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  • CakePHP dropping session between pages

    - by DavidYell
    Hi, I have an application with multiple regions and various incoming links. The premise, well it worked before, is that in the app_controller, I break out these incoming links and set them in the session. So I have a huge beforeFilter() in my *app_controller* which catches these and sets two variables in the session. Viewing.region and Search.engine, no problem. The problem arises that the session does not seem to be persistant across page requests. So for example, going to /reviews/write (userReviews/add) should have a session available which was set when the user arrived at the site. Although it seems to have vanished! It would appear that unless $this-params is caught explicitly in the *app_controller* and a session variable written, it does not exist on other pages. So far I have tried, swapping between storing session in 'cake' and 'php' both seem to exhibit the same behaviour. I use 'php' as a default. My Session.timeout is '120', Session.checkAgent is False and Security.level is 'low'. All of which should give enough leniency to the framework to allow sessions the most room to live! I'm a bit stumped as to why the session seems to be either recreated or blanked when a new page is being requested. I have commented out the requestAction() calls to make sure that isn't confusing the session request object also, which doesn't seem to make a difference. Any help would be great, as I don't have to have to recode the site to pass all the various variables via parameters in the url, as that would suck, and it's worked before, thus switching on $this-Session-read('Viewing.region') in all my code!

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  • Best (functional?) programming language to learn coming from Mathematica

    - by Will Robertson
    As a mechanical engineering PhD student, I haven't had a great pedigree in programming as part of my “day job”. I started out in Matlab (having written some Hypercard and Applescript back in the day, and being introduced to Ada, of all things, in my 1st undergrad year), learned to program—if you can call it that—in (La)TeX; and finally discovered and fell for Mathematica. Now I'm interested in learning a "real" programming language that I can enjoy in the same sort of style as Mathematica, which tries to stress functional programming since it seems to map more nicely to how certain kinds of mathematics can be written algorithmically. So which functional language should I learn? I guess the obvious answer is “as many as possible”, but let's start out humble and give a single, well-considered option a good crack. I've heard good things about, say, Haskell and Scala, but I wonder if (given my non–computer science background) I'd be better off starting in more “grounded” territory and going with Ruby or Python (the latter having the big advantage of being used for Sage, which I'd also like to investigate…after my PhD). Well, I guess this is pretty subjective, so perhaps I could rephrase: would it be better to start looking at Haskell (say) straight after an ad-hoc education to functional programming in Mathematica, or will I get more out of learning Python (say) first? In reference to the question "what do I want to do with it?", I guess my answer is "fun, and learning more". I've got this list of languages that I'd like to look at, and I don't know how to trim them down. And I'd rather start with something a little higher-level than C simply so that I can be somewhat productive without having to re-invent many wheels for any code I'd like to write.

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  • how to fetch data from Plist in Label

    - by SameSung Vs Iphone
    I have a RegistrationController screen to store email-id ,password,DOB,Height,Weight and logininController screen to match email-id and password to log-in purpose. Now In some third screen I have to fetch only the Height,Weight from the plist of the logged-in user to display it on the label.now if I Store the values of email-id and password in from LoginViewController in string and call it in the new screen to match if matches then gives Height,Weight ..if it corrects then how to fetch Height,Weight from the plist of the same one. how can i fetch from the stored plist in a string... the code which i used to match in LoginController -(NSArray*)readFromPlist { NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *documentPlistPath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"XYZ.plist"]; NSDictionary *dict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithContentsOfFile:documentPlistPath]; NSArray *valueArray = [dict objectForKey:@"title"]; return valueArray; } - (void)authenticateCredentials { NSMutableArray *plistArray = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:[self readFromPlist]]; for (int i = 0; i< [plistArray count]; i++) { id object = [plistArray objectAtIndex:i]; if ([object isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) { NSDictionary *objDict = (NSDictionary *)object; if ([[objDict objectForKey:@"pass"] isEqualToString:emailTextFeild.text] && [[objDict objectForKey:@"title"] isEqualToString:passwordTextFeild.text]) { NSLog(@"Correct credentials"); return; } NSLog(@"INCorrect credentials"); } else { NSLog(@"Error! Not a dictionary"); } } }

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  • JDBC with JSP fails to insert

