thought that this would work: $("a[rel]").overlay({ onLoad: function() { $('#amazon-terms').focus(); } }); But that doesn't seem to do anything. I know the event is firing because this works: $("a[rel]").overlay({ onLoad: function() { alert('popup opened') } }); However, when this alert fires the overlay has not yet appeared on the screen so I wonder if that is part of the problem? According to the docs onLoad should fire "when the overlay has completely been displayed" (ref) Any help appreciated! :) Thanks Tom EDIT This code does what I want it to but I'm none the wiser as to why this works when the code above doesn't.... var triggers = $("a[rel]").overlay({ closeOnClick: false, onLoad: function() { $('input').focus(); } });

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  • Basic Tomcat Servlet error.

    - by ajay
    package mypackage; import java.io.*; import javax.servlet.http.*; import javax.servlet.*; public class Hello extends HttpServlet { public void doGet (HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse res) throws ServletException, IOException { PrintWriter out = res.getWriter(); out.println("Hello, world!"); out.close(); } } web.xml file is as follows: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <web-app xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee/web-app_2_4.xsd" version="2.4"> <display-name>Hello, World Application</display-name> <description> This is a simple web application with a source code organization based on the recommendations of the Application Developer's Guide. </description> <servlet> <servlet-name>HelloServlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>mypackage.Hello</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>HelloServlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/hello</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> </web-app> I am then doing ant all , ant reload and also /etc/init.d/tomcat restart But I get this error on browser: HTTP Status 404 - /hello/ type Status report message /hello/ description The requested resource (/hello/) is not available. Apache Tomcat/6.0.26 What could be wrong?

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  • please help me with this jscroller up and jscroller endless

    - by small
    please help me to find a solution on this coding <div id="side_forums_pane" class="side_pane" style="display:none; height:330px;width:260px"> <div class="jscroller2_up jscroller2_speed-19 jscroller2_mousemove" style="height:105px;align:left;left:2px;right:2px;width:160px;overflow:hidden;"> <b style="text-decoration:underline">Coming Soon..</b><br/> Your Own Classifieds Section<hr size='1' color='silver'/> <b style="text-decoration:underline">Coming Soon..</b><br/> Your Own Classifieds Section<hr size='1' color='silver'/> <b style="text-decoration:underline">Coming Soon..</b><br/> Your Own Classifieds Section<hr size='1' color='silver'/> <b style="text-decoration:underline">Coming Soon..</b><br/> Your Own Classifieds Section<hr size='1' color='silver'/> </div> <div class="jscroller2_up_endless jscroller_speed-19"> <b style="text-decoration:underline">Coming Soon..</b><br/> Your Own Classifieds Section<hr size='1' color='silver'/> <b style="text-decoration:underline">Coming Soon..</b><br/> Your Own Classifieds Section<hr size='1' color='silver'/> <b style="text-decoration:underline">Coming Soon..</b><br/> Your Own Classifieds Section<hr size='1' color='silver'/> </div> </div>

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  • Django tests failing on invalid keyword argument

    - by Darwin Tech
    I have a models.py like so: from django.db import models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from datetime import datetime class UserProfile(models.Model): user = models.OneToOneField(User) def __unicode__(self): return self.user.username class Project(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(UserProfile) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) product = models.ForeignKey('tool.product') module = models.ForeignKey('tool.module') model = models.ForeignKey('tool.model') zipcode = models.IntegerField(max_length=5) def __unicode__(self): return unicode(self.id) And my tests.py: from django.test import TestCase, Client # --- import app models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from tool.models import Module, Model, Product from user_profile.models import Project, UserProfile # --- unit tests --- # class UserProjectTests(TestCase): fixtures = ['admin_user.json'] def setUp(self): self.product1 = Product.objects.create( name='bar', ) self.module1 = Module.objects.create( name='foo', enable=True ) self.model1 = Model.objects.create( module=self.module1, name='baz', enable=True ) self.user1 = User.objects.get(pk=1) ... def test_can_create_project(self): self.project1 = Model.objects.create( user=self.user1, product=self.product1, module=self.module1, model=self.model1, zipcode=90210 ) self.assertEquals(self.project1.zipcode, 90210) But I get a TypeError: 'product' is an invalid keyword argument for this function error. I'm not sure what is failing but I'm guessing something to do with the FK relationships... Any help would be much appreciated.

