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  • Python form POST using urllib2 (also question on saving/using cookies)

    - by morpheous
    I am trying to write a function to post form data and save returned cookie info in a file so that the next time the page is visited, the cookie information is sent to the server (i.e. normal browser behavior). I wrote this relatively easily in C++ using curlib, but have spent almost an entire day trying to write this in Python, using urllib2 - and still no success. This is what I have so far: import urllib, urllib2 import logging # the path and filename to save your cookies in COOKIEFILE = 'cookies.lwp' cj = None ClientCookie = None cookielib = None logger = logging.getLogger(__name__) # Let's see if cookielib is available try: import cookielib except ImportError: logger.debug('importing cookielib failed. Trying ClientCookie') try: import ClientCookie except ImportError: logger.debug('ClientCookie isn\'t available either') urlopen = urllib2.urlopen Request = urllib2.Request else: logger.debug('imported ClientCookie succesfully') urlopen = ClientCookie.urlopen Request = ClientCookie.Request cj = ClientCookie.LWPCookieJar() else: logger.debug('Successfully imported cookielib') urlopen = urllib2.urlopen Request = urllib2.Request # This is a subclass of FileCookieJar # that has useful load and save methods cj = cookielib.LWPCookieJar() login_params = {'name': 'anon', 'password': 'pass' } def login(theurl, login_params): init_cookies(); data = urllib.urlencode(login_params) txheaders = {'User-agent' : 'Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 5.5; Windows NT)'} try: # create a request object req = Request(theurl, data, txheaders) # and open it to return a handle on the url handle = urlopen(req) except IOError, e: log.debug('Failed to open "%s".' % theurl) if hasattr(e, 'code'): log.debug('Failed with error code - %s.' % e.code) elif hasattr(e, 'reason'): log.debug("The error object has the following 'reason' attribute :"+e.reason) sys.exit() else: if cj is None: log.debug('We don\'t have a cookie library available - sorry.') else: print 'These are the cookies we have received so far :' for index, cookie in enumerate(cj): print index, ' : ', cookie # save the cookies again cj.save(COOKIEFILE) #return the data return handle.read() # FIXME: I need to fix this so that it takes into account any cookie data we may have stored def get_page(*args, **query): if len(args) != 1: raise ValueError( "post_page() takes exactly 1 argument (%d given)" % len(args) ) url = args[0] query = urllib.urlencode(list(query.iteritems())) if not url.endswith('/') and query: url += '/' if query: url += "?" + query resource = urllib.urlopen(url) logger.debug('GET url "%s" => "%s", code %d' % (url, resource.url, resource.code)) return resource.read() When I attempt to log in, I pass the correct username and pwd,. yet the login fails, and no cookie data is saved. My two questions are: can anyone see whats wrong with the login() function, and how may I fix it? how may I modify the get_page() function to make use of any cookie info I have saved ?

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  • Updating a deallocated UIWebView from a background thread

    - by Dan Ray
    As you can see from the title, I've programmed myself into a corner and I've got several things working against me... In a UIViewController subclass that manages a large and complex view. One part of it is a UIWebView that contains output from a web request that I had to build and execute, and manually assemble HTML from. Since it takes a second or two to run, I dropped it into the background by calling self performSelectorInBackground:. Then from that method I call there, I use self performSelectorOnMainThread: to get back to the surface of the thread stack to update the UIWebView with what I just got. Like this (which I've cut down to show only the relevant issues): -(void)locationManager:(CLLocationManager *)manager didUpdateToLocation:(CLLocation *)newLocation fromLocation:(CLLocation *)oldLocation { //then get mapquest directions NSLog(@"Got called to handle new location!"); [manager stopUpdatingLocation]; [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(getDirectionsFromHere:) withObject:newLocation]; } - (void)getDirectionsFromHere:(CLLocation *)newLocation { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; CLLocationCoordinate2D here = newLocation.coordinate; // assemble a call to the MapQuest directions API in NSString *dirURL // ...cut for brevity NSLog(@"Query is %@", dirURL); NSString *response = [NSString stringWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:dirURL] encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding error:NULL]; NSMutableString *directionsOutput = [[NSMutableString alloc] init]; // assemble response into an HTML table in NSString *directionsOutput // ...cut for brevity [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(updateDirectionsWithHtml:) withObject:directionsOutput waitUntilDone:NO]; [directionsOutput release]; [pool drain]; [pool release]; } - (void)updateDirectionsWithHtml:(NSString *)directionsOutput { [self.directionsWebView loadHTMLString:directionsOutput baseURL:nil]; } This all works totally great, UNLESS I've backed out of this view controller before CLLocationManager hits its delegate method. If this happens after I've already left this view, I get: 2010-06-07 16:38:08.508 EverWondr[180:760b] bool _WebTryThreadLock(bool), 0x1b6830: Tried to obtain the web lock from a thread other than the main thread or the web thread. This may be a result of calling to UIKit from a secondary thread. Crashing now... Despite what this says, I can repeatably cause this crash when I back out too early. I'm not at all convinced that attempting a UI update from a background thread is really the issue; I think it's that my UIWebView is deallocated. I suspect that the fact I was just IN a background thread makes the runtime suspect something's up about that, but I feel fairly sure that's not it. So how do I tell CLLocationManager not to worry about it, when I'm backing out of that view? I tried [self.locationManager stopUpdatingLocation] inside my viewWillDisappear method, but that didn't do it. (Incidentally, MapQuest's apis are FANTASTIC. Way WAY better than anything Google provides. I can't recommend them highly enough.)