    - by StrykeR
    I am having some issues right now with JDBC in JSP. I am trying to insert username/pass ext into my MySQL DB. I am not getting any error or exception, however nothing is being inserted into my DB either. Below is my code, any help would be greatly appreciated. <% String uname=request.getParameter("userName"); String pword=request.getParameter("passWord"); String fname=request.getParameter("firstName"); String lname=request.getParameter("lastName"); String email=request.getParameter("emailAddress"); %> <% try{ String dbURL = "jdbc:mysql:localhost:3306/assi1"; String user = "root"; String pwd = "password"; String driver = "com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"; String query = "USE Users"+"INSERT INTO User (UserName, UserPass, FirstName, LastName, EmailAddress) " + "VALUES ('"+uname+"','"+pword+"','"+fname+"','"+lname+"','"+email+"')"; Class.forName(driver); Connection conn = DriverManager.getConnection(dbURL, user, pwd); Statement statement = conn.createStatement(); statement.executeUpdate(query); out.println("Data is successfully inserted!"); } catch(SQLException e){ for (Throwable t : e) t.printStackTrace(); } %> DB script here: CREATE DATABASE Users; use Users; CREATE TABLE User ( UserID INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, UserName VARCHAR(20), UserPass VARCHAR(20), FirstName VARCHAR(30), LastName VARCHAR(35), EmailAddress VARCHAR(50), PRIMARY KEY (UserID) );

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  • C++ and its type system: How to deal with data with multiple types?

    - by sub
    "Introduction" I'm relatively new to C++. I went through all the basic stuff and managed to build 2-3 simple interpreters for my programming languages. The first thing that gave and still gives me a headache: Implementing the type system of my language in C++ Think of that: Ruby, Python, PHP and Co. have a lot of built-in types which obviously are implemented in C. So what I first tried was to make it possible to give a value in my language three possible types: Int, String and Nil. I came up with this: enum ValueType { Int, String, Nil }; class Value { public: ValueType type; int intVal; string stringVal; }; Yeah, wow, I know. It was extremely slow to pass this class around as the string allocator had to be called all the time. Next time I've tried something similar to this: enum ValueType { Int, String, Nil }; extern string stringTable[255]; class Value { public: ValueType type; int index; }; I would store all strings in stringTable and write their position to index. If the type of Value was Int, I just stored the integer in index, it wouldn't make sense at all using an int index to access another int, or? Anyways, the above gave me a headache too. After some time, accessing the string from the table here, referencing it there and copying it over there grew over my head - I lost control. I had to put the interpreter draft down. Now: Okay, so C and C++ are statically typed. How do the main implementations of the languages mentioned above handle the different types in their programs (fixnums, bignums, nums, strings, arrays, resources,...)? What should I do to get maximum speed with many different available types? How do the solutions compare to my simplified versions above?

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  • Integration test for H1 text failing when it should be passing (Rspec and Capybara)

    - by rebec
    Below you can see my test for what happens when a user tries to access the page to edit a profile photo that they don't own. I've used the same test on the NEW action, where it worked fine, but it surprised me by failing when I copied it down to the EDIT action tests. I've used save_and_open_page to test what Capybara's seeing (as you can see below); the resulting page definitely has an h1 with the specified text in it. No spelling errors, and case is all the same as in the test. I've tried using both have_css and have_selector. Both fail. I'm still learning Ruby, Rails, Rspec and especially Capybara (was using webrat previously and recently switched over), and wonder if I'm misconceiving of something that's making me expect this to pass when it doesn't. Any thoughts? Thanks! describe "EDIT" do let(:user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user) } let(:different_user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user) } let(:admin_user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user, role: "admin") } let(:profile_photo1) { FactoryGirl.create(:profile_photo, user: user) } subject { page } context "when signed in as any member" do before { login different_user visit edit_user_profile_photo_path(:id => profile_photo1, :user_id => profile_photo1.user_id) save_and_open_page } # It should deny access with an Unauthorised/Forbidden message. it { should have_css('h1', text: "Unauthorised/Forbidden.") } end

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  • operator overloading and inheritance

    - by user168715
    I was given the following code: class FibHeapNode { //... // These all have trivial implementation virtual void operator =(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator ==(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator <(FibHeapNode& RHS); }; class Event : public FibHeapNode { // These have nontrivial implementation virtual void operator=(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator==(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator<(FibHeapNode& RHS); }; class FibHeap { //... int DecreaseKey(FibHeapNode *theNode, FibHeapNode& NewKey) { FibHeapNode *theParent; // Some code if (theParent != NULL && *theNode < *theParent) { //... } //... return 1; } }; Much of FibHeap's implementation is similar: FibHeapNode pointers are dereferenced and then compared. Why does this code work? (or is it buggy?) I would think that the virtuals here would have no effect: since *theNode and *theParent aren't pointer or reference types, no dynamic dispatch occurs and FibHeapNode::operator< gets called no matter what's written in Event.

