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  • How would I construct a terminal command to download a folder with wget from a Media Temple (gs) ser

    - by racl101
    I'm trying to download a folder using wget on the Terminal (I'm usin a Mac if that matters) because my ftp client sucks and keeps timing out. It doesn't stay connected for long. So I was wondering if I could use wget to connect via ftp protocol to the server to download the directory in question. I have searched around in the internet for this and have attempted to write the command but it keeps failing. So assuming the following: ftp username is: [email protected] ftp host is: ftp.s12345.gridserver.com ftp password is: somepassword I have tried to write the command in the following ways: wget -r ftp://[email protected]:[email protected]/path/to/desired/folder/ wget -r ftp://serveradmin:[email protected]/path/to/desired/folder/ When I try the first way I get this error: Bad port number. When I try the second way I get a little further but I get this error: Resolving s12345.gridserver.com... 71.46.226.79 Connecting to s12345.gridserver.com|71.46.226.79|:21... connected. Logging in as serveradmin ... Login incorrect. What could I be doing wrong?

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  • encrypting passwords in a python conf file on a windows platform

    - by Richard
    Hello all. I have a script running on a remote machine. db info is stored in a configuration file. I want to be able to encrypt the password in the conf text so that no one can just read the file and gain access to the database. This is my current set up: My conf file sensitive info is encoded with base64 module. The main script then decodes the info. I have compiled the script using py2exe to make it a bit harder to see the code. My question is: Is there a better way of doing this? I know that base64 is not a very safe way of encrypting. Is there a way to encode using a key? I also know that py2exe can be reversed engineered very easily and the key could be found. Any other thoughts? I am also running this script on a windows machine, so any modules that are suggested should be able to run in a windows environment with ease. I know there are several other posts on this topic but I have not found one with a windows solution, or at least one that is will explained.

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  • What's a good way to organize a large collection of personal scripts using git?

    - by spooky note
    I have a large collection of my personal scripts that I would like to start versioning using Git. I've previously organized my code as follows: ~/code/python/projects/ (for large stuff, each project contained in an individual folder) ~/code/python/scripts/ (single file scripts all contained in this directory) ~/code/python/sandbox/ (my testing area) ~/code/python/docs/ (downloaded documentation) ~/code/java/... (as above) Now i'm going to start versioning my code using git, so that I can have history and backup all my code to a remote server. I know if I were using SVN I would just keep my entire "~/code/" directory in a large repository, but I understand this is not a good way to do things with Git. Most info I've seen online suggests keeping all my project folders in a single place (as in, no separate directories for python or java) with each project containing it's own git repository, and simply having a "snippets" directory containing all single-file scripts/experiments that can be converted into projects at a later date. But I'm not sure how I feel about consolidating all of my code directories into one area. Is there a good way to keep my separate code directories intact, or is it not worth the effort? Maybe I'm just attached to the separate code directories because I've never known anything else... Also (as a side note), I'd like to quickly be able to see a chronological history of all my projects and scripts. So I can see which projects I created most recently. I used to do this by keeping a number at the beginning of all my projects, 002project, 003project. Is there automatic or easy way to do this in git without having to add a number to all of the project names? I'm open to any practical or philosophical code organizing advice you have. Thanks!!!

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  • java.awt.Desktop.open doesn’t work with PDF files?

    - by Jason S
    It looks like I cannot use Desktop.open() on PDF files regardless of location. Here's a small test program: package com.example.bugs; import java.awt.Desktop; import java.io.File; import java.io.IOException; public class DesktopOpenBug { static public void main(String[] args) { try { Desktop desktop = null; // Before more Desktop API is used, first check // whether the API is supported by this particular // virtual machine (VM) on this particular host. if (Desktop.isDesktopSupported()) { desktop = Desktop.getDesktop(); for (String path : args) { File file = new File(path); System.out.println("Opening "+file); desktop.open(file); } } } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } If I run DesktopOpenBug with arguments c:\tmp\zz1.txt c:\tmp\zz.xml c:\tmp\ss.pdf (3 files I happen to have lying around) I get this result: (the .txt and .xml files open up fine) Opening c:\tmp\zz1.txt Opening c:\tmp\zz.xml Opening c:\tmp\ss.pdf java.io.IOException: Failed to open file:/c:/tmp/ss.pdf. Error message: The parameter is incorrect. at sun.awt.windows.WDesktopPeer.ShellExecute(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.windows.WDesktopPeer.open(Unknown Source) at java.awt.Desktop.open(Unknown Source) at com.example.bugs.DesktopOpenBug.main(DesktopOpenBug.java:21) What the heck is going on? I'm running WinXP, I can type "c:\tmp\ss.pdf" at the command prompt and it opens up just fine. edit: if this is an example of Sun Java bug #6764271 please help by voting for it. What a pain. :(