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  • Issues with mx:method, mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject, and sub-classing mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.Remo

    - by Ryan Wilson
    I am looking to subclass RemoteObject. Instead of: <mx:RemoteObject ... > <mx:method ... /> <mx:method ... /> </mx:RemoteObject> I want to do something like: <remoting:CustomRemoteObject ...> <mx:method ... /> <mx:method ... /> </remoting:CustomRemoteObject> where CustomRemoteObject extends mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject like so: package remoting { import mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject; public class CustomRemoteObject extends RemoteObject { public function CustomRemoteObject(destination:String=null) { super(destination); } } } However, when doing so and declaring a CustomRemoteObject in MXML as above, the flex compiler shows the error: Could not resolve <mx:method> to a component implementation At first I thought it had something to do with CustomRemoteObject failing to do something, despite that (or since) it had no change except as to the name. So, I copied the source from mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject into CustomRemoteObject and modified it so the only difference was a refactoring of the class and package name. But still, the same error. Unlike many MXML components, I cannot cmd+click <mx:method> in FlashBuilder to open the source. Likewise, I have not found a reference in mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject, mx.rpc.remoting.RemoteObject, or mx.rpc.remoting.AbstractService, and have been unsuccessful in find its source online. Which leads me to the questions in the title: What exactly is <mx:method>? (yes, I know it's a declaration of a RemoteObject method, and I know how to use it, but it's peculiar in regard to other components) Why did my attempt at subclassing RemoteObject fail, despite it effectually being a rename? Perhaps the root, why can mx.rpc.remoting.mxml.RemoteObject as an MXML declaration accept <mx:method> child tags, yet the source of said class cannot when refactored in name only?

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  • iPhone: Speeding up a search that's polling 17,000 Core Data objects

    - by randombits
    I have a class that conforms to UISearchDisplayDelegate and contains a UISearchBar. This view is responsible for allowing the user to poll a store of about 17,000 objects that are currently managed by Core Data. Everytime the user types in a character, I created an instance of a SearchOperation (subclasses NSOperation) that queries Core Data to find results that might match the search. The code in the search controller looks something like: - (void)filterContentForSearchText:(NSString*)searchText scope:(NSString*)scope { // Update the filtered array based on the search text and scope in a secondary thread if ([searchText length] < 3) { [filteredList removeAllObjects]; // First clear the filtered array. [self setFilteredList:NULL]; [self.tableView reloadData]; return; } NSDictionary *searchdict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:scope, @"scope", searchText, @"searchText", nil]; [aSearchQueue cancelAllOperations]; SearchOperation *searchOp = [[SearchOperation alloc] initWithDelegate:self dataDict:searchdict]; [aSearchQueue addOperation:searchOp]; } And my search is rather straight forward. SearchOperation is a subclass of NSOperation. I overwrote the main method with the following code: - (void)main { if ([self isCancelled]) { return; } NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"MyEntity" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; NSPredicate *predicate = NULL; predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(someattr contains[cd] %@)", searchText]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError *error = NULL; NSArray *fetchResults = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; [fetchRequest release]; if (self.delegate != nil) [self.delegate didFinishSearching:fetchResults]; [pool drain]; } This code works, but it has several issues. It's slow. Even though I have the search happening in a separate thread other than the UI thread, querying 17,000 objects is clearly not optimal. If I'm not careful, crashes can happen. I set the max concurrent searches in my NSOperationQueue to 1 to avoid this. What else can I do to make this search faster? I think preloading all 17,000 objects into memory might be risky. There has to be a smarter way to conduct this search to give results back to the user faster.

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  • Gap appears between navigation bar and view after rotating & tab switching

    - by Bogatyr
    My iphone application is showing strange behavior when rotating: a gap appears between the navigation title and content view inside a tab bar view (details on how to reproduce are below). I've created a tiny test case that exhibits the same problem: a custom root UIViewController, which creates and displays a UITabBarController programmatically, which has two tabs: 1) plain UIViewController, and 2) UINavigationController created programmatically with a single plain UIViewController content view. The complete code for the application is in the root controller's viewDidLoad (every "*VC" class is a totally vanilla UIViewController subclass with XIB for user interface from XCode, with only the view background color changed to clearly identify each view, nothing else). Here's the viewDidLoad code, and the shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation code, this code is the entire application basically: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; FirstVC *fvc = [[FirstVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"FirstVC" bundle:nil]; NavContentsVC *ncvc = [[NavContentsVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"NavContentsVC" bundle:nil]; UINavigationController *svc = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:ncvc]; NSMutableArray *localControllersArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:2]; [localControllersArray addObject:fvc]; [localControllersArray addObject:svc]; fvc.title = @"FirstVC-Title"; ncvc.title = @"NavContents-Title"; UITabBarController *tbc = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; tbc.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 460); [tbc setViewControllers:localControllersArray]; [self.view addSubview:tbc.view]; [localControllersArray release]; [ncvc release]; [svc release]; [fvc release]; } - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return YES; } Here's how to reproduce the problem: 1) start application 2) rotate device (happens in simulator, too) to landscape (UITabBar properly rotates) 3) click on tab 2 4) rotate device to portrait -- notice gap of root view controller's background color of about 10 pixels high beneath the Navigation title bar and the Navigation content view. 5) click tab 1 6) click tab 2 And the gap is gone! From my real application, I see that the gap remains during all VC push and pops while the NavigationController tab is active. Switching away to a different tab and back to the Nav tab clears up the gap. What am I doing wrong? I'm running on SDK 3.1.3, this happens both on the simulator and on the device. Except for this particular sequence, everything seems to work fine. Help!

