Search Results

Search found 21111 results on 845 pages for 'null pointer'.

Page 728/845 | < Previous Page | 724 725 726 727 728 729 730 731 732 733 734 735  | Next Page >

  • How to insert array into mysql using PDO and bindParam?

    - by moomoochoo
    I'm using the following code. The code works, but I want to change it so that it uses bindparam try { $dbh = new PDO("mysql:host=$hostname;dbname=$dbname", $username, $password); $stqid=array(); for ($i=0; $i<$array_count; $i++){ $stqid[$i][0]=$lastInsertValue; $stqid[$i][1]=$qid[$i][0]; $stqid[$i][2]=$qid[$i][1]; } $values = array(); foreach ($stqid as $rowValues) { foreach ($rowValues as $key => $rowValue) { $rowValues[$key] = $rowValues[$key]; } $values[] = "(" . implode(', ', $rowValues) . ")"; } $count = $dbh->exec("INSERT INTO qresults(instance, qid, result) VALUES ".implode (', ', $values)); $dbh = null; } catch(PDOException $e){ echo $e->getMessage(); } I replaced the following $count = $dbh->exec("INSERT INTO qresults(instance, qid, result) VALUES ".implode (', ', $values)); with $sql = "INSERT INTO qresults (instance, qid, result) VALUES (:an_array)"; $stmt = $dbh->prepare($sql); $stmt->bindParam(':an_array', implode(',', $values),PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); but the insert doesn't work anymore (I didn't get any error messages though). QUESTION: What am I doing wrong? How can I rewrite the code to use bindParam?

    Read the article

  • Nullable<T> as a parameter

    - by ferch
    I alredy have this: public static object GetDBValue(object ObjectEvaluated) { if (ObjectEvaluated == null) return DBNull.Value; else return ObjectEvaluated; } used like: List<SqlParameter> Params = new List<SqlParameter>(); Params.Add(new SqlParameter("@EntityType", GetDBValue(EntityType))); Now i wanted to keep the same interface but extend that to use it with nullable public static object GetDBValue(int? ObjectEvaluated) { if (ObjectEvaluated.HasValue) return ObjectEvaluated.Value; else return DBNull.Value; } public static object GetDBValue(DateTime? ObjectEvaluated) {...} but i want only 1 function GetDBValue for nullables. How do I do that and keep the call as is is? Is that possible at all? I can make it work like: public static object GetDBValue<T>(Nullable<T> ObjectEvaluated) where T : struct { if (ObjectEvaluated.HasValue) return ObjectEvaluated.Value; else return DBNull.Value; } But the call changes to: Params.Add(new SqlParameter("@EntityID ", GetDBValue<int>(EntityID)));

    Read the article

  • how to use a list containing the query result with hibernate and display it in jsp

    - by kawtousse
    hi everyone, In my servlet I construct the query like the following: net.sf.hibernate.Session s = null; net.sf.hibernate.Transaction tx; try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("select opcemployees.Nom,opcemployees.Prenom,dailytimesheet.TrackingDate,dailytimesheet.Activity," + "dailytimesheet.ProjectCode,dailytimesheet.WAName,dailytimesheet.TaskCode," + "dailytimesheet.TimeSpent,dailytimesheet.PercentTaskComplete from Opcemployees opcemployees,Dailytimesheet dailytimesheet " + "where opcemployees.Matricule=dailytimesheet.Matricule and dailytimesheet.Etat=3 " + "group by opcemployees.Nom,opcemployees.Prenom" ); List opdts= query.list(); request.setAttribute("items", opdts); request.getRequestDispatcher("EspaceValidation.jsp").forward(request, response); } catch (HibernateException e){ e.printStackTrace();} But in the jsp I can't display the result correctly. I do the following in JSP: <table> <c:forEach items="${items}" var="item"> <tr> <td>${item}</td> </tr> </c:forEach> </table> thanks for help.