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  • Remove file from history completely

    - by Iain
    A colleague has done a few things I told them not to do: forked the origin repo online cloned the fork, added a file that shouldn't have been added to that local repo pushed this to their fork I've then: merged the changes from the fork and found the file I want to remove this from: my local repo the fork their local repo I have a solution for removing something from the history, taken from Remove file from git repository (history). What I need to know is, should my colleague also go through this, and will a subsequent push remove all info from the fork? (I'd like an alternative to just destroying the fork, as I'm not sure my colleague will do this) SOLUTION: This is the shortest way to get rid of the files: check .git/packed-refs - my problem was that I had there a refs/remotes/origin/master line for a remote repository, delete it, otherwise git won't remove those files (optional) git verify-pack -v .git/objects/pack/#{pack-name}.idx | sort -k 3 -n | tail -5 - to check for the largest files (optional) git rev-list --objects --all | grep a0d770a97ff0fac0be1d777b32cc67fe69eb9a98 - to check what files those are git filter-branch --index-filter 'git rm --cached --ignore-unmatch file_names' - to remove the file from all revisions rm -rf .git/refs/original/ - to remove git's backup git reflog expire --all --expire='0 days' - to expire all the loose objects (optional) git fsck --full --unreachable - to check if there are any loose objects git repack -A -d - repacking the pack git prune - to finally remove those objects

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  • How can I dynamically define the named route in a :partial in rails?

    - by Angela
    I have the following partial. It can be called from three different times in a view as follows: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => email} %> Second time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => call} %> Third time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => letter} %> In each instance, call, email, letter refer to a specific instance of a Model Call, Email, or Letter. Here is the content of the partial "contact_event": <%= link_to_remote "Skip #{event} Remote", :url => skip_contact_email_url(contact_event, event), :update => "update-area-#{contact_event.id}-#{event.id}" %> <span id='update-area-<%="#{contact_event.id}-#{event.id}"%>'> </span> </p> My challenge: skip_contact_email_url only works when the event refers to an email. How can I dynamically define skip_contact_email_url to be skip_contact_letter_url if the local variable is letter? Even better, how can I have a single named route that would do the appropriate action?

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  • How can I dynamically call the named route in a :partial in rails?

    - by Angela
    I have the following partial. It can be called from three different times in a view as follows: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => email} %> Second time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => call} %> Third time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => letter} %> In each instance, call, email, letter refer to a specific instance of a Model Call, Email, or Letter. Here is what I tried to do and conceptually what I'd like to do: assign the route based on the class name that has been passed to the :event from the :partial. What I did was create what the actual url should be. The 'text' of it is correct, but doesn't seem to recognize it as a named route. <% url = "skip_contact_#{event.class.name.tableize.singularize}_url" % <%= link_to_remote "Skip #{url} Remote", :url = skip_contact_email_url(contact_event, event), :update = "update-area-#{contact_event.id}-#{event.id}" % ' My challenge: skip_contact_email_url only works when the event refers to an email. How can I dynamically define skip_contact_email_url to be skip_contact_letter_url if the local variable is letter? Even better, how can I have a single named route that would do the appropriate action?