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  • How can I inject multiple repositories in a NServicebus message handler?

    - by Paco
    I use the following: public interface IRepository<T> { void Add(T entity); } public class Repository<T> { private readonly ISession session; public Repository(ISession session) { this.session = session; } public void Add(T entity) { session.Save(entity); } } public class SomeHandler : IHandleMessages<SomeMessage> { private readonly IRepository<EntityA> aRepository; private readonly IRepository<EntityB> bRepository; public SomeHandler(IRepository<EntityA> aRepository, IRepository<EntityB> bRepository) { this.aRepository = aRepository; this.bRepository = bRepository; } public void Handle(SomeMessage message) { aRepository.Add(new A(message.Property); bRepository.Add(new B(message.Property); } } public class MessageEndPoint : IConfigureThisEndpoint, AsA_Server, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { ObjectFactory.Configure(config => { config.For<ISession>() .CacheBy(InstanceScope.ThreadLocal) .TheDefault.Is.ConstructedBy(ctx => ctx.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().OpenSession()); config.ForRequestedType(typeof(IRepository<>)) .TheDefaultIsConcreteType(typeof(Repository<>)); } } My problem with the threadlocal storage is, is that the same session is used during the whole application thread. I discovered this when I saw the first level cache wasn't cleared. What I want is using a new session instance, before each call to IHandleMessages<.Handle. How can I do this with structuremap? Do I have to create a message module?

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  • List of objects or parallel arrays of properties?

    - by Headcrab
    The question is, basically: what would be more preferable, both performance-wise and design-wise - to have a list of objects of a Python class or to have several lists of numerical properties? I am writing some sort of a scientific simulation which involves a rather large system of interacting particles. For simplicity, let's say we have a set of balls bouncing inside a box so each ball has a number of numerical properties, like x-y-z-coordinates, diameter, mass, velocity vector and so on. How to store the system better? Two major options I can think of are: to make a class "Ball" with those properties and some methods, then store a list of objects of the class, e. g. [b1, b2, b3, ...bn, ...], where for each bn we can access bn.x, bn.y, bn.mass and so on; to make an array of numbers for each property, then for each i-th "ball" we can access it's 'x' coordinate as xs[i], 'y' coordinate as ys[i], 'mass' as masses[i] and so on; To me it seems that the first option represents a better design. The second option looks somewhat uglier, but might be better in terms of performance, and it could be easier to use it with numpy and scipy, which I try to use as much as I can. I am still not sure if Python will be fast enough, so it may be necessary to rewrite it in C++ or something, after initial prototyping in Python. Would the choice of data representation be different for C/C++? What about a hybrid approach, e.g. Python with C++ extension?

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  • Force compile-time linking of all classes in a SWC

    - by aaaidan
    Using Flash CS4, I am making a game that has a dozen or so sounds and a couple of music tracks. To cut down on publish/compile time, I have moved the sounds and music into an (external) SWC, which is located in a "Library Path" for the project. This works, but with a caveat... Until before I externalised the assets, I had been dynamically instantiating the Sound objects of the embedded sound by getting their classes with getDefinitionByName. // something like... var soundSubClass:Class = Class(getDefinitionByName(soundClassName)); var mySound:Sound = new soundSubClass(); But now that they're located in an external SWC, I need to have "concrete" references to the classes in order to load them like this, otherwise they are not included in the published SWF, and there is a runtime error when getDefinitionByName tries to get a class that doesn't exist. So, my question: in Flash Professional CS4, is there any way to force a library's assets to be included, regardless of whether they are statically linked? FlashDevelop has a compiler option "SWC Include Libraries", which is exactly what I want, and is distinct from the "SWC Libraries" option. The description of the "SWC Include Libraries" option is "Links all classes inside a SWC file to the resulting application SWF file, regardless of whether or not they are used." (Also, it's important to me that all the assets are contained within the one compiled SWF. Linking at runtime isn't what I'm after.)

