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• Cannot write the output to a text file in cpp program

  - by swapedoc

  I have this input file "https://code.google.com/codejam/contest/351101/dashboard/do/A-large-practice.in?cmd=GetInputFile&problem=374101&input_id=1&filename=A-large-practice.in&redownload_last=1&agent=website&csrfmiddlewaretoken=OWMxNTVmMTUyODBiYjhhN2Q2OTM3ZGJiMTNhNDkwMDF8fDEzNzIxNzI1NTE3ODAzMjA%3D" I tried to read this file :-using freopen("filename.txt",r,stdin); and then I wanted the output written to be written to another text file which I can upload in this codejam practice question for the judge. #include<iostream> #include<cstdio> using namespace std; int main() { int t,k=0,a[2000]; freopen("ab.txt","r",stdin); scanf("%d",&t); while(t--) { freopen("cb.txt","w",stdout); int c; scanf("%d",&c); int n; scanf("%d",&n); for(int i=0;i<n;i++) scanf("%d",&a[i]); printf("Case #%d: ",++k); for(int i=0;i<n-1;i++) {for(int j=i+1;j<n;j++) if((a[i]+a[j])==c) {printf("%d %d\n",i+1,j+1); i=n;} } } return 0; } This is my code. Now the problem is the output file cb.txt contains only the last line of the input. I want the the whole of the output to be written to cb.txt,so what should I do.

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• wrapping aspx user controls commands in a transaction

  - by Hans Gruber

  I'm working on heavily dynamic and configurable CMS system. Therefore, many pages are composed of a dynamically loaded set of user controls. To enable loose coupling between containers (pages) and children (user controls), all user controls are responsible for their own persistence. Each User Control is wired up to its data/service layer dependencies via IoC. They also implement an IPersistable interface, which allows the container .aspx page to issue a Save command to its children without knowledge of the number or exact nature of these user controls. Note: what follows is only pseudo-code: public class MyUserControl : IPersistable, IValidatable { public void Save() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool IsValid() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } public partial class MyPage { public void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (IValidatable control in Controls) { if (!control.IsValid) { throw new Exception("error"); } } foreach (IPersistable control in Controls) { if (!control.Save) { throw new Exception("error"); } } } } I'm thinking of using declarative transactions from the System.EnterpriseService namespace to wrap the btnSave_Click in a transaction in case of an exception, but I'm not sure how this might be achieved or any pitfalls to such an approach.

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• Is it legal to extend the Class class?

  - by spiralganglion

  I've been writing a system that generates some templates, and then generates some objects based on those templates. I had the idea that the templates could be extensions of the Class class, but that resulted in some magnificent errors: VerifyError: Error #1107: The ABC data is corrupt, attempt to read out of bounds. What I'm wondering is if subclassing Class is even possible, if there is perhaps some case where doing this would be appropriate, and not just a gross misuse of OOP. I believe it should be possible, as ActionScript allows you to create variables of the Class type. This use is described in the LiveDocs entry for Class, yet I've seen no mentions of subclassing Class. Here's a pseudocode example: class Foo extends Class var a:Foo = new Foo(); trace(a is Class) // true, right? var b = new a(); I have no idea what the type of b would be. In summary: can you subclass the Class class? If so, how can you do it without errors, and what type are the instances of the instances of the Class subclass?

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• Adding web reference on client when using Net.TCP

  - by Marko

  Hi everyone... I am trying to using Net.TCP in my WCF Service, which is self hosted, when i try to add this service reference through web reference to my client, i am not able access the classes and methods of that service, can any have any idea to achieve this... How I can add web references in this case. My Service has one method (GetNumber) that returns int. WebService: public class WebService : IWebService { public int GetNumber(int num) { return num + 1; } } Service Contract code: [ServiceContract] public interface IWebService { [OperationContract] int GetNumber(int num); } WCF Service code: ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(WebService)); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IWebService), new NetTcpBinding(), new Uri("net.tcp://" + Dns.GetHostName() + ":1255/WebService")); NetTcpBinding binding = new NetTcpBinding(); binding.TransferMode = TransferMode.Streamed; binding.ReceiveTimeout = TimeSpan.MaxValue; binding.MaxReceivedMessageSize = long.MaxValue; Console.WriteLine("{0}", Dns.GetHostName().ToString()); Console.WriteLine("Opening Web Service..."); host.Open(); Console.WriteLine("Web Service is running on port {0}",1255); Console.WriteLine("Press <ENTER> to EXIT"); Console.ReadLine(); This works fine. Only problem is how to add references of this service in my client application. I just want to send number and to receive an answer. Can anyone help me?

