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• Database and logic layer for ASP.NET MVC application

  - by Ismail

  I'm going to start a new project which is going to be small initially but may grow to big over the years. I'm strongly convinced that I'm going to use ASP.NET MVC with jQuery for UI. I want to go for MySQL as database for some reasons but worried on few things. I've a good years of experience working on SQL Server databases and on one project I've had a bad experience creating and managing stored procedures on MySQL database. I'm totally new to Linq but I see that it is easier to use once you are familiar with it. First thing is that accessing data should be easy. So I thought I should use MySQL to Linq but somewhere I read that it is not directly supported but MySQL .NET connector adds support for EntityFramework. I don't know what are the pros and cons of it. I would love if I can implement repository pattern as it allows to apply filter in logic layer rather than in data access layer. Will it be possible if I use Entity Framework? I'm not clear on how I should go about all this or I should just forget every thing and directly use SQL to Linq on SQL Server. I'm also concerned about the performance. Someone told me that if we use Entity framework it fetches lot of data and then filter it. Is that right? So questions basically are - Is MySQL to Linq possible? If yes where can I get more details on it? Pros and cons of using EntityFramework with MySQL? Will it be easy to access data using EntityFramework with MySQL? Will I be able to implement repository patter which allows applying filter in logic layer rather than data access layer (when I use EntityFramework with MySQL) Does it fetches hell lot of data from database and then apply filter on it? If it sounds too many questions from my side in that case, if you can just let me know what you will do (with a considerable reason) in this situation as an experienced person in this area, that should answer my question.

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• How to use symbols/punctuation characters in discriminated unions

  - by user343550

  I'm trying to create a discriminated union for part of speech tags and other labels returned by a natural language parser. It's common to use either strings or enums for these in C#/Java, but discriminated unions seem more appropriate in F# because these are distinct, read-only values. In the language reference, I found that this symbol ``...`` can be used to delimit keywords/reserved words. This works for type ArgumentType = | A0 // subject | A1 // indirect object | A2 // direct object | A3 // | A4 // | A5 // | AA // | ``AM-ADV`` However, the tags contain symbols like $, e.g. type PosTag = | CC // Coordinating conjunction | CD // Cardinal Number | DT // Determiner | EX // Existential there | FW // Foreign Word | IN // Preposision or subordinating conjunction | JJ // Adjective | JJR // Adjective, comparative | JJS // Adjective, superlative | LS // List Item Marker | MD // Modal | NN // Noun, singular or mass | NNP // Proper Noun, singular | NNPS // Proper Noun, plural | NNS // Noun, plural | PDT // Predeterminer | POS // Possessive Ending | PRP // Personal Pronoun | PRP$ //$ Possessive Pronoun | RB // Adverb | RBR // Adverb, comparative | RBS // Adverb, superlative | RP // Particle | SYM // Symbol | TO // to | UH // Interjection | VB // Verb, base form | VBD // Verb, past tense | VBG // Verb, gerund or persent participle | VBN // Verb, past participle | VBP // Verb, non-3rd person singular present | VBZ // Verb, 3rd person singular present | WDT // Wh-determiner | WP // Wh-pronoun | WP$ //$ Possessive wh-pronoun | WRB // Wh-adverb | ``#`` | ``$`` | ``''`` | ``(`` | ``)`` | ``,`` | ``.`` | ``:`` | `` //not sure how to escape/delimit this ``...`` isn't working for WP$ or symbols like ( Also, I have the interesting problem that the parser returns `` as a meaningful symbol, so I need to escape it as well. Is there some other way to do this, or is this just not possible with a discriminated union? Right now I'm getting errors like Invalid namespace, module, type or union case name Discriminated union cases and exception labels must be uppercase identifiers I suppose I could somehow override toString for these goofy cases and replace the symbols with some alphanumeric equivalent?

