Search Results

Search found 21111 results on 845 pages for 'null pointer'.

Page 727/845 | < Previous Page | 723 724 725 726 727 728 729 730 731 732 733 734  | Next Page >

  • Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

    - by IrfanRaza
    Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

    Read the article

  • org.hibernate.PropertyNotFoundException

    - by niru
    hi i am new to hibernate, i m using the following code and getting the following error public class OperProfile { private String empId; private long age; private String name; public long getAge() { return age; } public void setAge(long age) { this.age = age; } public String getEmpId() { return empId; } public void setEmpId(String empId) { this.empId = empId; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } i am getting this error org.hibernate.PropertyNotFoundException: Could not find a getter for age in class com.fmr.OperProfile my hbm.xml file is <hibernate-mapping> <class name="com.fmr.OperProfile" table="EMPLOYEE" dynamic-update="true"> <id name="empId" type="java.lang.String" column="EMP_ID"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" type="java.lang.String" column="NAME"/> <property name=" age" type="java.lang.Long" column="AGE" not-null="true" /> <property name="address1" type="java.lang.String" column="ADDRESS1" /> <property name="address2" type="java.lang.String" column="ADDRESS2" /> <property name="city" type="java.lang.String" column="CITY" /> <property name="state" type="java.lang.String" column="STATE" /> <property name="pincode" type="java.lang.Long" column="PINCODE" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> please can anyone help me

    Read the article

  • Why are my connections not closed even if I explicitly dispose of the DataContext?

    - by Chris Simpson
    I encapsulate my linq to sql calls in a repository class which is instantiated in the constructor of my overloaded controller. The constructor of my repository class creates the data context so that for the life of the page load, only one data context is used. In my destructor of the repository class I explicitly call the dispose of the DataContext though I do not believe this is necessary. Using performance monitor, if I watch my User Connections count and repeatedly load a page, the number increases once per page load. Connections do not get closed or reused (for about 20 minutes). I tried putting Pooling=false in my config to see if this had any effect but it did not. In any case with pooling I wouldn't expect a new connection for every load, I would expect it to reuse connections. I've tried putting a break point in the destructor to make sure the dispose is being hit and sure enough it is. So what's happening? Some code to illustrate what I said above: The controller: public class MyController : Controller { protected MyRepository rep; public MyController () { rep = new MyRepository(); } } The repository: public class MyRepository { protected MyDataContext dc; public MyRepository() { dc = getDC(); } ~MyRepository() { if (dc != null) { //if (dc.Connection.State != System.Data.ConnectionState.Closed) //{ // dc.Connection.Close(); //} dc.Dispose(); } } // etc } Note: I add a number of hints and context information to the DC for auditing purposes. This is essentially why I want one connection per page load

    Read the article

  • Where are the function address literals in c++?

    - by academicRobot
    First of all, maybe literals is not the right term for this concept, but its the closest I could think of (not literals in the sense of functions as first class citizens). <UPDATE> After some reading with help from answer by Chris Dodd, what I'm looking for is literal function addresses as template parameters. Chris' answer indicates how to do this for standard functions, but how can the addresses of member functions be used as template parameters? Since the standard prohibits non-static member function addresses as template parameters (c++03 14.3.2.3), I suspect the work around is quite complicated. Any ideas for a workaround? Below the original form of the question is left as is for context. </UPDATE> The idea is that when you make a conventional function call, it compiles to something like this: callq <immediate address> But if you make a function call using a function pointer, it compiles to something like this: mov <memory location>,%rax callq *%rax Which is all well and good. However, what if I'm writing a template library that requires a callback of some sort with a specified argument list and the user of the library is expected to know what function they want to call at compile time? Then I would like to write my template to accept a function literal as a template parameter. So, similar to template <int int_literal> struct my_template {...};` I'd like to write template <func_literal_t func_literal> struct my_template {...}; and have calls to func_literal within my_template compile to callq <immediate address>. Is there a facility in C++ for this, or a work around to achieve the same effect? If not, why not (e.g. some cataclysmic side effects)? How about C++0x or another language? Solutions that are not portable are fine. Solutions that include the use of member function pointers would be ideal. I'm not particularly interested in being told "You are a <socially unacceptable term for a person of low IQ>, just use function pointers/functors." This is a curiosity based question, and it seems that it might be useful in some (albeit limited) applications. It seems like this should be possible since function names are just placeholders for a (relative) memory address, so why not allow more liberal use (e.g. aliasing) of this placeholder. p.s. I use function pointers and functions objects all the the time and they are great. But this post got me thinking about the don't pay for what you don't use principle in relation to function calls, and it seems like forcing the use of function pointers or similar facility when the function is known at compile time is a violation of this principle, though a small one. Edit The intent of this question is not to implement delegates, rather to identify a pattern that will embed a conventional function call, (in immediate mode) directly into third party code, possibly a template.