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• spring.net proxy factory with target type needs property virtual ?

  - by Vince

  Hi all, I'm creating spring.net proxy in code by using ProxyFactory object with ProxyTargetType to true to have a proxy on a non interfaced complex object. Proxying seems ok till i call a method on that object. The method references a public property and if this property is not virtual it's value is null. This doesn't happen if i use Spring.Aop.Framework.AutoProxy.InheritanceBasedAopConfigurer in spring config file but in this case i can't use this because spring context doesn't own this object. Is this normal to have such behavior or is there a tweak to perform what i want (proxying object virtual method without having to change properties virtual)? Note that i tried factory.AutoDetectInterfaces and factory.ProxyTargetAttributes values but doesn't help. My proxy creation code: public static T CreateMethodCallStatProxy<T>() { // Proxy factory ProxyFactory factory = new ProxyFactory(); factory.AddAdvice(new CallMonitorTrackerAdvice()); factory.ProxyTargetType = true; // Create instance factory.Target = Activator.CreateInstance<T>(); // Get proxy T proxiedClass = (T)factory.GetProxy(); return proxiedClass; } Thanks for your help

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• Simple Database normalization question...

  - by user365531

  Hi all, I have a quick question regarding a database that I am designing and making sure it is normalized... I have a customer table, with a primary key of customerId. It has a StatusCode column that has a code which reflects the customers account status ie. 1 = Open, 2 = Closed, 3 = Suspended etc... Now I would like to have another field in the customer table that flags whether the account is allowed to be suspended or not... certain customers will be automatically suspended if they break there trading terms... others not... so the relevant table fields will be as so: Customers (CustomerId(PK):StatusCode:IsSuspensionAllowed) Now both fields are dependent on the primary key as you can not determine the status or whether suspensions are allowed on a particular customer unless you know the specific customer, except of course when the IsSuspensionAllowed field is set to YES, the the customer should never have a StatusCode of 3 (Suspended). It seems from the above table design it is possible for this to happen unless a check contraint is added to my table. I can't see how another table could be added to the relational design to enforce this though as it's only in the case where IsSuspensionAllowed is set to YES and StatusCode is set to 3 when the two have a dependence on each other. So after my long winded explanation my question is this: Is this a normalization problem and I'm not seeing a relational design that will enforce this... or is it actually just a business rule that should be enforced with a check contraint and the table is in fact still normalized. Cheers, Steve

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• Database schemas WAY out of sync - need to get up to date without losing data

  - by Zind

  The problem: we have one application that has a portion which is used by a very small subset of the total users, and that part of the application is running off of a separate database as well. In a perfect world, the schemas of the two databases would be synced up, but such is not the case. Some migrations have been run on the smaller database, most haven't; and furthermore, there is nothing such as revision number to be able to easily identify which have and which haven't. We would like to solve this quandary for future projects. During a discussion we've come up with the following possible plan of action, and I am wondering if anyone knows of any project which has already solved this problem: What we would like to do is create an empty database from the schema of the large fully-migrated database, and then move all of the data from the smaller non-migrated database into that empty one. If it makes things easier, it can probably be assumed for the sake of this problem specifically that no migrations have ever removed anything, only added. Else, if there are other known solutions, I'd like to hear them as well.