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• Need help running Python app as service in Ubuntu with Upstart

  - by GreeenGuru

  I have written a logging application in Python that is meant to start at boot, but I've been unable to start the app with Ubuntu's Upstart init daemon. When run from the terminal with sudo /usr/local/greeenlog/main.pyw, the application works perfectly. Here is what I've tried for the Upstart job: /etc/init/greeenlog.conf # greeenlog description "I log stuff." start on startup stop on shutdown script exec /usr/local/greeenlog/main.pyw end script My application starts one child thread, in case that is important. I've tried the job with the expect fork stanza without any change in the results. I've also tried this with sudo and without the script statements (just a lone exec statement). In all cases, after boot, running status greeenlog returns greeenlog stop/waiting and running start greeenlog returns: start: Rejected send message, 1 matched rules; type="method_call", sender=":1.61" (uid=1000 pid=2496 comm="start) interface="com.ubuntu.Upstart0_6.Job" member="Start" error name="(unset)" requested_reply=0 destination="com.ubuntu.Upstart" (uid=0 pid=1 comm="/sbin/init")) Can anyone see what I'm doing wrong? I appreciate any help you can give. Thanks.

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• Can I interrupt javascript code and then continue on a keystroke?

  - by Brian Ramsay

  I am porting an old game from C to Javascript. I have run into an issue with display code where I would like to have the main game code call display methods without having to worry about how those status messages are displayed. In the original code, if the message is too long, the program just waits for the player to toggle through the messages with the spacebar and then continues. This doesn't work in javascript, because while I wait for an event, all of the other program code continues. I had thought to use a callback so that further code can execute when the player hits the designated key, but I can't see how that will be viable with a lot of calls to display.update(msg) scattered throughout the code. Can I architect things differently so the event-based, asynchronous model works, or is there some other solution that would allow me to implement a more traditional event loop? Am I making sense? Example: // this is what the original code does, but obviously doesn't work in Javascript display = { update : function(msg) { // if msg is too long // wait for user input // ok, we've got input, continue } }; // this is more javascript-y... display = { update : function(msg, when_finished) { // show part of the message $(document).addEvent('keydown', function(e) { // display the rest of the message when_finished(); }); } }; // but makes for amazingly nasty game code do_something(param, function() { // in case do_something calls display I have to // provide a callback for everything afterwards // this happens next, but what if do_the_next_thing needs to call display? // I have to wait again do_the_next_thing(param, function() { // now I have to do this again, ad infinitum } }

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• Loading Native library to external Package in Eclipse not working. is it a Bug?

  - by TacB0sS

  I was about to report a but to Eclipse, but I was thinking to give this a chance here first: If I add an external package, the application cannot find the referenced native library, except in the case specified at the below: If my workspace consists of a single project, and I import an external package 'EX_package.jar' from a folder outside of the project folder, I can assign a folder to the native library location via: mouse over package - right click - properties - Native Library - Enter your folder. This does not work. In runtime the application does not load the library, System.mapLibraryName(Path) also does not work. Further more, if I create a User Library, and add the package to it and define a folder for the native library it still does not. If it works for you then I have a major bug since it does not work on my computer I test this in any combination I could think of, including adding the path to the windows PATH parameter, and so many other ways I can't even start to remember, nothing worked, I played with this for hours and had a colleague try to assist me, but we both came up empty. Further more, if I have a main project that is dependent on few other projects in my workspace, and they all need to use the same 'EX_package.jar' I MUST supply a HARD COPY INTO EACH OF THEM, it will ONLY (I can't stress the ONLYNESS, I got freaked out by this) work if I have a hard copy of the package in ALL of the project folders that the main project has a dependency on, and ONLY if I configure the Native path in each of them!! This also didn't do the trick. please tell me there is a solution to this, this drives me nuts... Thanks, Adam Zehavi.

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• Is it legal to extend the Class class?

  - by spiralganglion

  I've been writing a system that generates some templates, and then generates some objects based on those templates. I had the idea that the templates could be extensions of the Class class, but that resulted in some magnificent errors: VerifyError: Error #1107: The ABC data is corrupt, attempt to read out of bounds. What I'm wondering is if subclassing Class is even possible, if there is perhaps some case where doing this would be appropriate, and not just a gross misuse of OOP. I believe it should be possible, as ActionScript allows you to create variables of the Class type. This use is described in the LiveDocs entry for Class, yet I've seen no mentions of subclassing Class. Here's a pseudocode example: class Foo extends Class var a:Foo = new Foo(); trace(a is Class) // true, right? var b = new a(); I have no idea what the type of b would be. In summary: can you subclass the Class class? If so, how can you do it without errors, and what type are the instances of the instances of the Class subclass?