    Read the article

  • C# Cast Class to Overridden Class

    - by Nathan Tornquist
    I have a class Application that I need to override with INotifyPropertyChanged events. I have written the logic to override the original class and ended up creating SuperApplication I am pulling the data from a library though, and cannot change the loading logic. I just need a way to get the data from the original class into my superClass. I've tried things like superClass = (SuperApplication)standardClass; but it hasn't worked. How would I go about doing this? If it helps, this is the code I'm using to override the original class: public class SuperCreditApplication : CreditApplication { public SuperCreditApplicant Applicant { get; set; } public SuperCreditApplicant CoApplicant { get; set; } } public class SuperCreditApplicant : CreditApplicant { public SuperProspect Prospect { get; set; } } public class SuperProspect : Prospect, INotifyPropertyChanged { public State DriverLicenseState { get { return DriverLicenseState; } set { DriverLicenseState = value; OnPropertyChanged("DriverLicenseState"); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void OnPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } }

    Read the article

  • FragmentActivity cannot be resolve to a type

    - by Pratik
    I am starting learning for android tablet programming and I am able to updated my Eclipse as well as all new sdk for android. I have start testing application from this blog while at extending the FragmentActivity getting this error I have google it but not getting any solution. My project was created with 3.0 version having 11 level, all other packages are successfully used in the code but only this FragmentActivity was not able to resolve. Am I missing any library or any thing? My code public class Testing_newActivity extends FragmentActivity { // here the FragmentActivity getting error package not found for import /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); //setContentView(R.layout.main); if (getResources().getConfiguration().orientation == Configuration.ORIENTATION_LANDSCAPE) { // If the screen is now in landscape mode, we can show the // dialog in-line so we don't need this activity. finish(); return; } if (savedInstanceState == null) { // During initial setup, plug in the details fragment. DetailsFragment details = new DetailsFragment(); details.setArguments(getIntent().getExtras()); getSupportFragmentManager().beginTransaction().add( android.R.id.content, details).commit(); } } } android manifest file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.searce.testingnew" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0" > <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="11" /> <application android:icon="@drawable/ic_launcher" android:label="@string/app_name" > <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name=".Testing_newActivity" > <intent-filter > <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> </manifest>

    Read the article

  • Filp route value in asp.net mvc routes

    - by Herman
    Hi all, I am new to asp.net mvc, so please bear with me. We have the following route dictionary setup. routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{language}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { language = "en", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); for any given page in our app, we to render a link to the a french version of the same page. For example, the page: http://www.example.com/en/home should have link on that page that points to http://www.example.com/fr/home Now I have the following UrlHelper extension method public static string FilpLanguage(this UrlHelper urlHelper) { var data = urlHelper.RequestContext.RouteData; if (System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture == CultureInfo.GetCultureInfoByIetfLanguageTag("en-CA")) data.Values["language"] = "fr"; else data.Values["language"] = "en"; return urlHelper.RouteUrl(data.Values.Where(item => item.Value != null)); } However, calling FilpLanguage on www.example.com/en/home will return the following URL: www.example.com/en/home?current=[,] Am I missing something here? where did the current parameter come from? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to change 2-3 times f->SetSensor() ?