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• Unboxing to unknown type

  - by Robert

  I'm trying to figure out syntax that supports unboxing an integral type (short/int/long) to its intrinsic type, when the type itself is unknown. Here is a completely contrived example that demonstrates the concept: // Just a simple container that returns values as objects struct DataStruct { public short ShortVale; public int IntValue; public long LongValue; public object GetBoxedShortValue() { return LongValue; } public object GetBoxedIntValue() { return LongValue; } public object GetBoxedLongValue() { return LongValue; } } static void Main( string[] args ) { DataStruct data; // Initialize data - any value will do data.LongValue = data.IntValue = data.ShortVale = 42; DataStruct newData; // This works if you know the type you are expecting! newData.ShortVale = (short)data.GetBoxedShortValue(); newData.IntValue = (int)data.GetBoxedIntValue(); newData.LongValue = (long)data.GetBoxedLongValue(); // But what about when you don't know? newData.ShortVale = data.GetBoxedShortValue(); // error newData.IntValue = data.GetBoxedIntValue(); // error newData.LongValue = data.GetBoxedLongValue(); // error } In each case, the integral types are consistent, so there should be some form of syntax that says "the object contains a simple type of X, return that as X (even though I don't know what X is)". Because the objects ultimately come from the same source, there really can't be a mismatch (short != long). I apologize for the contrived example, it seemed like the best way to demonstrate the syntax. Thanks.

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• using an alternative string quotation syntax in python

  - by Cawas

  Just wondering... I find using escape characters too distracting. I'd rather do something like this: print ^'Let's begin and end with sets of unlikely 2 chars and bingo!'^ Let's begin and end with sets of unlikely 2 chars and bingo! Note the ' inside the string, and how this syntax would have no issue with it, or whatever else inside for basically all cases. Too bad markdown can't properly colorize it (yet), so I decided to <pre> it. Sure, the ^ could be any other char, I'm not sure what would look/work better. That sounds good enough to me, tho. Probably some other language already have a similar solution. And, just maybe, Python already have such a feature and I overlooked it. I hope this is the case. But if it isn't, would it be too hard to, somehow, change Python's interpreter and be able to select an arbitrary (or even standardized) syntax for notating the strings? I realize there are many ways to change statements and the whole syntax in general by using pre-compilators, but this is far more specific. And going any of those routes is what I call "too hard". I'm not really needing to do this so, again, I'm just wondering.

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• C# Hiding, overriding and calling function from base class.

  - by Lukasz Lysik

  I'm learning C# and I encountered the following problem. I have two classes: base and derived: class MyBase { public void MyMethod() { Console.WriteLine("MyBase::MyMethod()"); } } class MyDerived: MyBase { public void MyMethod() { Console.WriteLine("MyDerived::MyMethod()"); } } For now, without virtual and override key words. When I compile this I get the warning (which is of course expected) that I try to hide MyMethod from MyBase class. What I want to do is to call the method from the base class having an instance of derived class. I do this like this: MyDerived myDerived = new MyDerived(); ((MyBase)myDerived).MyMethod(); It works fine when I do not specify any virtual, etc. keywords in the methods. I tried to put combination of the keywords and I got the following results: | MyBase::MyMethod | MyDerived::MyMethod | Result printed on the console | | -----------------|---------------------|-------------------------------| | - | - | MyBase::MyMethod() | | - | new | MyBase::MyMethod() | | virtual | new | MyBase::MyMethod() | | virtual | override | MyDerived::MyMethod() | I hope the table is clear to you. I have two questions: Is it the correct way to call the function from the base class (((MyBase)myDerived).MyMethod();)? I know about base keyword, but it can be called only from the inside of the derived class. Is it right? Why in the last case (with virtual and override modifiers) the method which was called came from the derived class? Would you please explain that?

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• Cannot run Python script on Windows with output redirected??

  - by Wai Yip Tung

  This is running on Windows 7 (64 bit), Python 2.6 with Win32 Extensions for Python. I have a simple script that just print "hello world". I can launch it with python hello.py. In this case I can redirect the output to a file. But if I run it by just typing hello.py on the command line and redirect the output, I get an exception. C:> python hello.py hello world C:> python hello.py >output C:> type output hello world C:> hello.py hello world C:> hello.py >output close failed in file object destructor: Error in sys.excepthook: Original exception was: I think I first get this error after upgrading to Windows 7. I remember it should work in XP. I have seen people talking about this bug python-Bugs-1012692 | Can't pipe input to a python program. But that was long time ago. And it does not mention any solution. Have anyone experienced this? Anyone can help?

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• Are finalizers ever allowed to call other managed classes' methods?