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  • Serial Data Not Transmitted in C# Application

    - by Jim Fell
    Hello. I have a C# application wherein serial (COM1) data appears to sometimes not get transmitted. Following is a simplified snippet of my code (calls to textBox writes have been removed): try { serialPort1.Write("D"); serialPort1.Write(msg, 0, 512); serialPort1.Write("d"); serialPort1.Write(pCsum, 0, 2); } catch (SystemException ex) { /* ... */ } What is odd is that this same code works just fine when the port is configured for 115.2Kbps. However, when running at 9600bps data that should be transmitted by this code seems to not get transmitted. I have verified this by monitoring the receive flag on the remote device. No exceptions are thrown from within the try statement. Is there something else (Flush, etc.) that I should be doing to make sure the data is transmitted? Any thoughts or suggestions you may have would be appreciated. I'm using Microsoft Visual C# 2008 Express Edition. Thanks.

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  • In sync query calls, one query causing other query to run slower. Why?

    - by Irchi
    Sorry for the long question, but I think this is an interesting situation and I couldn't find any explanations for it: I was involved in optimization of an application that performed a large number of sequential SELECT and INSERT statements on a single dedicated SQL Server database. The process needs to INSERT a large number of records into a table, but for each of them there should be some value mappings, which performed using SELECT statements on another table in the same database. For a specific execution, it took 90 minutes to run. I used a profiler (JProfiler - the application is Java-based) to determine how much time does each part of the application take. It yields that 60% of the time was spent on INSERT method calls, and almost 20% on SELECT calls (the rest distributed in other parts). After some trials, I came to this situation: I commented out the INSERT query that took 60% of the time. I was expecting for the total run time to be around 35 minutes, as I have removed 60% of the 90 minutes. But the whole process took the same 90 minutes (doing only SELECTs and nothing else), but each SELECT took longer this time! Everything was running sync, there were no async calls. And there was only one single thread of execution. SELECT and INSERT queries are very simple, and don't have anything special, and they are on different tables, but on the same DB. I tested with both the DB on the application machine, and on a remote network machine. I can't think of any explanation for this, as the Profiler (Application profiler, not SQL Profiler) reported the changes in the method call times, and by removing INSERT statements SELECT statements took longer to run. Can anyone give me some kind of explanation of what could have happened? (there can't be cache / query optimization stuff, because the queries were run in sync, and in a single thread, and it was far from affecting the cache this much) I should note that the bottleneck of the speed was in SQL server, using most of the CPU time.

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  • Fake location for the device (custom)

    - by AtomRiot
    I know there are a few apps out there to fake a devices location but specifically what i want to do is use a location grabbed from a url. What direction should I look for setting the location on the device. The scenario i have is a jailbroken Wi-Fi iPad tethered to a nexus one. The nexus one would host a background service that when a request is recieved, it would respond with gps data of its current location. The jailbroken ipad would have a background service that either updated the location on a time interval, or on a per request basis (depending on how i have to implement it) by submitting a request to the tethered nexus one service. That data would then be set on the ipad and an application requesting location would get the service data. The goal is to recreate the location faker app's functionality with the exception of the spoofed location comes from the nexus ones gps via the service but i have not yet found out how to set the location data for the device. I can ofcourse implement this in a per app basis but it would be awesome to have any app be able to use it.

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  • TCP socket communication

    - by raven
    hello, I am creating a Chat in java. I have a method (onMouseRelease) inside an object that creates a tcp server and waits for a socket like this: ServerSocket server = new ServerSocket(port); Socket channel = server.accept(); Now I want to make a thread that will loop and read data from the socket, so that once the user on the other side sends me a string, I will extract the data from the socket (or is it called packet? Sorry, I am new to this) and update a textbox to add the additional string from the socket (or packet?). I have no idea how to READ (extract) the information from the socket(/packet) and then update it into a JTextArea which is called userOutput. And how to send a string to the other client, so that it will also could read the new data and update its JTextArea. From what I know, for a 2 sided TCP communication you need one computer to host a server and the other to connect (as a client) and once the connection is set the client can also receive new information from the socket. Is that true? and please tell me how. Any help is appreciated! I know this is a bit long but I have searched a lot and didn't understand it (I saw something like PrintWriter but failed to understand).

