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Handling primary key duplicates in a data warehouse load

- by Meff

I'm currently building an ETL system to load a data warehouse from a transactional system. The grain of my fact table is the transaction level. In order to ensure I don't load duplicate rows I've put a primary key on the fact table, which is the transaction ID. I've encountered a problem with transactions being reversed - In the transactional database this is done via a status, which I pick up and I can work out if the transaction is being done, or rolled back so I can load a reversal row in the warehouse. However, the reversal row will have the same transaction ID and so I get a primary key violation. I've solved this for now by negating the primary key, so transaction ID 1 would be a payment, and transaction ID -1 (In the warehouse only) would be the reversal. I have considered an alternative of generating a BIT column, where 0 is normal and 1 is reversal, then making the PK the transaction ID and the BIT column. My question is, is this a good practice, and has anyone else encountered anything like this? For reference, this is a payment processing system, so values will not be modified, so there will only ever be transactions and reversals.

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How do I refer to a client_deploy.wsdd file that's in WEB-INF?

- by Paul

A basic question, but I can't seem to find the answer. I have an Axis-generated web service that also calls another web service (for which the stubs are also generated with Axis). It's deployed in weblogic 9.2 That called web service requires authentication. I've googled for the code to set up authentication. It requires that I set up a client_deploy.wsdd file which I've done, and added it to WEB-INF. I need to specify this flle to Axis. There seem to be several ways of doing this, including System.setProperty("axis.ClientConfigFile", "client_deploy.wsdd") or EngineConfiguration config = new FileProvider("client_deploy.wsdd"); but these aren't working for me. Is the issue the path for the client_deploy.wsdd file? How do I refer to a file that's at the top level of the WEB-INF directory? Googling tells me how to access it as a stream, but I don't want that, I need to pass a file name to these functions... Please point out the obvious that I have missed

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HTML form with single text field + preventing postback in Internet Explorer

- by SudheerKovalam

I have noticed a rather strange behaviour in IE. I have a HTML form with a single input text field and a submit button On Submit click I need to execute a client side JavaScript function that does the necessary. Now when I want to prevent the postback in the text field (on enter key press) I have added a key press JavaScript function that looks like this: <input type=text onkeypress="return OnEnterKeyPress(event)" /> function OnEnterKeyPress(event) { var keyNum = 0; if (window.event) // IE { keyNum = event.keyCode; } else if (event.which) // Netscape/Firefox/Opera { keyNum = event.which; } else return true; if (keyNum == 13) // Enter Key pressed, then start search, else do nothing. { OnButtonClick(); return false; } else return true; } Strangly this doesn't work. But if I pass the text field to the function : <input type=text onkeypress="return OnEnterKeyPress(this,event);" /> function OnEnterKeyPress(thisForm,event) { var keyNum = 0; if (window.event) // IE { keyNum = event.keyCode; } else if (event.which) // Netscape/Firefox/Opera { keyNum = event.which; } else return true; if (keyNum == 13) // Enter Key pressed, then start search, else do nothing. { OnButtonClick(); return false; } else return true; } I am able to prevent the postback. Can anyone confirm what is exactly happening here?? the HTML form has just one text box and a submit button The resultant o/p of the JavaScript function executed on submit is displayed in a HTML text area in a separate div.

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sending specific data into a collection partial

- by mikeglaz

I have a User class with a has_many :messages and a Message class which belongs_to :user. In the Message controller's show action has the corresponding view: <% if @messages.any? %> <ol class="microposts"> <%= render partial: 'shared/message', collection: @messages %> </ol> <% end %> And the shared/_message.html.erb template looks like this: <li id="<%= message.id %>"> <span class="content"><%= message.body %></span> <% user_id = message.from %> <% user = User.find(user_id) %> From: <%= user.name %> </li> I feel like the following two lines should be done in the Messages controller from what I read in tutorials on Rails: <% user_id = message.from %> <% user = User.find(user_id) %> But how would I pass each message's corresponding from value (which stores user.id) into the partial? thanks, mike

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[OpenCV] What do the "left" and "right" values mean in the haar cascade xml files?