  - by romkyns

  I used to be pretty sure the answer is "no", as explained in Overriding the Finalize method and Object.Finalize documentation. However, while randomly browsing through FileStream in Reflector, I found that it can actually call just such a method from a finalizer: private SafeFileHandle _handle; ~FileStream() { if (this._handle != null) { this.Dispose(false); } } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { try { ... } finally { if ((this._handle != null) && !this._handle.IsClosed) // <=== HERE { this._handle.Dispose(); // <=== AND HERE } [...] } } I started wondering whether this will always work due to the exact way in which it's written, and hence whether the "do not touch managed classes from finalizers" is just a guideline that can be broken given a good reason and the necessary knowledge to do it right. I dug a bit deeper and found out that the worst that can happen when the "rule" is broken is that the managed object being accessed had already been finalized, or may be getting finalized in parallel on a separate thread. So if the SafeFileHandle's finalizer didn't do anything that would cause a subsequent call to Dispose fail then the above should be fine... right? Question: so there might after all be situations in which a method on another managed class may be called reliably from a finalizer? I've always believed this to be false, but this code suggests that it's possible and that there can be good enough reasons to do it. Bonus: Observe that the SafeFileHandle will not even know it's being called from a finalizer, since this is just a normal call to Dispose(). The base class, SafeHandle, actually has two private methods, InternalDispose and InternalFinalize, and in this case InternalDispose will be called. Isn't this a problem? Why not?...

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• How to handle authenticated user access to resources in document oriented system?

  - by Jeremy Raymond

  I'm developing a document oriented application and need to manage user access to the documents. I have a module that handles user authentication, and another module that handles document CRUD operations on the data store. Once a user is authenticated I need to enforce what operations the user can and cannot perform to documents based upon the user's permissions. The best option I could think of to integrate these two pieces together would be to create another module that duplicates the data API but that also takes the authenticated user as a parameter. The module would delegate the authorization check to the auth module and delegate the document operation to the data access module. Something like: -module(auth_data_access). % User is authenticated (logged into the system) % save_doc validates if user is allowed to save the given document and if so % saves it returning ok, else returns {error, permission_denied} save_doc(Doc, User) -> case auth:save_allowed(Doc, User) of ok -> data_access:save_doc(Doc); denied -> {error, permission_denied} end end. Is there a better way I can handle this?

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• Reverse Two Consecutive Lines

  - by thebourneid

  I have this part of a code for editing cue sheets and I don't know how to reverse two consecutive lines if found: /^TITLE.*?"$/ /^PERFORMER.*?"$/ to reverse to /^PERFORMER.*?"$/ /^TITLE.*?"$/ What would it be the solution in my case? use strict; use warnings; use File::Find; use Tie::File; my $dir_target = 'test'; find(\&c, $dir_target); sub c { /\.cue$/ or return; my $fn = $File::Find::name; tie my @lines, 'Tie::File', $fn or die "could not tie file: $!"; for (my $i = 0; $i < @lines; $i++) { if ($lines[$i] =~ /^REM (DATE|GENRE|REPLAYGAIN).*?$/) { splice(@lines, $i, 3); } if ($lines[$i] =~ /^\s+REPLAYGAIN.*?$/) { splice(@lines, $i, 1); } } untie @lines; }

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• Can I interrupt javascript code and then continue on a keystroke?

  - by Brian Ramsay

  I am porting an old game from C to Javascript. I have run into an issue with display code where I would like to have the main game code call display methods without having to worry about how those status messages are displayed. In the original code, if the message is too long, the program just waits for the player to toggle through the messages with the spacebar and then continues. This doesn't work in javascript, because while I wait for an event, all of the other program code continues. I had thought to use a callback so that further code can execute when the player hits the designated key, but I can't see how that will be viable with a lot of calls to display.update(msg) scattered throughout the code. Can I architect things differently so the event-based, asynchronous model works, or is there some other solution that would allow me to implement a more traditional event loop? Am I making sense? Example: // this is what the original code does, but obviously doesn't work in Javascript display = { update : function(msg) { // if msg is too long // wait for user input // ok, we've got input, continue } }; // this is more javascript-y... display = { update : function(msg, when_finished) { // show part of the message $(document).addEvent('keydown', function(e) { // display the rest of the message when_finished(); }); } }; // but makes for amazingly nasty game code do_something(param, function() { // in case do_something calls display I have to // provide a callback for everything afterwards // this happens next, but what if do_the_next_thing needs to call display? // I have to wait again do_the_next_thing(param, function() { // now I have to do this again, ad infinitum } }