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  • Multiple user roles in Ruby on Rails

    - by aguynamedloren
    I am building an inventory management application with four different user types: admin, employee, manufacturer, transporter. I haven't started coding yet, but this is what I'm thinking.. Manufacturers and transporters are related with has_many :through many-to-many association with products as follows: class Manufacturer < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :products has_many :transporters, :through => :products end class Product < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :manufacturer belongs_to :transporter end class Transporter < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :products has_many :manufacturers, :through => :products end All four user types will be able to login, but they will have different permissions and views, etc. I don't think I can put them in the same table (Users), however, because they will have different requirements, ie: vendors and manufacturers must have a billing address and contact info (through validations), but admins and employees should not have these fields. If possible, I would like to have a single login screen as opposed to 4 different screens. I'm not asking for the exact code to build this, but I'm having trouble determining the best way to make it happen. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated - thanks!

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  • Passing two variables to separate table...associations problem

    - by bgadoci
    I have developed an application and I seem to be having some problems with my associations. I have the following: class User < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_authentic has_many :questions, :dependent => :destroy has_many :sites , :dependent => :destroy end Questions class Question < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :sites, :dependent => :destroy has_many :notes, :through => :sites belongs_to :user end Sites (think of this as answers to questions) class Site < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_voteable :vote_counter => true belongs_to :question belongs_to :user has_many :notes, :dependent => :destroy has_many :likes, :dependent => :destroy has_attached_file :photo, :styles => { :small => "250x250>" } validates_presence_of :name, :description end When a Site (answer) is created I am successfully passing the question_id to the Sites table but I can't figure out how to also pass the user_id. Here is my SitesController#create def create @question = Question.find(params[:question_id]) @site = @question.sites.create!(params[:site]) respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(@question) } format.js end end

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  • How to get rid of void-pointers.

    - by Patrick
    I inherited a big application that was originally written in C (but in the mean time a lot of C++ was also added to it). Because of historical reasons, the application contains a lot of void-pointers. Before you start to choke, let me explain why this was done. The application contains many different data structures, but they are stored in 'generic' containers. Nowadays I would use templated STL containers for it, or I would give all data structures a common base class, so that the container can store pointers to the base class, but in the [good?] old C days, the only solution was to cast the struct-pointer to a void-pointer. Additionally, there is a lot of code that works on these void-pointers, and uses very strange C constructions to emulate polymorphism in C. I am now reworking the application, and trying to get rid of the void-pointers. Adding a common base-class to all the data structures isn't that hard (few days of work), but the problem is that the code is full of constructions like shown below. This is an example of how data is stored: void storeData (int datatype, void *data); // function prototype ... Customer *myCustomer = ...; storeData (TYPE_CUSTOMER, myCustomer); This is an example of how data is fetched again: Customer *myCustomer = (Customer *) fetchData (int datatype, char *key); I actually want to replace all the void-pointers with some smart-pointer (reference-counted), but I can't find a trick to automate (or at least) help me to get rid of all the casts to and from void-pointers. Any tips on how to find, replace, or interact in any possible way with these conversions?