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  • Debugging a local SQL Server 2008 stored proceedure from Visual studio 2008

    - by Ricibob
    Hi all, There are a few posts about this question around but most concern remote debugging - here everything is on same machine. Visual studio 2008. I have a data connection to localhost SQL Server 2008 using Windows authentication with an admin account - this account is a member of sysadmin in SQL server. I double click stored proc and add a break point. I right click and select "Step into stored proceedure". I get the loathed and feared "Canceled by user." in output window. Does anyone know whats doing? Further - right clicking on the data connection shows both "Application debugging" and "Allow SQL/CLR Debugging". I have checked "Enable SQL Server debugging" on the properties of the C# client app. If run that in debug and try to step in to stored proc code "command.ExecuteNonQuery()" then the break points in the stored proc become disabled and are not pulled. After doing this once the right click on stored proc "Execute" and "Step into stored proceedure" are greyed/disabled. To get them back I have to restart visual studio (refresh connection doesn't do it). Any help much appreciated!! Cheers.

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  • How can I automate new system provisioning with scripts under Mac OS X 10.6?

    - by deeviate
    I've been working on this for days but simply cannot find the correct references to make it work. The idea is to have a script that will baseline newly purchased Macs that comes into the company with basic stuffs like set autologin to off, create a new admin user (for remote admins to access for support, set password to unlock screensaver and etc) . Sample list for baseline that admins have to do on each new machine: Click the Login Options button Set Automatic Login: OFF Check: Show the Restart, Sleep, and Shutdown buttons Uncheck: Show input menu in login window Uncheck: Show password hints Uncheck: Use voice over in the login window Check: Show fast user switching menu as Short Name (note: this is only part of a long list to do on each machine) I've managed to find some references to make some parts work. Like autologin can be unset with: defaults write /Library/Preferences/.GlobalPreferences com.apple.userspref.DisableAutoLogin -bool TRUE and I've kinda found ways to muscle in a new user creation (including prompts) with AppleScript and shell commands. But generally its tough finding ways to do somewhat simple things like turn on password to get out of screensaver or to allow fast user switching. References are either too limited or just no where to be seen (e.g. I can unset autologin via cli but the very next setting on the system preference "show restart, sleep and shutdown buttons" is somewhere else and I can't find any command line to make it set) Does anyone have any ideas on a list, document, reference or anything of where each setting on the system resides so that I can be pointed to make it work? or maybe sample scripts for the above example... My thanks for reading thus far—a huge thank you for whoever that has any info on the above.

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  • Remove the hash after Ajax loading (I'm ajaxing wordpress 8-) )

    - by Alberto
    Hi everybody, I followed this great tutorial to"ajax" my blog:http://www.deluxeblogtips.com/2010/05/how-to-ajaxify-wordpress-theme.html But it creates some problems and I think the problem is in the hash that ajax creates. So, after the content is loaded, how can I remove the hash from the url? I copy my code here: jQuery(document).ready(function($) { var $mainContent = $("#content"), siteUrl = "http://" + top.location.host.toString(), url = ''; $(document).delegate("a[href^='"+siteUrl+"']:not([href*=/wp-admin/]):not([href*=/wp-login.php]):not([href$=/feed/]):not([href*=/go.php]):not(.comment-reply-link)", "click", function() { location.hash = this.pathname; $('html, body').animate({scrollTop:0}, 'fast'); return false; }); $("#searchform").submit(function(e) { location.hash = '?s=' + $("#search").val(); e.preventDefault(); }); $(window).bind('hashchange', function(){ url = window.location.hash.substring(1); if (!url) { return; } url = url + " #inside"; $mainContent.html('<div id="loader">Caricamento in corso...</div>').load(url, function() { //$mainContent.animate({opacity: "1"}); scriptss(); }); }); $(window).trigger('hashchange'); }); Thank all very much!