- by user117046

In OpenCV's haar cascade files, what are the "left" and "right" values, and how does this refer to the "threshold" value? Thanks! Just for reference, here's the structure of the files: <haarcascade_frontalface_alt type_id="opencv-haar-classifier"> <size>20 20</size> <stages> <_>  <trees> <_>  <_>  <feature> <rects> <_>3 7 14 4 -1.</_> <_>3 9 14 2 2.</_></rects> <tilted>0</tilted></feature> <threshold>4.0141958743333817e-003</threshold> <left_val>0.0337941907346249</left_val> <right_val>0.8378106951713562</right_val></_></_> <_>

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How to give user confirmation message before ActionLink based on validation

- by RememberME

I have the following link. On click, I'd like to check the item.primary_company field and if populated, give the user a warning and ask if they would like to continue. How can I do this? <a href="<%= Url.Action("Activate", new {id = item.company_id}) %>" class="fg=button fg-button-icon-solo ui-state-default ui-corner-all"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-refresh"></span></a> EDIT I've changed to this, but nothing happens when clicked. Also, I don't know how to reference the item to do the check on the primary_company field. I only want to message to show if item.primary_company.HasValue. I'd also like to show item.company1.company_name in the confirm message. <a href="#" onclick="return Actionclick("<%= Url.Action("Activate", new {id = item.company_id}) %>");" class="fg=button fg-button-icon-solo ui-state-default ui-corner-all"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-refresh"></span></a> <script type="text/javascript"> function Actionclick(url) { alert("myclick"); if ( confirm("Do you want to activate this company's primary company and all other subsidiaries?")) { location.href(url); } }; </script>

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A question about TBB/C++ code

- by Jackie

I am reading The thread building block book. I do not understand this piece of code: FibTask& a=*new(allocate_child()) FibTask(n-1,&x); FibTask& b=*new(allocate_child()) FibTask(n-2,&y); What do these directive mean? class object reference and new work together? Thanks for explanation. The following code is the defination of this class FibTask. class FibTask: public task { public: const long n; long* const sum; FibTask(long n_,long* sum_):n(n_),sum(sum_) {} task* execute() { if(n FibTask& a=*new(allocate_child()) FibTask(n-1,&x); FibTask& b=*new(allocate_child()) FibTask(n-2,&y); set_ref_count(3); spawn(b); spawn_and_wait_for_all(a); *sum=x+y; } return 0; } };

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Provider not notified from cookbook_file

- by wittyhandle

I'm working on an ssl provider using Vagrant (1.0.5) and chef-solo (10.12.0) I have my provider, called ssl within a cookbook called gtm_cq, I define it as such in my cookbook's default recipe: gtm_cq_ssl "author" do # attributes will come later end I then have my cookbook_file like below that should notify my ssl provider's import action once it pushes the cert up to the server: cookbook_file "#{node[:cq][:ssl][:author_cert_location]}/foo.cer" do source "foo.cer" owner "crx" group "root" mode "0644" notifies :import, resources(:gtm_cq_ssl => "author") end When I run this, the foo.cer gets pushed up as expected, but the import action of my ssl provider is never called. The most I see of any reference is these couple of lines in the log (removed log headers): .. cookbook_file[/opt/cq5/author/foo.cer] sending import action to gtm_cq_ssl[author] (delayed) .. Processing gtm_cq_ssl[author] action import (gtm_cq::author line 34) There's a large very obvious log statement as well as the use of another cookbook_file for a test file to push something up to the server. No log statement, no test file pushed. I'm certain too that the foo.cer file is removed from the server before each test. I found that if I edit my notifies line like so with :immediately notifies :import, resources(:gtm_cq_ssl => "author"), :immediately It seems to work. And I suppose this is ok in my particular case, but it would seem something is not right if that's the only way I can call my provider. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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Should I *always* import my file references into the database in drupal?

