Search Results

Search found 22641 results on 906 pages for 'use case'.

Page 724/906 | < Previous Page | 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728 729 730 731  | Next Page >

  • Cocoa Services Programming - How to identify whether the selected item is a folder or file wih NSFi

    - by rockybalboa
    Hi , I have some queries regarding Services menu validation . I would like to enable different services provided by my app based on whether a file or folder is selected in the Finder. I have set NSFilenamesPboardType as the send type for the services . I have gone through the - (id)validRequestorForSendType:(NSString *)sendType returnType:(NSString *)returnType method but my issue is that the validation there seems to be done based on the sendType and return type. In my case , the selected file and folder pasteboard type is the same and I cannot determine whether the selected item in the Finder is a file or folder during the validation process ( This is before the actual service gets invoked i.e when the services menu is being shown to the user ) ? So my question is that is there any way I can get some info about the selected item in the Finder and validate the different service menus offered by my application based on some info regarding the item rather than the basic validation of the send and return types ? I am not able to find out any manner to do so but "Folder Actions" service in Snow Leopard gets enabled only for folders so it can be done. I did a /System/Library/CoreServices/pbs -dump_pboard and it is using a NSFilenamePBoardType also yet manages to activate only for folders. Thanks in advace for any help .

    Read the article

  • Cannot write the output to a text file in cpp program

    - by swapedoc
    I have this input file "https://code.google.com/codejam/contest/351101/dashboard/do/A-large-practice.in?cmd=GetInputFile&problem=374101&input_id=1&filename=A-large-practice.in&redownload_last=1&agent=website&csrfmiddlewaretoken=OWMxNTVmMTUyODBiYjhhN2Q2OTM3ZGJiMTNhNDkwMDF8fDEzNzIxNzI1NTE3ODAzMjA%3D" I tried to read this file :-using freopen("filename.txt",r,stdin); and then I wanted the output written to be written to another text file which I can upload in this codejam practice question for the judge. #include<iostream> #include<cstdio> using namespace std; int main() { int t,k=0,a[2000]; freopen("ab.txt","r",stdin); scanf("%d",&t); while(t--) { freopen("cb.txt","w",stdout); int c; scanf("%d",&c); int n; scanf("%d",&n); for(int i=0;i<n;i++) scanf("%d",&a[i]); printf("Case #%d: ",++k); for(int i=0;i<n-1;i++) {for(int j=i+1;j<n;j++) if((a[i]+a[j])==c) {printf("%d %d\n",i+1,j+1); i=n;} } } return 0; } This is my code. Now the problem is the output file cb.txt contains only the last line of the input. I want the the whole of the output to be written to cb.txt,so what should I do.

    Read the article

  • How do I sanitize a string in PHP that contains "; Echo"? (I have a solid reason)

    - by user337878
    I turned this case into a simple PHP page that submits to itself. My issue is that I am submitting track meet results and one of the girl's names is Echo...a lovely name. The problem text I'm submitting is: Pole vault - Rachel Simons, Tow, 8-6; Echo Wilson, Cit, 8-0; Molly Randall, Tow, 7-0; So you see a semicolon followed by white space followed by Echo... After submitting, it says: POST to /results/test.php not supported The end goal is to save it to a database along with some other info and have a search page to find it and simply print out the full result on the screen. I stripped out all my database stuff to get it down to this one error. I mean, I can intentionally mis-spell her name, but there's gotta be a way around this, right??? Here's the test PHP file. <html> <head> <title>title</title> </head> <body> <?php echo "<h3>Edit meet info below</h3>"; echo "<form action=\"test.php\" method=\"post\" id=\"submitForm\">"; echo "Full Results:<br/><textarea NAME=\"results\" id=\"results\" rows=\"20\" cols=\"80\" MAXLENGTH=\"8191\"></textarea><br/><br/>"; echo "<input type=\"submit\" name=\"submitMeet\" value=\"Submit\">"; echo "</form>"; ?> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • [jQuery 1.4] move one div over another

    - by Tomasz Zielinski
    I have two div elements that are twins (i.e. their dimensions and contents are identical). I want to move of those div-s over another, so that their corners are at exactly the same coordinates. What I try to do is: var offset = $('div#placeholder').offset(); $('div#overlay').css('position', 'absolute').css('left', offset.left + 'px').css('top', offset.top + 'px') -- but this causes the overlay to be exactly (or almost exactly, taking subpixel accuracy into account) 16px below the placeholder (below, i.e. overlay_top = placeholder_top + 16px). I'm aware that offset() gives position relative to the document, and position: absolute sets position relative to body element, but compensating for body offset() doesn't help much (I'm getting 8px offset, equal to margins): offset.top -= $('body').offset().top; offset.left -= $('body').offset().left; Also, compensating for body margins (in case they were different that offset() didn't help, as they were set to 8px). Does somebody know what I'm doing wrong here? UPDATE: Take a look at here - I'm getting the same result in FireFox 3.6.3 and Opera 10.10.