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  • How can I split abstract testcases in JUnit?

    - by Willi Schönborn
    I have an abstract testcase "AbstractATest" for an interface "A". It has several test methods (@Test) and one abstract method: protected abstract A unit(); which provides the unit under testing. No i have multiple implementations of "A", e.g. "DefaultA", "ConcurrentA", etc. My problem: The testcase is huge (~1500 loc) and it's growing. So i wanted to split it into multiple testcases. How can organize/structure this in Junit 4 without the need to have a concrete testcase for every implementation and abstract testcase. I want e.g. "AInitializeTest", "AExectueTest" and "AStopTest". Each being abstract and containing multiple tests. But for my concrete "ConcurrentA", i only want to have one concrete testcase "ConcurrentATest". I hope my "problem" is clear. EDIT Looks like my description was not that clear. Is it possible to pass a reference to a test? I know parameterized tests, but these require static methods, which is not applicable to my setup. Subclasses of an abstract testcase decide about the parameter.

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  • Java redirected system output to jtext area, doesnt update until calculation is finished

    - by user1806716
    I have code that redirects system output to a jtext area, but that jtextarea doesnt update until the code is finished running. How do I modify the code to make the jtextarea update in real time during runtime? private void updateTextArea(final String text) { SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { consoleTextAreaInner.append(text); } }); } private void redirectSystemStreams() { OutputStream out = new OutputStream() { @Override public void write(int b) throws IOException { updateTextArea(String.valueOf((char) b)); } @Override public void write(byte[] b, int off, int len) throws IOException { updateTextArea(new String(b, off, len)); } @Override public void write(byte[] b) throws IOException { write(b, 0, b.length); } }; System.setOut(new PrintStream(out, true)); System.setErr(new PrintStream(out, true)); } The rest of the code is mainly just an actionlistener for a button: private void updateButtonActionPerformed(java.awt.event.ActionEvent evt) { // TODO add your handling code here: String shopRoot = this.shopRootDirTxtField.getText(); String updZipPath = this.updateZipTextField.getText(); this.mainUpdater = new ShopUpdater(new File(shopRoot), updZipPath); this.mainUpdater.update(); } That update() method begins the process of copying+pasting files on the file system and during that process uses system.out.println to provide an up-to-date status on where the program is currently at in reference to how many more files it has to copy.

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  • Zend Framework: How to display multiple actions, each requiring different authorizations levels, on

    - by Iain
    Imagine I have 4 database tables, and an interface that presents forms for the management of the data in each of these tables on a single webpage (using the accordion design pattern to show only one form at a time). Each form is displayed with a list of rows in the table, allowing the user to insert a new row or select a row to edit or delete. AJAX is then used to send the request to the server. A different set of forms must be displayed to different users, based on the application ACL. My question is: In terms of controllers, actions, views, and layouts, what is the best architecture for this interface? For example, so far I have a controller with add, edit and delete actions for each table. There is an indexAction for each, but it's an empty function. I've also extended Zend_Form for each table. To display the forms, I then in the IndexController pass the Forms to it's view, and echo each form. Javascript then takes care of populating the form and sending requests to the appropraite add/edit/delete action of the appropriate controller. This however doesn't allow for ACL to control the display or not of Forms to different users. Would it be better to have the indexAction instantiate the form, and then use something like $this-render(); to render each view within the view of the indexAction of the IndexController? Would ACL then prevent certain views from being rendered? Cheers.

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  • I have a bunch of template parameters that I want to hide from my users. How can I do this?

    - by Alex
    I have a superclass which is defined in terms of a few internal types it uses. Subclassing is performed as so: template <class InternalType1, class InternalType2> class Super { ... } class Sub : Super <interalTypeClass1, interalTypeClass2> { ... } But when I want to write a function that takes a pointer to the superclass, this happens : template <class InternalType1, class InternalType2> void function(Super<InternalType1, InternalType2>* in) { ... } The user really shouldn't know anything about the inside classes, and should really just concern himself with the use of the function. Some of these template lists become very very large, and expecting the user to pass them every time is wasteful, in my opinion. Any suggestions? EDIT: The function needs to know the internal types in use, so unless there is a way to access template types at compile time, I think there is no solution? Potential solution: Have each class do the following: #define SubTemplateArgs <SubTypeName, SubInternalType1, SubInternalType2> ?