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  • Explanation of converting exporting an XML document as a relational database using XSLT

    - by Yaaqov
    I would like to better understand the basic steps needed to a take an XML document like this Breakfast Menu... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <breakfast_menu> <food> <name>Belgian Waffles</name> <price>$5.95</price> <description>two of our famous Belgian Waffles with plenty of real maple syrup</description> <calories>650</calories> </food> <food> <name>Strawberry Belgian Waffles</name> <price>$7.95</price> <description>light Belgian waffles covered with strawberries and whipped cream</description> <calories>900</calories> </food> <food> <name>Berry-Berry Belgian Waffles</name> <price>$8.95</price> <description>light Belgian waffles covered with an assortment of fresh berries and whipped cream</description> <calories>900</calories> </food> <food> <name>French Toast</name> <price>$4.50</price> <description>thick slices made from our homemade sourdough bread</description> <calories>600</calories> </food> <food> <name>Homestyle Breakfast</name> <price>$6.95</price> <description>two eggs, bacon or sausage, toast, and our ever-popular hash browns</description> <calories>950</calories> </food> </breakfast_menu> And "export" it to say, an Access or MySQL database using XSLT, creating two joined tables: Table: breakfast_menu Field: menu_item_id Field: food_id Table: food Field: food_id Field: name Field: price Field: description Field: calories If there are online tutorials on this that you know of, I'd be interesting in learning more, as well. Thanks.

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  • How does MySQL's ORDER BY RAND() work?

    - by Eugene
    Hi, I've been doing some research and testing on how to do fast random selection in MySQL. In the process I've faced some unexpected results and now I am not fully sure I know how ORDER BY RAND() really works. I always thought that when you do ORDER BY RAND() on the table, MySQL adds a new column to the table which is filled with random values, then it sorts data by that column and then e.g. you take the above value which got there randomly. I've done lots of googling and testing and finally found that the query Jay offers in his blog is indeed the fastest solution: SELECT * FROM Table T JOIN (SELECT CEIL(MAX(ID)*RAND()) AS ID FROM Table) AS x ON T.ID >= x.ID LIMIT 1; While common ORDER BY RAND() takes 30-40 seconds on my test table, his query does the work in 0.1 seconds. He explains how this functions in the blog so I'll just skip this and finally move to the odd thing. My table is a common table with a PRIMARY KEY id and other non-indexed stuff like username, age, etc. Here's the thing I am struggling to explain SELECT * FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; /*30-40 seconds*/ SELECT id FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; /*0.25 seconds*/ SELECT id, username FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; /*90 seconds*/ I was sort of expecting to see approximately the same time for all three queries since I am always sorting on a single column. But for some reason this didn't happen. Please let me know if you any ideas about this. I have a project where I need to do fast ORDER BY RAND() and personally I would prefer to use SELECT id FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; SELECT * FROM table WHERE id=ID_FROM_PREVIOUS_QUERY LIMIT 1; which, yes, is slower than Jay's method, however it is smaller and easier to understand. My queries are rather big ones with several JOINs and with WHERE clause and while Jay's method still works, the query grows really big and complex because I need to use all the JOINs and WHERE in the JOINed (called x in his query) sub request. Thanks for your time!

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  • Partial overriding in Java (or dynamic overriding while overloading)

    - by Lie Ryan
    If I have a parent-child that defines some method .foo() like this: class Parent { public void foo(Parent arg) { System.out.println("foo in Function"); } } class Child extends Parent { public void foo(Child arg) { System.out.println("foo in ChildFunction"); } } When I called them like this: Child f = new Child(); Parent g = f; f.foo(new Parent()); f.foo(new Child()); g.foo(new Parent()); g.foo(new Child()); the output is: foo in Parent foo in Child foo in Parent foo in Parent But, I want this output: foo in Parent foo in Child foo in Parent foo in Child I have a Child class that extends Parent class. In the Child class, I want to "partially override" the Parent's foo(), that is, if the argument arg's type is Child then Child's foo() is called instead of Parent's foo(). That works Ok when I called f.foo(...) as a Child; but if I refer to it from its Parent alias like in g.foo(...) then the Parent's foo(..) get called irrespective of the type of arg. As I understand it, what I'm expecting doesn't happen because method overloading in Java is early binding (i.e. resolved statically at compile time) while method overriding is late binding (i.e. resolved dynamically at compile time) and since I defined a function with a technically different argument type, I'm technically overloading the Parent's class definition with a distinct definition, not overriding it. But what I want to do is conceptually "partially overriding" when .foo()'s argument is a subclass of the parent's foo()'s argument. I know I can define a bucket override foo(Parent arg) in Child that checks whether arg's actual type is Parent or Child and pass it properly, but if I have twenty Child, that would be lots of duplication of type-unsafe code. In my actual code, Parent is an abstract class named "Function" that simply throws NotImplementedException(). The children includes "Polynomial", "Logarithmic", etc and .foo() includes things like Child.add(Child), Child.intersectionsWith(Child), etc. Not all combination of Child.foo(OtherChild) are solvable and in fact not even all Child.foo(Child) is solvable. So I'm best left with defining everything undefined (i.e. throwing NotImplementedException) then defines only those that can be defined. So the question is: Is there any way to override only part the parent's foo()? Or is there a better way to do what I want to do?

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  • Rails Joins and include columns from joins table

    - by seth.vargo
    I don't understand how to get the columns I want from rails. I have two models - A User and a Profile. A User :has_many Profile (because users can revert back to an earlier version of their profile): > DESCRIBE users; +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | username | varchar(255) | NO | UNI | NULL | | | password | varchar(255) | NO | | NULL | | | last_login | datetime | YES | | NULL | | +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+   > DESCRIBE profiles; +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | user_id | int(11) | NO | MUL | NULL | | | first_name | varchar(255) | NO | | NULL | | | last_name | varchar(255) | NO | | NULL | | | . . . . . . | | . . . . . . | | . . . . . . | +----------------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ In SQL, I can run the query: > SELECT * FROM profiles JOIN users ON profiles.user_id = users.id LIMIT 1; +----+-----------+----------+---------------------+---------+---------------+-----+ | id | username | password | last_login | user_id | first_name | ... | +----+-----------+----------+---------------------+---------+---------------+-----+ | 1 | john | ****** | 2010-12-30 18:04:28 | 1 | John | ... | +----+-----------+----------+---------------------+---------+---------------+-----+ See how I get all the columns for BOTH tables JOINED together? However, when I run this same query in Rails, I don't get all the columns I want - I only get those from Profile: # in rails console >> p = Profile.joins(:user).limit(1) >> [#<Profile ...>] >> p.first_name >> NoMethodError: undefined method `first_name' for #<ActiveRecord::Relation:0x102b521d0> from /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-3.0.1/lib/active_record/relation.rb:373:in `method_missing' from (irb):8 # I do NOT want to do this (AKA I do NOT want to use "includes") >> p.user >> NoMethodError: undefined method `user' for #<ActiveRecord::Relation:0x102b521d0> from /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-3.0.1/lib/active_record/relation.rb:373:in method_missing' from (irb):9 I want to (efficiently) return an object that has all the properties of Profile and User together. I don't want to :include the user because it doesn't make sense. The user should always be part of the most recent profile as if they were fields within the Profile model. How do I accomplish this?

