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• Rails running multiple delayed_job - lock tables

  - by pepernik

  Hey. I use delayed_job for background processing. I have 8 CPU server, MySQL and I start 7 delayed_job processes RAILS_ENV=production script/delayed_job -n 7 start Q1: I'm wondering is it possible that 2 or more delayed_job processes start processing the same process (the same record-row in the database delayed_jobs). I checked the code of the delayed_job plugin but can not find the lock directive in a way it should be. I think each process should lock the database table before executing an UPDATE on lock_by column. They lock the record simply by updating the locked_by field (UPDATE delayed_jobs SET locked_by...). Is that really enough? No locking needed? Why? I know that UPDATE has higher priority than SELECT but I think this does not have the effect in this case. My understanding of the multy-threaded situation is: Process1: Get waiting job X. [OK] Process2: Get waiting jobs X. [OK] Process1: Update locked_by field. [OK] Process2: Update locked_by field. [OK] Process1: Get waiting job X. [Already processed] Process2: Get waiting jobs X. [Already processed] I think in some cases more jobs can get the same information and can start processing the same process. Q2: Is 7 delayed_jobs a good number for 8CPU server? Why yes/not. Thx 10x!

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• Are document-oriented databases any more suitable than relational ones for persisting objects?

  - by Owen Fraser-Green

  In terms of database usage, the last decade was the age of the ORM with hundreds competing to persist our object graphs in plain old-fashioned RMDBS. Now we seem to be witnessing the coming of age of document-oriented databases. These databases are highly optimized for schema-free documents but are also very attractive for their ability to scale out and query a cluster in parallel. Document-oriented databases also hold a couple of advantages over RDBMS's for persisting data models in object-oriented designs. As the tables are schema-free, one can store objects belonging to different classes in an inheritance hierarchy side-by-side. Also, as the domain model changes, so long as the code can cope with getting back objects from an old version of the domain classes, one can avoid having to migrate the whole database at every change. On the other hand, the performance benefits of document-oriented databases mainly appear to come about when storing deeper documents. In object-oriented terms, classes which are composed of other classes, for example, a blog post and its comments. In most of the examples of this I can come up with though, such as the blog one, the gain in read access would appear to be offset by the penalty in having to write the whole blog post "document" every time a new comment is added. It looks to me as though document-oriented databases can bring significant benefits to object-oriented systems if one takes extreme care to organize the objects in deep graphs optimized for the way the data will be read and written but this means knowing the use cases up front. In the real world, we often don't know until we actually have a live implementation we can profile. So is the case of relational vs. document-oriented databases one of swings and roundabouts? I'm interested in people's opinions and advice, in particular if anyone has built any significant applications on a document-oriented database.

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• How to extract block of XML from a log file on Linux

  - by dragonmantank

  I have a log file that looks like the following: 2010-05-12 12:23:45 Some sort of log entry 2010-05-12 01:45:12 Request XML: <RootTag> <Element>Value</Element> <Element>Another Value</Element> </RootTag> 2010-05-12 01:45:32 Response XML: <ResponseRoot> <Element>Value</Element> </ResponseRoot> 2010-05-12 01:45:49 Another log entry What I want to do is extract the Request and Response XML (and ultimately dump them into their own single files). I had a similar parser that used egrep but the XML was all on one line, not multiple ones like above. The log files are also somewhat large, hitting 500-600 megs a log. Smaller logs I would read in via a PHP script and use regex matching, but the amount of memory required for such a large file would more than likely kill the script. Is there an easy way using the built-in tools on a Linux box (CentOS in this case) to extract multiple lines or am I going to have to bite the bullet and use Perl or PHP to read in the entire file to extract it?