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  • Split a string by comma, quote and full-stop.. with a few exceptions

    - by dunc
    I've got a lot of text, similar to the following paragraph, which I'd like to split into words without punctuation (', ", ,, ., newline etc).. with a few exceptions. Initially considered endemic to the Chalakudy River system in Kerala state, southern India, but now recognised to have a wider distribution in surrounding drainages including the Periyar, Manimala, and Pamba river though the Manimala data may be questionable given it seems to be the type locality of P. denisonii. In the Achankovil River basin it occurs sympatrically, and sometimes syntopically, with P. denisonii. Wild stocks may have dwindled by as much as 50% in the last 15 years or so with collection for the aquarium trade largely held responsible although habitats are also being degraded by pollution from agricultural and domestic sources, plus destructive fishing methods involving explosives or organic toxins. The text refers to P. denisonii which is a species of fish. It's an abbreviation of Genus species. I would like this reference to be one word. So, for instance, this is the kind of array I'd like to see: Array ( ... [44] given [45] it [46] seems [47] to [48] be [49] the [50] type [51] locality [52] of [53] P. denisonii [54] In [55] the ... ) The only things that distinguish these species references such as P. denisonii from a new sentence like end. New are: The P (for Puntius, as in the P. in the aforementioned example) is only ever one letter, always a capital the d (as in . denisonii) is always either a lower case letter or an apostrophe (') What regexp can I use with preg_split to give me such an array? I've tried a simple explode( " ", $array ) but it doesn't do the job at all. Thanks in advance,

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  • C++ STL: How to iterate vector while requiring access to element and its index?

    - by Ashwin
    I frequently find myself requiring to iterate over STL vectors. While I am doing this I require access to both the vector element and its index. I used to do this as: typedef std::vector<Foo> FooVec; typedef FooVec::iterator FooVecIter; FooVec fooVec; int index = 0; for (FooVecIter i = fooVec.begin(); i != fooVec.end(); ++i, ++index) { Foo& foo = *i; if (foo.somethingIsTrue()) // True for most elements std::cout << index << ": " << foo << std::endl; } After discovering BOOST_FOREACH, I shortened this to: typedef std::vector<Foo> FooVec; FooVec fooVec; int index = -1; BOOST_FOREACH( Foo& foo, fooVec ) { ++index; if (foo.somethingIsTrue()) // True for most elements std::cout << index << ": " << foo << std::endl; } Is there a better or more elegant way to iterate over STL vectors when both reference to the vector element and its index is required? I am aware of the alternative: for (int i = 0; i < fooVec.size(); ++i) But I keep reading about how it is not a good practice to iterate over STL containers like this.

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  • Passing mix of T and T[] to a Java varargs method

    - by rfalke
    Suppose you have a Java method void foobar(int id, String ... args) and want to pass both String arrays and Strings into the method. Like this String arr1[]={"adas", "adasda"}; String arr2[]={"adas", "adasda"}; foobar(0, "adsa", "asdas"); foobar(1, arr1); foobar(2, arr1, arr2); foobar(3, arr1, "asdas", arr2); In Python there is "*" for this. Is there some way better than such rather ugly helper method: static String[] concat(Object... args) { List<String> result = new ArrayList<String>(); for (Object arg : args) { if (arg instanceof String) { String s = (String) arg; result.add(s); } else if (arg.getClass().isArray() && arg.getClass().getComponentType().equals(String.class)) { String arr[] = (String[]) arg; for (String s : arr) { result.add(s); } } else { throw new RuntimeException(); } } return result.toArray(new String[result.size()]); } which allows foobar(4, concat(arr1, "asdas", arr2));

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  • Can I make a derived class inherit a derived member from its base class in Java?

