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  • Visual Studio project using the Quality Center API remains in memory

    - by Traveling Tech Guy
    Hi, Currently developing a connector DLL to HP's Quality Center. I'm using their (insert expelative) COM API to connect to the server. An Interop wrapper gets created automatically by VStudio. My solution has 2 projects: the DLL and a tester application - essentially a form with buttons that call functions in the DLL. Everything works well - I can create defects, update them and delete them. When I close the main form, the application stops nicely. But when I call a function that returns a list of all available projects (to fill a combo box), if I close the main form, VStudio still shows the solution as running and I have to stop it. I've managed to pinpoint a single function in my code that when I call, the solution remains "hung" and if I don't, it closes well. It's a call to a property in the TDC object get_VisibleProjects that returns a List (not the .Net one, but a type in the COM library) - I just iterate over it and return a proper list (that I later use to fill the combo box): public List<string> GetAvailableProjects() { List<string> projects = new List<string>(); foreach (string project in this.tdc.get_VisibleProjects(qcDomain)) { projects.Add(project); } return projects; } My assumption is that something gets retained in memory. If I run the EXE outside of VStudio it closes - but who knows what gets left behind in memory? My question is - how do I get rid of whatever calling this property returns? Shouldn't the GC handle this? Do I need to delve into pointers? Things I've tried: getting the list into a variable and setting it to null at the end of the function Adding a destructor to the class and nulling the tdc object Stepping through the tester function application all the way out, whne the form closes and the Main function ends - it closes, but VStudio still shows I'm running. Thanks for your assistance!

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  • Reloading Sinatra app on every request on Windows

    - by Darth
    I've set up Rack::Reload according to this thread # config.ru require 'rubygems' require 'sinatra' set :environment, :development require 'app' run Sinatra::Application # app.rb class Sinatra::Reloader < Rack::Reloader def safe_load(file, mtime, stderr = $stderr) if file == Sinatra::Application.app_file ::Sinatra::Application.reset! stderr.puts "#{self.class}: reseting routes" end super end end configure(:development) { use Sinatra::Reloader } get '/' do 'foo' end Running with thin via thin start -R config.ru, but it only reloads newly added routes. When I change already existing route, it still runs the old code. When I add new route, it correctly reloads it, so it is accessible, but it doesn't reload anything else. For example, if I changed routes to get '/' do 'bar' end get '/foo' do 'baz' end Than / would still serve foo, even though it has changed, but /foo would correctly reload and serve baz. Is this normal behavior, or am I missing something? I'd expect whole source file to be reloaded. The only way around I can think of right now is restarting whole webserver when filesystem changes. I'm running on Windows Vista x64, so I can't use shotgun because of fork().

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  • document.getElementById() returns null when using mozrepl (but not in firebug)

    - by teamonkey
    I'm trying to use the mozrepl Firefox extension to give me a Javascript REPL from within emacs. I think I've got it set up correctly. I can interact with the REPL from emacs and can explore the document pretty much as described in the tutorial pages. The problem comes when I try to do something really simple, like get a context to a canvas element: repl> document.getElementById("mycanvas").getContext("2d") !!! TypeError: document.getElementById("mycanvas") is null Details: message: document.getElementById("mycanvas") is null fileName: chrome://mozrepl/content/repl.js -> file:///C:/Users/teamonkey/AppData/Roaming/Mozilla/Firefox/Profiles/chfdenuz.default/mozrepl.tmp.js lineNumber: 1 stack: @chrome://mozrepl/content/repl.js -> file:///C:/Users/teamonkey/AppData/Roaming/Mozilla/Firefox/Profiles/chfdenuz.default/mozrepl.tmp.js:1 name: TypeError It's not just that particular instance: any call to getElementById will just return null. If I start up firebug I can enter the same thing and it will return a valid context, but I'd really like to get the REPL working in emacs. I don't think this is a bug but I've probably not configured mozrepl correctly. Can anyone help? Mozrepl 1.0, Firefox 3.6

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  • How to fix security exception when using recaptcha on MVC site