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• Message queue proxy in Python + Twisted

  - by gasper_k

  Hi, I want to implement a lightweight Message Queue proxy. It's job is to receive messages from a web application (PHP) and send them to the Message Queue server asynchronously. The reason for this proxy is that the MQ isn't always avaliable and is sometimes lagging, or even down, but I want to make sure the messages are delivered, and the web application returns immediately. So, PHP would send the message to the MQ proxy running on the same host. That proxy would save the messages to SQLite for persistence, in case of crashes. At the same time it would send the messages from SQLite to the MQ in batches when the connection is available, and delete them from SQLite. Now, the way I understand, there are these components in this service: message listener (listens to the messages from PHP and writes them to a Incoming Queue) DB flusher (reads messages from the Incoming Queue and saves them to a database; due to SQLite single-threadedness) MQ connection handler (keeps the connection to the MQ server online by reconnecting) message sender (collects messages from SQlite db and sends them to the MQ server, then removes them from db) I was thinking of using Twisted for #1 (TCPServer), but I'm having problem with integrating it with other points, which aren't event-driven. Intuition tells me that each of these points should be running in a separate thread, because all are IO-bound and independent of each other, but I could easily put them in a single thread. Even though, I couldn't find any good and clear (to me) examples on how to implement this worker thread aside of Twisted's main loop. The example I've started with is the chatserver.py, which uses service.Application and internet.TCPServer objects. If I start my own thread prior to creating TCPServer service, it runs a few times, but the it stops and never runs again. I'm not sure, why this is happening, but it's probably because I don't use threads with Twisted correctly. Any suggestions on how to implement a separate worker thread and keep Twisted? Do you have any alternative architectures in mind?

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• Cannot run Python script on Windows with output redirected??

  - by Wai Yip Tung

  This is running on Windows 7 (64 bit), Python 2.6 with Win32 Extensions for Python. I have a simple script that just print "hello world". I can launch it with python hello.py. In this case I can redirect the output to a file. But if I run it by just typing hello.py on the command line and redirect the output, I get an exception. C:> python hello.py hello world C:> python hello.py >output C:> type output hello world C:> hello.py hello world C:> hello.py >output close failed in file object destructor: Error in sys.excepthook: Original exception was: I think I first get this error after upgrading to Windows 7. I remember it should work in XP. I have seen people talking about this bug python-Bugs-1012692 | Can't pipe input to a python program. But that was long time ago. And it does not mention any solution. Have anyone experienced this? Anyone can help?

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• How can I superimpose modified loess lines on a ggplot2 qplot?

  - by briandk

  Background Right now, I'm creating a multiple-predictor linear model and generating diagnostic plots to assess regression assumptions. (It's for a multiple regression analysis stats class that I'm loving at the moment :-) My textbook (Cohen, Cohen, West, and Aiken 2003) recommends plotting each predictor against the residuals to make sure that: The residuals don't systematically covary with the predictor The residuals are homoscedastic with respect to each predictor in the model On point (2), my textbook has this to say: Some statistical packages allow the analyst to plot lowess fit lines at the mean of the residuals (0-line), 1 standard deviation above the mean, and 1 standard deviation below the mean of the residuals....In the present case {their example}, the two lines {mean + 1sd and mean - 1sd} remain roughly parallel to the lowess {0} line, consistent with the interpretation that the variance of the residuals does not change as a function of X. (p. 131) How can I modify loess lines? I know how to generate a scatterplot with a "0-line,": # First, I'll make a simple linear model and get its diagnostic stats library(ggplot2) data(cars) mod <- fortify(lm(speed ~ dist, data = cars)) attach(mod) str(mod) # Now I want to make sure the residuals are homoscedastic qplot (x = dist, y = .resid, data = mod) + geom_smooth(se = FALSE) # "se = FALSE" Removes the standard error bands But does anyone know how I can use ggplot2 and qplot to generate plots where the 0-line, "mean + 1sd" AND "mean - 1sd" lines would be superimposed? Is that a weird/complex question to be asking?