    Read the article

  • Delete only reference to child object

    - by Al
    I'm running in to a bit of a problem where any attempt to delete just the reference to a child also deletes the child record. My schema looks like this Person Organisation OrganisationContacts : Person OrgId PersonId Role When removing an Organisation i want to only delete the record in OrgnaisationContacts, but not touch the Person record. My Mapping looks like this Code: public OrganisationMap() { Table("Organsations"); .... HasMany<OrganisationContact>(x => x.Contacts) .Table("OrganisationContacts ") .KeyColumn("OrgId") .Not.Inverse() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); } public class OrganisationContactMap : SubclassMap<OrganisationContact> { public OrganisationContactMap() { Table("OrganisationContacts"); Map(x => x.Role, "PersonRole"); Map(x => x.IsPrimary); } } At the moment just removing a contact from the IList either doesn't reflect in the database at all, or it issues two delete statements DELETE FROM OrganisationContact & DELETE FROM Person, or tries to set PersonId to null in the OrganisationContacts table. All of which are not desirable. Any help would be great appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How do I create an inheritable Semaphore in .NET?

    - by pauldoo
    I am trying to create a Win32 Semaphore object which is inheritable. This means that any child processes I launch may automatically have the right to act on the same Win32 object. My code currently looks as follows: Semaphore semaphore = new Semaphore(0, 10); Process process = Process.Start(pathToExecutable, arguments); But the semaphore object in this code cannot be used by the child process. The code I am writing is a port of come working C++. The old C++ code achieves this by the following: SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES security = {0}; security.nLength = sizeof(security); security.bInheritHandle = TRUE; HANDLE semaphore = CreateSemaphore(&security, 0, LONG_MAX, NULL); Then later when CreateProcess is called the bInheritHandles argument is set to TRUE. (In both the C# and C++ case I am using the same child process (which is C++). It takes the semaphore ID on command line, and uses the value directly in a call to ReleaseSemaphore.) I suspect I need to construct a special SemaphoreSecurity or ProcessStartInfo object, but I haven't figured it out yet.

    Read the article

  • Finding cause of memory leaks in large PHP stacks

    - by Mike B
    I have CLI script that runs over several thousand iterations between runs and it appears to have a memory leak. I'm using a tweaked version of Zend Framework with Smarty for view templating and each iteration uses several MB worth of code. The first run immediately uses nearly 8MB of memory (which is fine) but every following run adds about 80kb. My main loop looks like this (very simplified) $users = UsersModel::getUsers(); foreach($users as $user) { $obj = new doSomethingAwesome(); $obj->run($user); $obj = null; unset($obj); } The point is that everything in scope should be unset and the memory freed. My understanding is that PHP runs through its garbage collection process at it's own desire but it does so at the end of functions/methods/scripts. So something must be leaking memory inside doSomethingAwesome() but as I said it is a huge stack of code. Ideally, I would love to find some sort of tool that displayed all my variables no matter the scope at some point during execution. Some sort of symbol-table viewer for php. Does anything like that or any other tools that could help nail down memory leaks in php exist?

    Read the article

  • Shrinking the transaction log of a mirrored SQL Server 2005 database

    - by Peter Di Cecco
    I've been looking all over the internet and I can't find an acceptable solution to my problem, I'm wondering if there even is a solution without a compromise... I'm not a DBA, but I'm a one man team working on a huge web site with no extra funding for extra bodies, so I'm doing the best I can. Our backup plan sucks, and I'm having a really hard time improving it. Currently, there are two servers running SQL Server 2005. I have a mirrored database (no witness) that seems to be working well. I do a full backup at noon and at midnight. These get backed up to tape by our service provider nightly, and I burn the backup files to dvd weekly to keep old records on hand. Eventually I'd like to switch to log shipping, since mirroring seems kinda pointless without a witness server. The issue is that the transaction log is growing non-stop. From the research I've done, it seems that I can't truncate a log file of a mirrored database. So how do I stop the file from growing!? Based on this web page, I tried this: USE dbname GO CHECKPOINT GO BACKUP LOG dbname TO DISK='NULL' WITH NOFORMAT, INIT, NAME = N'dbnameLog Backup', SKIP, NOREWIND, NOUNLOAD GO DBCC SHRINKFILE('dbname_Log', 2048) GO But that didn't work. Everything else I've found says I need to disable the mirror before running the backup log command in order for it to work. My Question (TL;DR) How can I shrink my transaction log file without disabling the mirror?

