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  • Visual Studio project using the Quality Center API remains in memory

    - by Traveling Tech Guy
    Hi, Currently developing a connector DLL to HP's Quality Center. I'm using their (insert expelative) COM API to connect to the server. An Interop wrapper gets created automatically by VStudio. My solution has 2 projects: the DLL and a tester application - essentially a form with buttons that call functions in the DLL. Everything works well - I can create defects, update them and delete them. When I close the main form, the application stops nicely. But when I call a function that returns a list of all available projects (to fill a combo box), if I close the main form, VStudio still shows the solution as running and I have to stop it. I've managed to pinpoint a single function in my code that when I call, the solution remains "hung" and if I don't, it closes well. It's a call to a property in the TDC object get_VisibleProjects that returns a List (not the .Net one, but a type in the COM library) - I just iterate over it and return a proper list (that I later use to fill the combo box): public List<string> GetAvailableProjects() { List<string> projects = new List<string>(); foreach (string project in this.tdc.get_VisibleProjects(qcDomain)) { projects.Add(project); } return projects; } My assumption is that something gets retained in memory. If I run the EXE outside of VStudio it closes - but who knows what gets left behind in memory? My question is - how do I get rid of whatever calling this property returns? Shouldn't the GC handle this? Do I need to delve into pointers? Things I've tried: getting the list into a variable and setting it to null at the end of the function Adding a destructor to the class and nulling the tdc object Stepping through the tester function application all the way out, whne the form closes and the Main function ends - it closes, but VStudio still shows I'm running. Thanks for your assistance!

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  • java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy99 cannot be cast

    - by svaret
    Hi, I am using JBoss4.2.2 and java6. The deployed ear's name is apa.ear In a servlet I have the following code line: placeBid = (PlaceBid) context.lookup("apa/" + PlaceBid.class.getSimpleName() + "/remote"); I have a generated jboss-app.xml like this: <jboss-app> <loader-repository>apa:app=ejb3</loader-repository> </jboss-app> When trying to get the PlaceBid via the context I get this exception java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy99 cannot be cast to se.nextit.actionbazaar.buslogic.PlaceBid The PlaceBid interface looks like this: @Remote public interface PlaceBid { Long addBid(String userId, Long itemId, Double bidPrice); } When I run the example coming with EJB3 in action it works. EJB3 in action sample code comes with ant building. I want to use Maven so I have rearranged the code some. However, I don't understan what I am doing wrong here. I have some thoughts about the jboss-app.xml file. I am not sure of how its content should look like. Grateful for any help. Best wishes Lasse

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  • Authlogic and password and password confirmation attributes - inaccessible?

    - by adam
    Im trying to test my successfully creates a new user after login (using authlogic). Ive added a couple of new fields to the user so just want to make sure that the user is saved properly. The problem is despite creating a valid user factory, whenever i try to grab its attributes to post to the create method, password and password confirmation are being ommitted. I presuem this is a security method that authlogic performs in the background. This results in validations failing and the test failing. Im wondering how do i get round this problem? I could just type the attributes out by hand but that doesnt seem very dry. context "on POST to :create" do context "on posting a valid user" do setup do @user = Factory.build(:user) post :create, :user => @user.attributes end should "be valid" do assert @user.valid? end should_redirect_to("users sentences index page") { sentences_path() } should "add user to the db" do assert User.find_by_username(@user.username) end end ##User factory Factory.define :user do |f| f.username {Factory.next(:username) } f.email { Factory.next(:email)} f.password_confirmation "password" f.password "password" f.native_language {|nl| nl.association(:language)} f.second_language {|nl| nl.association(:language)} end

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  • Linq to SQL not inserting data onto the DB

    - by Jesus Rodriguez
    Hello! I have a little / weird behaviour here and Im looking over internet and SO and I didn't find a response. I have to admit that this is my first time using databases, I know how to use them with SQL but never used it actually. Anyway, I have a problem with my app inserting data, I just created a very simple project for testing that and no solution yet. I have an example database with Sql Server Id - int (identity primary key) Name - nchar(10) (not null) The table is called "Person", simple as pie. I have this: static void Main(string[] args) { var db = new ExampleDBDataContext {Log = Console.Out}; var jesus = new Person {Name = "Jesus"}; db.Persons.InsertOnSubmit(jesus); db.SubmitChanges(); var query = from person in db.Persons select person; foreach (var p in query) { Console.WriteLine(p.Name); } } As you can see, nothing extrange. It show Jesus in the console. But if you see the table data, there is no data, just empty. I comment the object creation and insertion and the foreach doesn't print a thing (normal, there is no data in the database) The weird thing is that I created a row in the database manually and the Id was 2 and no 1 (Was the linq really playing with the database but it didn't create the row?) There is the log: INSERT INTO [dbo].Person VALUES (@p0) SELECT CONVERT(Int,SCOPE_IDENTITY()) AS [value] -- @p0: Input NChar (Size = 10; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [Jesus] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.4926 SELECT [t0].[Id], [t0].[Name] FROM [dbo].[Person] AS [t0] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.4926 I am really confused, All the blogs / books use this kind of snippet to insert an element to a database. Thank you for helping.