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• My android tests don't get internet access!

  - by Malachii

  The subject says it all. My application gets internet access thanks to the android.permission.INTERNET permission, but my test cases don't while using the instrumentation test runner. This means I can't test my server IO routines in my test cases. What's up? Here's my manifest in case it helps you. Thanks! Sorry about the lack of indents - could not get it working on short notice with this site. Thanks! <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.example.helloandroid" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0"> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"></uses-permission> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <uses-library android:name="android.test.runner" /> <activity android:name=".HelloAndroid" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="2" /> <instrumentation android:name="android.test.InstrumentationTestRunner" android:targetPackage="qnext.mobile.redirect" android:label="Qnext Redirect Tests" /> </manifest>

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• Is Google the only OpenID provider that requires "identifier_select"?

  - by Skrat

  I am developing an OpenID consumer in PHP and am using the fantastic LightOpenID library (http://gitorious.org/lightopenid). Basing my code off of that found in the example client script I have successfully created a consumer. However, I've run across a snag: Google requires the openid.identity and openid.claimed_id to be set to "http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0/identifier_select" (see here). If I do that it works but other providers (i.e. AOL) don't. Here are my questions: Is Google a corner case –– is it the only OpenID provider where identifier_select is required, contrary to the OpenID specs? Is there a shortcoming in the LightOpenID library? Is my understanding of how OpenID works incorrect? If Google is not the only provider that requires identifier_select are there a finite number of them which I'll just hardcode in, or is there someway to determine this through the OpenID spec? I'm new to the internals of OpenID so I wouldn't be surprised if this is a dumb question. I haven't been able to find any info on this subject after scouring the Internet.

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• Wait on multiple condition variables on Linux without unnecessary sleeps?

  - by Joseph Garvin

  I'm writing a latency sensitive app that in effect wants to wait on multiple condition variables at once. I've read before of several ways to get this functionality on Linux (apparently this is builtin on Windows), but none of them seem suitable for my app. The methods I know of are: Have one thread wait on each of the condition variables you want to wait on, which when woken will signal a single condition variable which you wait on instead. Cycling through multiple condition variables with a timed wait. Writing dummy bytes to files or pipes instead, and polling on those. #1 & #2 are unsuitable because they cause unnecessary sleeping. With #1, you have to wait for the dummy thread to wake up, then signal the real thread, then for the real thread to wake up, instead of the real thread just waking up to begin with -- the extra scheduler quantum spent on this actually matters for my app, and I'd prefer not to have to use a full fledged RTOS. #2 is even worse, you potentially spend N * timeout time asleep, or your timeout will be 0 in which case you never sleep (endlessly burning CPU and starving other threads is also bad). For #3, pipes are problematic because if the thread being 'signaled' is busy or even crashes (I'm in fact dealing with separate process rather than threads -- the mutexes and conditions would be stored in shared memory), then the writing thread will be stuck because the pipe's buffer will be full, as will any other clients. Files are problematic because you'd be growing it endlessly the longer the app ran. Is there a better way to do this? Curious for answers appropriate for Solaris as well.

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• Using SiteMesh with RequestDispatcher's forward()