    Read the article

  • Lucene wildcard queries

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have this question relating to Lucene. I have a form and I get a text from it and I want to perform a full text search in several fields. Suppose I get from the input the text "textToLook". I have a Lucene Analyzer with several filters. One of them is lowerCaseFilter, so when I create the index, words will be lowercased. Imagine I want to search into two fields field1 and field2 so the lucene query would be something like this (note that 'textToLook' now is 'texttolook'): field1: texttolook* field2:texttolook* In my class I have something like this to create the query. I works when there is no wildcard. String text = "textToLook"; String[] fields = {"field1", "field2"}; //analyser is the same as the one used for indexing Analyzer analyzer = fullTextEntityManager.getSearchFactory().getAnalyzer("customAnalyzer"); MultiFieldQueryParser parser = new MultiFieldQueryParser(fields, analyzer); org.apache.lucene.search.Query queryTextoLibre = parser.parse(text); With this code the query would be: field1: texttolook field2:texttolook but If I set text to "textToLook*" I get field1: textToLook* field2:textToLook* which won't find correctly as the indexes are in lowercase. I have read in lucene website this: " Wildcard, Prefix, and Fuzzy queries are not passed through the Analyzer, which is the component that performs operations such as stemming and lowercasing" My problem cannot be solved by setting the behaviour case insensitive cause my analyzer has other fields which for examples remove some suffixes of words. I think I can solve the problem by getting how the text would be after going through the filters of my analyzer, then I could add the "*" and then I could build the Query with MultiFieldQueryParser. So in this example I woud get "textToLower" and after being passed to to these filters I could get "texttolower". After this I could make "textotolower*". But, is there any way to get the value of my text variable after going through all my analyzer's filters? How can I get all the filters of my analyzer? Is this possible? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Constructor or Assignment Operator

    - by ju
    Can you help me is there definition in C++ standard that describes which one will be called constructor or assignment operator in this case: #include <iostream> using namespace std; class CTest { public: CTest() : m_nTest(0) { cout << "Default constructor" << endl; } CTest(int a) : m_nTest(a) { cout << "Int constructor" << endl; } CTest(const CTest& obj) { m_nTest = obj.m_nTest; cout << "Copy constructor" << endl; } CTest& operatorint rhs) { m_nTest = rhs; cout << "Assignment" << endl; return *this; } protected: int m_nTest; }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { CTest b = 5; return 0; } Or is it just a matter of compiler optimization?

    Read the article

  • Thoughts about alternatives to barplot-with-error-bars

    - by gd047
    I was thinking of an alternative to the barplot-with-error-bars plot. To get an idea by example, I roughly 'sketched' what I mean using the following code library(plotrix) plot(0:12,type="n",axes=FALSE) gradient.rect(1,0,3,8,col=smoothColors("red",38,"red"),border=NA,gradient="y") gradient.rect(4,0,6,6,col=smoothColors("blue",38,"blue"),border=NA,gradient="y") lines(c(2,2),c(5.5,10.5)) lines(c(2-.5,2+.5),c(10.5,10.5)) lines(c(2-.5,2+.5),c(5.5,5.5)) lines(c(5,5),c(4.5,7.5)) lines(c(5-.5,5+.5),c(7.5,7.5)) lines(c(5-.5,5+.5),c(4.5,4.5)) gradient.rect(7,8,9,10.5,col=smoothColors("red",100,"white"),border=NA,gradient="y") gradient.rect(7,5.5,9,8,col=smoothColors("white",100,"red"),border=NA,gradient="y") lines(c(7,9),c(8,8),lwd=3) gradient.rect(10,6,12,7.5,col=smoothColors("blue",100,"white"),border=NA,gradient="y") gradient.rect(10,4.5,12,6,col=smoothColors("white",100,"blue"),border=NA,gradient="y") lines(c(10,12),c(6,6),lwd=3) The idea was to use bars like the ones in the second pair, instead of those in the first. However, there is something that I would like to change in the colors. Instead of a linear gradient fill, I would like to adjust the color intensity in accordance with the values of the pdf of the mean estimator. Do you think it is possible? A slightly different idea (where gradient fill isn't an issue) was to use one (or 2 back-to-back) bell curve(s) filled with (solid) color, instead of a rectangle. See for example the shape that corresponds to the letter F here. In that case the bell-curve(s) should (ideally) be drawn using something like plot(x, dnorm(x, mean = my.mean, sd = std.error.of.the.mean)) I have no idea though, of a way to draw rotated (and filled with color) bell curves. Of course, all of the above may be freely judged as midnight springtime dreams :-)