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  • Adobe Reader process fails when starting second instance

    - by Reddog
    In our C# WinForms application, we generate PDF files and launch Adobe Reader (or whatever the default system .pdf handler is) via the Process class. Since our PDF files can be large (approx 200K), we handle the Exited event to then clean up the temp file afterwards. The system works as required when a file is opened and then closed again. However, when a second file is opened (before closing Adobe Reader) the second process immediately exits (since Reader is now using it's MDI powers) and in our Exited handler our File.Delete call should fail because it's locked by the now joined Adobe process. However, in Reader we instead get: There was an error opening this document. This file cannot be found. The unusual thing is that if I put a debugger breakpoint before the file deletion and allow it to attempt (and fail) the deletion, then the system behaves as expected! I'm positive that the file exists and fairly positive that all handles/file streams to the file are closed before starting the process. We are launching with the following code: // Open the file for viewing/printing (if the default program supports it) var pdfProcess = new Process(); pdfProcess.StartInfo.FileName = tempFileName; if (pdfProcess.StartInfo.Verbs.Contains("open", StringComparer.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase)) { var verb = pdfProcess.StartInfo.Verbs.First(v => v.Equals("open", StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase)); pdfProcess.StartInfo.Verb = verb; } pdfProcess.StartInfo.Arguments = "/N"; // Specifies a new window will be used! (But not definitely...) pdfProcess.SynchronizingObject = this; pdfProcess.EnableRaisingEvents = true; pdfProcess.Exited += new EventHandler(pdfProcess_Exited); _pdfProcessDictionary.Add(pdfProcess, tempFileName); pdfProcess.Start(); Note: We are using the _pdfProcessDictionary to store references to the Process objects so that they stay in scope so that Exited event can successfully be raised. Our cleanup/exited event is: void pdfProcess_Exited(object sender, EventArgs e) { Debug.Assert(!InvokeRequired); var p = sender as Process; try { if (_pdfProcessDictionary.ContainsKey(p)) { var tempFileName = _pdfProcessDictionary[p]; if (File.Exists(tempFileName)) // How else can I check if I can delete it!!?? { // NOTE: Will fail if the Adobe Reader application instance has been re-used! File.Delete(tempFileName); _pdfProcessDictionary.Remove(p); } CleanOtherFiles(); // This function will clean up files for any other previously exited processes in our dictionary } } catch (IOException ex) { // Just swallow it up, we will deal with trying to delete it at another point } } Possible solutions: Detect that the file is still open in another process Detect that the second process hasn't really been fully exited and that the file is opened in the first process instead

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  • What Can I Do To One Of My Team Number (Good Friend As Well) Who Lost His Passion.

    - by skyflyer
    It seems this question is not program related, but there are lot of similar questions. So please bear with me! By the way, I am programmer and my team is also charging a software project. And SO is the only place which solved me lot of thorny troubles!THANK YOU GUYS! I joined my company with him years ago. At that time he was quite passionate on his job which is a front-end development. He gave us lot of useful suggestions concerning his work like design. And I believed he was a smart guy. I believe he still is smart too by the way. One years later, however, he seemed lost his passion and fooling around every day, did not care about his work any more and produced poorwork. Even worse he literally stopped learning new skills and honing his work related skills. For me it is horrible, we got to keep abreast with new technology development, otherwise we will be throw out. Since we were just coworkers, I did not care about it too much except mentioned my thoughts several times. But last month, we resembled a new group and assigned very important project. And I am the team leader, sadly! My boss gave me lot of support and expectation as well. I did a pretty good job before and I am very optimism to our future. But as a team, if my team does not work hard, we will be doomed to failure no matter how hard I work and push. In order to revitalize his passion, I tried couple of ways like talking to him about my concern and my boss's angry. I offered his new task which is quite new to him. I even persuaded my boss to give him new incentive package. But all of them knocked wall. His reaction was just he did not care. Even worse he did not want to talk about his situation. I want to be hard on him, but since we are friends and coworkers, I really can not see it will work. Even it works, I can not so quickly change my self from friend and coworker into manager. As a novice in management, I am really overwhelmed! I do not want get him fired, we are friends and I do not see him fired as my team number. What can I do? Thank you guys!

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  • FormView templates break when refactored to Master/Content

    - by ZaijiaN
    Let's say I have an abstract class IA, with subclasses A1, A2, A3. For each subclass, I had a page with a FormView to insert/edit/view, with code specific to that class. The templates for insert/edit/view are all very similar, so it was mostly cut & paste, and the compiler had no problem that there were controls with the same IDs in the different templates. Something like this: <asp:FormView> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </InsertItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </EdittItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> Much of the code/markup ended up being redundant across the pages, so I refactored it to use a master/content format, with the master page having content placeholders for the insert/edit/view templates. Master page: <asp:FormView> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="InsertItemTemplate"></asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </InsertItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="EditItemTemplate"></asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </EdittItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> And content page: <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="InsertItemTemplate"> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="EditItemTemplate"> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </asp:Content> In the content page templates, I'm doing the exact same thing I was doing before I refactored, but now the compiler is blowing up with the error BC30260: 'Label1' is already declared as 'Protected WithEvents Label1 As System.Web.UI.WebControls.Label' in this class. For some reason, it's not separating the controls in the content blocks the same way it did when they were in the templates, even though the content placeholders are in the individual templates. Is there a way around this, other than to rename all my controls?