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• Using SiteMesh with RequestDispatcher's forward()

  - by Rob Hruska

  I'm attempting to integrate SiteMesh into a legacy application using Tomcat 5 as my a container. I have a main.jsp that I'm decorating with a simple decorator. In decorators.xml, I've just got one decorator defined: <decorators defaultdir="/decorators"> <decorator name="layout-main" page="layout-main.jsp"> <pattern>/jsp/main.jsp</pattern> </decorator> </decorators> This decorator works if I manually go to http://example.com/my-webapp/jsp/main.jsp. However, there are a few places where a servlet, instead of doing a redirect to a jsp, does a forward: getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/jsp/main.jsp").forward(request, response); This means that the URL remains at something like http://example.com/my-webapp/servlet/MyServlet instead of the jsp file and is therefore not being decorated, I presume since it doesn't match the pattern in decorators.xml. I can't do a <pattern>/*</pattern> because there are other jsps that do not need to be decorated by layout-main.jsp. I can't do a <pattern>/servlet/MyServlet*</pattern> because MyServlet may forward to main.jsp sometimes and perhaps error.jsp at other times. Is there a way to work around this without expansive changes to how the servlets work? Since it's a legacy app I don't have as much freedom to change things, so I'm hoping for something configuration-wise that will fix this. SiteMesh's documentation really isn't that great. I've been working mostly off the example application that comes with the distribution. I really like SiteMesh, and am hoping I can get it to work in this case.

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• Tablet interface for the physically disabled?

  - by Glenn

  My sister has Cerebral Palsy, which in her case means she has only gross motor control and her speech is slurred. Implications should be obvious: traditional computer/phone/tablet interfaces won't work for her and she can't speak clearly enough for speech recognition software to help her at all. She enjoys reading but has difficulty holding the book and/or turning a page. There are a few options for helping her use a computer, but nothing for tablets or eReaders. That's where you come in. I would like to make (or buy, if such a thing exists) a better interface to an Android tablet that would work for someone with little to no physical dexterity or speech ability. I'd also be interested in work on the Kindle or iPad, but I'm most familiar with Android so I'm starting there. I know Android has Bluetooth capability. Is it possible to interface a joystick to control the Android device? By "control", I mean the entire operating system - selecting an app, launching it, controlling the menus, etc. I want to give her control over the whole thing, not just a specific app. On a PC this can be accomplished by creating a generic USB HID interface and an arcade joystick to move the mouse over the screen and click on thigns. Is it possible to do something like that in Android? Any help you can offer would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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• Testing for interface implementation in WCF/SOA

  - by rabidpebble

  I have a reporting service that implements a number of reports. Each report requires certain parameters. Groups of logically related parameters are placed in an interface, which the report then implements: [ServiceContract] [ServiceKnownType(typeof(ExampleReport))] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] void Process(IReport report); } public interface IReport { string PrintedBy { get; set; } } public interface IApplicableDateRangeParameter { DateTime StartDate { get; set; } DateTime EndDate { get; set; } } [DataContract] public abstract class Report : IReport { [DataMember] public string PrintedBy { get; set; } } [DataContract] public class ExampleReport : Report, IApplicableDateRangeParameter { [DataMember] public DateTime StartDate { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime EndDate { get; set; } } The problem is that the WCF DataContractSerializer does not expose these interfaces in my client library, thus I can't write the generic report generating front-end that I plan to. Can WCF expose these interfaces, or is this a limitation of the serializer? If the latter case, then what is the canonical approach to this OO pattern? I've looked into NetDataContractSerializer but it doesn't seem to be an officially supported implementation (which means it's not an option in my project). Currently I've resigned myself to including the interfaces in a library that is common between the service and the client application, but this seems like an unnecessary extra dependency to me. Surely there is a more straightforward way to do this? I was under the impression that WCF was supposed to replace .NET remoting; checking if an object implements an interface seems to be one of the most basic features required of a remoting interface?