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  • Hibernate triggering constraint violations using orphanRemoval

    - by ptomli
    I'm having trouble with a JPA/Hibernate (3.5.3) setup, where I have an entity, an "Account" class, which has a list of child entities, "Contact" instances. I'm trying to be able to add/remove instances of Contact into a List<Contact> property of Account. Adding a new instance into the set and calling saveOrUpdate(account) persists everything lovely. If I then choose to remove the contact from the list and again call saveOrUpdate, the SQL Hibernate seems to produce involves setting the account_id column to null, which violates a database constraint. What am I doing wrong? The code below is clearly a simplified abstract but I think it covers the problem as I'm seeing the same results in different code, which really is about this simple. SQL: CREATE TABLE account ( INT account_id ); CREATE TABLE contact ( INT contact_id, INT account_id REFERENCES account (account_id) ); Java: @Entity class Account { @Id @Column public Long id; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id") public List<Contact> contacts; } @Entity class Contact { @Id @Column public Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id", nullable = false) public Account account; } Account account = new Account(); Contact contact = new Contact(); account.contacts.add(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); // some time later, like another servlet request.... account.contacts.remove(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); Result: UPDATE contact SET account_id = null WHERE contact_id = ? Edit #1: It might be that this is actually a bug http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-5091

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  • autocommit and @Transactional and Cascading with spring, jpa and hibernate

    - by subes
    Hi, what I would like to accomplish is the following: have autocommit enabled so per default all queries get commited if there is a @Transactional on a method, it overrides the autocommit and encloses all queries into a single transaction, thus overriding the autocommit if there is a @Transactional method that calls other @Transactional annotated methods, the outer most annotation should override the inner annotaions and create a larger transaction, thus annotations also override eachother I am currently still learning about spring-orm and couldn't find documentation about this and don't have a test project for this yet. So my questions are: What is the default behaviour of transactions in spring? If the default differs from my requirement, is there a way to configure my desired behaviour? Or is there a totally different best practice for transactions? --EDIT-- I have the following test-setup: @javax.persistence.Entity public class Entity { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; private String name; public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } @Repository public class Dao { @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; public void insert(Entity ent) { em.persist(ent); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public List<Entity> selectAll() { List<Entity> ents = em.createQuery("select e from " + Entity.class.getName() + " e").getResultList(); return ents; } } If I have it like this, even with autocommit enabled in hibernate, the insert method does nothing. I have to add @Transactional to the insert or the method calling insert for it to work... Is there a way to make @Transactional completely optional?

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  • Struggling with a data modeling problem

    - by rpat
    I am struggling with a data model (I use MySQL for the database). I am uneasy about what I have come up with. If someone could suggest a better approach, or point me to some reference matter I would appreciate it. The data would have organizations of many types. I am trying to do a 3 level classification (Class, Category, Type). Say if I have 'Italian Restaurant', it will have the following classification Food Services Restaurants Italian However, an organization may belong to multiple groups. A restaurant may also serve Chinese and Italian. So it will fit into 2 classifications Food Services Restaurants Italian Food Services Restaurants Chinese The classification reference tables would be like the following: ORG_CLASS (RowId, ClassCode, ClassName) 1, FOOD, Food Services ORG_CATEGORY(RowId, ClassCode, CategoryCode, CategoryName) 1, FOOD, REST, Restaurants ORG_TYPE (RowId, ClassCode, CategoryCode, TypeCode, TypeName) 100, FOOD, REST, ITAL, Italian 101, FOOD, REST, CHIN, Chinese 102, FOOD, REST, SPAN, Spanish 103, FOOD, REST, MEXI, Mexican 104, FOOD, REST, FREN, French 105, FOOD, REST, MIDL, Middle Eastern The actual data tables would be like the following: I will allow an organization a max of 3 classifications. I will have 3 GroupIds each pointing to a row in ORG_TYPE. So I have my ORGANIZATION_TABLE ORGANIZATION_TABLE (OrgGroupId1, OrgGroupId2, OrgGroupId3, OrgName, OrgAddres) 100,103,NULL,MyRestaurant1, MyAddr1 100,102,NULL,MyRestaurant2, MyAddr2 100,104,105, MyRestaurant3, MyAddr3 During data add, a dialog could let the user choose the clssa, category, type and the corresponding GroupId could be populated with the rowid from the ORG_TYPE table. During Search, If all three classification are chosen, It will be more specific. For example, if Food Services Restaurants Italian is the criteria, the where clause would be 'where OrgGroupId1 = 100' If only 2 levels are chosen Food Services Restaurants I have to do 'where OrgGroupId1 in (100,101,102,103,104,105, .....)' - There could be a hundred in that list I will disallow class level search. That is I will force selection of a class and category The Ids would be integers. I am trying to see performance issues and other issues. Overall, would this work? or I need to throw this out and start from scratch.