    Read the article

  • What is the preferred way in C++ for converting a builtin type (int) to bool?

    - by Martin
    When programming with Visual C++, I think every developer is used to see the warning warning C4800: 'BOOL' : forcing value to bool 'true' or 'false' from time to time. The reason obviously is that BOOL is defined as int and directly assigning any of the built-in numerical types to bool is considered a bad idea. So my question is now, given any built-in numerical type (int, short, ...) that is to be interpreted as a boolean value, what is the/your preferred way of actually storing that value into a variable of type bool? Note: While mixing BOOL and bool is probably a bad idea, I think the problem will inevitably pop up whether on Windows or somewhere else, so I think this question is neither Visual-C++ nor Windows specific. Given int nBoolean; I prefer this style: bool b = nBoolean?true:false; The following might be alternatives: bool b = !!nBoolean; bool b = (nBoolean != 0); Is there a generally preferred way? Rationale? I should add: Since I only work with Visual-C++ I cannot really say if this is a VC++ specific question or if the same problem pops up with other compilers. So it would be interesting to specifically hear from g++ or users how they handle the int-bool case. Regarding Standard C++: As David Thornley notes in a comment, the C++ Standard does not require this behavior. In fact it seems to explicitly allow this, so one might consider this a VC++ weirdness. To quote the N3029 draft (which is what I have around atm.): 4.12 Boolean conversions [conv.bool] A prvalue of arithmetic, unscoped enumeration, pointer, or pointer to member type can be converted to a prvalue of type bool. A zero value, null pointer value, or null member pointer value is converted to false; any other value is converted to true. (...)

    Read the article

  • "NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON" error in Windows 7 (ASP.NET & Web Service)

    - by Tony_Henrich
    I have an asp.net web app which works fine in Windows XP machine in a domain. I am porting it to a Windows 7 stand alone machine. The app uses a web service which makes a call to sql server. The web server (IIS 7.5) and SQL Server are on the same stand alone machine. I enabled Windows authentication for the website and web service. The web service uses a trusted connection connection string. The web service credentials uses System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials. I noticed username, password and domainname are blank after the call! The webservice and web site use an application pool with identity "Network Service". I am getting an exception "NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON" in the database call in the web service. I am assuming it's related to the blank credentials. I am expecting ASPNET user to be the security token to the database. Why is this not happening? (Usually this happens when sql server and web server are on two different machines in a domain, delegation & double hopping, but in my case everything is on a dev box)

    Read the article

  • Why this code generates different numbers?

    - by frbry
    Hello, I have this function that creates a unique number for hard-disk and CPU combination. DWORD hw_hash() { char drv[4]; char szNameBuffer[256]; DWORD dwHddUnique; DWORD dwProcessorUnique; DWORD dwUniqueKey; char *sysDrive = getenv ("SystemDrive"); strcpy(drv, sysDrive); drv[2] = '\\'; drv[3] = 0; GetVolumeInformation(drv, szNameBuffer, 256, &dwHddUnique, NULL, NULL, NULL, NULL); SYSTEM_INFO si; GetSystemInfo(&si); dwProcessorUnique = si.dwProcessorType + si.wProcessorArchitecture + si.wProcessorRevision; dwUniqueKey = dwProcessorUnique + dwHddUnique; return dwUniqueKey; } It returns different numbers if I format my hard-disk and install a new Windows. Any ideas, why? Thank you. Edit: OK, Got it: This function returns the volume serial number that the operating system assigns when a hard disk is formatted. To programmatically obtain the hard disk's serial number that the manufacturer assigns, use the Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) Win32_PhysicalMedia property SerialNumber. I should do more research before posting my problems online. Sorry to bother you, let's keep this here in case anybody else can need it.