  - by Rob Hruska

  I'm attempting to integrate SiteMesh into a legacy application using Tomcat 5 as my a container. I have a main.jsp that I'm decorating with a simple decorator. In decorators.xml, I've just got one decorator defined: <decorators defaultdir="/decorators"> <decorator name="layout-main" page="layout-main.jsp"> <pattern>/jsp/main.jsp</pattern> </decorator> </decorators> This decorator works if I manually go to http://example.com/my-webapp/jsp/main.jsp. However, there are a few places where a servlet, instead of doing a redirect to a jsp, does a forward: getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/jsp/main.jsp").forward(request, response); This means that the URL remains at something like http://example.com/my-webapp/servlet/MyServlet instead of the jsp file and is therefore not being decorated, I presume since it doesn't match the pattern in decorators.xml. I can't do a <pattern>/*</pattern> because there are other jsps that do not need to be decorated by layout-main.jsp. I can't do a <pattern>/servlet/MyServlet*</pattern> because MyServlet may forward to main.jsp sometimes and perhaps error.jsp at other times. Is there a way to work around this without expansive changes to how the servlets work? Since it's a legacy app I don't have as much freedom to change things, so I'm hoping for something configuration-wise that will fix this. SiteMesh's documentation really isn't that great. I've been working mostly off the example application that comes with the distribution. I really like SiteMesh, and am hoping I can get it to work in this case.

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• NSFetchedResultsController sections localized sorted

  - by Gerd

  How could I use the NSFetchedResultsController with translated sort key and sectionKeyPath? Problem: I have ID in the property "type" in the database like typeA, typeB, typeC,... and not the value directly because it should be localized. In English typeA=Bird, typeB=Cat, typeC=Dog in German it would be Vogel, Katze, Hund. With a NSFetchedResultController with sort key and sectionKeyPath on "type" I receive the order and sections - typeA - typeB - typeC Next I translate for display and everything is fine in English: - Bird - Cat - Dog Now I switch to German and receive a wrong sort order - Vogel - Katze - Hund because it still sorts by typeA, typeB, typeC So I'm looking for a way to localize the sort for the NSFetchedResultsController. I tried the transient property approach, but this doesn't work for the sort key because the sort key need to be in the entity. I have no other idea. But I can't believe that's not possible to use NSFetchedResultsController on a derived attribute required for localization? There are related discussions like http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1384345/using-custom-sections-with-nsfetchedresultscontroller but the difference is that the custom section names and the sort key have probably the same order. Not in my case and this is the main difference. At the end I would need a sort order for the necessary NSSortDescriptor on a derived attribute, I guess. This sort order has also to serve for the sectionKeyPath. Thanks for any hint.

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• spring.net proxy factory with target type needs property virtual ?

  - by Vince

  Hi all, I'm creating spring.net proxy in code by using ProxyFactory object with ProxyTargetType to true to have a proxy on a non interfaced complex object. Proxying seems ok till i call a method on that object. The method references a public property and if this property is not virtual it's value is null. This doesn't happen if i use Spring.Aop.Framework.AutoProxy.InheritanceBasedAopConfigurer in spring config file but in this case i can't use this because spring context doesn't own this object. Is this normal to have such behavior or is there a tweak to perform what i want (proxying object virtual method without having to change properties virtual)? Note that i tried factory.AutoDetectInterfaces and factory.ProxyTargetAttributes values but doesn't help. My proxy creation code: public static T CreateMethodCallStatProxy<T>() { // Proxy factory ProxyFactory factory = new ProxyFactory(); factory.AddAdvice(new CallMonitorTrackerAdvice()); factory.ProxyTargetType = true; // Create instance factory.Target = Activator.CreateInstance<T>(); // Get proxy T proxiedClass = (T)factory.GetProxy(); return proxiedClass; } Thanks for your help

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• How can I superimpose modified loess lines on a ggplot2 qplot?

  - by briandk

  Background Right now, I'm creating a multiple-predictor linear model and generating diagnostic plots to assess regression assumptions. (It's for a multiple regression analysis stats class that I'm loving at the moment :-) My textbook (Cohen, Cohen, West, and Aiken 2003) recommends plotting each predictor against the residuals to make sure that: The residuals don't systematically covary with the predictor The residuals are homoscedastic with respect to each predictor in the model On point (2), my textbook has this to say: Some statistical packages allow the analyst to plot lowess fit lines at the mean of the residuals (0-line), 1 standard deviation above the mean, and 1 standard deviation below the mean of the residuals....In the present case {their example}, the two lines {mean + 1sd and mean - 1sd} remain roughly parallel to the lowess {0} line, consistent with the interpretation that the variance of the residuals does not change as a function of X. (p. 131) How can I modify loess lines? I know how to generate a scatterplot with a "0-line,": # First, I'll make a simple linear model and get its diagnostic stats library(ggplot2) data(cars) mod <- fortify(lm(speed ~ dist, data = cars)) attach(mod) str(mod) # Now I want to make sure the residuals are homoscedastic qplot (x = dist, y = .resid, data = mod) + geom_smooth(se = FALSE) # "se = FALSE" Removes the standard error bands But does anyone know how I can use ggplot2 and qplot to generate plots where the 0-line, "mean + 1sd" AND "mean - 1sd" lines would be superimposed? Is that a weird/complex question to be asking?