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  • How to stream XML data using XOM?

    - by Jonik
    Say I want to output a huge set of search results, as XML, into a PrintWriter or an OutputStream, using XOM. The resulting XML would look like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <resultset> <result> [child elements and data] </result> ... ... [1000s of result elements more] </resultset> Because the resulting XML document could be big (tens or hundreds of megabytes, perhaps), I want to output it in a streaming fashion (instead of creating the whole Document in memory and then writing that). The granularity of outputting one <result> at a time is fine, so I want to generate one <result> after another, and write it into the stream. Assume there's already a method that helps with iterating the results and generating Element objects: public nu.xom.Element getNextResult(); So I'd simply like to do something like this pseudocode (automatic flushing enabled, so don't worry about that) : open stream/writer write declaration write start tag for <resultset> while more results: write next <result> element write end tag for <resultset> close stream/writer I've been looking at Serializer, but the necessary methods, writeStartTag(Element), writeEndTag(Element), write(DocType) are protected, not public! Is there no other way than to subclass Serializer to be able to use those methods, or to manually write the start and end tags directly into the stream as Strings, bypassing XOM altogether? (The latter wouldn't be too bad in this simple example, but in the general case it would get quite ugly.) Am I missing something or is XOM just not made for this? With dom4j I could do this easily using XMLWriter - it has constructors that take a Writer or OutputStream, and methods writeOpen(Element), writeClose(Element), writeDocType(DocumentType) etc. Compare to XOM's Serializer where the only public write method is the one that takes a whole Document. Please refrain from answering if you're not familiar with XOM! I specifically want to know if and how you can do this kind of streaming with that library. (This is related to my question about the best dom4j replacement where XOM is a strong contender.)

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  • Reliable and fast way to convert a zillion ODT files in PDF?

    - by Marco Mariani
    I need to pre-produce a million or two PDF files from a simple template (a few pages and tables) with embedded fonts. Usually, I would stay low level in a case like this, and compose everything with a library like ReportLab, but I joined late in the project. Currently, I have a template.odt and use markers in the content.xml files to fill with data from a DB. I can smoothly create the ODT files, they always look rigth. For the ODT to PDF conversion, I'm using openoffice in server mode (and PyODConverter w/ named pipe), but it's not very reliable: in a batch of documents, there is eventually a point after which all the processed files are converted into garbage (wrong fonts and letters sprawled all over the page). Problem is not predictably reproducible (does not depend on the data), happens in OOo 2.3 and 3.2, in Ubuntu, XP, Server 2003 and Windows 7. My Heisenbug detector is ticking. I tried to reduce the size of batches and restarting OOo after each one; still, a small percentage of the documents are messed up. Of course I'll write about this on the Ooo mailing lists, but in the meanwhile, I have a delivery and lost too much time already. Where do I go? Completely avoid the ODT format and go for another template system. Suggestions? Anything that takes a few seconds to run is way too slow. OOo takes around a second and it sums to 15 days of processing time. I had to write a program for clustering the jobs over several clients. Keep the format but go for another tool/program for the conversion. Which one? There are many apps in the shareware or commercial repositories for windows, but trying each one is a daunting task. Some are too slow, some cannot be run in batch without buying it first, some cannot work from command line, etc. Open source tools tend not to reinvent the wheel and often depend on openoffice. Converting to an intermediate .DOC format could help to avoid the OOo bug, but it would double the processing time and complicate a task that is already too hairy. Try to produce the PDFs twice and compare them, discarding the whole batch if there's something wrong. Although the documents look equal, I know of no way to compare the binary content. Restart OOo after processing each document. it would take a lot more time to produce them it would lower the percentage of the wrong files, and make it very hard to identify them. Go for ReportLab and recreate the pages programmatically. This is the approach I'm going to try in a few minutes. Learn to properly format bulleted lists Thanks a lot.

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  • What's the standard algorithm for syncing two lists of objects?

    - by Oliver Giesen
    I'm pretty sure this must be in some kind of text book (or more likely in all of them) but I seem to be using the wrong keywords to search for it... :( A common task I'm facing while programming is that I am dealing with lists of objects from different sources which I need to keep in sync somehow. Typically there's some sort of "master list" e.g. returned by some external API and then a list of objects I create myself each of which corresponds to an object in the master list. Sometimes the nature of the external API will not allow me to do a live sync: For instance the external list might not implement notifications about items being added or removed or it might notify me but not give me a reference to the actual item that was added or removed. Furthermore, refreshing the external list might return a completely new set of instances even though they still represent the same information so simply storing references to the external objects might also not always be feasible. Another characteristic of the problem is that both lists cannot be sorted in any meaningful way. You should also assume that initializing new objects in the "slave list" is expensive, i.e. simply clearing and rebuilding it from scratch is not an option. So how would I typically tackle this? What's the name of the algorithm I should google for? In the past I have implemented this in various ways (see below for an example) but it always felt like there should be a cleaner and more efficient way. Here's an example approach: Iterate over the master list Look up each item in the "slave list" Add items that do not yet exist Somehow keep track of items that already exist in both lists (e.g. by tagging them or keeping yet another list) When done iterate once more over the slave list Remove all objects that have not been tagged (see 4.) Update Thanks for all your responses so far! I will need some time to look at the links. Maybe one more thing worthy of note: In many of the situations where I needed this the implementation of the "master list" is completely hidden from me. In the most extreme cases the only access I might have to the master list might be a COM-interface that exposes nothing but GetFirst-, GetNext-style methods. I'm mentioning this because of the suggestions to either sort the list or to subclass it both of which is unfortunately not practical in these cases unless I copy the elements into a list of my own and I don't think that would be very efficient. I also might not have made it clear enough that the elements in the two lists are of different types, i.e. not assignment-compatible: Especially, the elements in the master list might be available as interface references only.