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  • Visual Studio 2008 Generation of Designer File Failed (Cannot use a leading .. to exit above the top

    - by tardomatic
    Hi, It seems the universe is against me this week. I have been happily coding away on my ASP.Net application for weeks now without issues. Today I tried to add a textbox to a form, and on saving the form, I received the following error: Generation of designer file failed: Cannot use a leading .. to exit above the top directory I googled, but with no luck. I did find a blog post that shows how to add a key into the registry so that Visual Studio logs more detail about these errors, and the following is what shows up in the generated log file: ------------------------------------------------------------- C:\[path to aspx file]\PageName.aspx Generation of designer file failed: Cannot use a leading .. to exit above the top directory. ------------------------------------------------------------- System.Web.HttpException: Cannot use a leading .. to exit above the top directory. at System.Web.Util.UrlPath.ReduceVirtualPath(String path) at System.Web.Util.UrlPath.Reduce(String path) at System.Web.Util.UrlPath.Combine(String appPath, String basepath, String relative) at System.Web.VirtualPath.Combine(VirtualPath relativePath) at System.Web.VirtualPath.Combine(VirtualPath v1, VirtualPath v2) at System.Web.VirtualPathUtility.Combine(String basePath, String relativePath) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Web.Application.Parser.BeginParse(String virtualPath, String text) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Web.Application.Generator.UpdateDesignerClass(String document, String codeBehind, String codeBehindFile, String[] publicFields, UDC_Flags flags) ------------------------------------------------------------- And, of course this means that there is no way I can reference the newly added text box from the code behind. I thought it might be just this page giving the issue, but I have tried three other pages with the same result. I haven't changed the environment for weeks, so I am not sure how this happens. Any ideas out there? Thanks in advance Hamish

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  • When using SendKeys()-InvalidOperationException: Undo Operation encountered...

    - by M0DC0M
    Here is my code public void KeyPress() { //Finds the target window and sends a key command to the application Process[] processes = Process.GetProcessesByName("calc"); IntPtr calculatorHandle; foreach (Process proc in processes) { calculatorHandle = proc.MainWindowHandle; if (calculatorHandle == IntPtr.Zero) { MessageBox.Show("Calculator is not running."); return; } SetForegroundWindow(calculatorHandle); break; } SendKeys.SendWait("1"); } After Executing this code I recieve an Error, i know the source is the SendKeys. Here is the full error I am Receiving System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled Message="The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was applied in the corresponding Set operation. The possible cause is that a context was Set on the thread and not reverted(undone)." Source="mscorlib" StackTrace: at System.Threading.SynchronizationContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.runFinallyCode(Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteBackoutCodeHelper(Object backoutCode, Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteCodeWithGuaranteedCleanup(TryCode code, CleanupCode backoutCode, Object userData) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Net.ContextAwareResult.Complete(IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.LazyAsyncResult.ProtectedInvokeCallback(Object result, IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.Sockets.BaseOverlappedAsyncResult.CompletionPortCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Threading._IOCompletionCallback.PerformIOCompletionCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* pOVERLAP) InnerException: I'm not sure what the problem is, The number will appear in my calculator but that error pops up

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  • Macro access to members of object where macro is defined