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• Erlang ODBC parameter query with null parameters

  - by Schlomer

  Is it possible to pass null values to parameter queries? For example Sql = "insert into TableX values (?,?)". Params = [{sql_integer, [Val1]}, {sql_float, [Val2]}]. % Val2 may be a float, or it may be the atom, undefined odbc:param_query(OdbcRef, Sql, Params). Now, of course odbc:param_query/3 is going to complain if Val2 is undefined when trying to match to a sql_float, but my question is... Is it possible to use a parameterized query, such as: Sql = "insert into TableY values (?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)". with any null parameters? I have a use case where I am dumping a large number of real-time data into a database by either inserting or updating. Some of the tables I am updating have a dozen or so nullable fields, and I do not have a guarantee that all of the data will be there. Concatenating a SQL together for each query, checking for null values seems complex, and the wrong way to do it. Having a parameterized query for each permutation is simply not an option. Any thoughts or ideas would be fantastic! Thank you!

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• Inner join on 2 arrays?

  - by russ

  I'm trying to find a solution to the following (I'm thinking with Linq) to the following: I need to pull down certain files from a larger list of files on an ftp server that have a similar file name. For example, we send an order file to some company for processing then they return a response file that we can download. So, I could send them the files "order_123.txt" and "order_456.txt". After a certain amount of time I need to go look for and download the responses for those files that will be named "order_123.resp" and "order_456.resp". The kicker is that in some cases I can have multiple responses in which case they would create "order_123-1.resp" and "order_123-2.resp" and also the files don't get removed from the server. I know this can be accomplished by looping through the files I know I need responses to then loop through all the files on the server until I find files that match but I'm hoping that I don't have to loop through the files on the server more than once. This example may help clarify: I've sent "order_222.txt" and "order_333.txt" they processed them and the ftp server contains: "order_111-1.resp" "order_001.resp" "order_222-1.resp" "order_222-2.resp" "order_333.resp" I need to download the 3rd, 4th, and 5th file. Thanks.

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• VS 2008 C++ build output?

  - by STingRaySC

  Why when I watch the build output from a VC++ project in VS do I see: 1Compiling... 1a.cpp 1b.cpp 1c.cpp 1d.cpp 1e.cpp [etc...] 1Generating code... 1x.cpp 1y.cpp [etc...] The output looks as though several compilation units are being handled before any code is generated. Is this really going on? I'm trying to improve build times, and by using pre-compiled headers, I've gotten great speedups for each ".cpp" file, but there is a relatively long pause during the "Generating Code..." message. I do not have "Whole Program Optimization" nor "Link Time Code Generation" turned on. If this is the case, then why? Why doesn't VC++ compile each ".cpp" individually (which would include the code generation phase)? If this isn't just an illusion of the output, is there cross-compilation-unit optimization potentially going on here? There don't appear to be any compiler options to control that behavior (I know about WPO and LTCG, as mentioned above). EDIT: The build log just shows the ".obj" files in the output directory, one per line. There is no indication of "Compiling..." vs. "Generating code..." steps. EDIT: I have confirmed that this behavior has nothing to do with the "maximum number of parallel project builds" setting in Tools - Options - Projects and Solutions - Build and Run. Nor is it related to the MSBuild project build output verbosity setting. Indeed if I cancel the build before the "Generating code..." step, the ".obj" files will not exist for the most recent set of "compiled" files. E.g., if I cancel the build during "c.cpp" above, I will see only "a.obj" and "b.obj".