- by sprugman

I have a cck type with an image field, and a unique_id text field. The file name of the image is based on the unique_id. All of the content, including the image itself is being generated automatically via another process, and I'm parsing what that generates into nodes. Rather than creating separate fields for the id and the image, and doing an official import of the image into the files table, I'm tempted to only create the id field and create the file reference in the theme layer. I can think of pros and cons: 1) Theme Layer Approach Pros: makes the import process much less complex don't have to worry about syncing the db with the file system as things change more flexible -- I can move my images around more easily if I want Cons: maybe not as much The Drupal Way™ not as pure -- I'll wind up with more logic on the theme side. 2) Import Approach Pros: import method is required if we ever wanted to make the files private (we won't.) safer? Maybe I'll know if there's a problem with the image at import time, rather than view time. Since I'll be bulk importing, that might make a difference. if I delete a node through the admin interface, drupal might be able to delete the file for me, as well. Con: more complex import and maintenance All else being equal, simpler is always better, so I'm leaning toward #1. Are there any other issues I'm missing? (Since this is an open ended question, I guess I'll make it a community wiki, whatever that means.)

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operator overloading and inheritance

- by user168715

I was given the following code: class FibHeapNode { //... // These all have trivial implementation virtual void operator =(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator ==(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator <(FibHeapNode& RHS); }; class Event : public FibHeapNode { // These have nontrivial implementation virtual void operator=(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator==(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator<(FibHeapNode& RHS); }; class FibHeap { //... int DecreaseKey(FibHeapNode *theNode, FibHeapNode& NewKey) { FibHeapNode *theParent; // Some code if (theParent != NULL && *theNode < *theParent) { //... } //... return 1; } }; Much of FibHeap's implementation is similar: FibHeapNode pointers are dereferenced and then compared. Why does this code work? (or is it buggy?) I would think that the virtuals here would have no effect: since *theNode and *theParent aren't pointer or reference types, no dynamic dispatch occurs and FibHeapNode::operator< gets called no matter what's written in Event.

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Why does reusing arrays increase performance so significantly in c#?

- by Willem

In my code, I perform a large number of tasks, each requiring a large array of memory to temporarily store data. I have about 500 tasks. At the beginning of each task, I allocate memory for an array : double[] tempDoubleArray = new double[M]; M is a large number depending on the precise task, typically around 2000000. Now, I do some complex calculations to fill the array, and in the end I use the array to determine the result of this task. After that, the tempDoubleArray goes out of scope. Profiling reveals that the calls to construct the arrays are time consuming. So, I decide to try and reuse the array, by making it static and reusing it. It requires some additional juggling to figure out the minimum size of the array, requiring an extra pass through all tasks, but it works. Now, the program is much faster (from 80 sec to 22 sec for execution of all tasks). double[] tempDoubleArray = staticDoubleArray; However, I'm a bit in the dark of why precisely this works so well. Id say that in the original code, when the tempDoubleArray goes out of scope, it can be collected, so allocating a new array should not be that hard right? I ask this because understanding why it works might help me figuring out other ways to achieve the same effect, and because I would like to know in what cases allocation gives performance issues.

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Need a design approach or suggestion for a simple structure using Servlet.

- by akshay

Hi I have to design such that whenever user pass a query I process it using servlet and then call the js page to draw the chart 1 user writes a query on a page 2 the page call the servelt class public class MyServlet extends Httpservlet implements DataSourceServlet {..... return data The user see a beautiful string like this.. google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); 3 when the user hits on different html page myhtml.js it draws the chart. I want the Myservlet class itself call the myhtml.js page and draw the chart directly. and want to eliminate the beautiful string google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); from coming on user's browser What should i do? I tried using functions to call another page like request dispatcher(), redirect() calling myhtml.js page directly after myservlet process the query results. But i get the result like this google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); and the entire myhtml.js code page below it on the browsers that to without the chart been draw. Is there anyway to element the beautiful string from coming on clients browser and only show them the chart been drawn ? :) This is the small tutorial i am following http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/dev/dsl_get_started.html

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How to add a hierarchical tag in an XML file though XSL?

- by Hetal

Hello, I am facing a problem in XML transformation. Sorry if the question is asked before. The XML tag hierarchy is as follows: //This tag contains the header data (Example:Pick Slip Number) Then the Detail lines are printed. The detail lines are printed. This detail line belongs to the previous Pick Slip Number. The detail lines are printed. This detail line belongs to the previous Pick Slip Number. My requirement is to: //This tag contains the header data (Example:Pick Slip Number) Then the Detail lines are printed. The detail lines are printed. This detail line belongs to the previous Pick Slip Number. The detail lines are printed. This detail line belongs to the previous Pick Slip Number. My requirement is to print the Pick Slip Number at every page on the header. Since there is no parent tag for and , I face the problem while printing. I am trying to serach something in XML transformation. But I dont know how to transform the XML tag hierarchy. I have attached the XML file for the reference. Thanks..