    - by Marc Grue
    Say I have a trait Foo that I instantiate with an initial value val foo = new Foo(6) // class Foo(i: Int) and I later call a second method that in turn calls myMacro foo.secondMethod(7) // def secondMethod(j: Int) = macro myMacro then, how can myMacro find out what my initial value of i (6) is? I didn't succeed with normal compilation reflection using c.prefix, c.eval(...) etc but instead found a 2-project solution: Project B: object CompilationB { def resultB(x: Int, y: Int) = macro resultB_impl def resultB_impl(c: Context)(x: c.Expr[Int], y: c.Expr[Int]) = c.universe.reify(x.splice * y.splice) } Project A (depends on project B): trait Foo { val i: Int // Pass through `i` to compilation B: def apply(y: Int) = CompilationB.resultB(i, y) } object CompilationA { def makeFoo(x: Int): Foo = macro makeFoo_impl def makeFoo_impl(c: Context)(x: c.Expr[Int]): c.Expr[Foo] = c.universe.reify(new Foo {val i = x.splice}) } We can create a Foo and set the i value either with normal instantiation or with a macro like makeFoo. The second approach allows us to customize a Foo at compile time in the first compilation and then in the second compilation further customize its response to input (i in this case)! In some way we get "meta-meta" capabilities (or "pataphysic"-capabilities ;-) Normally we would need to have foo in scope to introspect i (with for instance c.eval(...)). But by saving the i value inside the Foo object we can access it anytime and we could instantiate Foo anywhere: object Test extends App { import CompilationA._ // Normal instantiation val foo1 = new Foo {val i = 7} val r1 = foo1(6) // Macro instantiation val foo2 = makeFoo(7) val r2 = foo2(6) // "Curried" invocation val r3 = makeFoo(6)(7) println(s"Result 1 2 3: $r1 $r2 $r3") assert((r1, r2, r3) ==(42, 42, 42)) } My question Can I find i inside my example macros without this double compilation hackery?

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  • Rails 3 - yield return or callback won't call in view <%= yield(:sidebar) || render('shared/sidebar'

    - by rzar
    Hey folks, I'm migrating a Website from Rails 2 (latest) to Rails 3 (beta2). Testing with Ruby 1.9.1p378 and Ruby 1.9.2dev (2010-04-05 trunk 27225) Stuck in a situation, i don't know which part will work well. Suspect yield is the problem, but don't know exactly. In my Layout Files I use the following technique quite often: app/views/layouts/application.html.erb: <%= yield(:sidebar) || render('shared/sidebar') %> For Example the partial look like: app/views/shared/_sidebar.html.erb: <p>Default sidebar Content. Bla Bla</p> Now it is time for the key part! In any view, I want to create a content_for block (optional). This can contain a pice of HTML etc. example below. If this block is set, the pice HTML inside should render in application.html.erb. If not, Rails should render the Partial at shared/_sidebar.html.erb on the right hand side. app/views/books/index.html.erb: <% content_for :sidebar do %> <strong>You have to read REWORK, a book from 37signals!</strong> <% end %> So you've got the idea. Hopefully. This technique worked well in any Rails 2.x Application. Now, in Rails 3 (beta2) only the yield Part is working. || render('shared/sidebar') The or side will not process by rails or maybe ruby. Thanks for input and time!

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  • Sharing session state between 2 ASP.NET applications using SQL Server

    - by Dave
    Hi I'm working on a site that has a requirement to share session between a cms application and an online store application on the same domain eg. mydomain.com and store.mydomain.com I've made some progress with it and it works on my local build between localhost/cms and localhost/store Basically I have done what is suggested in this article http://blogs.msdn.com/toddca/archive/2007/01/25/sharing-asp-net-session-state-across-applications.aspx and hacked the TempGetAppID Stored Procedure to return the same application id (1). This appears to work as it creates sessions with ids like 'abv5d2urx1asscfwuzw3wp4500000001', which is what I'd expect. My issue is that when I deploy it to our testing environment, it creates a new session when I navigate between the 2 sites. So when I start a session on the cms site, if I navigate to the store, it creates a new session. These are set up as 2 different websites in IIS7. In the web.config files for both sites, the and elements are both the same and are as follows (minus sensitive information) Has anyone got an ideas why this might not be working? I am sharing Forms Authentication across the 2 sites and that works fine. Any help or ideas would be greatly appreciated! Many thanks Dave

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  • Reloading Sinatra app on every request on Windows

    - by Darth
    I've set up Rack::Reload according to this thread # config.ru require 'rubygems' require 'sinatra' set :environment, :development require 'app' run Sinatra::Application # app.rb class Sinatra::Reloader < Rack::Reloader def safe_load(file, mtime, stderr = $stderr) if file == Sinatra::Application.app_file ::Sinatra::Application.reset! stderr.puts "#{self.class}: reseting routes" end super end end configure(:development) { use Sinatra::Reloader } get '/' do 'foo' end Running with thin via thin start -R config.ru, but it only reloads newly added routes. When I change already existing route, it still runs the old code. When I add new route, it correctly reloads it, so it is accessible, but it doesn't reload anything else. For example, if I changed routes to get '/' do 'bar' end get '/foo' do 'baz' end Than / would still serve foo, even though it has changed, but /foo would correctly reload and serve baz. Is this normal behavior, or am I missing something? I'd expect whole source file to be reloaded. The only way around I can think of right now is restarting whole webserver when filesystem changes. I'm running on Windows Vista x64, so I can't use shotgun because of fork().