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  • Tips on managing dependencies for a release?

    - by Andrew Murray
    Our system comprises many .NET websites, class libraries, and a MSSQL database. We use SVN for source control and TeamCity to automatically build to a Test server. Our team is normally working on 4 or 5 projects at a time. We try to lump many changes into a largish rollout every 2-4 weeks. My problem is with keeping track of all the dependencies for a rollout. Example: Website A cannot go live until we've rolled out Branch X of Class library B, built in turn against the Trunk of Class library C, which needs Config Updates Y and Z and Database Update D, which needs Migration Script E... It gets even more complex - like making sure each developer's project is actually compatible with the others and are building against the same versions. Yes, this is a management issue as much as a technical issue. Currently our non-optimal solution is: a whiteboard listing features that haven't gone live yet relying on our memory and intuition when planning the rollout, until we're pretty sure we've thought of everything... a dry-run on our Staging environment. It's a good indication but we're often not sure if Staging is 100% in sync with Live - part of the problem I'm hoping to solve. some amount of winging it on rollout day. So far so good, minus a few close calls. But as our system grows, I'd like a more scientific release management system allowing for more flexibility, like being able to roll out a single change or bugfix on it's own, safe in the knowledge that it won't break anything else. I'm guessing the best solution involves some sort of version numbering system, and perhaps using a project management tool. We're a start-up, so we're not too hot on religiously sticking to rigid processes, but we're happy to start, providing it doesn't add more overhead than it's worth. I'd love to hear advice from other teams who have solved this problem.

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  • Problem with JSTL and weblogic

    - by Jeune
    I get the following error when I run my java ee app on weblogic, javax.servlet.jsp.el.ELException: Cannot find PropertyDescriptor for 'name' for bean 'class java.lang.String' I want to print a list of artists with the following class, public class Artist { private int id; private String name; private String genre; public Artist() { } public Artist(String name){ this.name=name; } public void setId(int id) { this.id = id; } public int getId() { return id; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } public String getName() { return name; } public String getGenre() { return genre; } public void setGenre(String genre) { this.genre = genre; } } The following lines of code seem to be causing the problem because when I remove it I don't get the error anymore. <c:forEach items="artists" var="artist"> <c:out value="${artist.name}"></c:out><br/> </c:forEach> When I use PrintWriter to print, it works: for (Artist artist:artists){ resp.getWriter().println(artist.getName()); } I am using java ee 2.4 and weblogic 9.2

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  • Spring factory beans not always initialised before being used.

    - by aos
    Hi, I am using spring to initialise my beans. I have configured a bean which I intend to use as a factory bean. <bean id="jsServicesFactory" class="x.y.z.JSServicesFactory" /> It is a very basic class - which has 4 getter methods. One example is public final PortletRegistry getPortletRegistry() { PortletRegistry registry = (PortletRegistry) JetspeedPortletServices .getSingleton().getService("PortletRegistryComponent"); return registry; } I have a 2nd bean which uses this factory beans to set one of its properties <bean id="batchManagerService" class="x.y.z.BatchManagerService"> ... <property name="portletRegistry"> <bean factory-bean="jsServicesFactory" factory-method="getPortletRegistry" /> </property> ... When I start my server in RAD, this all works perfectly. However when I deploy to Linux I sometimes get the following error ERROR org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader - Context initialization failed org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'batchManagerService' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/context/root/batchManagerContext.xml]: Cannot create inner bean 'jsServicesFactory$created#70be70be' while setting bean property 'portletRegistry'; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'jsServicesFactory$created#70be70be' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/context/root/batchManagerContext.xml]: Instantiation of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Factory method [public final org.apache.jetspeed.components.portletregistry.PortletRegistry x.y.z.JSServicesFactory.getPortletRegistry()] threw exception; nested exception is java.lang.NullPointerException I have tried adding depends-on="jsServicesFactory" to my bean batchManagerService but it didn't work. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • List.Sort in C#: comparer being called with null object