    - by camainc
    I followed this excellent blog post to implement recaptcha on my MVC site: http://devlicio.us/blogs/derik_whittaker/archive/2008/12/02/using-recaptcha-with-asp-net-mvc.aspx I converted the code to VB, and everything seems to compile ok. However, when the code gets to the place where the recapture is about to be generated, I get a security exception. Here is the function where the exception occurs (on the last line in the function): <Extension()> _ Public Function GenerateCaptcha(ByVal htmlHelper As HtmlHelper) As MvcHtmlString Dim captchaControl As New Recaptcha.RecaptchaControl With captchaControl .ID = "recaptcha" .Theme = "blackglass" .PublicKey = "6Lcv9AsAAAAAALCSZNRfWFmrKjw2AR-yuZAL84Bd" .PrivateKey = "6Lcv9AsAAAAAAHCbRujWcZzrY0z6G_HIMvFyYEPR" End With Dim htmlWriter As New HtmlTextWriter(New IO.StringWriter) captchaControl.RenderControl(htmlWriter) Return MvcHtmlString.Create(htmlWriter.InnerWriter.ToString()) End Function The exception is this: Security Exception Description: The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy. To grant this application the required permission please contact your system administrator or change the application's trust level in the configuration file. Exception Details: System.Security.SecurityException: Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' failed. Has anyone else seen this exception, and if so, how did you fix it? Thanks

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  • Sharing session state between 2 ASP.NET applications using SQL Server

    - by Dave
    Hi I'm working on a site that has a requirement to share session between a cms application and an online store application on the same domain eg. mydomain.com and store.mydomain.com I've made some progress with it and it works on my local build between localhost/cms and localhost/store Basically I have done what is suggested in this article http://blogs.msdn.com/toddca/archive/2007/01/25/sharing-asp-net-session-state-across-applications.aspx and hacked the TempGetAppID Stored Procedure to return the same application id (1). This appears to work as it creates sessions with ids like 'abv5d2urx1asscfwuzw3wp4500000001', which is what I'd expect. My issue is that when I deploy it to our testing environment, it creates a new session when I navigate between the 2 sites. So when I start a session on the cms site, if I navigate to the store, it creates a new session. These are set up as 2 different websites in IIS7. In the web.config files for both sites, the and elements are both the same and are as follows (minus sensitive information) Has anyone got an ideas why this might not be working? I am sharing Forms Authentication across the 2 sites and that works fine. Any help or ideas would be greatly appreciated! Many thanks Dave

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  • How do I pass a lot of parameters to views in Django?

    - by Mark
    I'm very new to Django and I'm trying to build an application to present my data in tables and charts. Till now my learning process went very smooth, but now I'm a bit stuck. My pageview retrieves large amounts of data from a database and puts it in the context. The template then generates different html-tables. So far so good. Now I want to add different charts to the template. I manage to do this by defining <img src=".../> tags. The Matplotlib chart is generate in my chartview an returned via: response=HttpResponse(content_type='image/png') canvas.print_png(response) return response Now I have different questions: the data is retrieved twice from the database. Once in the pageview to render the tables, and again in the chartview for making the charts. What is the best way to pass the data, already in the context of the page to the chartview? I need a lot of charts, each with different datasets. I could make a chartview for each chart, but probably there is a better way. How do I pass the different dataset names to the chartview? Some charts have 20 datasets, so I don't think that passing these dataset parameters via the url (like: <imgm src="chart/dataset1/dataset2/.../dataset20/chart.png />) is the right way. Any advice?

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  • Cocoa Virtual Keystrokes Pain

    - by bhargav
    I'm writing an application to respond on a hotkey by copying highlighted text into NSPasteboard's generalPasteboard. After looking around here for a solution for sending virtual keystrokes, I found this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1505933/how-to-send-a-cmd-c-keystroke-to-the-active-application-in-objective-c-or-tell I tried the applescript suggested with NSAppleScript: NSLog(@"Hotkey Pressed"); NSPasteboard *pasteboard = [NSPasteboard generalPasteboard]; NSAppleScript *playScript; playScript = [[NSAppleScript alloc] initWithSource:@"tell application \"System Events\" to keystroke \"c\" using command down"]; if([playScript isCompiled] == NO){ [playScript compileAndReturnError:nil]; } id exerror = [playScript executeAndReturnError:nil]; if(exerror == nil){ NSLog(@"Script Failed"); } It works, but only on the first time I hit the hotkey. Each subsequent hit will not to grab the highlighted text. The generalPasteboard still contains the same contents as before the script is run again. Clearing the generalPasteboard before I run the code is no use, because then the code fails when attempting to read the pasteboard contents. So I tried the next suggested solution: CFRelease(CGEventCreate(NULL)); CGEventRef event1, event2, event3, event4; event1 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent (NULL, (CGKeyCode)50, true); event2 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent (NULL, (CGKeyCode)8, true); event3 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent (NULL, (CGKeyCode)8, false); event4 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent (NULL, (CGKeyCode)50, false); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event1); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event2); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event3); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event4); The above should send the keystrokes Command + c, but all I get is a beep, and the pasteboard contents are unchanged. I'm at wits end - can anyone enlighten me as to what I'm missing or point me out to what I'm overlooking for something so simple?