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  • How to fix security exception when using recaptcha on MVC site

    - by camainc
    I followed this excellent blog post to implement recaptcha on my MVC site: http://devlicio.us/blogs/derik_whittaker/archive/2008/12/02/using-recaptcha-with-asp-net-mvc.aspx I converted the code to VB, and everything seems to compile ok. However, when the code gets to the place where the recapture is about to be generated, I get a security exception. Here is the function where the exception occurs (on the last line in the function): <Extension()> _ Public Function GenerateCaptcha(ByVal htmlHelper As HtmlHelper) As MvcHtmlString Dim captchaControl As New Recaptcha.RecaptchaControl With captchaControl .ID = "recaptcha" .Theme = "blackglass" .PublicKey = "6Lcv9AsAAAAAALCSZNRfWFmrKjw2AR-yuZAL84Bd" .PrivateKey = "6Lcv9AsAAAAAAHCbRujWcZzrY0z6G_HIMvFyYEPR" End With Dim htmlWriter As New HtmlTextWriter(New IO.StringWriter) captchaControl.RenderControl(htmlWriter) Return MvcHtmlString.Create(htmlWriter.InnerWriter.ToString()) End Function The exception is this: Security Exception Description: The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy. To grant this application the required permission please contact your system administrator or change the application's trust level in the configuration file. Exception Details: System.Security.SecurityException: Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' failed. Has anyone else seen this exception, and if so, how did you fix it? Thanks

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  • Starting out Silverlight 4 design

    - by Fermin
    I come from mainly a web development background (ASP.NET, ASP.NET MVC, XHTML, CSS etc) but have been tasked with creating/designing a Silverlight application. The application is utilising Bing Maps control for Silverlight, this will be contained in a user control and will be the 'main' screen in the system. There will be numerous other user controls on the form that will be used to choose/filter/sort/order the data on the map. I think of it like Visual Studio: the Bing Maps will be like the code editor window and the other controls will be like Solutions Explorer, Find Results etc. (although a lot less of them!) I have read up and I'm comfortable with the data side (RIA-Services) of the application. I've (kinda) got my head around databinding and using a view model to present data and keep the code behind file lite. What I do need some help on is UI design/navigation framework, specifically 2 aspects: How do I best implement a fluid design so that the various user controls which filter the map data can be resized/pinned/unpinned (for example, like the Solution Explorer in VS)? I made a test using a Grid with a GridSplitter control, is this the best way? Would it be best to create a Grid/Gridsplitter with Navigation Frames inside the grid to load the content? Since I have multiple user controls that basically use the same set of data, should I set the dataContext at the highest possible level (e.g. if using a grid with multiple frames, at the Grid level?). Any help, tips, links etc. will be very much appreciated!

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  • MVC ASP.NET, ObjectContext and Ajax. Weird Behaviour

    - by fabianadipolo
    Hi, i've been creating a web application in mvc asp.net. I have three different project/solutions. One solution contains the model in EF (DAL) and all the methods to add, update, delete and query the objects in the model, the objectcontext is managed here in a per request basis. Other solution contains a content management system in wich authorized users insert, delete, update and access objects through the DAL mentioned before. And the last solution contains the web page that is accessed by all users and where the only operations executed are selects, no update, inserts or deletes here. All the selects are executed against the DAL mentioned before (the first solution). The problem here is that i'm not sure whether an HttpContext lifespan ObjectContext is the best solution. I have a lot of ajax calls in my web app and i'm not sure if an httpcontext could interfere with the performance of the application. I've been noticed that in some cases, specially when someone is working in the content manager inserting, updating or deleting, when you try to click on any link of the user web application (the web app that is accessed by any user - the third one that i mentioned before) the web page freezes and it remains stucked transferring data. In order to stop that behaviour you have to stop and refresh or click several times on the link. Excuse me for my bad english. I hope you could understand and could help me to solve this issue. Thanx in advance.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 router matches correct area route but generates URL to the first registered area inste