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• Data Structures for Junior Java Developer

  - by user1639637

  Ok,still learning Arrays. I wrote this code which fills the array named "rand" with random numbers between 0 and 1( exclusive). I want to start learning Complexity. the For loop executes n times (100 times) ,every time it takes O(1) time,so the worse case scenario is O(n),am I right? Also,I used ArrayList to store the 100 elements and I imported "Collections" and used Collections.sort() method to sort the elements. import java.util.Arrays; public class random { public static void main(String args[]) { double[] rand=new double[10]; for(int i=0;i<rand.length;i++) { rand[i]=(double) Math.random(); System.out.println(rand[i]); } Arrays.sort(rand); System.out.println(Arrays.toString(rand)); } } ArrayList: import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.Collections; public class random { public static void main(String args[]) { ArrayList<Double> MyArrayList=new ArrayList<Double>(); for(int i=0;i<100;i++) { MyArrayList.add(Math.random()); } Collections.sort(MyArrayList); for(int j=0;j<MyArrayList.size();j++) { System.out.println(MyArrayList.get(j)); } } }

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• Two questions on ensuring EndInvoke() gets called on a list of IAsyncResult objects

  - by RobV

  So this question is regarding the .Net IAsyncResult design pattern and the necessity of calling EndInvoke as covered in this question Background I have some code where I'm firing off potentially many asynchronous calls to a particular function and then waiting for all these calls to finish before using EndInvoke() to get back all the results. Question 1 I don't know whether any of the calls has encountered an exception until I call EndInvoke() and in the event that an exception occurs in one of the calls the entire method should fail and the exception gets wrapped into an API specific exception and thrown upwards. So my first question is what's the best way then to ensure that the remainder of the async calls get properly terminated? Is a finally block which calls EndInvoke() on the remainder of the unterminated calls (and ignores any further exceptions) the best way to do this? Question 2 Secondly when I first fire off all my asyc calls I then call WaitHandle.WaitAll() on the array of WaitHandle instances that I've got from my IAsyncResult instances. The method which is firing all these async calls has a timeout to adhere to so I provide this to the WaitAll() method. Then I test whether all the calls have completed, if not then the timeout must have been reached so the method should also fail and throw another API specific exception. So my second question is what should I do in this case? I need to call EndInvoke() to terminate all these async calls before I throw the error but at the same time I don't want the code to get stuck since EndInvoke() is blocking. In theory at least if the WaitAll() call times out then all the async calls should themselves have timed out and thrown exceptions (thus completing the call) since they are also governed by a timeout but this timeout is potentially different from the main timeout

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• Return value from Object match

  - by Hito_kun

  I'm, by no means, JS fluent, so forgive me if im asking for some really basic stuff, but I've not being able to find a proper answer to my question. Im writting my first Node.js (plus Extra Framework and Socket.io) app and Im having some fun setting up the server side of a FB-like messenger (surprise!!!). So, let's say I have this data structure to store online users(This is a JSON Array, but I'm not sure it is the best way to do it or should I go with Javascript Objects): [ { "site": 45, "users": [ { "idUser": 5, "idSocket": "qwe87r7w8qwe", "name": "Carlos Ray Norris" }, { "idUser": 6, "idSocket": "v8d9d0fgfs7d", "name": "John Connor" } ] }, { "site": 48, "users": [ { "idUser": 22, "idSocket": "qwe87r7w8qwe", "name": "David Bowie" }, { "idUser": 23, "idSocket": "v8d9d0fgfs7d", "name": "Barack H. Obama" } ] } ] What I want to do is to search in the array for x value given y. In this case, retrieving the idSocket knowing the idUser WITHOUT having to run through the array values. So I have basically 2 questions: first, what would be the proper way to store users online? and secondly, how to find values matching with the values I already know (find the idSocket that has a given idUser). I would like a pure JS approach(or using some of the tools given by Node, Socket.io or Express), but if that's not possible then I can look for some JQuery.

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• JPA joined column allow every value...