    Read the article

  • show image in a CGContextRef

    - by Ishu
    What i am doing, i downloded a code from calender now i want to show images on its tiles(for date). What i am trying shows in code - (void)drawTextInContext:(CGContextRef)ctx { CGContextSaveGState(ctx); CGFloat width = self.bounds.size.width; CGFloat height = self.bounds.size.height; CGFloat numberFontSize = floorf(0.3f * width); CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(ctx, kDarkCharcoalColor); CGContextSetTextDrawingMode(ctx, kCGTextClip); for (NSInteger i = 0; i < [self.text length]; i++) { NSString *letter = [self.text substringWithRange:NSMakeRange(i, 1)]; CGSize letterSize = [letter sizeWithFont:[UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:numberFontSize]]; CGContextSaveGState(ctx); // I will need to undo this clip after the letter's gradient has been drawn [letter drawAtPoint:CGPointMake(4.0f+(letterSize.width*i), 0.0f) withFont:[UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:numberFontSize]]; if ([self.date isToday]) { CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(ctx, kWhiteColor); CGContextFillRect(ctx, self.bounds); } else { // CGContextDrawLinearGradient(ctx, TextFillGradient, CGPointMake(0,0), CGPointMake(0, height/3), kCGGradientDrawsAfterEndLocation); CGDataProviderRef dataProvider = CGDataProviderCreateWithFilename("left-arrow.png"); CGImageRef image = CGImageCreateWithPNGDataProvider(dataProvider, NULL, NO, kCGRenderingIntentDefault); //UIImage* image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"left-arrow.png"]; //CGImageRef imageRef = image.CGImage; CGContextDrawImage(ctx, CGRectMake(8.0f+(letterSize.width*i), 0.0f, 5, 5), image); //im.image=[UIImage imageNamed:@"left-arrow.png"]; } CGContextRestoreGState(ctx); // get rid of the clip for the current letter } CGContextRestoreGState(ctx); } In else condition i want to show images on the tile so for that i am converting image objects in the CGContextDrawImage. Please help me. I am not sure this would be done in same manner or in other manner please suggest your way to do this. Thanx a lot.

    Read the article

  • avoid extra xmlns:xsi while adding a attribute to xml root element in C#.net

    - by Rakesh kumar
    Please help me. First pls forgive me if i am wrong. i am createing a xmlfile using c#.net . my Code is like XmlDocument d = new XmlDocument(); XmlDeclaration xmlDeclaration = d.CreateXmlDeclaration("1.0", "utf-8", null); d.InsertBefore(xmlDeclaration,d.DocumentElement); XmlElement root = d.CreateElement("ITRETURN","ITR","http://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in/ITR1"); XmlAttribute xsiNs = d.CreateAttribute("xsi:schemaLocation", "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"); xsiNs.Value = "http://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in/main ITRMain10.xsd"; root.SetAttributeNode(xsiNs); //root.SetAttribute("xsi:schemaLocation", "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"); root.SetAttribute("xmlns:ITR1FORM", "http://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in/ITR1"); root.SetAttribute("xmlns:ITR2FORM", "http://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in/ITR2"); root.SetAttribute("xmlns:ITR3FORM", "http://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in/ITR3"); root.SetAttribute("xmlns:ITR4FORM", "http://incometaxindiaefiling.gov.in/ITR4"); d.AppendChild(root); d.Save("c://myxml.xml"); and i am getting output like this - - root node But My requirement is like + any value please help