    - by cbp
    I am getting strange behaviour using the built-in C# List.Sort function with a custom comparer. For some reason it sometimes calls the comparer class's Compare method with a null object as one of the parameters. But if I check the list with the debugger there are no null objects in the collection. My comparer class looks like this: public class DelegateToComparer<T> : IComparer<T> { private readonly Func<T,T,int> _comparer; public int Compare(T x, T y) { return _comparer(x, y); } public DelegateToComparer(Func<T, T, int> comparer) { _comparer = comparer; } } This allows a delegate to be passed to the List.Sort method, like this: mylist.Sort(new DelegateToComparer<MyClass>( (x, y) => { return x.SomeProp.CompareTo(y.SomeProp); }); So the above delegate will throw a null reference exception for the x parameter, even though no elements of mylist are null. UPDATE: Yes I am absolutely sure that it is parameter x throwing the null reference exception! UPDATE: Instead of using the framework's List.Sort method, I tried a custom sort method (i.e. new BubbleSort().Sort(mylist)) and the problem went away. As I suspected, the List.Sort method passes null to the comparer for some reason.

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  • Should i use a trigger or Behaviors for this?

    - by Michael
    I have an abstract object called Applicant and two different types of objects that inherit from Applicant called Business and Individual. So I have three classes that look like this: public abstract class Applicant { ... } public class Individual : Applicant { ... } public class Business : Applicant { ... } Now in the DataGrid I want to show all the details of Applicant object. When you choose a row I want to show details of either the business or individual as a internal grid. Something like this <DataGrid> <DataGrid.Columns> <!--Show different columns --> </DataGrid.Columns> <DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> <!--Show if Individual --> <DataGrid> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header="First Name" ... /> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Last Name" ... /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> <!--Show if business --> <DataGrid> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Business Name" ... /> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Tax id" ... /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> </DataGrid> Now I'm not sure if I need to use a Triggers or Behaviors to accomplish this? Thanks for everyones help! FYI I'm using Silverlight 4.0 with Prism.

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  • How to construct LambdaExpression with conversion

    - by nerijus
    I need to sort in ajax response grid by column name. Column value is number stored as a string. Let's say some trivial class (in real-life situation there is no possibility to modify this class): class TestObject { public TestObject(string v) { this.Value = v; } public string Value { get; set; } } then simple test: [Test] public void LambdaConstructionTest() { var queryable = new List<TestObject> { new TestObject("5"), new TestObject("55"), new TestObject("90"), new TestObject("9"), new TestObject("09"), new TestObject("900"), }.AsQueryable(); var sortingColumn = "Value"; ParameterExpression parameter = Expression.Parameter(queryable.ElementType); MemberExpression property = Expression.Property(parameter, sortingColumn); //// tried this one: var c = Expression.Convert(property, typeof(double)); LambdaExpression lambda = Expression.Lambda(property, parameter); //// constructs: o=>o.Value var callExpression = Expression.Call(typeof (Double), "Parse", null, property); var methodCallExpression = Expression.Call( typeof(Queryable), "OrderBy", new[] { queryable.ElementType, property.Type }, queryable.Expression, Expression.Quote(lambda)); // works, but sorts by string values. //Expression.Quote(callExpression)); // getting: System.ArgumentException {"Quoted expression must be a lambda"} var querable = queryable.Provider.CreateQuery<TestObject>(methodCallExpression); // return querable; // <- this is the return of what I need. } Sorry for not being clear in my first post as @SLaks answer was correct but I do not know how to construct correct lambda expression in this case.