    - by Asen
    Hello there ! i use cocos2d-iphone-0.99.2 and integrated in it box2d. i have 2 kind of sprites with tags 1 and 2. Also i created bodies and shape definitions for them. what i'm trying to do is to make sprite1 kinds to act as solid or act as not solid when sprite2 colides with them. i tried this code : for(b2Body *b = _world->GetBodyList(); b; b=b->GetNext()) { if (b-GetUserData() != NULL) { CCSprite *sprite = (CCSprite )b-GetUserData(); if (sprite.tag == 1) { b2Fixture f = b-GetFixtureList(); f-SetSensor(solid); } } } Where solid is bool. The first time when i change fixture to sensor everything is just fine but when i try to revert and change again to solid my app crashes with the following error : Assertion failed: (manifold-pointCount 0), function b2ContactSolver, file /Documents/myapp/libs/Box2D/Dynamics/Contacts/b2ContactSolver.cpp, line 58. Is it possible somehow to change fixture-SetSensor several times and if so ... how ? Any help is highly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Rhino Mocks Sample How to Mock Property

    - by guazz
    How can I test that "TestProperty" was set a value when ForgotMyPassword(...) was called? > public interface IUserRepository { User GetUserById(int n); } public interface INotificationSender { void Send(string name); int TestProperty { get; set; } } public class User { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class LoginController { private readonly IUserRepository repository; private readonly INotificationSender sender; public LoginController(IUserRepository repository, INotificationSender sender) { this.repository = repository; this.sender = sender; } public void ForgotMyPassword(int userId) { User user = repository.GetUserById(userId); sender.Send("Changed password for " + user.Name); sender.TestProperty = 1; } } // Sample test to verify that send was called [Test] public void WhenUserForgetPasswordWillSendNotification_WithConstraints() { var userRepository = MockRepository.GenerateStub<IUserRepository>(); var notificationSender = MockRepository.GenerateStub<INotificationSender>(); userRepository.Stub(x => x.GetUserById(5)).Return(new User { Id = 5, Name = "ayende" }); new LoginController(userRepository, notificationSender).ForgotMyPassword(5); notificationSender.AssertWasCalled(x => x.Send(null), options => options.Constraints(Rhino.Mocks.Constraints.Text.StartsWith("Changed"))); }

    Read the article

  • Why is BorderLayout calling setSize() and setBounds()?

    - by ags
    I'm trying to get my head around proper use of the different LayoutManagers to make my GUI design skills more efficient and effective. For me, that usually requires a detailed understanding of what is going on under the hood. I've found some good discussion of the interaction and consequences of a Container using BorderLayout containing a Container using FlowLayout. I understand it for the most part, but wanted to confirm my mental model and to do so I am looking at the code for BorderLayout. In the code snippet below taken from BorderLayout.layoutContainer(), note the calls to the child Component's setSize() method followed by setBounds(). Looking at the source for these methods of Component, setSize() actually calls setBounds() with the current values for Component.x and Component.y. Why is this done (and not entirely redudant?) Doesn't the setBounds() call completely overwrite the results of the setSize() call? if ((c=getChild(NORTH,ltr)) != null) { c.setSize(right - left, c.height); Dimension d = c.getPreferredSize(); c.setBounds(left, top, right - left, d.height); top += d.height + vgap; } I'm also tring to understand where/when the child Component's size is initially set (before the LayoutManager.layoutContainer() method is called). Finally, this post itself raises a "meta-question": in a situation like this, where the source is available elsewhere, is the accepteed protocol to include the entire method? Or some other way to make it easier for folks to participate in the thread? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Unit Testing Controllers - Repositories

    - by Brian McCord
    This is more of an opinion seeking question, so there may not be a "right" answer, but I would welcome arguments as to why your answer is the "right" one. Given an MVC application that is using Entity Framework for the persistence engine, a repository layer, a service layer that basically defers to the repository, and a delete method on a controller that looks like this: public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } I am looking for the proper way to Unit Test this. Currently, I have a fake repository that gets used in the service, and my unit test looks like this: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange var stateService = GetService(); var stateController = new StateController( stateService ); ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; stateController = new StateController( stateService ); var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Is this overkill? Do I need to check to see if the record actually got deleted (as I already have Service and Repository tests that verify this)? Should I even use a fake repository here or would it make more sense just to mock the whole thing? The examples I'm looking at used this model of doing things, and I just copied it, but I'm really open to doing things in a "best practices" way. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Validations for a has_many/belongs_to relationship