  - by Fabio Beoni

  I'm testing JPA, in a simple case File/FileVersions tables (Master/Details), with OneToMany relation, I have this problem: in FileVersions table, the field "file_id" (responsable for the relation with File table) accepts every values, not only values from File table. How can I use the JPA mapping to limit the input in FileVersion.file_id only for values existing in File.id? My class are File and FileVersion: FILE CLASS @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name="FILE_ID") private Long id; @Column(name="NAME", nullable = false, length = 30) private String name; //RELATIONS ------------------------------------------- @OneToMany(mappedBy="file", fetch=FetchType.EAGER) private Collection <FileVersion> fileVersionsList; //----------------------------------------------------- FILEVERSION CLASS @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name="VERSION_ID") private Long id; @Column(name="FILENAME", nullable = false, length = 255) private String fileName; @Column(name="NOTES", nullable = false, length = 200) private String notes; //RELATIONS ------------------------------------------- @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name="FILE_ID", referencedColumnName="FILE_ID", nullable=false) private File file; //----------------------------------------------------- and this is the FILEVERSION TABLE CREATE TABLE `JPA-Support`.`FILEVERSION` ( `VERSION_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `FILENAME` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `NOTES` varchar(200) NOT NULL, `FILE_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`VERSION_ID`), KEY `FK_FILEVERSION_FILE_ID` (`FILE_ID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=4 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1

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• Selective JQuery validation

  - by TenaciousImpy

  Hi, I'm using JQuery Validation to validate a particular textbox in my form. The textbox is an optional website section, which uses the url validation method. This works fine and validates accordingly. I would like to have http:// preset into the textbox, to save the user having to type it. However, when the text is set, the validator becomes 'active', and prevents anything on the form being submitted until either the http:// is manually removed, or a valid website is entered. Is there a way of preseting text into the textbox, which won't cause the validator to start validating? I tried to use $("[id$='tbWebsite']").val("http://"); just before I call form.validate(), but it doesn't work (i.e. it still gets checked). I've never used JQuery Validator before, so hopefully there's a fix for this that I'm missing! An alternate solution for my case in particular, could be to activate the validator if a certain button is pressed (instead of any button on the form). Would that be possible? Thanks

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• Adding XOR function to bigint library

  - by Jason Gooner

  Hi, I'm using this Big Integer library for Javascript: http://www.leemon.com/crypto/BigInt.js and I need to be able to XOR two bigInts together and sadly the library doesn't include such a function. The library is relatively simple so I don't think it's a huge task, just confusing. I've been trying to hack one together but not having much luck, would be very grateful if someone could lend me a hand. This is what I've attempted (might be wrong). But im guessing the structure is going to be quite similar to some of the other functions in there. function xor(x, y) { var c, k, i; var result = new Array(0); // big int for result k=x.length>y.length ? x.length : y.length; // array length of the larger num // Make sure result is the correct array size? maybe: result = expand(result, k); // ? for (c=0, i=0; i < k; i++) { // Do some xor here } // return the bigint xor result return result; } What confuses me is I don't really understand how it stores numbers in the array blocks for the bigInt. I don't think it's a case of simply bigintC[i] = bigintA[i] ^ bigintB[i], then most other functions have some masking operation at the end that I don't understand. I would really appreciate any help getting this working. Thanks

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• How to get application context path in spring-ws?

  - by Dhaliwal

  I am using Spring-WS to create a webservice. In my project, I have created a Helper class to reads sample response and request xml file which are located in my /src/main/resource folder. When I am unit-testing my webservice application 'locally', I use the System.getProperty("user.dir") to get the application context folder. The following is a method that I created in the Helper class to help me retrieve the file that I am interested in my resource folder. public static File getFileFromResources(String filename) { System.out.println("Getting file from resource folder"); File request = null; String curDir = System.getProperty("user.dir"); String contextpath = "C:\\src\\main\\resources\\"; request = new File(curDir + contextpath + filename); return request; } However, after 'publishing' the compiled WAR file to the ../webapps folder to the Apache Tomcat directory, I realise that System.getProperty("user.dir") no longer returns my application context path. Instead, it is returning the Apache Tomcat root directory as shown C:\Program Files\Apache Software Foundation\Tomcat 6.0\src\main\resources\SampleClientFile I cant seem to find any information about getting the root folder of my webservice. I have seen examples on Spring web application where I can retrieve the context path by using the following : request.getSession().getServletContext().getContextPath() But in this case, I am using a Spring web application where there is a servlet context in the request. But the Spring-WS, my entry point is an endpoint. How can I get the context path of my webservice application. I am expecting a context path of something like C:\Program Files\Apache Software Foundation\Tomcat 6.0\webapps\clientWebService\WEB-INF\classes Could someone suggest a way to achieve this?

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