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• questions about name mangling in C++

  - by Tim

  I am trying to learn and understand name mangling in C++. Here are some questions: (1) From devx When a global function is overloaded, the generated mangled name for each overloaded version is unique. Name mangling is also applied to variables. Thus, a local variable and a global variable with the same user-given name still get distinct mangled names. Are there other examples that are using name mangling, besides overloading functions and same-name global and local variables ? (2) From Wiki The need arises where the language allows different entities to be named with the same identifier as long as they occupy a different namespace (where a namespace is typically defined by a module, class, or explicit namespace directive). I don't quite understand why name mangling is only applied to the cases when the identifiers belong to different namespaces, since overloading functions can be in the same namespace and same-name global and local variables can also be in the same space. How to understand this? Do variables with same name but in different scopes also use name mangling? (3) Does C have name mangling? If it does not, how can it deal with the case when some global and local variables have the same name? C does not have overloading functions, right? Thanks and regards!

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• Can a C# method chain be "too long"?

  - by ccornet

  Not in terms of readability, naturally, since you can always arrange the separate methods into separate lines. Rather, is it dangerous, for any reason, to chain an excessively large number of methods together? I use method chaining primarily to save space on declaring individual one-use variables, and traditionally using return methods instead of methods that modify the caller. Except for string methods, those I kinda chain mercilessly. In any case, I worry sometimes about the impact of using exceptionally long method chains all in one line. Let's say I need to update the value of one item based on someone's username. Unfortunately, the shortest method to retrieve the correct user looks something like the following. SPWeb web = GetWorkflowWeb(); SPList list2 = web.Lists["Wars"]; SPListItem item2 = list2.GetItemById(3); SPListItem item3 = item2.GetItemFromLookup("Armies", "Allied Army"); SPUser user2 = item2.GetSPUser("Commander"); SPUser user3 = user2.GetAssociate("Spouse"); string username2 = user3.Name; item1["Contact"] = username2; Everything with a 2 or 3 lasts for only one call, so I might condense it as the following (which also lets me get rid of a would-be-superfluous 1): SPWeb web = GetWorkflowWeb(); item["Contact"] = web.Lists["Armies"] .GetItemById(3) .GetItemFromLookup("Armies", "Allied Army") .GetSPUser("Commander") .GetAssociate("Spouse") .Name; Admittedly, it looks a lot longer when it is all in one line and when you have int.Parse(ddlArmy.SelectedValue.CutBefore(";#", false)) instead of 3. Nevertheless, this is one of the average lengths of these chains, and I can easily foresee some of exceptionally longer counts. Excluding readability, is there anything I should be worried about for these 10+ method chains? Or is there no harm in using really really long method chains?

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• PostgreSQL, Foreign Keys, Insert speed & Django