    - by Craig Walker
    I have a Recipe model which has_many Ingredients (which in turn belongs_to Recipe). I want Ingredient to be existent dependent on Recipe; an Ingredient should never exist without a Recipe. I'm trying to enforce the presence of a valid Recipe ID in the Ingredient. I've been doing this with a validates :recipe, :presence => true (Rails 3) statement in Ingredient. This works fine if I save the Recipe before adding an Ingredient to it's ingredients collection. However, if I don't have explicit control over the saving (such as when I'm creating a Recipe and its Ingredients from a nested form) then I get an error: Ingredients recipe can't be blank I can get around this simply by dropping the presence validation on Ingredient.recipe. However, I don't particularly like this, as it means I'm working without a safety net. What is the best way to enforce existence-dependence in Rails? Things I'm considering (please comment on the wisdom of each): Adding a not-null constraint on the ingredients.recipe_id database column, and letting the database do the checking for me. A custom validation that somehow checks whether the Ingredient is in an unsaved recipe's ingredient collection (and thus can't have a recipe_id but is still considered valid).

    Read the article

  • How to insert array into mysql using PDO and bindParam?

    - by moomoochoo
    I'm using the following code. The code works, but I want to change it so that it uses bindparam try { $dbh = new PDO("mysql:host=$hostname;dbname=$dbname", $username, $password); $stqid=array(); for ($i=0; $i<$array_count; $i++){ $stqid[$i][0]=$lastInsertValue; $stqid[$i][1]=$qid[$i][0]; $stqid[$i][2]=$qid[$i][1]; } $values = array(); foreach ($stqid as $rowValues) { foreach ($rowValues as $key => $rowValue) { $rowValues[$key] = $rowValues[$key]; } $values[] = "(" . implode(', ', $rowValues) . ")"; } $count = $dbh->exec("INSERT INTO qresults(instance, qid, result) VALUES ".implode (', ', $values)); $dbh = null; } catch(PDOException $e){ echo $e->getMessage(); } I replaced the following $count = $dbh->exec("INSERT INTO qresults(instance, qid, result) VALUES ".implode (', ', $values)); with $sql = "INSERT INTO qresults (instance, qid, result) VALUES (:an_array)"; $stmt = $dbh->prepare($sql); $stmt->bindParam(':an_array', implode(',', $values),PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); but the insert doesn't work anymore (I didn't get any error messages though). QUESTION: What am I doing wrong? How can I rewrite the code to use bindParam?

    Read the article

  • Is it safe to silently catch ClassCastException when searching for a specific value?

    - by finnw
    Suppose I am implementing a sorted collection (simple example - a Set based on a sorted array.) Consider this (incomplete) implementation: import java.util.*; public class SortedArraySet<E> extends AbstractSet<E> { @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public SortedArraySet(Collection<E> source, Comparator<E> comparator) { this.comparator = (Comparator<Object>) comparator; this.array = source.toArray(); Collections.sort(Arrays.asList(array), this.comparator); } @Override public boolean contains(Object key) { return Collections.binarySearch(Arrays.asList(array), key, comparator) >= 0; } private final Object[] array; private final Comparator<Object> comparator; } Now let's create a set of integers Set<Integer> s = new SortedArraySet<Integer>(Arrays.asList(1, 2, 3), null); And test whether it contains some specific values: System.out.println(s.contains(2)); System.out.println(s.contains(42)); System.out.println(s.contains("42")); The third line above will throw a ClassCastException. Not what I want. I would prefer it to return false (as HashSet does.) I can get this behaviour by catching the exception and returning false: @Override public boolean contains(Object key) { try { return Collections.binarySearch(Arrays.asList(array), key, comparator) >= 0; } catch (ClassCastException e) { return false; } } Assuming the source collection is correctly typed, what could go wrong if I do this?