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  • Print a string that contains a certain pattern in Java

    - by jjpotter
    I am trying to find a regular expression within a line of a .csv file, so I can eventually save all the matches to another file, and lose all the other junk. So a line in my file might look like: MachineName,User,IP,VariableData,Location The VariableData is what I want to match, and if there's a match, print the line. I am using a pattern for this because I only want 3 out of 10 of variations of VariableData, and out of those 3, they are numbered differently(example, "pc104, pccrt102, pccart65"). I am trying to do this using the Scanner Class and keeping it simple as possible so I can understand it. Here is where I was heading with this...(the pattern isn't complete, just have it like this for testing). import java.io.File; import java.util.Scanner; import java.util.regex.Pattern; public class pcv { public static void main(String[] args) { File myFile = new File("c:\\temp\\report.csv"); Pattern myPat = Pattern.compile("pc"); try{ Scanner myScan = new Scanner(myFile); while(myScan.hasNext()){ if(myScan.hasNext(myPat)){ System.out.println("Test"); } } }catch(Exception e){ } } } This code loops, im guessing the .hasNext() methods are resetting themselves. I've played around with the Matcher class a little bit, but only found a way to match the expression but not get the whole line. My other throught was maybe somehow count the line that contains the pattern, then go back and print the line that corresponds to the counts.

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  • Quering container with Linq + group by ?

    - by Prix
    public class ItemList { public int GuID { get; set; } public int ItemID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public entityType Status { get; set; } public class Waypoint { public int Zone { get; set; } public int SubID { get; set; } public int Heading { get; set; } public float PosX { get; set; } public float PosY { get; set; } public float PosZ { get; set; } } public List<Waypoint> Routes = new List<Waypoint>(); } I have a list of items using the above class and now I need to group it by ItemID and join the first entry of Routes of each iqual ItemID. So for example, let's say on my list I have: GUID ItemID ListOfRoutes 1 23 first entry only 2 23 first entry only 3 23 first entry only 4 23 first entry only 5 23 first entry only 6 23 first entry only 7 23 first entry only Means I have to group entries 1 to 7 as 1 Item with all the Routes entries. So I would have one ItemID 23 with 7 Routes on it where those routes are the first element of that given GUID Routes List. My question is if it is possible using LINQ to make a statment to do something like that this: var query = from ItemList entry in myList where status.Contains(entry.Status) group entry by entry.ItemID into result select new { items = new { ID = entry.ItemID, Name = entry.Name }, routes = from ItemList m in entry group m.Routes.FirstOrDefault() by n.NpcID into m2 }; So basicly I would have list of unique IDS information with a inner list of all the first entry of each GUID route that had the same ItemID.

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  • Overridden button control escaping content. How to stop it?

    - by RemotecUk
    Hi, I've got an ASP.Net button control that I have overridden to provide different functionality. the code looks as follows.. I'm overriding the Render method to surround the control with an <a>... /// <summary> /// Render Method /// </summary> /// <param name="writer"></param> protected override void Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) { base.CssClass = "euva-button-decorated"; writer.Write("<a class=\"euva-button\">"); base.Render(writer); writer.Write("</a>"); } When I check the generated source on the page, I find that where ASP.Net has injected its click handler it does the following... <a class="euva-button"><input type="submit" name="TestButton" value="Test Button" onclick="clickOnce(this);WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions(&quot;TestButton&quot;, &quot;&quot;, true, &quot;&quot;, &quot;&quot;, false, false))" id="TestButton" class="euva-button-decorated" /></a> ... it seems to be escaping the output for the double quotes which means that the browser cannot understand the javascript. How do I make the render method not escape the injected ASP.Net client click handler ?? Note I also have my own client click handler which is declared declaratively in the page mark-up.