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  • Oracle clients dead wait

    - by Macroideal
    hi all friends I meet a problem yesterday. Maybe it's because it is April 1st... but it did exist. I have 3 PCs in remote area, two clients and one oracle server. My app is running separately in the two clients, connecting hourly to the oracle database. My clients worked well before April 1st, but suddenly my app in the client machines went down. Firstly, I did not change any configurations. I used libsqlora8 to connect to the server. I went into a dead loop in the library. I tried sqlplus, but it is dead there in my shell terminal, like it meets an infinite loop: no return until i pressed ctrl + c. The reason I guess is an "infinite loop" somewhere. BTW, when I used my local PC to connect the server, it worked well. Just from this phenomenon, we can see the problem lies in the client machine. I checked the configuration file both in local machine and client machines -they are identical Have you met a problem like this? I hope it's not due to April 1st.

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  • Does RazorEngine require MVC3 to be installed?

    - by tkha007
    I am working on a web project that uses MVC2. I decided to try out RazorEngine to do some e-mail templating. This appeared to work fine when I was protyping using an MVC2 project so I assumed that RazorEngine will work fine for my e-mail templating solution. What I had forgotten at the time was that I actually had MVC3 installed on my local development machine. After deploying the project on a pre-test server I get the following error in the logs when the application attempts to do anything with RazorEngine: Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.Razor, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. File name: 'System.Web.Razor, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' at RazorEngine.Compilation.DefaultCompilerServiceFactory.CreateCompilerService(Language language) at RazorEngine.Templating.TemplateService.CreateTemplateType(String razorTemplate, Type modelType) at RazorEngine.Templating.TemplateService.CreateTemplate[T](String razorTemplate, T model) at RazorEngine.Templating.TemplateService.Parse[T](String razorTemplate, T model) at RazorEngine.Razor.Parse[T](String razorTemplate, T model) at System.Dynamic.UpdateDelegates.UpdateAndExecute3[T0,T1,T2,TRet](CallSite site, T0 arg0, T1 arg1, T2 arg2) at Persistence.Utility.RazorEngineHelper.Parse(String templateName, Object model) in The fact that it can't find 'System.Web.Razor' means that this DLL does not exist on the deployed server. The only difference I can think of between the deployment server and my local dev machine is that the deployment server does not have MVC3 installed but I may be mistaken because the deployment server is not something I normally control and as such I don't have a lot of information about it. It is meant to host this particular application so there have been previous deployments of this application to this server. This is the first time I'm making a deployment with RazorEngine as a dependency.

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  • How can I get back into my main processing thread?

    - by daveomcd
    I have an app that I'm accessing a remote website with NSURLConnection to run some code and then save out some XML files. I am then accessing those XML Files and parsing through them for information. The process works fine except that my User Interface isn't getting updated properly. I want to keep the user updated through my UILabel. I'm trying to update the text by using setBottomBarToUpdating:. It works the first time when I set it to "Processing Please Wait..."; however, in the connectionDidFinishLoading: it doesn't update. I'm thinking my NSURLConnection is running on a separate thread and my attempt with the dispatch_get_main_queue to update on the main thread isn't working. How can I alter my code to resolve this? Thanks! [If I need to include more information/code just let me know!] myFile.m NSLog(@"Refreshing..."); dispatch_sync( dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_DEFAULT, 0), ^{ [self getResponse:@"http://mylocation/path/to/file.aspx"]; }); [self setBottomBarToUpdating:@"Processing Please Wait..."]; queue = dispatch_queue_create("updateQueue", DISPATCH_QUEUE_CONCURRENT); connectionDidFinishLoading: if ([response rangeOfString:@"Complete"].location == NSNotFound]) { // failed } else { //success dispatch_async(dispatch_get_main_queue(),^ { [self setBottomBarToUpdating:@"Updating Contacts..."]; }); [self updateFromXMLFile:@"http://thislocation.com/path/to/file.xml"]; dispatch_async(dispatch_get_main_queue(),^ { [self setBottomBarToUpdating:@"Updating Emails..."]; }); [self updateFromXMLFile:@"http://thislocation.com/path/to/file2.xml"]; }

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  • How to store a captured image into MySQL database using JavaScript