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• Java Random Slowdowns on Mac OS cont'd

  - by javajustice

  I asked this question a few weeks ago, but I'm still having the problem and I have some new hints. The original question is here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1651887/java-random-slowdowns-on-mac-os Basically, I have a java application that splits a job into independent pieces and runs them in separate threads. The threads have no synchronization or shared memory items. The only resources they do share are data files on the hard disk, with each thread having an open file channel. Most of the time it runs very fast, but occasionally it will run very slow for no apparent reason. If I attach a CPU profiler to it, then it will start running quickly again. If I take a CPU snapshot, it says its spending most of its time in "self time" in a function that doesn't do anything except check a few (unshared unsynchronized) booleans. I don't know how this could be accurate because 1, it makes no sense, and 2, attaching the profiler seems to knock the threads out of whatever mode they're in and fix the problem. Also, regardless of whether it runs fast or slow, it always finishes and gives the same output, and it never dips in total cpu usage (in this case ~1500%), implying that the threads aren't getting blocked. I have tried different garbage collectors, different sizings the parts of the memory space, writing data output to non-raid drives, and putting all data output in threads separate the main worker threads. Does anyone have any idea what kind of problem this could be? Could it be the operating system (OS X 10.6.2) ? I have not been able to duplicate it on a windows machine, but I don't have one with a similar hardware configuration.

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• Ditching Django's models for Ajax/Web Services

  - by Igor Ganapolsky

  Recently I came across a problem at work that made me rethink Django's models. The app I am developing resides on a Linux server. Its a simple model/view/controller app that involves user interaction and updating data in the database. The problem is that this data resides in a MS SQL database on a Windows machine. So in order to use Django's models, I would have to leverage an ODBC driver on linux, and the use a python add-on like pyodbc. Well, let me tell you, setting up a reliable and functional ODBC connection on linux is no easy feat! So much so, that I spent several hours maneuvering this on my CentOS with no luck, and was left with frustration and lots of dumb system errors. In the meantime I have a deadline to meet, and suddenly the very agile and rapid Django application is a roadblock rather than a pleasure to work with. Someone on my team suggested writing this app in .NET. But there are a few problems with that: it won't be deployable on a linux machine, and I won't be able to work on it since I don't know ASP.net. Then a much better suggestion was made: keep the app in django, but instead of using models, do straight up ajax/web services calls in the template. And then it dawned on me - what a great idea. Django's models seem like a nuissance and hindrance in this case, and I can just have someone else write .Net services on their side, that I can call from my template. As a result my app will be leaner and more compact. So, I was wondering if you guys ever came across a similar dillema and what you decided to do about it.

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• django: control json serialization

  - by abolotnov

  Is there a way to control json serialization in django? Simple code below will return serialized object in json: co = Collection.objects.all() c = serializers.serialize('json',co) The json will look similar to this: [ { "pk": 1, "model": "picviewer.collection", "fields": { "urlName": "architecture", "name": "\u0413\u043e\u0440\u043e\u0434 \u0438 \u0430\u0440\u0445\u0438\u0442\u0435\u043a\u0442\u0443\u0440\u0430", "sortOrder": 0 } }, { "pk": 2, "model": "picviewer.collection", "fields": { "urlName": "nature", "name": "\u041f\u0440\u0438\u0440\u043e\u0434\u0430", "sortOrder": 1 } }, { "pk": 3, "model": "picviewer.collection", "fields": { "urlName": "objects", "name": "\u041e\u0431\u044a\u0435\u043a\u0442\u044b \u0438 \u043d\u0430\u0442\u044e\u0440\u043c\u043e\u0440\u0442", "sortOrder": 2 } } ] You can see it's serializing it in a way that you are able to re-create the whole model, shall you want to do this at some point - fair enough, but not very handy for simple JS ajax in my case: I want bring the traffic to minimum and make the whole thing little clearer. What I did is I created a view that passes the object to a .json template and the template will do something like this to generate "nicer" json output: [ {% if collections %} {% for c in collections %} {"id": {{c.id}},"sortOrder": {{c.sortOrder}},"name": "{{c.name}}","urlName": "{{c.urlName}}"}{% if not forloop.last %},{% endif %} {% endfor %} {% endif %} ] This does work and the output is much (?) nicer: [ { "id": 1, "sortOrder": 0, "name": "????? ? ???????????", "urlName": "architecture" }, { "id": 2, "sortOrder": 1, "name": "???????", "urlName": "nature" }, { "id": 3, "sortOrder": 2, "name": "??????? ? ?????????", "urlName": "objects" } ] However, I'm bothered by the fast that my solution uses templates (an extra step in processing and possible performance impact) and it will take manual work to maintain shall I update the model, for example. I'm thinking json generating should be part of the model (correct me if I'm wrong) and done with either native python-json and django implementation but can't figure how to make it strip the bits that I don't want. One more thing - even when I restrict it to a set of fields to serialize, it will keep the id always outside the element container and instead present it as "pk" outside of it.