  - by Miles

  A few days ago, I ran into an unexpected performance problem with a pretty standard Django setup. For an upcoming feature, we have to regenerate a table hourly, containing about 100k rows of data, 9M on the disk, 10M indexes according to pgAdmin. The problem is that inserting them by whatever method literally takes ages, up to 3 minutes of 100% disk busy time. That's not something you want on a production site. It doesn't matter if the inserts were in a transaction, issued via plain insert, multi-row insert, COPY FROM or even INSERT INTO t1 SELECT * FROM t2. After noticing this isn't Django's fault, I followed a trial and error route, and hey, the problem disappeared after dropping all foreign keys! Instead of 3 minutes, the INSERT INTO SELECT FROM took less than a second to execute, which isn't too surprising for a table <= 20M on the disk. What is weird is that PostgreSQL manages to slow down inserts by 180x just by using 3 foreign keys. Oh, disk activity was pure writing, as everything is cached in RAM; only writes go to the disks. It looks like PostgreSQL is working very hard to touch every row in the referred tables, as 3MB/sec * 180s is way more data than the 20MB this new table takes on disk. No WAL for the 180s case, I was testing in psql directly, in Django, add ~50% overhead for WAL logging. Tried @commit_on_success, same slowness, I had even implemented multi row insert and COPY FROM with psycopg2. That's another weird thing, how can 10M worth of inserts generate 10x 16M log segments? Table layout: id serial primary, a bunch of int32, 3 foreign keys to small table, 198 rows, 16k on disk large table, 1.2M rows, 59 data + 89 index MB on disk large table, 2.2M rows, 198 + 210MB So, am I doomed to either drop the foreign keys manually or use the table in a very un-Django way by defining saving bla_id x3 and skip using models.ForeignKey? I'd love to hear about some magical antidote / pg setting to fix this.

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• Help a Beginner with a PHP based Login System

  - by Brian Lang

  I'm a bit embarrassed to say, but I've run into issue with creating a PHP based login system. I'm using a site template to handle the looks of the the login process, so I will spare you the code. Here is my thought process on how to handle the login: Create a simple login.php file. On there will be a form whose action is set to itself. It will check to see if the submit has been clicked, and if so validate to make sure the user entered a valid password / username. If they do, set a session variable save some login info (username, NOT password), and redirect them to a restricted area. If the login info isn't valid, save an error message in a session variable, display error message giving further instruction, and wait for the user to resubmit. Here is a chunk of what I have - hopefully one of you experts can see where I've gone wrong, and give me some insight: if(isset($_POST['submit'])) { if(!empty($_POST['username']) AND !empty(!$_POST['password'])) { header("Location: http://www.google.com"); } else { $err = 'All the fields must be filled in!'; } } if($err) { $_SESSION['msg']['login-err'] = $err; } ? Now the above is just an example - the intent of the above code is to process user input, with the script validating simply that the user has given input for username and password. If they have, I would like them, in this case, to be redirected to google.com (for the sake of this example). If not, save an error message. Given my current code, the error message will display perfectly, however if the user submits and has something entered for the username and password, the page simply doesn't redirect. I'm sure this is a silly question, but I am a beginner, and well, to be honest, a bit buzzed right now. Thanks so much!

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• Can I copy an entire Magento application to a new server?

  - by Gapton

  I am quite new to Magento and I have a case where a client has a running ecommerce website built with Magento and is running on Amazon AWS EC2 server. If I can locate the web root (/var/www/) and download everything from it (say via FTP), I should be able to boot up my virtual machine with LAMP installed, put every single files in there and it should run, right? So I did just that, and Magento is giving me an error. I am guessing there are configs somewhere that needs to be changed in order to make it work, or even a lot of paths need to be changed etc. Also databases to be replicated. What are the typical things I should get right? Database is one, and the EC2 instance uses nginx while I use plain Apache, I guess that won't work straight out of the box, and I probably will have to install nginx and a lot of other stuffs. But basically, if I setup the environment right, it should run. Is my assumption correct? Thanks for answering!

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• How to handle authenticated user access to resources in document oriented system?

  - by Jeremy Raymond

  I'm developing a document oriented application and need to manage user access to the documents. I have a module that handles user authentication, and another module that handles document CRUD operations on the data store. Once a user is authenticated I need to enforce what operations the user can and cannot perform to documents based upon the user's permissions. The best option I could think of to integrate these two pieces together would be to create another module that duplicates the data API but that also takes the authenticated user as a parameter. The module would delegate the authorization check to the auth module and delegate the document operation to the data access module. Something like: -module(auth_data_access). % User is authenticated (logged into the system) % save_doc validates if user is allowed to save the given document and if so % saves it returning ok, else returns {error, permission_denied} save_doc(Doc, User) -> case auth:save_allowed(Doc, User) of ok -> data_access:save_doc(Doc); denied -> {error, permission_denied} end end. Is there a better way I can handle this?