    Read the article

  • Display image background fully for last repeat in a div

    - by Stiggler
    I have a 700x300 background repeating seamlessly under the main content-div. Now I'd like to attach a div at the bottom of the content-div, containing a continuation-to-end of the background image, connecting seamlessly with the background above it. Due to the nature of the pattern, unless the full 300px height of the background image is visible in the last repeat of the content-div's backround, the background in the div below won't seamlessly connect. Basically, I need the content div's height to be a multiple of 300px under all circumstances. What's a good approach to this sort of problem? I've tried resizing the content-div on loading the page, but this only works as long as the content div doesn't contain any resizing, dynamic content, which is not my case: function adjustContentHeight() { // Setting content div's height to nearest upper multiple of column backgrounds height, // forcing it not to be cut-off when repeated. var contentBgHeight = 300; var contentHeight = $("#content").height(); var adjustedHeight = Math.ceil(contentHeight / contentBgHeight); $("#content").height(adjustedHeight * contentBgHeight); } $(document).ready(adjustContentHeight); What I'm looking for there is a way to respond to a div resizing event, but there doesn't seem to be such a thing. Also, please assume I have no access to the JS controlling the resizing of content in the content-div, though this is potentially a way of solving the problem. Another potential solution I was thinking off was to offset the background image in the bottom div by a certain amount depending on the height of the content-div. Again, the missing piece seems to be the ability to respond to a resize event.

    Read the article

  • how can we apply client side validation on fileupload control in ASP.NET to check filename contain s

    - by subodh
    I am working on ASP.NET3.5 platform. I have used a file upload control and a asp button to upload a file. Whenever i try to upload a file which contain special characterlike (file#&%.txt) it show crash and give the messeage Server Error in 'myapplication' Application. A potentially dangerous Request.Files value was detected from the client (filename="...\New Text &#.txt"). Description: Request Validation has detected a potentially dangerous client input value, and processing of the request has been aborted. This value may indicate an attempt to compromise the security of your application, such as a cross-site scripting attack. You can disable request validation by setting validateRequest=false in the Page directive or in the configuration section. However, it is strongly recommended that your application explicitly check all inputs in this case. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpRequestValidationException: A potentially dangerous Request.Files value was detected from the client (filename="...\New Text &#.txt"). Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. how can i prevent this crash using javascript at client side?

    Read the article

  • DD_belatedPNG.js - how to access the vml object? this is for a PNG image-swap.

    - by akc
    I am trying to use Drew Dillard's awesome DD_belatedPNG fix + jQuery to achieve a run-of-the-mill image-swap on hover -- but with PNGs, and to work on IE6. Example: <a id="thelink" href="blah.html"><img src="f-u-ie6.png" /></a> Since DD's script sets the visibility of the original image to "hidden", you can't effectively hover over it. A lot of people, I have noticed, are thwarted by this limitation. Enough so that Drew mentioned he would try to get a work-around into the next version of his PNG fix. Well, in the meantime, I thought I could get around this by handling the hover event on the image's parent instead. So onmouseover, I would hide the VML object created by DD_belatedPNG while setting a background image on "thelink", and onmouseout, show the VML object again and set the background image to nothing. The following code was just to see if I could access the VML object, but it does not work on the VML. It hides all manner of other children, but not the VML. Any ideas? $(document).ready(function(){ $("thelink").hover(function() { $(this).children().attr({ style: "visibility:hidden" }); }, function() { $(this).children().attr({ style: "visibility:visible" }); }); }); Alternatively, can anyone suggest a great PNG image-swap method? I know that you can swap a background image of a link. But you still need to have something inside the A tag. That's not my case. Also, you could put a transparent GIF in the A tag and have the background image swapped to achieve the effect, but I really don't want to do that. Thanks for your insights!