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• how to access anti aliasing method of a font with CSS

  - by Daniel Ramirez-Escudero

  I've had this problem in a lot of different webs. You have a font which has different anti-aliasing options, the designer uses the same font with different anti-aliasing options on different parts of the text on the web. So there is a difference between some elements. In this case I have sharp, crisp, strong and smooth. I've used a font generator to get the code to access it via @font-face. Even so, I also have the original .otf if important to know. Is there a method to access this? I upload a picture of what I mean and my actual code: ![@font-face { font-family: 'light'; src: url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.eot'); src: url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.eot?#iefix') format('embedded-opentype'), url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.woff') format('woff'), url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.ttf') format('truetype'), url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.svg#../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light') format('svg'); font-weight: normal; font-style: normal; }]![enter image description here][1]

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• Adding XOR function to bigint library

  - by Jason Gooner

  Hi, I'm using this Big Integer library for Javascript: http://www.leemon.com/crypto/BigInt.js and I need to be able to XOR two bigInts together and sadly the library doesn't include such a function. The library is relatively simple so I don't think it's a huge task, just confusing. I've been trying to hack one together but not having much luck, would be very grateful if someone could lend me a hand. This is what I've attempted (might be wrong). But im guessing the structure is going to be quite similar to some of the other functions in there. function xor(x, y) { var c, k, i; var result = new Array(0); // big int for result k=x.length>y.length ? x.length : y.length; // array length of the larger num // Make sure result is the correct array size? maybe: result = expand(result, k); // ? for (c=0, i=0; i < k; i++) { // Do some xor here } // return the bigint xor result return result; } What confuses me is I don't really understand how it stores numbers in the array blocks for the bigInt. I don't think it's a case of simply bigintC[i] = bigintA[i] ^ bigintB[i], then most other functions have some masking operation at the end that I don't understand. I would really appreciate any help getting this working. Thanks

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• C# Hiding, overriding and calling function from base class.

  - by Lukasz Lysik

  I'm learning C# and I encountered the following problem. I have two classes: base and derived: class MyBase { public void MyMethod() { Console.WriteLine("MyBase::MyMethod()"); } } class MyDerived: MyBase { public void MyMethod() { Console.WriteLine("MyDerived::MyMethod()"); } } For now, without virtual and override key words. When I compile this I get the warning (which is of course expected) that I try to hide MyMethod from MyBase class. What I want to do is to call the method from the base class having an instance of derived class. I do this like this: MyDerived myDerived = new MyDerived(); ((MyBase)myDerived).MyMethod(); It works fine when I do not specify any virtual, etc. keywords in the methods. I tried to put combination of the keywords and I got the following results: | MyBase::MyMethod | MyDerived::MyMethod | Result printed on the console | | -----------------|---------------------|-------------------------------| | - | - | MyBase::MyMethod() | | - | new | MyBase::MyMethod() | | virtual | new | MyBase::MyMethod() | | virtual | override | MyDerived::MyMethod() | I hope the table is clear to you. I have two questions: Is it the correct way to call the function from the base class (((MyBase)myDerived).MyMethod();)? I know about base keyword, but it can be called only from the inside of the derived class. Is it right? Why in the last case (with virtual and override modifiers) the method which was called came from the derived class? Would you please explain that?

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• m2eclipse: How to set Eclipse project settings when importing a maven project?