    - by R J.
    I am capturing image using canvas and i want to store a captured image in MySQL Database using Javascript. This is my code: <html> <head> <meta charset="utf-8"> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width, maximum-scale=1.0"> <style> body {width: 100%;} canvas {display: none;} </style> <title>Instant Camera - Remote</title> <script> var video, canvas, msg; var load = function () { video = document.getElementById('video'); canvas = document.getElementById('canvas'); msg = document.getElementById('error'); if( navigator.getUserMedia ) { video.onclick = function () { var context = canvas.getContext("2d"); context.drawImage(video, 0, 0, 240, 320); var image1 = canvas.toDataURL("image/png"); document.write('<img src="' + image1 + '" />'); }; } else { msg.innerHTML = "Native web camera not supported :("; } }; window.addEventListener('DOMContentLoaded', load, false); </script> </head> <body> <video id="video" width="240" height="320" autoplay> </video> <p id="error">Click on the video to send a snapshot to the receiving screen</p> <canvas id="canvas" width="240" height="320"> </canvas> </body> </html>

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  • How to call back (like onActivityResult) after launching activity from browser by clicking url?

    - by kimilhee
    I succeded to call activity from browser link with tag like this. <a href="myapp://launch.myapp.com/activity2?var1=linkClicked">my app</a> of cource I added actvity setting in AndroidManifest.xml like this. <activity android:name=".Activity2" > <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW"></action> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT"></category> <category android:name="android.intent.category.BROWSABLE"></category> <data android:host="launch.myapp.com" android:scheme="myapp" android:pathPrefix="/activity2"></data> </intent-filter> </activity> I want to call back from the activity2 with a value. Is there any way to receive some value from the activity that was launched by the browser like above? In other words I want do something like onActivityResult in the browser and get a value from the activity and set the value on the web page which has launched the activity.

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  • how to delete the pluginassembly after AppDomain.Unload(domain)

    - by Ase
    hello, i have a weird problem. i would like to delete an assembly(plugin.dll on harddisk) which is already loaded, but the assembly is locked by the operating system (vista), even if i have unloaded it. f.e. AppDomainSetup setup = new AppDomainSetup(); setup.ShadowCopyFiles = "true"; AppDomain appDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain(assemblyName + "_AppDomain", AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence, setup); IPlugin plugin = (IPlugin)appDomain.CreateInstanceFromAndUnwrap(assemblyName, "Plugin.MyPlugins"); I also need the assemblyinfos, because I don't know which classes in the pluginassembly implements the IPlugin Interface. It should be possible to have more than one Plugin in one Pluginassembly. Assembly assembly = appDomain.Load(assemblyName); if (assembly != null) { Type[] assemblyTypes = assembly.GetTypes(); foreach (Type assemblyTyp in assemblyTypes) { if (typeof(IPlugin).IsAssignableFrom(assemblyTyp)) { IPlugin plugin = (IPlugin)Activator.CreateInstance(assemblyTyp); plugin.AssemblyName = assemblyNameWithEx; plugin.Host = this; } } } AppDomain.Unload(appDomain); How is it possible to get the assemblyinfos from the appDomain without locking the assembly? best regards

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  • Disable a form and all contained elements until an ajax query completes (or another solution to prev

    - by Max Williams
    I have a search form with inputs and selects, and when any input/select is changed i run some js and then make an ajax query with jquery. I want to stop the user from making further changes to the form while the request is in progress, as at the moment they can initiate several remote searches at once, effectively causing a race between the different searches. It seems like the best solution to this is to prevent the user from interacting with the form while waiting for the request to come back. At the moment i'm doing this in the dumbest way possible by hiding the form before making the ajax query and then showing it again on success/error. This solves the problem but looks horrible and isn't really acceptable. Is there another, better way to prevent interaction with the form? To make things more complicated, to allow nice-looking selects, the user actually interacts with spans which have js hooked up to them to tie them to the actual, hidden, selects. So, even though the spans aren't inputs, they are contained in the form and represent the actual interactive elements of the form. Grateful for any advice - max. Here's what i'm doing now: function submitQuestionSearchForm(){ //bunch of irrelevant stuff var questionSearchForm = jQuery("#searchForm"); questionSearchForm.addClass("searching"); jQuery.ajax({ async: true, data: jQuery.param(questionSearchForm.serializeArray()), dataType: 'script', type: 'get', url: "/questions", success: function(msg){ //more irrelevant stuff questionSearchForm.removeClass("searching"); }, error: function(msg){ questionSearchForm.removeClass("searching"); } }); return true; }

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  • Mystery: How does Google do cross-domain iframe communication?