    Read the article

  • SPWorkflowCollection on SPListItem is always empty

    - by armannvg
    Hi I'm having a problem relating to Sharepoint workflows and the associated task list. I have 2 custom workflows that we created for our product. They both use the same Task list that has a custom content type that inherits from the Task content type. Now I have a case where a running workflow has been deleted via the list has been deleted or the document, this results in orphaned tasks. I want to overwrite the Task lists OnDeleting event, so that users can cleanup their tasks so that it won't contain unneccessary orphaned tasks. So my item deleting looks like this public override void ItemDeleting(SPItemEventProperties properties) { SPListItem currentListItem = properties.ListItem; } The problem is that when I go into debug mode and check the currentListItem.Workflows.Count field then it's always 0. It doesn't matter which workflow I initiate or what task i look at, the SPWorkflowCollection returned is always empty :( I was wondering if this might be related to a bug in our custom workflow where it's not wired up properly (but it finishes correctly and tasks are deleted when a workflow is terminated) or am I looking at this the wrong way ?

    Read the article

  • Data Structures for Junior Java Developer

    - by user1639637
    Ok,still learning Arrays. I wrote this code which fills the array named "rand" with random numbers between 0 and 1( exclusive). I want to start learning Complexity. the For loop executes n times (100 times) ,every time it takes O(1) time,so the worse case scenario is O(n),am I right? Also,I used ArrayList to store the 100 elements and I imported "Collections" and used Collections.sort() method to sort the elements. import java.util.Arrays; public class random { public static void main(String args[]) { double[] rand=new double[10]; for(int i=0;i<rand.length;i++) { rand[i]=(double) Math.random(); System.out.println(rand[i]); } Arrays.sort(rand); System.out.println(Arrays.toString(rand)); } } ArrayList: import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.Collections; public class random { public static void main(String args[]) { ArrayList<Double> MyArrayList=new ArrayList<Double>(); for(int i=0;i<100;i++) { MyArrayList.add(Math.random()); } Collections.sort(MyArrayList); for(int j=0;j<MyArrayList.size();j++) { System.out.println(MyArrayList.get(j)); } } }

    Read the article

  • Erlang ODBC parameter query with null parameters

    - by Schlomer
    Is it possible to pass null values to parameter queries? For example Sql = "insert into TableX values (?,?)". Params = [{sql_integer, [Val1]}, {sql_float, [Val2]}]. % Val2 may be a float, or it may be the atom, undefined odbc:param_query(OdbcRef, Sql, Params). Now, of course odbc:param_query/3 is going to complain if Val2 is undefined when trying to match to a sql_float, but my question is... Is it possible to use a parameterized query, such as: Sql = "insert into TableY values (?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)". with any null parameters? I have a use case where I am dumping a large number of real-time data into a database by either inserting or updating. Some of the tables I am updating have a dozen or so nullable fields, and I do not have a guarantee that all of the data will be there. Concatenating a SQL together for each query, checking for null values seems complex, and the wrong way to do it. Having a parameterized query for each permutation is simply not an option. Any thoughts or ideas would be fantastic! Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Divide and conquer of large objects for GC performance

    - by Aperion
    At my work we're discussing different approaches to cleaning up a large amount of managed ~50-100MB memory.There are two approaches on the table (read: two senior devs can't agree) and not having the experience the rest of the team is unsure of what approach is more desirable, performance or maintainability. The data being collected is many small items, ~30000 which in turn contains other items, all objects are managed. There is a lot of references between these objects including event handlers but not to outside objects. We'll call this large group of objects and references as a single entity called a blob. Approach #1: Make sure all references to objects in the blob are severed and let the GC handle the blob and all the connections. Approach #2: Implement IDisposable on these objects then call dispose on these objects and set references to Nothing and remove handlers. The theory behind the second approach is since the large longer lived objects take longer to cleanup in the GC. So, by cutting the large objects into smaller bite size morsels the garbage collector will processes them faster, thus a performance gain. So I think the basic question is this: Does breaking apart large groups of interconnected objects optimize data for garbage collection or is better to keep them together and rely on the garbage collection algorithms to processes the data for you? I feel this is a case of pre-optimization, but I do not know enough of the GC to know what does help or hinder it.

    Read the article

  • Occasional weird Glassfish errors, resolved by a restart?