  - by Marius Andreiana

  Using m2eclipse Eclipse plugin, everybody on the dev team should be able to checkout source code, import Maven project in Eclipse and be good to go. I saw m2eclipse is being merged into Eclipse 3.7, and maven-eclipse-plugin won't be maintained any longer, so I'm looking for a m2eclipse-based solution (without running "mvn eclipse:clean eclipse:eclipse" before project import, which is what maven-eclipse-plugin does). maven-eclipse-plugin allows this in pom.xml <additionalConfig> <file> <name>.settings/com.google.gdt.eclipse.core.prefs</name> <content><![CDATA[ eclipse.preferences.version=2 jarsExcludedFromWebInfLib= warSrcDir=${project.build.directory}/${project.build.finalName} warSrcDirIsOutput=true ]]> </content> </file> The more general question is How would m2eclipse do something similar? For some cases, just saving the eclipse .settings/prefs file works (e.g. org.eclipse.jdt.ui.prefs), but in this case, com.google.gdt.eclipse.core.prefs is always overwritten on m2eclipse project import. A specific question is asked here, with no reply. Thanks! UPDATE: Not possible now, see request

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• Erlang ODBC parameter query with null parameters

  - by Schlomer

  Is it possible to pass null values to parameter queries? For example Sql = "insert into TableX values (?,?)". Params = [{sql_integer, [Val1]}, {sql_float, [Val2]}]. % Val2 may be a float, or it may be the atom, undefined odbc:param_query(OdbcRef, Sql, Params). Now, of course odbc:param_query/3 is going to complain if Val2 is undefined when trying to match to a sql_float, but my question is... Is it possible to use a parameterized query, such as: Sql = "insert into TableY values (?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)". with any null parameters? I have a use case where I am dumping a large number of real-time data into a database by either inserting or updating. Some of the tables I am updating have a dozen or so nullable fields, and I do not have a guarantee that all of the data will be there. Concatenating a SQL together for each query, checking for null values seems complex, and the wrong way to do it. Having a parameterized query for each permutation is simply not an option. Any thoughts or ideas would be fantastic! Thank you!

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• Using PLINQ to calculate and update values within the enclosure does not work

  - by Keith

  I recently needed to do a running total on a report. Where for each group, I order the rows and then calculate the running total based on the previous rows within the group. Aha! I thought, a perfect use case for PLINQ! However, when I wrote up the code, I got some strange behavior. The values I was modifying showed as being modified when stepping through the debugger, but when they were accessed they were always zero. Sample Code: class Item { public int PortfolioID; public int TAAccountID; public DateTime TradeDate; public decimal Shares; public decimal RunningTotal; } List<Item> itemList = new List<Item> { new Item { PortfolioID = 1, TAAccountID = 1, TradeDate = new DateTime(2010, 5, 1), Shares = 5.335m, }, new Item { PortfolioID = 1, TAAccountID = 1, TradeDate = new DateTime(2010, 5, 2), Shares = -2.335m, }, new Item { PortfolioID = 2, TAAccountID = 1, TradeDate = new DateTime(2010, 5, 1), Shares = 7.335m, }, new Item { PortfolioID = 2, TAAccountID = 1, TradeDate = new DateTime(2010, 5, 2), Shares = -3.335m, }, }; var found = (from i in itemList where i.TAAccountID == 1 select new Item { TAAccountID = i.TAAccountID, PortfolioID = i.PortfolioID, Shares = i.Shares, TradeDate = i.TradeDate, RunningTotal = 0 }); found.AsParallel().ForAll(x => { var prevItems = found.Where(i => i.PortfolioID == x.PortfolioID && i.TAAccountID == x.TAAccountID && i.TradeDate <= x.TradeDate); x.RunningTotal = prevItems.Sum(s => s.Shares); }); foreach (Item i in found) { Console.WriteLine("Running total: {0}", i.RunningTotal); } Console.ReadLine(); If I change the select for found to be .ToArray(), then it works fine and I get calculated reuslts. Any ideas what I am doing wrong?

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• Why thread in background is not waiting for task to complete?