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  • How to use OSGi getServiceReference() right

    - by Jens
    Hello, I am new to OSGi and came across several examples about OSGi services. For example: import org.osgi.framework.*; import org.osgi.service.log.*; public class MyActivator implements BundleActivator { public void start(BundleContext context) throws Exception { ServiceReference logRef = context.getServiceReference(LogService.class.getName()); } } My question is, why do you use getServiceReference(LogService.class.getName()) instead of getServiceReference("LogService") If you use LogService.class.getName() you have to import the Interface. This also means that you have to import the package org.osgi.services.log in your MANIFEST.MF. Isn't that completely counterproductive if you want to reduce dependencies to push loose coupling? As far as I know one advantage of services is that the service consumer doesn't have to know the service publisher. But if you have to import one specific Interface you clearly have to know who's providing it. By only using a string like "LogService" you would not have to know that the Interface is provided by org.osgi.services.log.LogService. What am I missing here?

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  • Programatically send SMS to email using Verizon Motorola Droid on Android

    - by Dave
    Hi, I was wondering if anyone knew the proper way to send an SMS message to an e-mail address using Verizon's CDMA Motorola Droid phone. The internal messaging application appears to automagically do this. While 3rd party applications like SMSPopup don't seem to be able to properly reply to e-mail addresses unless you compose the message inside the messaging application. When the internal messaging application sends a SMS message there's a corresponding 'RIL_REQUEST_CDMA_SEND_SMS' entry in the logcat (adb logcat -b radio). When you send a SMS to an e-mail address it prints the same thing, so behind the scenes it looks as though it is sending an sms. The interesting thing is that if you look at the content provider sent box the messages are addressed to various 1270XX-XXX-XXXX numbers. On other services you can send e-mail addresses by sending a SMS to a predefined short sms number. And then formatting your SMS as emailaddress subject message i.e. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SMS_gateway#Carrier-Provided_SMS_to_E-Mail_Gateways For example, using T-mobile's number (500) you can send a SMS to an e-mail using the following: SmsManager smsMgr = SmsManager.getDefault(); smsMgr.sendTextMessage("500", null, "[email protected] message sent to an e-mail address from a SMS", null, null); Does anyone know if It is possible to programatically send SMS to email messages from a CDMA Android phone? Does Verizon actually send your replies as SMS messages or are they actually sent as MMS or normal http email messages? Any ideas about how to intercept what the raw message being sent to see what's going on? It might be possible that Verizon somehow generates a fake number temporarily tied to an e-mail address (since repeated messages are not sent to the same number). But, that seems pretty heavy handed. Thanks!

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 router matches correct area route but generates URL to the first registered area inste

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm working on a S#arpArchitecture 1.5 project, which uses ASP.NET MVC 2. I've been trying to get areas to work properly but I ran into a problem: The ASP.NET MVC 2 routing engine matches the correct route to my area but then it generates an URL that belongs to the first registered area instead. Here's my request URL: /Framework/Authentication/LogOn?ReturnUrl=%2fDefault.aspx I'm using the Route Tester from Phil Haack and it shows: Matched Route: Framework/{controller}/{action}/{id} Generated URL: /Data/Authentication/LogOn?ReturnUrl=%2FDefault.aspx using the route "Data/{controller}/{action}/{id}" That's clearly wrong, the URL should point to the Framework area, not the Data area. This is how I register my routes, nothing special there IMO. private static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); routes.MapRoute( "default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); } The area registration classes all look like this. Again, nothing special. public class FrameworkAreaRegistration : AreaRegistration { public override string AreaName { get { return "Framework"; } } public override void RegisterArea(AreaRegistrationContext context) { context.MapRoute( "Framework_default", "Framework/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); } }

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  • asp.net Dynamic Data Site with own MetaData