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Using external SOAP service in Workflow service

- by whirlwin

I am using the .NET 4 framework and have made a WCF Workflow Service Application. I want to use a SOAP web service (.NET 3.5) I have running in another instance of VS. The only method that is exposed is the following: [WebMethod] public string Reverse(string input) { char[] chars = input.ToCharArray(); Array.Reverse(chars); return new string(chars); } I have used the following steps to add the service in my Workflow: Add Service Reference Provided the WSDL (the operation shows in the Operations box as expected) Clicked OK Build the solution to ensure that the service shows in my toolbox Drag the service from the toolbox into the workflow However, when I look at the properties of the service in the workflow, there is no way to specify the input argument or where to store the result of the invocation of the service. I only have the option of specifying some obscure parameters such as Body:InArgument<ReverseRequestBody and outBody:OutArgument<ReverseResponseBody (none of which are strings). Here is a screenshot depicting the properties of the service in the workflow: My question is therefore: Is it possible at all to use the SOAP service by specifying a string as the input argument (like it is meant to be used), and also assign the result to a workflow variable?

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Permission Denied error in IE when closing popups

- by Kenia

Hi everyone! I have a simple web testing application which is supposed to open and close several popups by itself (without user interaction). For this purpose i have a javascript function to access the variable where the popup reference is stored and close it if it´s not null, fairly simple. However I get random errors in IE (in FF it works as expected, all popups are closed correctly) like Message: No such interface supported Line: 86 Char: 3 Code: 0 URI: http://10.10.0.61:10000/savmailer/adm/tests/common_tests_code.js and Message: Permission denied Line: 86 Char: 3 Code: 0 URI: http://10.10.0.61:10000/savmailer/adm/tests/common_tests_code.js The line 86 references exactly the point at which I do popup.close(); in the following function function closePopupWindow(popup){ if (popup != null) { popup.close(); popup = null; } } I have googled and it seems this permission denied error is quite common to come through among IE developers, however there´s no clear solution for it, it´s just a matter of changing the code slightly "to please" IE, so to speak. However i have no idea how to change mine since it´s just 3 lines! Tried also to change the security browser settings by adding my domain to the trusted zone, but nothing, doesn't help either. If anyone has any helpful idea or notices something i might be forgetting, please, reply to this! Thanks in advance, Kenia

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Pivot table from multiple spreadsheets

- by vrao

I am using excel 2010. I am trying to create pivot table between two worksheets 'Summary' and 'Summary2'. I have identical row of data ranging from cells B5 to F5 in row 5 in both worksheets. Data in the two worksheets looks like this: Summary worksheet: Issues,20,3,4,5 Summary2 worksheet: Issues,10,0,3,9 Worksheet referes to issues from location 1 and worksheet referes to issues from location 2. Col B has title 'issues', Col C refers to issues of customer 1, Col D refers to issues of customer 2, Col E refers to issues of customer 3, Col F refers to issues of customer 4 I go to a third worksheet and start pivot table and in the table range I give this: 'Summary:Summary2'!$B$5:$F$5. Then I Say OK. Gives error "data reference source is not valid". Can someone tell me how to select the row from two different worksheet in pivot table? Also I want to be able to add issues of customers between two locations and get % completion for each locaiton. Can someone please help?

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How to detect iPhone movement in space using accelerometer ?

- by super_tomtom

Hi ! I am trying to make an application that would detect what kind of shape you made with your iPhone using accelerometer. As an example, if you draw a circle with your hand holding the iPhone, the app would be able to redraw it on the screen. This could also work with squares, or even more complicated shapes. The only example of application I've seen doing such a thing is AirPaint (http://vimeo.com/2276713), but it doesn't seems to be able to do it in real time. My first try is to apply a low-pass filter on the X and Y parameters from the accelerometer, and to make a pointer move toward these values, proportionally to the size of the screen. But this is clearly not enought, I have a very low accuracy, and if I shake the device it also makes the pointer move... Any ideas about that ? Do you think accelerometer data is enought to do it ? Or should I consider using other data, such as the compass ? Thanks in advance !