    Read the article

  • How to return array of C++ objects from a PHP extension

    - by John Factorial
    I need to have my PHP extension return an array of objects, but I can't seem to figure out how to do this. I have a Graph object written in C++. Graph.getNodes() returns a std::map<int, Node*>. Here's the code I have currently: struct node_object { zend_object std; Node *node; }; zend_class_entry *node_ce; then PHP_METHOD(Graph, getNodes) { Graph *graph; GET_GRAPH(graph, obj) // a macro I wrote to populate graph node_object* n; zval* node_zval; if (obj == NULL) { RETURN_NULL(); } if (object_init_ex(node_zval, node_ce) != SUCCESS) { RETURN_NULL(); } std::map nodes = graph-getNodes(); array_init(return_value); for (std::map::iterator i = nodes.begin(); i != nodes.end(); ++i) { php_printf("X"); n = (node_object*) zend_object_store_get_object(node_zval TSRMLS_CC); n-node = i-second; add_index_zval(return_value, i-first, node_zval); } php_printf("]"); } When i run php -r '$g = new Graph(); $g->getNodes();' I get the output XX]Segmentation fault meaning the getNodes() function loops successfully through my 2-node list, returns, then segfaults. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • MVC Html.ActionLink with post funtionality?

    - by Levitikon
    I'm checking to see if anyone has written an MVC extension for Html.ActionLink that you can pass in Post parameters like such: <% Html.ActionLink("Click me", "Index", "Home", new { MyRouteValue = "123" }, null, new { postParam1 = "a", postParam2 = "b" }); %> That would render the link like normal but having an onClick event that submits an also rendered form with an Action url for the Action, Controller, and Route Values with additional hidden inputs from the Post Parameters like such: <a href="#" onClick="$('#theform').submit(); return false;">Click me</a> <form id="theform" action="/Home/Index/123" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="postParam1" value="a"> <input type="hidden" name="postParam2" value="b"> </form> I'm looking to redirect users to various pages with potentially a lot of data. Not only from page to page, but from email to page also. This would be highly reusable and I think would clean up a lot of code, and would save a bunch of time writing this if its already floating around out there. I hate recreating the wheel when I don't have to. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to get the size of a binary tree ?

    - by Andrei Ciobanu
    I have a very simple binary tree structure, something like: struct nmbintree_s { unsigned int size; int (*cmp)(const void *e1, const void *e2); void (*destructor)(void *data); nmbintree_node *root; }; struct nmbintree_node_s { void *data; struct nmbintree_node_s *right; struct nmbintree_node_s *left; }; Sometimes i need to extract a 'tree' from another and i need to get the size to the 'extracted tree' in order to update the size of the initial 'tree' . I was thinking on two approaches: 1) Using a recursive function, something like: unsigned int nmbintree_size(struct nmbintree_node* node) { if (node==NULL) { return(0); } return( nmbintree_size(node->left) + nmbintree_size(node->right) + 1 ); } 2) A preorder / inorder / postorder traversal done in an iterative way (using stack / queue) + counting the nodes. What approach do you think is more 'memory failure proof' / performant ? Any other suggestions / tips ? NOTE: I am probably going to use this implementation in the future for small projects of mine. So I don't want to unexpectedly fail :).

    Read the article

  • Add class to textbox when invalid, using .Net Validators

    - by CoreyT
    I'm working on a multipage form in .Net using AJAX (UpdatePanels). I am stuck right now trying to get a class added to the textbox that is invalid to basically highlight it red. I found a sample online using this code: $("span.invalid").bind("DOMAttrModified propertychange", function (e) { // Exit early if IE because it throws this event lots more if (e.originalEvent.propertyName && e.originalEvent.propertyName != "isvalid") return; var controlToValidate = $("#" + this.controltovalidate); var validators = controlToValidate.attr("Validators"); if (validators == null) return; var isValid = true; $(validators).each(function () { if (this.isvalid !== true) { isValid = false; } }); if (isValid) { controlToValidate.removeClass("invalid"); } else { controlToValidate.addClass("invalid"); } }); That works perfectly, in IE only. For some reason this code does not ever fire in Firefox. I've looked up the DOMAttrModified event and it sounds like this should work in Firefox, hence it being in the code. I must be missing something though because it does not work. I'm open to other solutions for what I am trying to accomplish here if anyone has something good. Basically the form is 3 pages right now. Page 1 has a variable number of fields that require validation. It could be 5, or 13 fields, based on a checkbox. Page 2 has another set of fields that need to be validated separately. Obviously when I am on page 1 it should not try to validate page 2, and vice versa. Pleas help with either some help to fix the code I have, or an alternative.