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• How do you get Microsoft Access 2007 32bit to show 64bit ODBC Drivers on Windows 7 64bit?

  - by johnny

  I followed the advice here: Windows 7 64 bit odbc drivers for Ms Access Missing but it does not apply. I have Oracle drivers that are 64bit. If I click the ODBC mmc in my admin tools I can see the DSN. In my properties of the ODBC administrator, it appears to be pointing to the 64bit version of the ODBC administrator, which is good: %windir%\system32\odbcad32.exe If I use this version of the ODBC administrator, I can see the Oracle drivers and my DSN via the mmc. When I go to Microsoft Access 2007 (32bit), however, and click external data, ODBC, my 32bit ODBC administrator is opening, which does not have the driver. Can Access 2007 32bit use a 64bit driver to connect to a database (oracle in this case)? The driver works fine in all other applications, just not Access. How can I get Access to use the 64bit ODBC administrator? EDIT: For clarification, the problem is that Access is opening the 32bit version, the syswow64 version. I need it to open the native 64bit version, which it is not opening. The problem is that Microsoft Access keeps opening the 32bit version. I need it to open the 64bit version. The MMC of the ODBC administrator is pointing to the 64bit version, but Microsoft Access keeps opening the 32bit version. I need it to open the 64bit version. Thanks for help.

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• Powerpoint displays a "can't start the application" error when an Excel Chart object is embedded in

  - by A9S6

  This is a very common problem when Excel Worksheet or Chart is embedded into Word or Powerpoint. I am seeing this problem in both Word and Powerpoint and the reason it seems is the COM addin attached to Excel. The COM addin is written in C# (.NET). See the attached images for error dialogs. I debugged the addin and found a very strange behavior. The OnConnection(...), OnDisConnection(...) etc methods in the COM addin works fine until I add an event handler to the code. i.e. handle the Worksheet_SheetChange, SelectionChange or any similar event available in Excel. As soon as I add even a single event handler (though my code has several), Word and Powerpoint start complaining and do not Activate the embedded object. On some of the posts on the internet, people have been asked to remove the anti-virus addins for office (none in my case) so this makes me believe that the problem is somewhat related to COM addins which are loaded when the host app activates the object. Does anyone have any idea of whats happening here?

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• Looks like COM object is created, but JScript fails to get a reference

  - by damix911

  I'm using the following code to create a COM component that I have developed and registered. var mycom = new ActiveXObject("Mirabilis.ComponentServices.1"); mycom.SetFirstNumber(5); mycom.SetSecondNumber(3); The first line runs fine, while if I alter the ProgID (that is, the string passed to ActiveXObject) I get the message Automation server can't create object. This suggests that at least the basics of the registration mechanism are working properly. I integrated some logging calls into the DLL. When I run the script I get the proof into the log file that both this call to QueryInterface: STDAPI DllGetClassObject( const CLSID &clsid, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddFactory *pAddFact = new CAddFactory; ... HRESULT hr = pAddFact->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } and this one: HRESULT __stdcall CAddFactory::CreateInstance( IUnknown *pUnknownOuter, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddObj *pObject = new CAddObj; ... HRESULT hr = pObject->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } return S_OK. However, when JScript gets to line 3 of the script, I get the following error message: 'mycom' is null or not an object Why is this happening? It looks like JScript should be able to obtain a reference. Some attempts I made I tried to return S_FALSE from DllCanUnloadNow to be sure that the DLL will not be unloaded, just in case, but with no luck.

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• BeginInvoke on ObservableCollection not immediate.