    - by Pooria
    I'm developing a web app using netbeans with GlassFishv3. Every once in a while when I add a new feature in my app, glassfish starts nagging with stupid errors, after a lot of time wasting and panicking, i restart glassfish and run my application again, then suddenly the errors all go away and my site starts acting correctly. (or in case I have made a real mistake, i receive a reasonable & descriptive error from GF.) [Edit: the rest of the question was revealed to have been my own mistake.] But the problems don't end there. Recently, i added the ability to write comments in a (JSF) page, after the user submits their comment, i add it to the database and redirect to the same page, so that hopefully the page refreshes with the new comment, but it wont! The underlying Mysql database shows that the new comment has been added, but the page just wont show the new comment! I've tried everything (e.g. deleting browser cache, using different browsers) but only after restarting GF is when the page shows the new comment! Do you have any idea what the problem could be? Could this be a Glassfish bug? What i am using: JSF2, EJB3.1, JPA, MySql

    Read the article

  • Guid Primary /Foreign Key dilemma SQL Server

    - by Xience
    Hi guys, I am faced with the dilemma of changing my primary keys from int identities to Guid. I'll put my problem straight up. It's a typical Retail management app, with POS and back office functionality. Has about 100 tables. The database synchronizes with other databases and receives/ sends new data. Most tables don't have frequent inserts, updates or select statements executing on them. However, some do have frequent inserts and selects on them, eg. products and orders tables. Some tables have upto 4 foreign keys in them. If i changed my primary keys from 'int' to 'Guid', would there be a performance issue when inserting or querying data from tables that have many foreign keys. I know people have said that indexes will be fragmented and 16 bytes is an issue. Space wouldn't be an issue in my case and apparently index fragmentation can also be taken care of using 'NEWSEQUENTIALID()' function. Can someone tell me, from there experience, if Guid will be problematic in tables with many foreign keys. I'll be much appreciative of your thoughts on it...

    Read the article

  • Which source control paradigm and solution to embed in a custom editor application?

    - by Greg Harman
    I am building an application that manages a number of custom objects, which may be edited concurrently by multiple users (using different instances of the application). These objects have an underlying serialized representation, and my plan is to persist them (through my application UI) in an external source control system. Of course this implies that my application can check the current version of an object for updates, a merging interface for each object, etc. My question is what source control paradigm(s) and specific solution(s) to support and why. The way I (perhaps naively) see the source control world is three general paradigms: Single-repository, locked access (MS SourceSafe) Single-repository, concurrent access (CVS/SVN) Distributed (Mercurial, Git) I haven't heard of anyone using #1 for quite a number of years, so I am planning to disregard this case altogether (unless I get a compelling argument otherwise). However, I'm at a loss as to whether to support #2 or #3, and which specific implementations. I'm concerned that the use paradigms are subtly different enough that I can't adequately capture basic operations in a single UI. The last bit of information I should convey is that this application is intended to be deployed in a commercial setting, where a source control system may already be in use. I would prefer not to support more than one solution unless it's really a deal-breaker, so wide adoption in a corporate setting is a plus.

    Read the article

  • Adding web reference on client when using Net.TCP

    - by Marko
    Hi everyone... I am trying to using Net.TCP in my WCF Service, which is self hosted, when i try to add this service reference through web reference to my client, i am not able access the classes and methods of that service, can any have any idea to achieve this... How I can add web references in this case. My Service has one method (GetNumber) that returns int. WebService: public class WebService : IWebService { public int GetNumber(int num) { return num + 1; } } Service Contract code: [ServiceContract] public interface IWebService { [OperationContract] int GetNumber(int num); } WCF Service code: ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(WebService)); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IWebService), new NetTcpBinding(), new Uri("net.tcp://" + Dns.GetHostName() + ":1255/WebService")); NetTcpBinding binding = new NetTcpBinding(); binding.TransferMode = TransferMode.Streamed; binding.ReceiveTimeout = TimeSpan.MaxValue; binding.MaxReceivedMessageSize = long.MaxValue; Console.WriteLine("{0}", Dns.GetHostName().ToString()); Console.WriteLine("Opening Web Service..."); host.Open(); Console.WriteLine("Web Service is running on port {0}",1255); Console.WriteLine("Press <ENTER> to EXIT"); Console.ReadLine(); This works fine. Only problem is how to add references of this service in my client application. I just want to send number and to receive an answer. Can anyone help me?

    Read the article

  • Bespoke Development or Leverage SharePoint With Web Parts etc?