    - by loviji
    Hello, I'm searching info about configuring own MetaData in asp.NET Dynamic Site. For example. I have a table in MS Sql Server with structure shown below: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[someTable]( [id] [int] NOT NULL, [pname] [nvarchar](20) NULL, [FullName] [nvarchar](50) NULL, [age] [int] NULL) and I there are 2 Ms Sql tables (I've created), sysTables and sysColumns. sysTables: ID sysTableName TableName TableDescription 1 | someTable |Persons |All Data about Persons in system sysColumns: ID TableName sysColumnName ColumnName ColumnDesc ColumnType MUnit 1 |someTable | sometable_pname| Name | Persona Name(ex. John)| nvarchar(20) | null 2 |someTable | sometable_Fullname| Full Name | Persona Name(ex. John Black)| nvarchar(50) | null 3 |someTable | sometable_age| age | Person age| int | null I want that, in Details/Edit/Insert/List/ListDetails pages use as MetaData sysColumns and sysTableData. Because, for ex. in DetailsPage fullName, it is not beatiful as Full Name . someIdea, is it possible? thanks Updated:: In List Page to display data from sysTables (metaData table) I've modified <h2 class="DDSubHeader"><%= tableName%></h2>. public string tableName; protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) { table = DynamicDataRouteHandler.GetRequestMetaTable(Context); //added by me uqsikDataContext sd=new uqsikDataContext(); tableName = sd.sysTables.Where(n => n.sysTableName == table.DisplayName).FirstOrDefault().TableName; //end GridView1.SetMetaTable(table, table.GetColumnValuesFromRoute(Context)); GridDataSource.EntityTypeName = table.EntityType.AssemblyQualifiedName; if (table.EntityType != table.RootEntityType) { GridQueryExtender.Expressions.Add(new OfTypeExpression(table.EntityType)); } } so, what about sysColums? How can I get Data from my sysColumns table?

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  • Macro access to members of object where macro is defined

    - by Marc Grue
    Say I have a trait Foo that I instantiate with an initial value val foo = new Foo(6) // class Foo(i: Int) and I later call a second method that in turn calls myMacro foo.secondMethod(7) // def secondMethod(j: Int) = macro myMacro then, how can myMacro find out what my initial value of i (6) is? I didn't succeed with normal compilation reflection using c.prefix, c.eval(...) etc but instead found a 2-project solution: Project B: object CompilationB { def resultB(x: Int, y: Int) = macro resultB_impl def resultB_impl(c: Context)(x: c.Expr[Int], y: c.Expr[Int]) = c.universe.reify(x.splice * y.splice) } Project A (depends on project B): trait Foo { val i: Int // Pass through `i` to compilation B: def apply(y: Int) = CompilationB.resultB(i, y) } object CompilationA { def makeFoo(x: Int): Foo = macro makeFoo_impl def makeFoo_impl(c: Context)(x: c.Expr[Int]): c.Expr[Foo] = c.universe.reify(new Foo {val i = x.splice}) } We can create a Foo and set the i value either with normal instantiation or with a macro like makeFoo. The second approach allows us to customize a Foo at compile time in the first compilation and then in the second compilation further customize its response to input (i in this case)! In some way we get "meta-meta" capabilities (or "pataphysic"-capabilities ;-) Normally we would need to have foo in scope to introspect i (with for instance c.eval(...)). But by saving the i value inside the Foo object we can access it anytime and we could instantiate Foo anywhere: object Test extends App { import CompilationA._ // Normal instantiation val foo1 = new Foo {val i = 7} val r1 = foo1(6) // Macro instantiation val foo2 = makeFoo(7) val r2 = foo2(6) // "Curried" invocation val r3 = makeFoo(6)(7) println(s"Result 1 2 3: $r1 $r2 $r3") assert((r1, r2, r3) ==(42, 42, 42)) } My question Can I find i inside my example macros without this double compilation hackery?

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  • MVC ASP.NET, ObjectContext and Ajax. Weird Behaviour

    - by fabianadipolo
    Hi, i've been creating a web application in mvc asp.net. I have three different project/solutions. One solution contains the model in EF (DAL) and all the methods to add, update, delete and query the objects in the model, the objectcontext is managed here in a per request basis. Other solution contains a content management system in wich authorized users insert, delete, update and access objects through the DAL mentioned before. And the last solution contains the web page that is accessed by all users and where the only operations executed are selects, no update, inserts or deletes here. All the selects are executed against the DAL mentioned before (the first solution). The problem here is that i'm not sure whether an HttpContext lifespan ObjectContext is the best solution. I have a lot of ajax calls in my web app and i'm not sure if an httpcontext could interfere with the performance of the application. I've been noticed that in some cases, specially when someone is working in the content manager inserting, updating or deleting, when you try to click on any link of the user web application (the web app that is accessed by any user - the third one that i mentioned before) the web page freezes and it remains stucked transferring data. In order to stop that behaviour you have to stop and refresh or click several times on the link. Excuse me for my bad english. I hope you could understand and could help me to solve this issue. Thanx in advance.