  - by Haris Hasan

  I am playing with async await feature of C#. Things work as expected when I use it with UI thread. But when I use it in a non-UI thread it doesn't work as expected. Consider the code below private void Click_Button(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var bg = new BackgroundWorker(); bg.DoWork += BgDoWork; bg.RunWorkerCompleted += BgOnRunWorkerCompleted; bg.RunWorkerAsync(); } private void BgOnRunWorkerCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs runWorkerCompletedEventArgs) { } private async void BgDoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs doWorkEventArgs) { await Method(); } private static async Task Method() { for (int i = int.MinValue; i < int.MaxValue; i++) { var http = new HttpClient(); var tsk = await http.GetAsync("http://www.ebay.com"); } } When I execute this code, background thread don't wait for long running task in Method to complete. Instead it instantly executes the BgOnRunWorkerCompleted after calling Method. Why is that so? What am I missing here? P.S: I am not interested in alternate ways or correct ways of doing this. I want to know what is actually happening behind the scene in this case? Why is it not waiting?

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• Searching a column containing CSV data in a MySQL table for existence of input values

  - by Adarsh R

  Hi, I have a table say, ITEM, in MySQL that stores data as follows: ID FEATURES -------------------- 1 AB,CD,EF,XY 2 PQ,AC,A3,B3 3 AB,CDE 4 AB1,BC3 -------------------- As an input, I will get a CSV string, something like "AB,PQ". I want to get the records that contain AB or PQ. I realized that we've to write a MySQL function to achieve this. So, if we have this magical function MATCH_ANY defined in MySQL that does this, I would then simply execute an SQL as follows: select * from ITEM where MATCH_ANY(FEAURES, "AB,PQ") = 0 The above query would return the records 1, 2 and 3. But I'm running into all sorts of problems while implementing this function as I realized that MySQL doesn't support arrays and there's no simple way to split strings based on a delimiter. Remodeling the table is the last option for me as it involves lot of issues. I might also want to execute queries containing multiple MATCH_ANY functions such as: select * from ITEM where MATCH_ANY(FEATURES, "AB,PQ") = 0 and MATCH_ANY(FEATURES, "CDE") In the above case, we would get an intersection of records (1, 2, 3) and (3) which would be just 3. Any help is deeply appreciated. Thanks

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• UpdateModel not working consistently for me if a ddl gets hidden by jQuery

  - by awrigley

  Hi My jQuery code hides a ddl under certain circumstances. When this is the case, after submitting the form, using the UpdateModel doesn't seem to work consistently. My code in the controller: // POST: /IllnessDetail/Edit [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(IllnessDetail ill) { IllnessDetailFormViewModel mfv = new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill); if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { IllnessDetail sick = idr.GetLatestIllnessDetailByUsername(User.Identity.Name); UpdateModel(sick); idr.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Current", "IllnessDetail"); } catch { ModelState.AddRuleViolations(mfv.IllnessDetail.GetRuleViolations()); } } return View(new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill)); } I have only just started with MVC, and working under a deadline, so am still hazy as to how UpdateModel works. Debugging seems to reveal that the correct value is passed in to the action method: public ActionResult Edit(IllnessDetail ill) And the correct value is put into sick in the following line: IllnessDetailFormViewModel mfv = new IllnessDetailFormViewModel(ill); However, when all is said, done and returned to the client, what displays is the value of: sick.IdInfectiousAgent instead of the value of: ill.IdInfectiousAgent The only reason I can think of is that the ddlInfectiousAgent has been hidden by jQuery. Or am I barking up the wrong lamp post? Andrew

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• My android tests don't get internet access!