    Read the article

  • node.js UDP data lost at high package rates

    - by koleto
    I am observing a significant data-lost on a UDP connection with node.js 0.6.18 and 0.8.0 . It appears at high packet rates about 1200 packet per second with frames about 1500 byte limit. Each data packages has a incrementing number so it easy to track the number of lost packages. var server = dgram.createSocket("udp4"); server.on("message", function (message, rinfo) { //~processData(message); //~ writeData(message, null, 5000); }).bind(10001); On the receiving callback I tested two cases I first saved 5000 packages in a file. The result ware no dropped packages. After I have included a data processing routine and got about 50% drop rate. What I expected was that the process data routine should be completely asynchronous and should not introduce dead time to the system, since it is a simple parser to process binary data in the package and to emits events to a further processing routine. It seems that the parsing routine introduce dead time in which the event handler is unable to handle each packets. At the low package rates (< 1200 packages/sec) there are no data lost observed! Is this a bug or I am doing something wrong?

    Read the article

  • How to close InAppBrowser itself in Phonegap Application?

    - by Shashi
    I am developing Phonegap application and currently i am using InAppBrowser to display external pages. On some of the external pages I place a close button and i want to close the InAppBrowser itself. because InAppBrowser displays these pages that is why the reference of it is not accessed on itself to close it and Please do not suggest me to use ChildBrowser Plugin. window.close(); //Not Worked for me or iabRef.close(); //Also not Worked for me because iabRef is not accessible on InAppBrowser. It is created on Parent Window Some of the Android device and iOS device display a Done Button to close it. As well as the iPad also display the Done button. but in Case of Android tablet there is not any kind of button to close it. UPDATE :- Here is my full code :- var iabRef = null; function iabLoadStart(event) { } function iabLoadStop(event) { } function iabClose(event) { iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.removeEventListener('exit', iabClose); } function startInAppB() { var myURL=encodeURI('http://www.domain.com/some_path/mypage.html'); iabRef = window.open(myURL,'_blank', 'location=yes'); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.addEventListener('exit', iabClose); }

    Read the article

  • Hibernate mapping Problem

    - by Geln Yang
    Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database.

    Read the article

  • WPF validation on Enter Key Up

    - by Martin
    I'm trying to validate a UI change when Enter key is pressed. The UI element is a textbox, which is data binded to a string. My problem is that the data binding hasn't updated TestText when Enter key is Up. It is only updated when I press the button which brings up a message box. /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window, INotifyPropertyChanged { String _testText = new StringBuilder("One").ToString(); public string TestText { get { return _testText; } set { if (value != _testText) { _testText = value; OnPropertyChanged("TestText"); } } } public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); myGrid.DataContext = this; } private void OnPropertyChanged(string property) { if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(property)); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void onKeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.Key != System.Windows.Input.Key.Enter) return; System.Diagnostics.Trace.WriteLine(TestText); } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(TestText); } } Window XAML: Window x:Class="VerificationTest.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300" KeyUp="onKeyUp" TextBox XAML: TextBox Name="myTextBox" Text="{Binding TestText}" Button XAML: Button Name="button1" Click="button1_Click"

    Read the article

  • How to provide an inline model field with a queryset choices without losing field value for inline r