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  • subclassing QList and operator+ overloading

    - by Milen
    I would like to be able to add two QList objects. For example: QList<int> b; b.append(10); b.append(20); b.append(30); QList<int> c; c.append(1); c.append(2); c.append(3); QList<int> d; d = b + c; For this reason, I decided to subclass the QList and to overload the operator+. Here is my code: class List : public QList<int> { public: List() : QList<int>() {} // Add QList + QList friend List operator+(const List& a1, const List& a2); }; List operator+(const List& a1, const List& a2) { List myList; myList.append(a1[0] + a2[0]); myList.append(a1[1] + a2[1]); myList.append(a1[2] + a2[2]); return myList; } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { QCoreApplication a(argc, argv); List b; b.append(10); b.append(20); b.append(30); List c; c.append(1); c.append(2); c.append(3); List d; d = b + c; List::iterator i; for(i = d.begin(); i != d.end(); ++i) qDebug() << *i; return a.exec(); } , the result is correct but I am not sure whether this is a good approach. I would like to ask whether there is better solution?

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  • Do Websites need Local Databases Anymore?

    - by viatropos
    If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models). My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have made them. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that what the website is? ...That place to integrate the worlds services for my specific cause... and, sigh, to store posts that only my site has access to. Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook? ... That way I can write apps entirely without a database and know that I'm doing it right. Note: Of course at some point you'd need a database, if you were doing something unique or new. But for the case where you're just rewiring information or creating things like videos, events, and products, is it really necessary anymore??

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  • Would a Centralized Blogging Service Work?

    - by viatropos
    If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models. My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that the main point of a website? Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook?

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  • SQL efficiency argument, add a column or solvable by query?

    - by theTurk
    I am a recent college graduate and a new hire for software development. Things have been a little slow lately so I was given a db task. My db skills are limited to pet projects with Rails and Django. So, I was a little surprised with my latest task. I have been asked by my manager to subclass Person with a 'Parent' table and add a reference to their custodian in the Person table. This is to facilitate going from Parent to Form when the custodian, not the Parent, is the FormContact. Here is a simplified, mock structure of a sql-db I am working with. I would have drawn the relationship tables if I had access to Visio. We have a table 'Person' and we have a table 'Form'. There is a table, 'FormContact', that relates a Person to a Form, not all Persons are related to a Form. There is a relationship table for Person to Person relationships (Employer, Parent, etc.) I've asked, "Why this couldn't be handled by a query?" Response, Inefficient. (Really!?!) So, I ask, "Why not have a reference to the Form? That would be more efficient since you wouldn't be querying the FormContacts table with the reference from child/custodian." Response, this would essentially make the Parent is a FormContact. (Fair enough.) I went ahead an wrote a query to get from non-FormContact Parent to Form, and tested on the production server. The response time was instantaneous. *SOME_VALUE* is the Parent's fk ID. SELECT FormID FROM FormContact WHERE FormContact.ContactID IN (SELECT SourceContactID FROM ContactRelationship WHERE (ContactRelationship.RelatedContactID = *SOME_VALUE*) AND (ContactRelationship.Relationship = 'Parent')); If I am right, "This is an unnecessary change." What should I do, defend my position or should I concede to the managers request? If I am wrong. What is my error? Is there a better solution than the manager's?

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  • Cocoa XML reader app

    - by Miskia
    Hello, I'm a newbie to Cocoa, just develop some little apps with C/C++ on Windows. I want to make a "simple" app on Cocoa. When the user specific XML file, the file nodes are represented "enduser viewable". I made an interface with some NSTextField. I made a subclass of NSDocument called "XMLFile" so i got "XMLFile.h" and "XMLFile.m" in my Xcode project. In the plist of my app i setup a new "Document Types": XML File - extensions: xml - role: view - class: XMLFile - store type: XML Here is my "XMLFile.h": #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface FichierXML : NSDocument { } IBOutlet NSTextField *dateField; IBOutlet NSTextField *titleField; IBOutlet NSTextField *descField; IBOutlet NSTextField *vidfileField; IBOutlet NSTextField *imgfileField; IBOutlet NSObjectController *object; NSUInteger *mask; @end And here is my "XMLFile.m": #import "XMLFile.h" @implementation XMLFile - (BOOL)readFromData:(NSData *)datafile ofType:(NSString *)typeName error:(NSError **)outerror { NSMutableArray* ReportCreationDate = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; NSMutableArray* ReportTitle = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; NSMutableArray* ReportDescription = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; NSMutableArray* VideoPath = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; NSMutableArray* VideoThumbnailImageName = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:10]; NSXMLDocument* doc = [[NSXMLDocument alloc] initWithData:datafile options:mask error:outerror]; NSXMLElement* root = [doc rootElement]; NSArray* dateElement = [root nodesForXPath:@"//Report/ReportCreationDate" error:nil]; for(NSXMLElement* xmlElement in dateElement) [dateElement setStringValue:[xmlElement stringValue]]; NSArray* titleElement = [root nodesForXPath:@"//Report/ReportTitle" error:nil]; for(NSXMLElement* xmlElement in titleElement) [titleField setStringValue:[xmlElement stringValue]]; NSArray* descElement = [root nodesForXPath:@"//Report/ReportDescription" error:nil]; for(NSXMLElement* xmlElement in descElement) [descField setStringValue:[xmlElement stringValue]]; NSArray* vidfileElement = [root nodesForXPath:@"//Report/Videos/Video/VideoPath" error:nil]; for(NSXMLElement* xmlElement in vidfileElement) [vidfileField setStringValue:[xmlElement stringValue]]; NSArray* imgfileElement = [root nodesForXPath:@"//Report/Videos/Video/VideoThumbnailImageName" error:nil]; for(NSXMLElement* xmlElement in imgfileElement) [imgfileField setStringValue:[xmlElement stringValue]]; [doc release]; [ReportCreationDate release]; [ReportTitle release]; [ReportDescription release]; [VideoPath release]; [VideoThumbnailImageName release]; return YES; } @end So. The user open the XMLFile, and XMLDocument analyse the file to extract nodes' data and send it to the differents NSTextField... But it doesn't work :( If someone can help me... I'm a newbie so don't be too rude if I made big mistakes :) Miskia.