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm working on a S#arpArchitecture 1.5 project, which uses ASP.NET MVC 2. I've been trying to get areas to work properly but I ran into a problem: The ASP.NET MVC 2 routing engine matches the correct route to my area but then it generates an URL that belongs to the first registered area instead. Here's my request URL: /Framework/Authentication/LogOn?ReturnUrl=%2fDefault.aspx I'm using the Route Tester from Phil Haack and it shows: Matched Route: Framework/{controller}/{action}/{id} Generated URL: /Data/Authentication/LogOn?ReturnUrl=%2FDefault.aspx using the route "Data/{controller}/{action}/{id}" That's clearly wrong, the URL should point to the Framework area, not the Data area. This is how I register my routes, nothing special there IMO. private static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); routes.MapRoute( "default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); } The area registration classes all look like this. Again, nothing special. public class FrameworkAreaRegistration : AreaRegistration { public override string AreaName { get { return "Framework"; } } public override void RegisterArea(AreaRegistrationContext context) { context.MapRoute( "Framework_default", "Framework/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); } }

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  • Deploy multiple instances of an EAR (representing versions) to Glassfish

    - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen
    I basically want to be able to deploy multiple versions of the same EAR file to the same server (Glassfish instance?) , and have a unique path to each version separating them. From my reading on this it appears that multiple EARs deploy to the root of the web server namespace so that they can coexist if they do not have colliding context-root's of WAR's. In my case I'd rather have that instead of everything going under "/", I'd like to be able to brand a given EAR-file build to ALWAYS deploy under a given path like "/foo-20100319" or "/foo-CUSTOMER-20010101". This can easily be done with a single WAR file just by renaming it. I do not need or want them to disturb each other. It is my understanding that this remapping is outside the scope of the application.xml file, so I found that http://docs.sun.com/app/docs/doc/820-7693/beayr?a=view says that I can specify web-uri and context-root, but I am not certain that what I wish to do, can be specified with these in Glassfish. How should I approach this? I have full control over the build process. (I have found http://stackoverflow.com/questions/877390/deploying-multiple-java-web-apps-to-glassfish-in-one-go but I am not certain how to apply this to what I need).

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  • htaccess mod_rewrite check file/directory existence, else rewrite?

    - by devians
    I have a very heavy htaccess mod_rewrite file that runs my application. As we sometimes take over legacy websites, I sometimes need to support old urls to old files, where my application processes everything post htaccess. My ultimate goal is to have a 'Demilitarized Zone' for old file structures, and use mod rewrite to check for existence there before pushing to the application. This is pretty easy to do with files, by using: RewriteCond %{IS_SUBREQ} true RewriteRule .* - [L] RewriteCond %{ENV:REDIRECT_STATUS} 200 RewriteRule .* - [L] RewriteCond Public/DMZ/$1 -F [OR] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ Public/DMZ/$1 [QSA,L] This allows pseudo support for relative urls by not hardcoding my base path (I cant assume I will ever be deployed in document root) anywhere and using subrequests to check for file existence. Works fine if you know the file name, ie http://domain.com/path/to/app/legacyfolder/index.html However, my legacy urls are typically http://domain.com/path/to/app/legacyfolder/ Mod_Rewrite will allow me to check for this by using -d, but it needs the complete path to the directory, ie RewriteCond Public/DMZ/$1 -F [OR] RewriteCond /var/www/path/to/app/Public/DMZ/$1 -d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ Public/DMZ/$1 [QSA,L] I want to avoid the hardcoded base path. I can see one possible solutions here, somehow determining my path and attaching it to a variable [E=name:var] and using it in the condition. Another option is using -U, but the tricky part is stopping it from hijacking every other request when they should flow through, since -U is really easy to satisfy. Any implementation that allows me to existence check a directory is more than welcome. I am not interested in using RewriteBase, as that requires my htaccess to have a hardcoded base path.

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  • document.getElementById() returns null when using mozrepl (but not in firebug)

    - by teamonkey
    I'm trying to use the mozrepl Firefox extension to give me a Javascript REPL from within emacs. I think I've got it set up correctly. I can interact with the REPL from emacs and can explore the document pretty much as described in the tutorial pages. The problem comes when I try to do something really simple, like get a context to a canvas element: repl> document.getElementById("mycanvas").getContext("2d") !!! TypeError: document.getElementById("mycanvas") is null Details: message: document.getElementById("mycanvas") is null fileName: chrome://mozrepl/content/repl.js -> file:///C:/Users/teamonkey/AppData/Roaming/Mozilla/Firefox/Profiles/chfdenuz.default/mozrepl.tmp.js lineNumber: 1 stack: @chrome://mozrepl/content/repl.js -> file:///C:/Users/teamonkey/AppData/Roaming/Mozilla/Firefox/Profiles/chfdenuz.default/mozrepl.tmp.js:1 name: TypeError It's not just that particular instance: any call to getElementById will just return null. If I start up firebug I can enter the same thing and it will return a valid context, but I'd really like to get the REPL working in emacs. I don't think this is a bug but I've probably not configured mozrepl correctly. Can anyone help? Mozrepl 1.0, Firefox 3.6

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  • Can this be considered Clean Code / Best Practice?