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  • When using SendKeys()-InvalidOperationException: Undo Operation encountered...

    - by M0DC0M
    Here is my code public void KeyPress() { //Finds the target window and sends a key command to the application Process[] processes = Process.GetProcessesByName("calc"); IntPtr calculatorHandle; foreach (Process proc in processes) { calculatorHandle = proc.MainWindowHandle; if (calculatorHandle == IntPtr.Zero) { MessageBox.Show("Calculator is not running."); return; } SetForegroundWindow(calculatorHandle); break; } SendKeys.SendWait("1"); } After Executing this code I recieve an Error, i know the source is the SendKeys. Here is the full error I am Receiving System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled Message="The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was applied in the corresponding Set operation. The possible cause is that a context was Set on the thread and not reverted(undone)." Source="mscorlib" StackTrace: at System.Threading.SynchronizationContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.runFinallyCode(Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteBackoutCodeHelper(Object backoutCode, Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteCodeWithGuaranteedCleanup(TryCode code, CleanupCode backoutCode, Object userData) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Net.ContextAwareResult.Complete(IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.LazyAsyncResult.ProtectedInvokeCallback(Object result, IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.Sockets.BaseOverlappedAsyncResult.CompletionPortCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Threading._IOCompletionCallback.PerformIOCompletionCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* pOVERLAP) InnerException: I'm not sure what the problem is, The number will appear in my calculator but that error pops up

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  • Visual studio 2010 setup project problem.

    - by Guru
    Hi there, I've made an application that uses .NET framework 3.5 SP1 and SQL Server 2008 Express. Application is fine and now i'm going to to make a setup project for this. When I first build my setup it was fine as all the prerequisites were not included in setup. But I want my setup to install .NET 3.5 SP1 and SQL SERVER 2008 Express also. So for this I've changed the options in setup project's properties from "Download prerequisites from following location" to "Download prerequisites from the same location as my application". In addition to that I've also checked the options above like .NET 3.5 SP1 and SQL Server 2008 Express etc. After doing all this I build my project again. This time I'm Getting 57 Errors. Error 1 The install location for prerequisites has not been set to 'component vendor's web site' and the file 'DotNetFX35SP1\dotNetFX20\aspnet.msp' in item '.NET Framework 3.5 SP1' can not be located on disk. See Help for more information. D:\MindStrike Setup\MindStrike Setup.vdproj MindStrike Setup Error 2 The install location for prerequisites has not been set to 'component vendor's web site' and the file 'DotNetFX35SP1\dotNetFX20\aspnet_64.msp' in item '.NET Framework 3.5 SP1' can not be located on disk. See Help for more information. D:\MindStrike Setup\MindStrike Setup.vdproj MindStrike Setup Error 3 The install location for prerequisites has not been set to 'component vendor's web site' and the file 'DotNetFX35SP1\dotNetFX20\clr.msp' in item '.NET Framework 3.5 SP1' can not be located on disk. See Help for more information. D:\MindStrike Setup\MindStrike Setup.vdproj MindStrike Setup Error 4 The install location for prerequisites has not been set to 'component vendor's web site' and the file 'DotNetFX35SP1\dotNetFX20\clr_64.msp' in item '.NET Framework 3.5 SP1' can not be located on disk. See Help for more information. D:\MindStrike Setup\MindStrike Setup.vdproj MindStrike Setup As the question will become too large so I'm just pasting 3 errors but there are totally 57 errors. Please help me . Thanks in advance Guru

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  • How to provide stl like container with public const iterator and private non-const iterator?