    - by Asim
    Hi all, We are currently in the process of drawing up a solution for an existing client, creating a number of eServices. The client currently have MOSS 2007. The proposed solution is to use MOSS as the launching pad for the eServices… The requirement involves drawing up several online forms which provide registration facilities as well as facilitating a workflow of some sort. I have been told that the proposed solution requires complex web forms. Most are complex forms with parent child details that have multiple windows. The proposed solution is to do some bespoke development, developing ASP .NET forms. These forms would be deployed under the _layouts folder of the current MOSS portal, inheriting the master page design on the current site. I have been told that this approach make development and deployment more simple, as well has having ‘complete integration’ with MOSS. My questions are: Is this the best way to leverage SharePoint – it seems like the proposed solution is not leveraging MOSS at all..! I thought perhaps utilizing Web Parts would be better, but I have been told that this is more complex and developing more smarter intuitive UI is more difficult. Is this really the case? If not, what should be the recommended approach? We will be utilizing Ultimus as the workflow engine. However, I have been recommended K2 Workflows. Anyone used both/have any opinions on either? Many thanks in advance! Kind Regards,

    Read the article

  • javascript innerHTML without childNodes?

    - by John Doe
    hi all im having a firefox issue where i dont see the wood for the trees using ajax i get html source from a php script this html code contains a tag and within the tbody some more tr/td's now i want to append this tbody plaincode to an existing table. but there is one more condition: the table is part of a form and thus contains checkboxe's and drop down's. if i would use table.innerHTML += content; firefox reloads the table and reset's all elements within it which isnt very userfriendly as id like to have what i have is this // content equals transport.responseText from ajax request function appendToTable(content){ var wrapper = document.createElement('table'); wrapper.innerHTML = content; wrapper.setAttribute('id', 'wrappid'); wrapper.style.display = 'none'; document.body.appendChild(wrapper); // get the parsed element - well it should be wrapper = document.getElementById('wrappid'); // the destination table table = document.getElementById('tableid'); // firebug prints a table element - seems right console.log(wrapper); // firebug prints the content ive inserted - seems right console.log(wrapper.innerHTML); var i = 0; // childNodes is iterated 2 times, both are textnode's // the second one seems to be a simple '\n' for(i=0;i<wrapper.childNodes.length;i++){ // firebug prints 'undefined' - wth!?? console.log(wrapper.childNodes[i].innerHTML); // firebug prints a textnode element - <TextNode textContent=" "> console.log(wrapper.childNodes[i]); table.appendChild(wrapper.childNodes[i]); } // WEIRD: firebug has no problems showing the 'wrappid' table and its contents in the html view - which seems there are the elements i want and not textelements } either this is so trivial that i dont see the problem OR its a corner case and i hope someone here has that much of expirience to give an advice on this - anyone can imagine why i get textnodes and not the finally parsed dom elements i expect? btw: btw i cant give a full example cause i cant write a smaller non working piece of code its one of those bugs that occure in the wild and not in my testset thx all

    Read the article

  • Inner join on 2 arrays?

    - by russ
    I'm trying to find a solution to the following (I'm thinking with Linq) to the following: I need to pull down certain files from a larger list of files on an ftp server that have a similar file name. For example, we send an order file to some company for processing then they return a response file that we can download. So, I could send them the files "order_123.txt" and "order_456.txt". After a certain amount of time I need to go look for and download the responses for those files that will be named "order_123.resp" and "order_456.resp". The kicker is that in some cases I can have multiple responses in which case they would create "order_123-1.resp" and "order_123-2.resp" and also the files don't get removed from the server. I know this can be accomplished by looping through the files I know I need responses to then loop through all the files on the server until I find files that match but I'm hoping that I don't have to loop through the files on the server more than once. This example may help clarify: I've sent "order_222.txt" and "order_333.txt" they processed them and the ftp server contains: "order_111-1.resp" "order_001.resp" "order_222-1.resp" "order_222-2.resp" "order_333.resp" I need to download the 3rd, 4th, and 5th file. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Database schemas WAY out of sync - need to get up to date without losing data

    - by Zind
    The problem: we have one application that has a portion which is used by a very small subset of the total users, and that part of the application is running off of a separate database as well. In a perfect world, the schemas of the two databases would be synced up, but such is not the case. Some migrations have been run on the smaller database, most haven't; and furthermore, there is nothing such as revision number to be able to easily identify which have and which haven't. We would like to solve this quandary for future projects. During a discussion we've come up with the following possible plan of action, and I am wondering if anyone knows of any project which has already solved this problem: What we would like to do is create an empty database from the schema of the large fully-migrated database, and then move all of the data from the smaller non-migrated database into that empty one. If it makes things easier, it can probably be assumed for the sake of this problem specifically that no migrations have ever removed anything, only added. Else, if there are other known solutions, I'd like to hear them as well.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727 728 729 730 731  | Next Page >