    - by MRFerocius
    Guys, How are you doing today? I have the following question because I will follow this strategy for all my helpers (to deal with the DB entities) Is this considered a good practice or is it going to be unmaintainable later? public class HelperArea : AbstractHelper { event OperationPerformed<Area> OnAreaInserting; event OperationPerformed<Area> OnAreaInserted; event OperationPerformed<Area> OnExceptionOccured; public void Insert(Area element) { try { if (OnAreaInserting != null) OnAreaInserting(element); DBase.Context.Areas.InsertOnSubmit(new AtlasWFM_Mapping.Mapping.Area { areaDescripcion = element.Description, areaNegocioID = element.BusinessID, areaGUID = Guid.NewGuid(), areaEstado = element.Status, }); DBase.Context.SubmitChanges(); if (OnAreaInserted != null) OnAreaInserted(element); } catch (Exception ex) { LogManager.ChangeStrategy(LogginStrategies.EVENT_VIEWER); LogManager.LogError(new LogInformation { logErrorType = ErrorType.CRITICAL, logException = ex, logMensaje = "Error inserting Area" }); if (OnExceptionOccured != null) OnExceptionOccured(elemento); } } I want to know if it is a good way to handle the event on the Exception to let subscribers know that there has been an exception inserting that Area. And the way to log the Exception, is is OK to do it this way? Any suggestion to make it better?

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  • asp.net Dynamic Data Site with own MetaData

    - by loviji
    Hello, I'm searching info about configuring own MetaData in asp.NET Dynamic Site. For example. I have a table in MS Sql Server with structure shown below: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[someTable]( [id] [int] NOT NULL, [pname] [nvarchar](20) NULL, [FullName] [nvarchar](50) NULL, [age] [int] NULL) and I there are 2 Ms Sql tables (I've created), sysTables and sysColumns. sysTables: ID sysTableName TableName TableDescription 1 | someTable |Persons |All Data about Persons in system sysColumns: ID TableName sysColumnName ColumnName ColumnDesc ColumnType MUnit 1 |someTable | sometable_pname| Name | Persona Name(ex. John)| nvarchar(20) | null 2 |someTable | sometable_Fullname| Full Name | Persona Name(ex. John Black)| nvarchar(50) | null 3 |someTable | sometable_age| age | Person age| int | null I want that, in Details/Edit/Insert/List/ListDetails pages use as MetaData sysColumns and sysTableData. Because, for ex. in DetailsPage fullName, it is not beatiful as Full Name . someIdea, is it possible? thanks Updated:: In List Page to display data from sysTables (metaData table) I've modified <h2 class="DDSubHeader"><%= tableName%></h2>. public string tableName; protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) { table = DynamicDataRouteHandler.GetRequestMetaTable(Context); //added by me uqsikDataContext sd=new uqsikDataContext(); tableName = sd.sysTables.Where(n => n.sysTableName == table.DisplayName).FirstOrDefault().TableName; //end GridView1.SetMetaTable(table, table.GetColumnValuesFromRoute(Context)); GridDataSource.EntityTypeName = table.EntityType.AssemblyQualifiedName; if (table.EntityType != table.RootEntityType) { GridQueryExtender.Expressions.Add(new OfTypeExpression(table.EntityType)); } } so, what about sysColums? How can I get Data from my sysColumns table?

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  • Cocoa Virtual Keystrokes Pain