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Parallel doseq for Clojure

- by andrew cooke

I haven't used multithreading in Clojure at all so am unsure where to start. I have a doseq whose body can run in parallel. What I'd like is for there always to be 3 threads running (leaving 1 core free) that evaluate the body in parallel until the range is exhausted. There's no shared state, nothing complicated - the equivalent of Python's multiprocessing would be just fine. So something like: (dopar 3 [i (range 100)] ; repeated 100 times in 3 parallel threads... ...) Where should I start looking? Is there a command for this? A standard package? A good reference? So far I have found pmap, and could use that (how do I restrict to 3 at a time? looks like it uses 32 at a time - no, source says 2 + number of processors), but it seems like this is a basic primitive that should already exist somewhere. clarification: I really would like to control the number of threads. I have processes that are long-running and use a fair amount of memory, so creating a large number and hoping things work out OK isn't a good approach (example which uses a significant chunk available mem). update: Starting to write a macro that does this, and I need a semaphore (or a mutex, or an atom i can wait on). Do semaphores exist in Clojure? Or should I use a ThreadPoolExecutor? It seems odd to have to pull so much in from Java - I thought parallel programming in Clojure was supposed to be easy... Maybe I am thinking about this completely the wrong way? Hmmm. Agents?

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When to save a mongoose model

- by kentcdodds

This is an architectural question. I have models like this: var foo = new mongoose.Schema({ name: String, bars: [{type: ObjectId, ref: 'Bar'}] }); var FooModel = mongoose.model('Foo', foo); var bar = new mongoose.Schema({ foobar: String }); var BarModel = mongoose.model('Bar', bar); Then I want to implement a convenience method like this: BarModel.methods.addFoo = function(foo) { foo.bars = foo.bars || []; // Side note, is this something I should check here? foo.bars.push(this.id); // Here's the line I'm wondering about... Should I include the line below? foo.save(); } The biggest con I see about this is that if I did include foo.save() then I should pass in a callback to addFoo so I avoid issues with the async operation. I'm thinking this is not preferable. But I also think it would be nice to include because addFoo hasn't really "addedFoo" until it's been saved... Am I breaking any design best practices doing it either way?

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Passing mix of T and T[] to a Java varargs method

- by rfalke

Suppose you have a Java method void foobar(int id, String ... args) and want to pass both String arrays and Strings into the method. Like this String arr1[]={"adas", "adasda"}; String arr2[]={"adas", "adasda"}; foobar(0, "adsa", "asdas"); foobar(1, arr1); foobar(2, arr1, arr2); foobar(3, arr1, "asdas", arr2); In Python there is "*" for this. Is there some way better than such rather ugly helper method: static String[] concat(Object... args) { List<String> result = new ArrayList<String>(); for (Object arg : args) { if (arg instanceof String) { String s = (String) arg; result.add(s); } else if (arg.getClass().isArray() && arg.getClass().getComponentType().equals(String.class)) { String arr[] = (String[]) arg; for (String s : arr) { result.add(s); } } else { throw new RuntimeException(); } } return result.toArray(new String[result.size()]); } which allows foobar(4, concat(arr1, "asdas", arr2));

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In CakePHP, how do I create a form to list models withing a date range?

- by anonymous coward

I have a very simple model that includes the auto-filled field much like 'created'. (DateTime format). I'd like to use the Form helpers if possible, to validate the date fields and whatnot. I'd like a simple form with a "Begin Date" (YMD, 12 hours), and an "End Date" (same format). There is already a controller action set up as follows: function view_between($start_date = null, $end_date = null) { // ... stuff that works correctly when the URL is manually entered. } Have I defined the controller wrong, or how can I pass these values into that function? The reason I'm stuck is because I tried adding a $form->input('my_datetime_field' ...) twice, but obviously the name/id were the same on the respective elements. I have also tried using $form->dateTime(...) with similar results. I'm not sure how to uniquely identify a Begin and End date selection, when it should interact with a single field. Am I going about this wrong? A kind shove in the right direction should suffice.

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How string accepting interface should look like?