    Read the article

  • Calculating and saving space in Postgresql

    - by punkish
    I have a table in Pg like so CREATE TABLE t ( a BIGSERIAL NOT NULL, -- 8 b b SMALLINT, -- 2 b c SMALLINT, -- 2 b d REAL, -- 4 b e REAL, -- 4 b f REAL, -- 4 b g INTEGER, -- 4 b h REAL, -- 4 b i REAL, -- 4 b j SMALLINT, -- 2 b k INTEGER, -- 4 b l INTEGER, -- 4 b m REAL, -- 4 b CONSTRAINT a_pkey PRIMARY KEY (a) ) The above adds up to 50 bytes per row. My experience is that I need another 40% to 50% for system overhead, without even any user-created indexes to the above. So, about 75 bytes per row. I will have many, many rows in the table, potentially upward of 145 billion rows, so the table is going to be pushing 13-14 Terabytes. What tricks, if any, could I use to compact this table? My possible ideas below -- Convert the REAL values to INTEGERs. If they can stored as SMALLINT, that is a saving of 2 bytes per field. Convert the columns b .. m into an array. I don't need to search on those columns, but I do need to be able to return one column's value at a time. So, if I need column g, I could do something like SELECT a, arr[5] FROM t; Would I save space with the array option? Would there be a speed penalty? Any other ideas?

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't Javascript recognize the HTML class attribute?

    - by Cornflake
    Can anyone help me with a Javascript question, please? Why does the following code display only message boxes with the word "null" in them? And I think there are not enough of them either. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function showElementClasses(node) { var els = node.getElementsByTagName("*"); for(var i=0,j=els.length; i<j; i++) alert(els[i].getAttribute("class")); alert("Class: " + els[i].className); } showElementClasses(document); </script> </head> <body class="bla"> <div class="myclass" style="width: 500; height: 400" id="map"></div> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • jQuery: show an element from select drop down, hide it when other option selected

    - by Ricardo Zea
    I've tried looking around and there are similar problems, but mine is way more simple, but yet, I can't find a solution within these forums. While learning jQuery, I'm trying to show a DIV when an item/option from a select drop down is selected, and hide that same DIV when any other option in the select drop down is selected. select HTML: <select name="source" id="source"> <option value="null" selected="selected">&mdash;Select&mdash;</option> <option value="s1">Source 1</option> <option value="s2">Source 2</option> <option value="sother">Other</option> </select> DIV I need to show when 'Other' is selected: <div id="specify-source">Other source here...</div> When any other option in the select menu is selected, the above DIV shouldn't be visible. I've tried this jQuery but of course it doesn't work properly: $(function() { $.viewMap = { 'sother' : $('#specify-source') }; $('#source').change(function() { // hide all $.each($.viewMap, function() { this.hide(); }); // show current $.viewMap[$(this).val()].show(); }); }); Any help you can give me, I'd greatly appreciate it. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Php JSON Response Array

    - by Nick Kl
    I have this php code. As you can see i query a mysql database through a function showallevents. I return a the $result to the $event variable. I try to return all rows of the data that i take with the msql_fetch_assoc. I don't get response even when i encode the $response variable. It returns null to all fields. Can anyone help me on what i am doing wrong. I had a valid code but it was returning only 1 row of data so i tried to make an associative array but seems i am failing. if ($tag == 'showallevents') { // Request type is show all events // show all events $event = $db->showallevents(); if ($event != false) { $data = array(); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($event)) { $data[] = array( $response["success"] = 1, $response["uid"] = $event["uid"], $response["event"]["date"] = $event["date"], $response["event"]["hours"] = $event["hours"], $response["event"]["store_name"] = $event["store_name"], $response["event"]["event_information"] = $event["event_information"], $response["event"]["event_type"] = $event["event_type"], $response["event"]["Phone"] = $event["Phone"], $response["event"]["address"] = $event["address"], $response["event"]["created_at"] = $event["created_at"], $response["event"]["updated_at"] = $event["updated_at"]); } echo json_encode($data); } else { // event not found // echo json with error = 1 $response["error"] = 1; $response["error_msg"] = "Events not found"; echo json_encode($response); } } else { echo "Access Denied"; } } ?>