    - by bhargav
    I'm writing an application to respond on a hotkey by copying highlighted text into NSPasteboard's generalPasteboard. After looking around here for a solution for sending virtual keystrokes, I found this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1505933/how-to-send-a-cmd-c-keystroke-to-the-active-application-in-objective-c-or-tell I tried the applescript suggested with NSAppleScript: NSLog(@"Hotkey Pressed"); NSPasteboard *pasteboard = [NSPasteboard generalPasteboard]; NSAppleScript *playScript; playScript = [[NSAppleScript alloc] initWithSource:@"tell application \"System Events\" to keystroke \"c\" using command down"]; if([playScript isCompiled] == NO){ [playScript compileAndReturnError:nil]; } id exerror = [playScript executeAndReturnError:nil]; if(exerror == nil){ NSLog(@"Script Failed"); } It works, but only on the first time I hit the hotkey. Each subsequent hit will not to grab the highlighted text. The generalPasteboard still contains the same contents as before the script is run again. Clearing the generalPasteboard before I run the code is no use, because then the code fails when attempting to read the pasteboard contents. So I tried the next suggested solution: CFRelease(CGEventCreate(NULL)); CGEventRef event1, event2, event3, event4; event1 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent (NULL, (CGKeyCode)50, true); event2 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent (NULL, (CGKeyCode)8, true); event3 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent (NULL, (CGKeyCode)8, false); event4 = CGEventCreateKeyboardEvent (NULL, (CGKeyCode)50, false); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event1); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event2); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event3); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event4); The above should send the keystrokes Command + c, but all I get is a beep, and the pasteboard contents are unchanged. I'm at wits end - can anyone enlighten me as to what I'm missing or point me out to what I'm overlooking for something so simple?

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  • Programatically send SMS to email using Verizon Motorola Droid on Android

    - by Dave
    Hi, I was wondering if anyone knew the proper way to send an SMS message to an e-mail address using Verizon's CDMA Motorola Droid phone. The internal messaging application appears to automagically do this. While 3rd party applications like SMSPopup don't seem to be able to properly reply to e-mail addresses unless you compose the message inside the messaging application. When the internal messaging application sends a SMS message there's a corresponding 'RIL_REQUEST_CDMA_SEND_SMS' entry in the logcat (adb logcat -b radio). When you send a SMS to an e-mail address it prints the same thing, so behind the scenes it looks as though it is sending an sms. The interesting thing is that if you look at the content provider sent box the messages are addressed to various 1270XX-XXX-XXXX numbers. On other services you can send e-mail addresses by sending a SMS to a predefined short sms number. And then formatting your SMS as emailaddress subject message i.e. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SMS_gateway#Carrier-Provided_SMS_to_E-Mail_Gateways For example, using T-mobile's number (500) you can send a SMS to an e-mail using the following: SmsManager smsMgr = SmsManager.getDefault(); smsMgr.sendTextMessage("500", null, "[email protected] message sent to an e-mail address from a SMS", null, null); Does anyone know if It is possible to programatically send SMS to email messages from a CDMA Android phone? Does Verizon actually send your replies as SMS messages or are they actually sent as MMS or normal http email messages? Any ideas about how to intercept what the raw message being sent to see what's going on? It might be possible that Verizon somehow generates a fake number temporarily tied to an e-mail address (since repeated messages are not sent to the same number). But, that seems pretty heavy handed. Thanks!

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  • How to provide stl like container with public const iterator and private non-const iterator?

    - by WilliamKF
    Hello, I am deriving a class privately from std::list and wish to provide public begin() and end() for const_iterator and private begin() and end() for just plain iterator. However, the compiler is seeing the private version and complaining that it is private instead of using the public const version. I understand that C++ will not overload on return type (in this case const_iterator and iterator) and thus it is choosing the non-const version since my object is not const. Short of casting my object to const before calling begin() or not overloading the name begin is there a way to accomplish this? I would think this is a known pattern that folks have solved before and would like to follow suit as to how this is typically solved. class myObject; class myContainer : private std::list<myObject> { public: typedef std::list<myObject>::const_iterator myContainer::const_iterator; private: typedef std::list<myObject>::iterator myContainer::iterator; public: myContainer::const_iterator begin() const { return std::list<myObject>::begin(); } myContainer::const_iterator end() const { return std::list<myObject>::end(); } private: myContainer::iterator begin() { return std::list<myObject>::begin(); } myContainer::iterator end() { return std::list<myObject>::end(); } }; void myFunction(myContainer &container) { myContainer::const_iterator aItr = container.begin(); myContainer::const_iterator aEndItr = container.end(); for (; aItr != aEndItr; ++aItr) { const myObject &item = *aItr; // Do something const on container's contents. } } The error from the compiler is something like this: ../../src/example.h:447: error: `std::_List_iterator<myObject> myContainer::begin()' is private caller.cpp:2393: error: within this context ../../src/example.h:450: error: `std::_List_iterator<myObject> myContainer::end()' is private caller.cpp:2394: error: within this context Thanks. -William

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  • Factories, or Dependency Injection for object instantiation in WCF, when coding against an interface