  - by Padu Merloti

  In my code I subscribe to an event that happens on a different thread. Every time this event happens, I receive an string that is posted to the observable collection: Dispatcher currentDispatcher = Dispatcher.CurrentDispatcher; var SerialLog = new ObservableCollection<string>(); private void hitStation_RawCommandSent(object sender, StringEventArgs e) { string command = e.Value.Replace("\r\n", ""); Action dispatchAction = () => SerialLog.Add(command); currentDispatcher.BeginInvoke(dispatchAction, DispatcherPriority.Render); } The code below is in my view model (could be in the code behind, it doesn't matter in this case). When I call "hitstation.PrepareHit", the event above gets called a couple times, then I wait and call "hitStation.HitBall", and the event above gets called a couple more times. private void HitBall() { try { try { Mouse.OverrideCursor = Cursors.Wait; //prepare hit hitStation.PrepareHit(hitSpeed); Thread.Wait(1000); PlayWarning(); //hit hitStation.HitBall(hitSpeed); } catch (TimeoutException ex) { MessageBox.Show("Timeout hitting ball: " + ex.Message); } } finally { Mouse.OverrideCursor = null; } } The problem I'm having is that the ListBox that is bound to my SerialLog gets updated only when the HitBall method finishes. I was expecting seeing a bunch of updates from the PrepareHit, a pause and then a bunch more updates from the HitBall. I've tried a couple of DispatcherPriority arguments, but they don't seem to have any effect.

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• Django sitemap intermittent www

  - by Jen Z

  The automatic sitemap for my Django site fluctuates between including the www on urls and leaving it out (I'm aiming to have it in all the time). This has ramifications in google not indexing my pages properly so I'm trying to narrow down what would be causing this issue. I have set PREPEND_WWW = True and my site record in the sites framework is set to include the www e.g. it's set to www.example.com as opposed to example.com. I'm using memcached but pages should expire from the cache after 48 hours so I wouldn't have thought that would be causing the issue? You can see the problem in effect at http://www.livingspaceltd.co.uk/sitemap.xml (refresh the page a few times). My sitemaps setup is fairly prosaic so I'm doubtful that that is the issue, but in case it's something obvious I'm missing here's the code: ***urls.py*** sitemaps = { 'subpages': Subpages_Sitemap, 'standalone_pages': Standalone_Sitemap, 'categories': Categories_Sitemap, } urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^sitemap\.xml$', 'django.contrib.sitemaps.views.sitemap', {'sitemaps': sitemaps}), ... ***sitemaps.py*** # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- from django_ls.livingspace.models import Page, Category, Standalone_Page, Subpage from django.contrib.sitemaps import Sitemap class Subpages_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "monthly" priority = 0.4 def items(self): return Subpage.objects.filter(restricted_to__isnull=True) class Standalone_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "weekly" priority = 1 def items(self): return Standalone_Page.objects.all() class Categories_Sitemap(Sitemap): changefreq = "weekly" priority = 0.7 def items(self): return Category.objects.all()

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• Trying to convert existing production database table columns from enum to VARCHAR (Rails)

  - by dchua

  Hi everyone, I have a problem that needs me to convert my existing live production (I've duplicated the schema on my local development box, don't worry :)) table column types from enums to a string. Background: Basically, a previous developer left my codebase in absolute shit, migration versions are extremely out of date, and apparently he never used it after a certain point of time in development and now that I'm tasked with migrating a rails 1.2.6 app to 2.3.5, I can't get the tests to run properly on 2.3.5 because my table columns have ENUM column types and they convert to :string, :limit = 0 on my schema.rb which creates the problem of an invalid default value when doing a rake db:test:prepare, like in the case of: Mysql::Error: Invalid default value for 'own_vehicle': CREATE TABLE `lifestyles` (`id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL auto_increment PRIMARY KEY, `member_id` int(11) DEFAULT 0 NOT NULL, `own_vehicle` varchar(0) DEFAULT 'Y' NOT NULL, `hobbies` text, `sports` text, `AStar_activities` text, `how_know_IRC` varchar(100), `IRC_referral` varchar(200), `IRC_others` varchar(100), `IRC_rdrive` varchar(30)) ENGINE=InnoDB I'm thinking of writing a migration task that looks through all the database tables for columns with enum and replace it with VARCHAR and I'm wondering if this is the right way to approach this problem. I'm also not very sure how to write it such that it would loop through my database tables and replace all ENUM colum_types with a VARCHAR. References [1] https://rails.lighthouseapp.com/projects/8994/tickets/997-dbschemadump-saves-enum-columns-as-varchar0-on-mysql [2] http://dev.rubyonrails.org/ticket/2832

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