  - by Malachii

  The subject says it all. My application gets internet access thanks to the android.permission.INTERNET permission, but my test cases don't while using the instrumentation test runner. This means I can't test my server IO routines in my test cases. What's up? Here's my manifest in case it helps you. Thanks! Sorry about the lack of indents - could not get it working on short notice with this site. Thanks! <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.example.helloandroid" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0"> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"></uses-permission> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <uses-library android:name="android.test.runner" /> <activity android:name=".HelloAndroid" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="2" /> <instrumentation android:name="android.test.InstrumentationTestRunner" android:targetPackage="qnext.mobile.redirect" android:label="Qnext Redirect Tests" /> </manifest>

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• Read file:// URLs in IE XMLHttpRequest

  - by Dan Fabulich

  I'm developing a JavaScript application that's meant to be run either from a web server (over http) or from the file system (on a file:// URL). As part of this code, I need to use XMLHttpRequest to load files in the same directory as the page and in subdirectories of the page. This code works fine ("PASS") when executed on a web server, but doesn't work ("FAIL") in Internet Explorer 8 when run off the file system: <html><head> <script> window.onload = function() { var xhr = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhr.open("GET", window.location.href, false); xhr.send(null); if (/TestString/.test(xhr.responseText)) { document.body.innerHTML="<p>PASS</p>"; } } </script> <body><p>FAIL</p></body> Of course, at first it fails because no scripts can run at all on the file system; the user is prompted a yellow bar, warning that "To help protect your security, Internet Explorer has restricted this webpage from running scripts or ActiveX controls that could access your computer." But even once I click on the bar and "Allow Blocked Content" the page still fails; I get an "Access is Denied" error on the xhr.open call. This puzzles me, because MSDN says that "For development purposes, the file:// protocol is allowed from the Local Machine zone." This local file should be part of the Local Machine Zone, right? How can I get code like this to work? I'm fine with prompting the user with security warnings; I'm not OK with forcing them to turn off security in the control panel. EDIT: I am not, in fact, loading an XML document in my case; I'm loading a plain text file (.txt).

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• What is the base open source java package to filter/match URLs?

  - by Boaz

  Hi, I have an high performance application which deals with URLs. For every URL it needs to retrieve the appropriate settings from a predefined pool. Every settings object is associated with a URL pattern which indicates which URLs should use these settings. The matching rules are as follows: "google.com" match pattern should match all URLs pointing to the google domain (thus, maps.google.com and www.google.com/match are matched). "*.google.com" should match all URLs pointing to a subdomain of google.com (thus, maps.google.com matches, but google.com and www.google.com don't). "maps.google.com" should match all URLs pointing to this specific subdomain. Apart from the above rules, every match rule can contain a path, which means that the path part of the URL should start with the match rule path. So: "*.google.com/maps" matches "maps.google.com/maps" but not "maps.google.com/advanced". As you can see the rules above are overlapping. In the case two rules exist which match the same URL the most specific should apply. The list above is ranked from least specific to most specific. This seems to be such a standard problem that I was hoping to use a ready made library rather than program my self. Google reveals a couple of options but without a clear way to choose between them. What would you recommend as a good library for this task? Thanks, Boaz

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• Type result with Ternary operator in C#

  - by Vaccano

  I am trying to use the ternary operator, but I am getting hung up on the type it thinks the result should be. Below is an example that I have contrived to show the issue I am having: class Program { public static void OutputDateTime(DateTime? datetime) { Console.WriteLine(datetime); } public static bool IsDateTimeHappy(DateTime datetime) { if (DateTime.Compare(datetime, DateTime.Parse("1/1")) == 0) return true; return false; } static void Main(string[] args) { DateTime myDateTime = DateTime.Now; OutputDateTime(IsDateTimeHappy(myDateTime) ? null : myDateTime); Console.ReadLine(); ^ } | } | // This line has the compile issue ---------------+ On the line indicated above, I get the following compile error: Type of conditional expression cannot be determined because there is no implicit conversion between '< null ' and 'System.DateTime' I am confused because the parameter is a nullable type (DateTime?). Why does it need to convert at all? If it is null then use that, if it is a date time then use that. I was under the impression that: condition ? first_expression : second_expression; was the same as: if (condition) first_expression; else second_expression; Clearly this is not the case. What is the reasoning behind this? (NOTE: I know that if I make "myDateTime" a nullable DateTime then it will work. But why does it need it? As I stated earlier this is a contrived example. In my real example "myDateTime" is a data mapped value that cannot be made nullable.)

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