    - by Judith Boonstra
    The code displayed below is providing the choices I need for the app field, and the choices I need for the attr field when using Admin. I am having a problem with the attr field on the inline form for already saved records. The attr selected for these saved does show in small print above the field, but not within the field itself. # MODELS: Class Vocab(models.Model): entity = models.Charfield, max_length = 40, unique = True) Class App(models.Model): name = models.ForeignKey(Vocab, related_name = 'vocab_appname', unique = True) app = SelfForeignKey('self, verbose_name = 'parent', blank = True, null = True) attr = models.ManyToManyField(Vocab, related_name = 'vocab_appattr', through ='AppAttr' def parqs(self): a method that provides a queryset consisting of available apps from vocab, excluding self and any apps within the current app's dependent line. def attrqs(self): a method that provides a queryset consisting of available attr from vocab excluding those already selected by current app, 2) those already selected by any apps within the current app's parent line, and 3) those selected by any apps within the current app's dependent line. Class AppAttr(models.Model): app = models.ForeignKey(App) attr = models.ForeignKey(Vocab) # FORMS: from models import AppAttr def appattr_form_callback(instance, field, *args, **kwargs) if field.name = 'attr': if instance: return field.formfield(queryset = instance.attrqs(), *kwargs) return field.formfield(*kwargs) # ADMIN: necessary imports class AppAttrInline(admin.TabularInline): model = AppAttr def get_formset(self, request, obj = None, **kwargs): kwargs['formfield_callback'] = curry(appattr_form_callback, obj) return super(AppAttrInline, self).get_formset(request, obj, **kwargs) class AppForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = App def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): super(AppForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) if self.instance.id is None: working = App.objects.all() else: thisrec = App.objects.get(id = self.instance.id) working = thisrec.parqs() self.fields['par'].queryset = working class AppAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): form = AppForm inlines = [AppAttrInline,] fieldsets = .......... necessary register statements

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Unit Testing Controllers - Repositories

    - by Brian McCord
    This is more of an opinion seeking question, so there may not be a "right" answer, but I would welcome arguments as to why your answer is the "right" one. Given an MVC application that is using Entity Framework for the persistence engine, a repository layer, a service layer that basically defers to the repository, and a delete method on a controller that looks like this: public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } I am looking for the proper way to Unit Test this. Currently, I have a fake repository that gets used in the service, and my unit test looks like this: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange var stateService = GetService(); var stateController = new StateController( stateService ); ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; stateController = new StateController( stateService ); var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Is this overkill? Do I need to check to see if the record actually got deleted (as I already have Service and Repository tests that verify this)? Should I even use a fake repository here or would it make more sense just to mock the whole thing? The examples I'm looking at used this model of doing things, and I just copied it, but I'm really open to doing things in a "best practices" way. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • AppDomain.Unload doesn't release the assembly I loaded up with Reflection

    Hi All, I am struggling with an issue while loading an assembly up in a temporary AppDomain to read its GetUsedReferences property. Once I do that, I call AppDomain.Unload(tempDomain) and then I try to clean up my mess by deleting the files. That fails because the file is locked. I Unloaded the temporary domain though! Any thoughts or suggestions would be greately appreciated. Here is some of my code: //I already have btyes for the .dll and the .pdb from the actual files AppDomainSetup domainSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); domainSetup.ApplicationBase = Environment.CurrentDirectory; domainSetup.ShadowCopyFiles = "true"; domainSetup.CachePath = Environment.CurrentDirectory; AppDomain tempAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("TempAppDomain", AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence, domainSetup); //Load up the temp assembly and do stuff Assembly projectAssembly = tempAppDomain.Load(assemblyFileBuffer, symbolsFileBuffer); //Then I'm trying to clean up AppDomain.Unload(tempAppDomain); tempAppDomain = null; File.Delete(tempAssemblyFile); //I even try to force GC File.Delete(tempSymbolsFile); Anyway, the Deletes fail because the files are locked still. Shouldn't they be released because I Unloaded the temporary AppDomain?!?!?! Thanks in advance, Dan

    Read the article

  • Testing a method used from an abstract class

    - by Bas
    I have to Unit Test a method (runMethod()) that uses a method from an inhereted abstract class to create a boolean. The method in the abstract class uses XmlDocuments and nodes to retrieve information. The code looks somewhat like this (and this is extremely simplified, but it states my problem) namespace AbstractTestExample { public abstract class AbstractExample { public string propertyValues; protected XmlNode propertyValuesXML; protected string getProperty(string propertyName) { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(new System.IO.StringReader(propertyValues)); propertyValuesXML= doc.FirstChild; XmlNode node = propertyValuesXML.SelectSingleNode(String.Format("property[name='{0}']/value", propertyName)); return node.InnerText; } } public class AbstractInheret : AbstractExample { public void runMethod() { bool addIfContains = (getProperty("AddIfContains") == null || getProperty("AddIfContains") == "True"); //Do something with boolean } } } So, the code wants to get a property from a created XmlDocument and uses it to form the result to a boolean. Now my question is, what is the best solution to make sure I have control over the booleans result behaviour. I'm using Moq for possible mocking. I know this code example is probably a bit fuzzy, but it's the best I could show. Hope you guys can help.