    - by Eric
    I have code that looks like this: public class A { public void doStuff() { System.out.print("Stuff successfully done"); } } public class B extends A { public void doStuff() { System.out.print("Stuff successfully done, but in a different way"); } public void doMoreStuff() { System.out.print("More advanced stuff successully done"); } } public class AWrapper { public A member; public AWrapper(A member) { this.member = member; } public void doStuffWithMember() { a.doStuff(); } } public class BWrapper extends AWrapper { public B member; public BWrapper(B member) { super(member); //Pointer to member stored in two places: this.member = member; //Not great if one changes, but the other does not } public void doStuffWithMember() { member.doMoreStuff(); } } However, there is a problem with this code. I'm storing a reference to the member in two places, but if one changes and the other does not, there could be trouble. I know that in Java, an inherited method can narrow down its return type (and perhaps arguments, but I'm not certain) to a derived class. Is the same true of fields?

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  • Django Admin Running Same Query Thousands of Times for Model

    - by Tom
    Running into an odd . . . loop when trying to view a model in the Django admin. I have three related models (code trimmed for brevity, hopefully I didn't trim something I shouldn't have): class Association(models.Model): somecompany_entity_id = models.CharField(max_length=10, db_index=True) name = models.CharField(max_length=200) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class ResidentialUnit(models.Model): building = models.CharField(max_length=10) app_number = models.CharField(max_length=10) unit_number = models.CharField(max_length=10) unit_description = models.CharField(max_length=100, blank=True) association = models.ForeignKey(Association) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) def __unicode__(self): return '%s: %s, Unit %s' % (self.association, self.building, self.unit_number) class Resident(models.Model): unit = models.ForeignKey(ResidentialUnit) type = models.CharField(max_length=20, blank=True, default='') lookup_key = models.CharField(max_length=200) jenark_id = models.CharField(max_length=20, blank=True) user = models.ForeignKey(User) is_association_admin = models.BooleanField(default=False, db_index=True) show_in_contact_list = models.BooleanField(default=False, db_index=True) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) _phones = {} home_phone = None work_phone = None cell_phone = None app_number = None account_cache_key = None def __unicode__(self): return '%s' % self.user.get_full_name() It's the last model that's causing the problem. Trying to look at a Resident in the admin takes 10-20 seconds. If I take 'self.association' out of the __unicode__ method for ResidentialUnit, a resident page renders pretty quickly. Looking at it in the debug toolbar, without the association name in ResidentialUnit (which is a foreign key on Resident), the page runs 14 queries. With the association name put back in, it runs a far more impressive 4,872 queries. The strangest part is the extra queries all seem to be looking up the association name. They all come from the same line, the __unicode__ method for ResidentialUnit. Each one is the exact same thing, e.g., SELECT `residents_association`.`id`, `residents_association`.`jenark_entity_id`, `residents_association`.`name` FROM `residents_association` WHERE `residents_association`.`id` = 1096 ORDER BY `residents_association`.`name` ASC I assume I've managed to create a circular reference, but if it were truly circular, it would just die, not run 4000x and then return. Having trouble finding a good Google or StackOverflow result for this.

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  • GNU Makefile: multiple outputs from single rule + preventing intermediate files from being deleted

    - by makesaurus
    This is sort of a continuation of question from link text. The problem is that there is a rule generating multiple outputs from a single input, and the command is time-consuming so we would prefer to avoid recomputation. Now there is an additional twist, that we want to keep files from being deleted as intermediate files, and rules involve wildcards to allow for parameters. The solution suggested was that we set up the following rule: file-a.out: program file.in ./program file.in file-a.out file-b.out file-c.out file-b.out: file-a.out @ file-c.out: file-b.out @ Then, calling make file-c.out creates both and we avoid issues with running make in parallel with -j switch. All fine so far. The problem is the following. Because the above solution sets up a chain in the DAG, make considers it differently; the files file-a.out and file-b.out are treated as intermediate files, and they by default get deleted as unnecessary as soon as file-c.out is ready. A way of avoiding that was mentioned somewhere here, and consists of adding file-a.out and file-b.out as dependencies of a target .SECONDARY, which keeps them from being deleted. Unfortunately, this does not solve my case because my rules use wildcard patters; specifically, my rules look more like this: file-a-%.out: program file.in ./program $* file.in file-a-$*.out file-b-$*.out file-c-$*.out file-b-%.out: file-a-%.out @ file-c-%.out: file-b-%.out @ so that one can pass a parameter that gets included in the file name, for example by running make file-c-12.out The solution that make documentation suggests is to add these as implicit rules to the list of dependencies of .PRECIOUS, thus keeping these files from being deleted. The solution with .PRECIOUS works, but it also prevents these files from being deleted when a rule fails and files are incomplete. Is there any other way to make this work?