    Read the article

  • avoid extra xmlns:xsi while adding a attribute to xml root element in C#.net

    - by Rakesh kumar
    Please help me. First pls forgive me if i am wrong. i am createing a xmlfile using c#.net . my Code is like XmlDocument d = new XmlDocument(); XmlDeclaration xmlDeclaration = d.CreateXmlDeclaration("1.0", "utf-8", null); d.InsertBefore(xmlDeclaration,d.DocumentElement); XmlElement root = d.CreateElement("ITRETURN","ITR","http://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in/ITR1"); XmlAttribute xsiNs = d.CreateAttribute("xsi:schemaLocation", "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"); xsiNs.Value = "http://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in/main ITRMain10.xsd"; root.SetAttributeNode(xsiNs); //root.SetAttribute("xsi:schemaLocation", "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"); root.SetAttribute("xmlns:ITR1FORM", "http://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in/ITR1"); root.SetAttribute("xmlns:ITR2FORM", "http://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in/ITR2"); root.SetAttribute("xmlns:ITR3FORM", "http://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in/ITR3"); root.SetAttribute("xmlns:ITR4FORM", "http://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in/ITR4"); d.AppendChild(root); d.Save("c://myxml.xml"); and i am getting output like this - - root node But My requirement is like + any value please help

    Read the article

  • How to track auto-generated id's in select-insert statement

    - by k rey
    I have two tables detail and head. The detail table will be written first. Later, the head table will be written. The head is a summary of the detail table. I would like to keep a reference from the detail to the head table. I have a solution but it is not elegant and requires duplicating the joins and filters that were used during summation. I am looking for a better solution. The below is an example of what I currently have. In this example, I have simplified the table structure. In the real world, the summation is very complex. -- Preparation create table #detail ( detail_id int identity(1,1) , code char(4) , amount money , head_id int null ); create table #head ( head_id int identity(1,1) , code char(4) , subtotal money ); insert into #detail ( code, amount ) values ( 'A', 5 ); insert into #detail ( code, amount ) values ( 'A', 5 ); insert into #detail ( code, amount ) values ( 'B', 2 ); insert into #detail ( code, amount ) values ( 'B', 2 ); -- I would like to somehow simplify the following two queries insert into #head ( code, subtotal ) select code, sum(amount) from #detail group by code update #detail set head_id = h.head_id from #detail d inner join #head h on d.code = h.code -- This is the desired end result select * from #detail Desired end result of detail table: detail_id code amount head_id 1 A 5.00 1 2 A 5.00 1 3 B 2.00 2 4 B 2.00 2

    Read the article

  • Add class to textbox when invalid, using .Net Validators

    - by CoreyT
    I'm working on a multipage form in .Net using AJAX (UpdatePanels). I am stuck right now trying to get a class added to the textbox that is invalid to basically highlight it red. I found a sample online using this code: $("span.invalid").bind("DOMAttrModified propertychange", function (e) { // Exit early if IE because it throws this event lots more if (e.originalEvent.propertyName && e.originalEvent.propertyName != "isvalid") return; var controlToValidate = $("#" + this.controltovalidate); var validators = controlToValidate.attr("Validators"); if (validators == null) return; var isValid = true; $(validators).each(function () { if (this.isvalid !== true) { isValid = false; } }); if (isValid) { controlToValidate.removeClass("invalid"); } else { controlToValidate.addClass("invalid"); } }); That works perfectly, in IE only. For some reason this code does not ever fire in Firefox. I've looked up the DOMAttrModified event and it sounds like this should work in Firefox, hence it being in the code. I must be missing something though because it does not work. I'm open to other solutions for what I am trying to accomplish here if anyone has something good. Basically the form is 3 pages right now. Page 1 has a variable number of fields that require validation. It could be 5, or 13 fields, based on a checkbox. Page 2 has another set of fields that need to be validated separately. Obviously when I am on page 1 it should not try to validate page 2, and vice versa. Pleas help with either some help to fix the code I have, or an alternative.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate collection mapping Problem

    - by Geln Yang
    Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database.