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  • Deserializing a FileStream on Client using WCF

    - by Grandpappy
    I'm very new to WCF, so I apologize in advance if I misstate something. This is using .NET 4.0 RC1. Using WCF, I am trying to deserialize a response from the server. The base response has a Stream as its only MessageBodyMember. public abstract class StreamedResponse { [MessageBodyMember] public Stream Stream { get; set; } public StreamedResponse() { this.Stream = Stream.Null; } } The derived versions of this class are actually what's serialized, but they don't have a MessageBodyMember attribute (they have other base types such as int, string, etc listed as MessageHeader values). [MessageContract] public class ChildResponse : StreamedResponse { [DataMember] [MessageHeader] public Guid ID { get; set; } [DataMember] [MessageHeader] public string FileName { get; set; } [DataMember] [MessageHeader] public long FileSize { get; set; } public ChildResponse() : base() { } } The Stream is always a FileStream, in my specific case (but may not always be). At first, WCF said FileStream was not a known type, so I added it to the list of known types and now it serializes. It also appears, at first glance, to deserialize it on the client's side (it's the FileStream type). The problem is that it doesn't seem to be usable. All the CanRead, CanWrite, etc are false, and the Length, Position, etc properties throw exceptions when being used. Same with ReadByte(). What am I missing that would keep me from getting a valid FileStream?

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  • objective C architecture question

    - by thekevinscott
    Hey folks, I'm currently teaching myself objective C. I've gone through the tutorials, but I find I learn best when slogging through a project of my own, so I've embarked on making a backgammon app. Now that I'm partway in, I'm realizing there's some overall architecture things I just don't understand. I've established a "player" class, a "piece" class, and a "board" class. A piece theoretically belongs to both a player and the board. For instance, a player has a color, and every turn makes a move; so the player owns his pieces. At the same time, when moving a piece, it has to check whether it's a valid move, whether there are pieces on the board, etc. From my reading it seems like it's frowned upon to reach across classes. For instance, when a player makes a move, where should the function live that moves the piece? Should it exist on board? This would be my instinct, as the board should decide whether a move is valid or not; but the piece needs to initialize that query, as its the one being moved, no? Any info to help a noob would be super appreciated. Thanks guys!

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  • Data Binding to an object in C#

    - by Allen
    Objective-c/cocoa offers a form of binding where a control's properties (ie text in a textbox) can be bound to the property of an object. I am trying to duplicate this functionality in C# w/ .Net 3.5. I have created the following very simple class in the file MyClass.cs: class MyClass { private string myName; public string MyName { get { return myName; } set { myName = value; } } public MyClass() { myName = "Allen"; } } I also created a simple form with 1 textbox and 1 button. I init'd one instance of Myclass inside the form code and built the project. Using the DataSource Wizard in Vs2008, i selected to create a data source based on object, and selected the MyClass assembly. This created a datasource entity. I changed the databinding of the textbox to this datasource; however, the expected result (that the textbox's contents would be "allen") was not achieved. Further, putting text into the textbox is not updating the name property of the object. I know i'm missing something fundamental here. At some point i should have to tie my instance of the MyClass class that i initialized inside the form code to the textbox, but that hasn't occurred. Everything i've looked at online seems to gloss over using DataBinding with an object (or i'm missing the mark entirely), so any help is great appreciated. ----Edit--- Utilizing what i learned by the answers, i looked at the code generated by Visual Studio, it had the following: this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = typeof(BindingTest.MyClass); if i comment that out and substitute : this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = new MyClass(); i get the expected behavior. Why is the default code generated by VS like it is? Assuming this is more correct than the method that works, how should i modify my code to work within the bounds of what VS generated?

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