    - by Saajid Ismail
    Hi I am writing a client/server application, where the client is a Windows Forms app, and the server is a WCF service hosted in a Windows Service. Note that I control both sides of the application. I am trying to implement the practice of coding against an interface: i.e. I have a Shared assembly which is referenced by the client application. This project contains my WCF ServiceContracts and interfaces which will be exposed to clients. I am trying to only expose interfaces to the clients, so that they are only dependant on a contract, not any specific implementation. One of the reasons for doing this is so that I can have my service implementation, and domain change at any time without having to recompile and redeploy the clients. The interfaces/contracts will in this case not change. I only need to recompile and redeploy my WCF service. The design issue I am facing now, is: on the client, how do I create new instances of objects, e.g. ICustomer, if the client doesn't know about the Customer concrete implementation? I need to create a new customer to be saved to the DB. Do I use dependency injection, or a Factory class to instantiate new objects, or should I just allow the client to create new instances of concrete implementations? I am not doing TDD, and I will typically only have one implementation of ICustomer or any other exposed interface.

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  • Calling unmanaged dll from C#. Take 2

    - by Charles Gargent
    I have written a c# program that calls a c++ dll that echoes the commandline args to a file When the c++ is called using the rundll32 command it displays the commandline args no problem, however when it is called from within the c# it doesnt. I asked this question to try and solve my problem, but I have modified it my test environment and I think it is worth asking a new question. Here is the c++ dll #include "stdafx.h" #include "stdlib.h" #include <stdio.h> #include <iostream> #include <fstream> using namespace std; BOOL APIENTRY DllMain( HANDLE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved ) { return TRUE; } extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) int WINAPI CMAKEX( HWND hwnd, HINSTANCE hinst, LPCSTR lpszCommandLine, DWORD dwReserved) { ofstream SaveFile("output.txt"); SaveFile << lpszCommandLine; SaveFile.close(); return 0; } Here is the c# app using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; using System.Security.Cryptography; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; using System.Net; namespace nac { class Program { [DllImport("cmakca.dll", SetLastError = true, CharSet = CharSet.Unicode)] static extern bool CMAKEX(IntPtr hwnd, IntPtr hinst, string lpszCmdLine, int nCmdShow); static void Main(string[] args) { string cmdLine = @"/source_filename proxy-1.txt /backup_filename proxy.bak /DialRasEntry NULL /TunnelRasEntry DSLVPN /profile ""C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\Application Data\Microsoft\Network\Connections\Cm\dslvpn.cmp"""; const int SW_SHOWNORMAL = 1; CMAKEX(IntPtr.Zero, IntPtr.Zero, cmdLine, SW_SHOWNORMAL).ToString(); } } } The output from the rundll32 command is rundll32 cmakex.dll,CMAKEX /source_filename proxy-1.txt /backup_filename proxy.bak /DialRasEntry NULL /TunnelRasEntry DSLVPN /profile ""C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\Application Data\Microsoft\Network\Connections\Cm\dslvpn.cmp" /source_filename proxy-1.txt /backup_filename proxy.bak /DialRasEntry NULL /TunnelRasEntry DSLVPN /profile ""C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\Application Data\Microsoft\Network\Connections\Cm\dslvpn.cmp" however the output when the c# app runs is /

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  • Setting Path and Expiration for session cookie in asp.net

    - by Sergej Andrejev
    Anything I have tried didn't work. Currenly I have following code to change asp.net session cookie expiration date and path, but asp doesn't want to listen to me. I sends same cookie in Set-Cookie header two times sometimes, sometimes it sends it's default cookie ignoring path and expiration date, sometimes it sends everything as expected, and sometimes it doesn't send Set-Cookie at all. What should I do. This drives me nuts :( My code in Global.asax protected void Application_PreRequestHandlerExecute(Object sender, EventArgs e) { /// only apply session cookie persistence to requests requiring session information if (Context.Handler is IRequiresSessionState || Context.Handler is IReadOnlySessionState) { var sessionState = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("system.web/sessionState") as SessionStateSection; var cookieName = sessionState != null && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(sessionState.CookieName) ? sessionState.CookieName : "ASP.NET_SessionId"; var timeout = sessionState != null ? sessionState.Timeout : TimeSpan.FromMinutes(20); /// Ensure ASP.NET Session Cookies are accessible throughout the subdomains. if (Request.Cookies[cookieName] != null && Session != null && Session.SessionID != null) { Response.Cookies[cookieName].Value = Session.SessionID; Response.Cookies[cookieName].Path = Request.ApplicationPath; Response.Cookies[cookieName].Expires = DateTime.Now.Add(timeout); } } }

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