    Read the article

  • ASP MVC: E-mail Verification (Encrypting the activation link)

    - by wh0emPah
    Okay i'm a little bit stuck on how to solve this problem. When a user registers. I want to send him a link so that he can verify hes email address. But i have troubles generating the link. I've already written the controller to accept the links with the correct keys. i only have no idea on how to generate the activation keys. So when the user registers i'll send him a link by mail like this: Your activation link is : http://site.com/user/verify?key=keyhere Now i have created this method (called by the controller/action) to handle the key in the link: public string Verify(string value) { String email = Decrypt(value); user u = gebRep.GetUsers().WithEmail(email).SingleOrDefault(); if (u != null) { u.emailValid = true; userReppository.Save(); } return "Invallid validation value!"; } Now my problem is I have no idea on how to encrypt and decrypt the email into some sort of key (url friendly) So i can mail it with the link and can use it to verify the email. I need some kind of (not to complicated but secure) way to encrypt the email into a urlfriendly key. Tyvm

    Read the article

  • Doing a POST to a Service Operation in ADO.NET data services

    - by DataServices123
    Is it possible to POST to a service operation defined in an ADO.NET data service (it is decorated with WebInvoke)? I had no problem calling the service operation as an HTTP GET. However, when I switched to doing a POST, the stack trace consistently comes back with "Parameter cannot be NULL". I am using the jQuery syntax below, and sending the POST as JSON (though I'm not including the $.ajax call, the parameter names line up exactly). It would be possible to try this with WCF, as opposed to ADO.NET data services (newly renamed as WCF data services). However, my preference would be to use this approach first. I have tried this with and without the stringify method. Most examples online only show how to use a POST to entities (i.e. for handling CRUD operations). However, in this case we are POSTing to a Service Operation. function PostToDataService() { varType = "POST"; varUrl = "http://dev-server/MyServices/MyService.svc/SampleSO"; varData = { CustomMessage: $("#TextBox1").val() }; varData = JSON.stringify(varData); varContentType = "application/json; charset=utf-8"; varDataType = "json"; varProcessData = true; CallService(); }

    Read the article

  • Linq generic Expression in query on "element" or on IQueryable (multiple use)

    - by Bogdan Maxim
    Hi, I have the following expression public static Expression<Func<T, bool>> JoinByDateCheck<T>(T entity, DateTime dateToCheck) where T : IDateInterval { return (entityToJoin) => entityToJoin.FromDate.Date <= dateToCheck.Date && (entityToJoin.ToDate == null || entityToJoin.ToDate.Value.Date >= dateToCheck.Date); } IDateInterval interface is defined like this: interface IDateInterval { DateTime FromDate {get;} DateTime? ToDate {get;} } and i need to apply it in a few ways: (1) Query on Linq2Sql Table: var q1 = from e in intervalTable where FunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e, constantDateTime) select e; or something like this: intervalTable.Where(FunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e, constantDateTime)) (2) I need to use it in some table joins (as linq2sql doesn't provide comparative join): var q2 = from e1 in t1 join e2 in t2 on e1.FK == e2.PK where OtherFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e2, e1.FromDate) or var q2 = from e1 in t1 from e2 in t2 where e1.FK == e2.PK && OtherFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e2, e1.FromDate) (3) I need to use it in some queries like this: var q3 = from e in intervalTable.FilterFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(constantDate); Dynamic linq is not something that I can use, so I have to stick to plain linq. Thank you Clarification: Initially I had just the last method (FilterFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(this IQueryable<IDateInterval> entities, DateTime dateConstant) ) that contained the code from the expression. The problem is that I get a SQL Translate exception if I write the code in a method and call it like that. All I want is to extend the use of this function to the where clause (see the second query in point 2)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 723 724 725 726 727 728 729 730 731 732 733 734  | Next Page >