    Read the article

  • Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

    - by IrfanRaza
    Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

    Read the article

  • Type casting in C++ by detecting the current 'this' object type

    - by Elroy
    My question is related to RTTI in C++ where I'm trying to check if an object belongs to the type hierarchy of another object. The BelongsTo() method checks this. I tried using typeid, but it throws an error and I'm not sure about any other way how I can find the target type to convert to at runtime. #include <iostream> #include <typeinfo> class X { public: // Checks if the input type belongs to the type heirarchy of input object type bool BelongsTo(X* p_a) { // I'm trying to check if the current (this) type belongs to the same type // hierarchy as the input type return dynamic_cast<typeid(*p_a)*>(this) != NULL; // error C2059: syntax error 'typeid' } }; class A : public X { }; class B : public A { }; class C : public A { }; int main() { X* a = new A(); X* b = new B(); X* c = new C(); bool test1 = b->BelongsTo(a); // should return true bool test2 = b->BelongsTo(c); // should return false bool test3 = c->BelongsTo(a); // should return true } Making the method virtual and letting derived classes do it seems like a bad idea as I have a lot of classes in the same type hierarchy. Or does anybody know of any other/better way to the do the same thing? Please suggest.

    Read the article

  • static variable lose its value

    - by user542719
    I have helper class with this static variable that is used for passing data between two classes. public class Helper{ public static String paramDriveMod;//this is the static variable in first calss } this variable is used in following second class mathod public void USB_HandleMessage(char []USB_RXBuffer){ int type=USB_RXBuffer[2]; MESSAGES ms=MESSAGES.values()[type]; switch(ms) { case READ_PARAMETER_VALUE: // read parameter values switch(prm){ case PARAMETER_DRIVE_MODE: // paramet drive mode Helper.paramDriveMod =(Integer.toString(((USB_RXBuffer[4]<< 8)&0xff00))); System.out.println(Helper.paramDriveMod+"drive mode is selectd ");//here it shows the value that I need. ..........}}//let say end switch and method and the following is an third class method use the above class method public void buttonSwitch(int value) throws InterruptedException{ boolean bool=true; int c=0; int delay=(int) Math.random(); while(bool){ int param=3; PARAMETERS prm=PARAMETERS.values()[param]; switch(value){ case 0: value=1; while(c<5){ Thread.sleep(delay); protocol.onSending(3,prm.PARAMETER_DRIVE_MODE.ordinal(),dataToRead,dataToRead.length);//read drive mode System.out.println(Helper.paramDriveMod+" drive mode is ..........in wile loop");//here it shows null value }}//let say end switch and method what is the reason that this variable lose its value?

    Read the article

  • error while reading Excel sheet

    - by Lalit
    Hi, I have code to read Excel from c3 language : DataTable dtChildrenData = new DataTable(); OdbcConnection oConn = null; try { if (File.Exists(strSheetPath)) { oConn = new OdbcConnection(); oConn.ConnectionString = @"DSN=Excel Files;DBQ=" + strSheetPath + @";DriverId=1046;FIL=excel 12.0;MaxBufferSize=2048;PageTimeout=5;"; OdbcCommand oComm = new OdbcCommand(); oComm.Connection = oConn; oComm.CommandText = "Select * From [Sheet1$]"; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); OdbcDataAdapter oAdapter = new OdbcDataAdapter(oComm); oConn.Open(); oAdapter.Fill(ds); dtChildrenData = ds.Tables[0]; } } finally { oConn.Close(); } return dtChildrenData; But getting this error when i deploy the web application on IIS. Wherere as it is running fine locally. ERROR [IM002] [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified How to solve this. Please let me know if any information required to answer this question (about configuration)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 724 725 726 727 728 729 730 731 732 733 734 735  | Next Page >