    - by WilliamKF
    Hello, I am deriving a class privately from std::list and wish to provide public begin() and end() for const_iterator and private begin() and end() for just plain iterator. However, the compiler is seeing the private version and complaining that it is private instead of using the public const version. I understand that C++ will not overload on return type (in this case const_iterator and iterator) and thus it is choosing the non-const version since my object is not const. Short of casting my object to const before calling begin() or not overloading the name begin is there a way to accomplish this? I would think this is a known pattern that folks have solved before and would like to follow suit as to how this is typically solved. class myObject; class myContainer : private std::list<myObject> { public: typedef std::list<myObject>::const_iterator myContainer::const_iterator; private: typedef std::list<myObject>::iterator myContainer::iterator; public: myContainer::const_iterator begin() const { return std::list<myObject>::begin(); } myContainer::const_iterator end() const { return std::list<myObject>::end(); } private: myContainer::iterator begin() { return std::list<myObject>::begin(); } myContainer::iterator end() { return std::list<myObject>::end(); } }; void myFunction(myContainer &container) { myContainer::const_iterator aItr = container.begin(); myContainer::const_iterator aEndItr = container.end(); for (; aItr != aEndItr; ++aItr) { const myObject &item = *aItr; // Do something const on container's contents. } } The error from the compiler is something like this: ../../src/example.h:447: error: `std::_List_iterator<myObject> myContainer::begin()' is private caller.cpp:2393: error: within this context ../../src/example.h:450: error: `std::_List_iterator<myObject> myContainer::end()' is private caller.cpp:2394: error: within this context Thanks. -William

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  • Factories, or Dependency Injection for object instantiation in WCF, when coding against an interface

    - by Saajid Ismail
    Hi I am writing a client/server application, where the client is a Windows Forms app, and the server is a WCF service hosted in a Windows Service. Note that I control both sides of the application. I am trying to implement the practice of coding against an interface: i.e. I have a Shared assembly which is referenced by the client application. This project contains my WCF ServiceContracts and interfaces which will be exposed to clients. I am trying to only expose interfaces to the clients, so that they are only dependant on a contract, not any specific implementation. One of the reasons for doing this is so that I can have my service implementation, and domain change at any time without having to recompile and redeploy the clients. The interfaces/contracts will in this case not change. I only need to recompile and redeploy my WCF service. The design issue I am facing now, is: on the client, how do I create new instances of objects, e.g. ICustomer, if the client doesn't know about the Customer concrete implementation? I need to create a new customer to be saved to the DB. Do I use dependency injection, or a Factory class to instantiate new objects, or should I just allow the client to create new instances of concrete implementations? I am not doing TDD, and I will typically only have one implementation of ICustomer or any other exposed interface.

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  • How to set up a user Quartz2D coordinate system with scaling that avoids fuzzy drawing?

    - by jdmuys
    This topic has been scratched once or twice, but I am still puzzled. And Google was not friendly either. Since Quartz allows for arbitrary coordinate systems using affine transform, I want to be able to draw things such as floorplans using real-life coordinate, e.g. feet. So basically, for the sake of an example, I want to scale the view so that when I draw a 10x10 rectangle (think a 1-inch box for example), I get a 60x60 pixels rectangle. It works, except the rectangle I get is quite fuzzy. Another question here got an answer that explains why. However, I'm not sure I understood that reason why, and moreover, I don't know how to fix it. Here is my code: I set my coordinate system in my awakeFromNib custom view method: - (void) awakeFromNib { CGAffineTransform scale = CGAffineTransformMakeScale(6.0, 6.0); self.transform = scale; } And here is my draw routine: - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGRect r = CGRectMake(10., 10., 11., 11.); CGFloat lineWidth = 1.0; CGContextStrokeRectWithWidth(context, r, lineWidth); } The square I get is scaled just fine, but totally fuzzy. Playing with lineWidth doesn't help: when lineWidth is set smaller, it gets lighter, but not crisper. So is there a way to set up a view to have a scaled coordinate system, so that I can use my domain coordinates? Or should I go back and implementing scaling in my drawing routines? Note that this issue doesn't occur for translation or rotation. Thanks

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  • Can this be considered Clean Code / Best Practice?

    - by MRFerocius
    Guys, How are you doing today? I have the following question because I will follow this strategy for all my helpers (to deal with the DB entities) Is this considered a good practice or is it going to be unmaintainable later? public class HelperArea : AbstractHelper { event OperationPerformed<Area> OnAreaInserting; event OperationPerformed<Area> OnAreaInserted; event OperationPerformed<Area> OnExceptionOccured; public void Insert(Area element) { try { if (OnAreaInserting != null) OnAreaInserting(element); DBase.Context.Areas.InsertOnSubmit(new AtlasWFM_Mapping.Mapping.Area { areaDescripcion = element.Description, areaNegocioID = element.BusinessID, areaGUID = Guid.NewGuid(), areaEstado = element.Status, }); DBase.Context.SubmitChanges(); if (OnAreaInserted != null) OnAreaInserted(element); } catch (Exception ex) { LogManager.ChangeStrategy(LogginStrategies.EVENT_VIEWER); LogManager.LogError(new LogInformation { logErrorType = ErrorType.CRITICAL, logException = ex, logMensaje = "Error inserting Area" }); if (OnExceptionOccured != null) OnExceptionOccured(elemento); } } I want to know if it is a good way to handle the event on the Exception to let subscribers know that there has been an exception inserting that Area. And the way to log the Exception, is is OK to do it this way? Any suggestion to make it better?