    - by Shraga
    Hi everyone, When you host Googles web search element on a page, a div is created which incorporates an iframe which points to a Google adsense ads page. However, if there are no ads for the specific query, Google somehow changes the class on YOUR domain to render the div (and iframe) invisible. They are NOT using postMessage, as it also works in IE7. They are also not using the fragment identifier method, as no hash appears in the url. So how do they do it? To check what I'm saying just put the following into a regular html page: <!-- Google Custom Search Element --> <div id="cse" style="width:100%;">Loading</div> <script src="http://www.google.com/jsapi" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> google.load('search', '1'); google.setOnLoadCallback(function(){ new google.search.CustomSearchControl().draw('cse'); }, true); </script> and then do a search for "cars" (or anything else that will definitely have ads) and then for "wzxv", which has no ads...

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  • android app doesn't show on the emulator

    - by Anna Finela Constantino
    I made an android application using eclipse and it is working fine when I started developing my app. But then as I continue to develop the app the emulator seems to be not updating the application prior to the changes I have made on the code. So I tried deleting my avd and create a new one every time I run my app, and that seems to have worked. Now my problem is that my emulator doesn't show my app. It says "Failed to install *.apk on device 'emulator-5554': An established connection was aborted by the software in your host machine". I searched for ways to solved it but none of it seems to have worked. I tried killing the adb process (as most my searches would say) on the task manager but still my app doesn't show on the emulator. The emulator is running and all but my icon is nowhere to be found. Am I misssing out something? Is the problem connected to the first problem i had before? As I said, I started developing android app recently, so please bear with me. :) I appreciate all your help.Thanks in advance.

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  • destructor being called by subclass

    - by zero
    I'm currently learning more about php objects and constructors/destructors, but i've noticed in my code that the parent class's destructor is being called twice, I thought it was because i was extending the first class to my second class and that the second class was calling it, but this is what the php docs say about that: Like constructors, parent destructors will not be called implicitly by the engine. In order to run a parent destructor, one would have to explicitly call parent::__destruct() in the destructor body. so if it is not being called by the subclass then is it because by extended the first class that i've made a reference to the parent class making it call itself twice or I'm I way off base here? the code: <?php class test{ public $test1 = "this is a test of a pulic property"; private $test2 = "this is a test of a private property"; protected $test3 = "this is a test of a protected property"; const hello = 900000; function __construct($h){ //echo 'this is the constructor test '.$h; } function x($x2){ echo ' this is fn x'.$x2; } function y(){ print "this is fn y"; } } $obj = new test("this is an \"arg\" sent to instance of test"); class hey extends test{ function hey(){ $this->x('<br>from the host with the most'); echo ' <br>from hey class'.$this->test3; } } $obj2 = new hey(); echo $obj2::hello; ?>

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  • Write transparent HTTP Proxy script in PHP

    - by Leo Izen
    Is there an easy forwarding/transparent php proxy script that I can host on my web server? These are my conditions: I'm using free web hosting, so I have pretty much no control over my machine. Otherwise I could use Perl's HTTP::Proxy module. This means no root password. It does run php though. I already have a server running on port 80. What I mean is I would like to put a php script as index.php on my server that will forward all requests. I don't want a script like PHProxy or Glype where I go to the site, then enter a URL. I want a server so I can enter proxy.example.com:80 in Firefox's or IE's or whatever's proxy settings and it will forward all requests to the server. Preferably (though not fatal if not possible) I would like for it to pass on the USER_AGENT environmental variable (That's the browser) instead of setting itself to be the USER_AGENT I can't start a new Daemon. My server won't allow it. Is there a script that will do this? If so, which?

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