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  • Spring.NET & Immediacy CMS (or how to inject to server side controls without using PageHandlerFactor

    - by Simon Rice
    Is there any way to inject dependencies into an Immediacy CMS control using Spring.NET, ideally without having to use to ContextRegistry when initialising the control? Update, with my own answer The issue here is that Immediacy already has a handler defined in web.config that deals with all aspx pages, & so it's not possible add an entry for Spring.NET's PageHandlerFactory in web.config as per a normal webforms app. That rules out making the control implement ISupportsWebDependencyInjection. Furthermore, most of Immediacy's generated pages are aspx pages that don't physically exist on the drive. I have changed the title of the question to reflect this. What I have done to get Dependency Injection working is: Add the usual entries to web.config for Spring.NET as outlined in the documentation, except for the adding the entry to the <httpHandlers> section. In this case I've got my object definitions in Spring.config. Create the following abstract base class that will deal with all of the Dependency Injection work: DIControl.cs public abstract class DIControl : ImmediacyControl { protected virtual string DIName { get { return this.GetType().Name; } } protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { if (ContextRegistry.GetContext().GetObject(DIName, this.GetType()) != null) ContextRegistry.GetContext().ConfigureObject(this, DIName); base.OnInit(e); } } For non-immediacy controls, you can make this server side control inherit from Control or whatever subclass of that you like. For any control with which you wish to use with Spring.NET's Inversion of Control container, define it to inherit from DIControl & add the relelvant entry to Spring.config, for example: SampleControl.cs public class SampleControl : DIControl, INamingContainer { public string Text { get; set; } protected string InjectedText { get; set; } public SampleControl() : base() { Text = "Hello world"; } protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter output) { output.Write(string.Format("{0} {1}", Text, InjectedText)); } } Spring.config <objects xmlns="http://www.springframework.net"> <object id="SampleControl" type="MyProject.SampleControl, MyAssembly"> <property name="InjectedText" value="from Spring.NET" /> </object> </objects> You can optionally override DIName if you wish to name your entry in Spring.config differently from the name of your class. Provided everything's done correctly, you will have the control writing out "Hello world from Spring.NET!" when used in a page. This solution uses Spring.NET's ContextRegistry from within the control, but I would be surprised if there's no way around that for Immediacy at least since the page objects themselves aren't accessible. However, can this be improved at all from a Spring.NET perspective? Is there maybe an Immediacy plugin that already does this that I'm completely unaware of? Or is there an approach that does this in a more elegant way? I'm open to suggestions.

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  • Repeating fields in similar database tables

    - by user1738833
    I have been tasked with working on a database that I have never seen before and I'm looking at the DB structure. Some of the central and most heavily queried and joined tables look like virtual duplicates of each other. Here's a massively simplified representation of the situation, with business-sensitive information changed, listing hypothetical table names and fields: TopLevelGroup: PK_TLGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK SubGroup: PK_SubGroupId, FK_ParentTopLevelGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK SubSubGroup: PK_SubSUbGroupId, FK_ParentSubGroupId, DisplaysXOnBill, DisplaysYOnBill, IsInvoicedForJ, IsInvoicedForK I haven't listed the types of the fields as I don't think it's particularly important to the situation. In addition, it's worth saying that rather than four repeated fields as in the example above, I'm looking at 86 repeated fields. For the most part, those fields genuinely do represent "facts" about the primary table entity, so it's not automatically wrong for that reason. In addition, the "groups" represented here have a property inheritance relationship. If DisplaysXOnBill is NULL in the SubSubGroup, it takes the value of DisplaysXOnBillfrom it's parent, the SubGroup, and so-on up to the TopLevelGroup. Further, the requirements will never require that the model extends beyond three levels, so there is no need for flexibility in that area. Is there a design smell from several tables which describe very similar entities having almost identical fields? If so, what might be a better design of the example above? I'm using the phrase "design smell" to indicate a possible problem. Of course, in any given situation, a particular design might well be the best solution. I'm looking for a more general answer - wondering what might be wrong with this design and what might be the better design were that the case. Possibly related, but not primary questions: Is this database schema in a reasonably normal form (e.g. to 3NF), insofar as can be told from the information I've provided. I can't see a problem with the requirements of 2NF and 3NF, except in their inheriting the requirements of 1NF. Is 1NF satisfied though? Are repeating groups allowed in different tables? Is there a best-practice method for implementing the inheritance relationship in a database as I require? The method above feels clunky to me because any query on the SubSubGroup necessarily needs to join onto the SubGroup and the TopLevelGroup tables to collect inherited facts, which can make even trivial joins requiring facts from the SubSubGroup table rather long-winded. There are, of course, political considerations to making a relatively large change like this. For the purpose of this question, I'm happy to ignore that fact in the interests of keeping the answers ring-fenced to the technical problem.

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  • many-to-many performance concerns with fluent nhibernate.