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  • Authlogic and password and password confirmation attributes - inaccessible?

    - by adam
    Im trying to test my successfully creates a new user after login (using authlogic). Ive added a couple of new fields to the user so just want to make sure that the user is saved properly. The problem is despite creating a valid user factory, whenever i try to grab its attributes to post to the create method, password and password confirmation are being ommitted. I presuem this is a security method that authlogic performs in the background. This results in validations failing and the test failing. Im wondering how do i get round this problem? I could just type the attributes out by hand but that doesnt seem very dry. context "on POST to :create" do context "on posting a valid user" do setup do @user = Factory.build(:user) post :create, :user => @user.attributes end should "be valid" do assert @user.valid? end should_redirect_to("users sentences index page") { sentences_path() } should "add user to the db" do assert User.find_by_username(@user.username) end end ##User factory Factory.define :user do |f| f.username {Factory.next(:username) } f.email { Factory.next(:email)} f.password_confirmation "password" f.password "password" f.native_language {|nl| nl.association(:language)} f.second_language {|nl| nl.association(:language)} end

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  • htaccess mod_rewrite check file/directory existence, else rewrite?

    - by devians
    I have a very heavy htaccess mod_rewrite file that runs my application. As we sometimes take over legacy websites, I sometimes need to support old urls to old files, where my application processes everything post htaccess. My ultimate goal is to have a 'Demilitarized Zone' for old file structures, and use mod rewrite to check for existence there before pushing to the application. This is pretty easy to do with files, by using: RewriteCond %{IS_SUBREQ} true RewriteRule .* - [L] RewriteCond %{ENV:REDIRECT_STATUS} 200 RewriteRule .* - [L] RewriteCond Public/DMZ/$1 -F [OR] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ Public/DMZ/$1 [QSA,L] This allows pseudo support for relative urls by not hardcoding my base path (I cant assume I will ever be deployed in document root) anywhere and using subrequests to check for file existence. Works fine if you know the file name, ie http://domain.com/path/to/app/legacyfolder/index.html However, my legacy urls are typically http://domain.com/path/to/app/legacyfolder/ Mod_Rewrite will allow me to check for this by using -d, but it needs the complete path to the directory, ie RewriteCond Public/DMZ/$1 -F [OR] RewriteCond /var/www/path/to/app/Public/DMZ/$1 -d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ Public/DMZ/$1 [QSA,L] I want to avoid the hardcoded base path. I can see one possible solutions here, somehow determining my path and attaching it to a variable [E=name:var] and using it in the condition. Another option is using -U, but the tricky part is stopping it from hijacking every other request when they should flow through, since -U is really easy to satisfy. Any implementation that allows me to existence check a directory is more than welcome. I am not interested in using RewriteBase, as that requires my htaccess to have a hardcoded base path.

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  • Setting Path and Expiration for session cookie in asp.net

    - by Sergej Andrejev
    Anything I have tried didn't work. Currenly I have following code to change asp.net session cookie expiration date and path, but asp doesn't want to listen to me. I sends same cookie in Set-Cookie header two times sometimes, sometimes it sends it's default cookie ignoring path and expiration date, sometimes it sends everything as expected, and sometimes it doesn't send Set-Cookie at all. What should I do. This drives me nuts :( My code in Global.asax protected void Application_PreRequestHandlerExecute(Object sender, EventArgs e) { /// only apply session cookie persistence to requests requiring session information if (Context.Handler is IRequiresSessionState || Context.Handler is IReadOnlySessionState) { var sessionState = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("system.web/sessionState") as SessionStateSection; var cookieName = sessionState != null && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(sessionState.CookieName) ? sessionState.CookieName : "ASP.NET_SessionId"; var timeout = sessionState != null ? sessionState.Timeout : TimeSpan.FromMinutes(20); /// Ensure ASP.NET Session Cookies are accessible throughout the subdomains. if (Request.Cookies[cookieName] != null && Session != null && Session.SessionID != null) { Response.Cookies[cookieName].Value = Session.SessionID; Response.Cookies[cookieName].Path = Request.ApplicationPath; Response.Cookies[cookieName].Expires = DateTime.Now.Add(timeout); } } }

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  • How do I pass data from a BroadcastReceiver through to an Activity being started?