- by ybungalobill

Hello, This is a follow up of this question. Suppose I write a C++ interface that accepts or returns a const string. I can use a const char* zero-terminated string: void f(const char* str); // (1) The other way would be to use an std::string: void f(const string& str); // (2) It's also possible to write an overload and accept both: void f(const char* str); // (3) void f(const string& str); Or even a template in conjunction with boost string algorithms: template<class Range> void f(const Range& str); // (4) My thoughts are: (1) is not C++ish and may be less efficient when subsequent operations may need to know the string length. (2) is bad because now f("long very long C string"); invokes a construction of std::string which involves a heap allocation. If f uses that string just to pass it to some low-level interface that expects a C-string (like fopen) then it is just a waste of resources. (3) causes code duplication. Although one f can call the other depending on what is the most efficient implementation. However we can't overload based on return type, like in case of std::exception::what() that returns a const char*. (4) doesn't work with separate compilation and may cause even larger code bloat. Choosing between (1) and (2) based on what's needed by the implementation is, well, leaking an implementation detail to the interface. The question is: what is the preffered way? Is there any single guideline I can follow? What's your experience?

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MS 70-536 .NET Framework Foundation - info on Exam? Especially regex?

- by Sebastian P.R. Gingter

Hi, I know there are already some questions about this, but not that specific. I have the self-paced training kit and worked through the test exam tool that is on the CD coming with the book. I constantly fail on the test tool, mostly on the regex questions. I'm not a regex guru. In fact my regex-fu is more than weak. I know what regex'es are, how I can use them and where my 'Regular expressions - kurz und gut' book is in my drawer in case I really need them. And to be honest I feel like learning regex is a total waste of time, because if I need them I have either a colleague that is fit and can do them in just a few seconds or I need my book and get them right in a still fair amount of time. And from my experience I can tell that I need regex like once in two or three years. So just putting in a lot of time into learning just the expressions to pass the exam is.. something I like not to have to do. Can you tell me something about the real exam vs. the test exam tool on the book and about the need to know regex for passing it? Thank you for your time. Marked as Community Wiki. Hope that fits?

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sort elements in jQuery object

- by Fresheyeball

<div class="myClass">1</div> <div class="myClass">2</div> <div class="myClass">3</div> <div class="myClass">4</div> <div class="myClass">5</div> <div class="myClass">6</div> var $myClass = $('.myClass'); $myClass.eq(0).text() //returns '1' $myClass.eq(4).text() //returns '5' $myClass.eq(5).text() //returns '6' What I want to do is reorder the objects in jQuery manually. //fantasy command reversing $myClass.eqSorter([5,4,3,2,1,0]); $myClass.eq(0).text() //returns '6' $myClass.eq(5).text() //returns '1' What I really want is to allow a fully custom order input //fantasy command custom ordering $myClass.eqSorter([3,5,4,2,0,1]); $myClass.eq(0).text() //returns '4' $myClass.eq(5).text() //returns '2' Now I've looked at basic ways of doing this like .sort as a part of javascript, but .sort takes a dynamic argument the compares things, and does not allow for a fully custom order. I also looked at making a new blank jquery object that I could pass elements into like this $newObjectVar.eq(0) = $myClass.eq(3); for example. But as of yet I have not found a way to make a blank jQuery object like this.

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Extracting a number from a 1-word string

- by Kyle

In this program I am trying to make, I have an expression (such as "I=23mm", or "H=4V") and I am trying to extract the 23 (or the 4) out of it, so that I can turn it into an integer. The problem I keep running into is that since the expression I am trying to take the numbers out of is 1 word, I cannot use split() or anything. One example I saw but wouldnt work was - I="I=2.7A" [int(s) for s in I.split() if s.isdigit()] This wouldnt work because it only takes the numbers are are delimited by spaces. If there was a number in the word int078vert, it wouldnt extract it. Also, mine doesnt have spaces to delimit. I tried one that looked like this, re.findall("\d+.\d+", "Amps= 1.4 I") but it didnt work either, because the number that is being passed is not always 2 digits. It could be something like 5, or something like 13.6. What code do I need to write so that if I pass a string, such as I="I=2.4A" or I="A=3V" So that I can extract only the number out of this string? (and do operations on it)? There are no spaces or other constant chars that I can delimit by.

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