    - by Ciel
    I have a situation where I have several many-to-many associations. In the upwards of 12 to 15. Reading around I've seen that it's generally believed that many-to-many associations are not 'typical', yet they are the only way I have been able to create the associations appropriate for my case, so I'm not sure how to optimize any further. Here is my basic scenario. class Page { IList<Tag> Tags { get; set; } IList<Modification> Modifications { get; set; } IList<Aspect> Aspects { get; set; } } This is one of my 'core' classes, and coincidentally one of my core tables. Virtually half of the objects in my code can have an IList<Page>, and some of them have IList<T> where T has its own IList<Page>. As you can see, from an object oriented standpoint, this is not really a problem. But from a database standpoint this begins to introduce a lot of junction tables. So far it has worked fine for me, but I am wondering if anyone has any ideas on how I could improve on this structure. I've spent a long time thinking and in order to achieve the appropriate level of association required, I cannot think of any way to improve it. The only thing I have come up with is to make intermediate classes for each object that has an IList<Page>, but that doesn't really do anything that the HasManyToMany does not already do except introduce another class. It does not extend the functionality and, from what I can tell, it does not improve performance. Any thoughts? I am also concerned about Primary Key limits in this scenario. Most everything needs to be able to have these properties, but the Pages cannot be unique to each object, because they are going to be frequently shared and joined between multiple objects. All relationships are one-sided. (That is, a Page has no knowledge of what owns it). Because of this, I also have no Inverse() mapped HasManyToMany collections. Also, I have read the similar question : Usage of ORMs like NHibernate when there are many associations - performance concerns But it really did not answer my concerns.

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  • keyboard hiding my textview

    - by Risma
    hi guys i have a simple app, it consist of 2 textview, 1 uiview as a coretext subclass, and then 1 scrollview. the others part is subviews from scrollview. I use this scrollview because i need to scroll the textviews and uiview at the same time. I already scroll all of them together, but the problem is, the keyboard hiding some lines in the textview. I have to change the frame of scrollview when keyboard appear, but it still not help. This is my code : UIScrollView *scrollView; UIView *viewTextView; UITextView *lineNumberTextView; UITextView *codeTextView; -(void) viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated{ [super viewWillAppear:animated]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(keyboardWillAppear:) name:UIKeyboardWillShowNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(keyboardWillDisappear:) name:UIKeyboardWillHideNotification object:nil]; self.scrollView.frame = CGRectMake(0, 88, self.codeTextView.frame.size.width, self.codeTextView.frame.size.height); scrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(self.view.frame.size.width, viewTextView.frame.size.height); [scrollView addSubview:viewTextView]; CGAffineTransform translationCoreText = CGAffineTransformMakeTranslation(60, 7); [viewTextView setTransform:translationCoreText]; [scrollView addSubview:lineNumberTextView]; [self.scrollView setScrollEnabled:YES]; [self.codeTextView setScrollEnabled:NO]; } -(void)keyboardWillAppear:(NSNotification *)notification { [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:[[[notification userInfo] objectForKey:UIKeyboardAnimationDurationUserInfoKey] doubleValue]]; CGRect keyboardEndingUncorrectedFrame = [[[notification userInfo] objectForKey:UIKeyboardFrameEndUserInfoKey ] CGRectValue]; CGRect keyboardEndingFrame = [self.view convertRect:keyboardEndingUncorrectedFrame fromView:nil]; self.scrollView.frame = CGRectMake(0, 88, self.codeTextView.frame.size.width, self.codeTextView.frame.size.height - keyboardEndingFrame.size.height); [UIView commitAnimations]; } -(void)keyboardWillDisappear:(NSNotification *) notification { [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:[[[notification userInfo] objectForKey:UIKeyboardAnimationDurationUserInfoKey] doubleValue]]; CGRect keyboardEndingUncorrectedFrame = [[[notification userInfo] objectForKey:UIKeyboardFrameEndUserInfoKey] CGRectValue]; CGRect keyboardEndingFrame = [self.view convertRect:keyboardEndingUncorrectedFrame fromView:nil]; self.scrollView.frame = CGRectMake(0, 88, self.codeTextView.frame.size.width, self.codeTextView.frame.size.height + keyboardEndingFrame.size.height); [UIView commitAnimations]; } can somebody help me please?

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  • JPA Inheritance and Relations - Clarification question

    - by Michael
    Here the scenario: I have a unidirectional 1:N Relation from Person Entity to Address Entity. And a bidirectional 1:N Relation from User Entity to Vehicle Entity. Here is the Address class: @Entity public class Address implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) privat Long int ... The Vehicles Class: @Entity public class Vehicle implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @ManyToOne private User owner; ... @PreRemove protected void preRemove() { //this.owner.removeVehicle(this); } public Vehicle(User owner) { this.owner = owner; ... The Person Class: @Entity @Inheritance(strategy = InheritanceType.JOINED) @DiscriminatorColumn(name="PERSON_TYP") public class Person implements Serializable { @Id protected String username; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval=true) @JoinTable(name = "USER_ADDRESS", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "USERNAME"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "ADDRESS_ID")) protected List<Address> addresses; ... @PreRemove protected void prePersonRemove(){ this.addresses = null; } ... The User Class which is inherited from the Person class: @Entity @Table(name = "Users") @DiscriminatorValue("USER") public class User extends Person { @OneToMany(mappedBy = "owner", cascade = {CascadeType.PERSIST, CascadeType.REMOVE}) private List<Vehicle> vehicles; ... When I try to delete a User who has an address I have to use orphanremoval=true on the corresponding relation (see above) and the preRemove function where the address List is set to null. Otherwise (no orphanremoval and adress list not set to null) a foreign key contraint fails. When i try to delete a user who has an vehicle a concurrent Acces Exception is thrown when do not uncomment the "this.owner.removeVehicle(this);" in the preRemove Function of the vehicle. The thing i do not understand is that before i used this inheritance there was only a User class which had all relations: @Entity @Table(name = "Users") public class User implements Serializable { @Id protected String username; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "owner", cascade = {CascadeType.PERSIST, CascadeType.REMOVE}) private List<Vehicle> vehicles; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable(name = "USER_ADDRESS", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "USERNAME") inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "ADDRESS_ID")) ptivate List<Address> addresses; ... No orphanremoval, and the vehicle class has used the uncommented statement above in its preRemove function. And - I could delte a user who has an address and i could delte a user who has a vehicle. So why doesn't everything work without changes when i use inheritance? I use JPA 2.0, EclipseLink 2.0.2, MySQL 5.1.x and Netbeans 6.8

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