    - by Tom Hume
    I've got an Android application which needs to be woken up sporadically throughout the day. To do this, I'm using the AlarmManager to set up a PendingIntent and have this trigger a BroadcastReceiver. This BroadcastReceiver then starts an Activity to bring the UI to the foreground. All of the above seems to work, in that the Activity launches itself correctly; but I'd like the BroadcastReceiver to notify the Activity that it was started by the alarm (as opposed to being started by the user). To do this I'm trying, from the onReceive() method of the BroadcastReceiver to set a variable in the extras bundle of the intent, thus: Intent i = new Intent(context, MyActivity.class); i.putExtra(wakeupKey, true); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); context.startActivity(i); In the onResume() method of my Activity, I then look for the existence of this boolean variable: protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); String wakeupKey = "blah"; if (getIntent()!=null && getIntent().getExtras()!=null) Log.d("app", "onResume at " + System.currentTimeMillis() + ":" + getIntent().getExtras().getBoolean(wakeupKey)); else Log.d("app", "onResume at " + System.currentTimeMillis() + ": null"); } The getIntent().getExtras() call in onResume() always returns null - I don't seem to be able to pass any extras through at all in this bundle. If I use the same method to bind extras to the PendingIntent which triggers the BroadcastReceiver however, the extras come through just fine. Can anyone tell me what's different about passing a bundle from a BroadcastReceiver to an Activity, as opposed to passing the bundle from an Activity to a BroadcastReceiver? I fear I may be doing something very very obvious wrong here...

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  • WCF Service w/ SharePoint Error: Could not find default endpoint element that references contract...

    - by Brian Clark
    Full error message: Could not find default endpoint element that references contract 'PublicationServices.IPublicationService' in the ServiceModel client configuration section. This might be because no configuration file was found for your application, or because no endpoint element matching this contract could be found in the client element. I have a SharePoint site that I have already opened a project for in Visual Studio 2010. I also created a project that contains a WCF Service Application and added it to the same solution that contains the project for my SharePoint site. I have created a visual web part in my SharePoint project that I am trying to use to consume the WCF Service. I am doing so like this, from within the user control for my web part: PublicationServiceClient proxy = new PublicationServiceClient(); Just having this line alone in OnPreRender, Page_Load, etc. will generate the above error. I've read previous posts about having to have items in the config file of the WCF service also in the config file of the consuming application. I have done this, I copied this section the Web.config file in my WCF service and have placed it in the system.serviceModel tags of my SharePoint project's app.config file: In other words, this is in both of my config files. When I add this web part to the front page of my SharePoint site though, I get the above error every time. I should also note that I have created a console app that I was able to use with no problems to consume data from this very same WCF service. Any help would be appreciated!

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  • Invalid viewstate error

    - by Chamila
    I'm getting an invalid viewstate error with regard to the ScriptResource.axd. Just wondering if anyone of you could help me on this. Error is: 2009-02-24 09:46:30,021 [13] DEBUG ASP.global_asax [(null)] - Request start - URL: /Web/ScriptResource.axd?d=E9hlvtsn8Gr1MyjysW1gFDFYr4CVwstY-sC22tRu5V8d7UyEYz3FhVYGrlhY87n2ihgKh58RrMRhK-Yk2WcQahEaCg_asTInqHK 2009-02-24 09:46:30,021 [13] DEBUG ASP.global_asax [(null)] - Application_AuthenticateRequest started 2009-02-24 09:46:30,021 [13] ERROR ASP.global_asax [(null)] - Unexpected error. User presented with Site Error page. System.Web.HttpException: Invalid viewstate. at System.Web.UI.Page.DecryptStringWithIV(String s, IVType ivType) at System.Web.UI.Page.DecryptString(String s) at System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler.DecryptParameter(NameValueCollection queryString) at System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler.ProcessRequestInternal(HttpResponse response, NameValueCollection queryString, VirtualFileReader fileReader) at System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) at System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler.System.Web.IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) This happens in production environment. I'm unable to reproduce this in dev nor test environments. Also these pages can only be accessed by authenticated users. It would be really if you could shed some light on this matter.

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