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  • Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. MS SQL Server

    - by geekzlla
    I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID)? nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 xORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

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  • .Net SQL Parameter for String List Problem

    - by JK
    I am writing a C# program in which I send a query to SQL Server to be processed and a dataset returns. I am using parameters to pass information to the query before it is sent to SQL server. This works fine except in the situation below. The query looks like this: reportQuery = " Select * From tableName Where Account_Number in (@AccountNum); and Account_Date = @AccountDate "; The AccountDate parameter works find but not the AccountNum parameter. I need the final query to execute like this: Select * From tableName Where Account_Number in ('AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'); and Account_Date = '1-Jan-2010' The problem is that I have these account numbers (actually text) in a C# string list. To feed it to the parameter, I have been declaring the parameter as a string. I turn the list into one string and feed it to the parameter. I think the problem is that I am feeding the paramater this: "'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'" when it wants this 'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123' How do I get the string list into the query using a parameter and have it execute as shown above? This is how I am declaring and assigning the parameter. SqlParameter AccountNumsParam = new SqlParameter(); AccountNumsParam.ParameterName = "@AccountNums"; AccountNumsParam.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.NVarChar; AccountNumsParam.Value = AccountNumsString; FYI, AccountNumString == "'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'"

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  • How can I initialize an ActiveX control from a URL?

    - by Peter Ruderman
    I have an MFC ActiveX control embedded in a web page. Some of the parameters for this control are very large. I don't know what these values will be at compile time, but I do know that once retrieved, they will almost certainly never change. Currently, I embed the parameters like so: <object name="MyActiveX"> <param name="param" value="<%= GetData() %>" /> </object> I want to do something like this: <object name="MyActiveX"> <param name="param" value="content/data" valuetype="ref" /> </object> The idea is that the browser would retrieve the resource from the web server and pass it on to the control. The browser's own caching would then take care of the unneccesary downloads. Unfortunately, ref parameters don't work like this. The browser just passes the url along to the control (which strikes me as utterly useless, but I digress). So, is there some way I can make this work? Alternatively, is there an easy way in MFC to instruct the control's host container to retrieve a URI identified resource? Any better ideas?

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  • How to give user confirmation message before ActionLink based on validation

    - by RememberME
    I have the following link. On click, I'd like to check the item.primary_company field and if populated, give the user a warning and ask if they would like to continue. How can I do this? <a href="<%= Url.Action("Activate", new {id = item.company_id}) %>" class="fg=button fg-button-icon-solo ui-state-default ui-corner-all"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-refresh"></span></a> EDIT I've changed to this, but nothing happens when clicked. Also, I don't know how to reference the item to do the check on the primary_company field. I only want to message to show if item.primary_company.HasValue. I'd also like to show item.company1.company_name in the confirm message. <a href="#" onclick="return Actionclick("<%= Url.Action("Activate", new {id = item.company_id}) %>");" class="fg=button fg-button-icon-solo ui-state-default ui-corner-all"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-refresh"></span></a> <script type="text/javascript"> function Actionclick(url) { alert("myclick"); if ( confirm("Do you want to activate this company's primary company and all other subsidiaries?")) { location.href(url); } }; </script>

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  • Actionscript - combining AS2 assets into a single SWF

    - by Justin Bachorik
    Hi guys, I have a flash project that I'm trying to export as a single SWF. There's a main SWF file that loads about 6 other SWFs, and both the main and the child SWFs reference other external assets (images, sounds, etc). I'd like to package everything as a single .swf file so I don't have to tote the other assets around with the .swf. All the coding is done in the timeline, but the assets haven't been imported into the Flash Authoring environment and I don't have time to do that right now (there are too many references to them everywhere). I'm hoping that there's just an option I'm missing that allows this sort of packaged export, but I haven't found anything like that. I don't have access to Flex or mxmlc (and as the AS is timeline-based, they wouldn't necessarily help me). Any thoughts? Thanks! PS...if there's no way of doing exactly what I'm saying, I could deal with having all the assets in a "assets" folder or something like that, so I'd just be toting around main.swf and an assets folder. The problem here is that all the references to the assets assume that they're in the same folder as the main.swf file, so everything's assumed to be local...is there a way to change the scope of all external references in Flash (so, for example, all local references in the code are actually searched in /assets)?

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  • Configuration Error , Finding assembly after I swapped referenced dll out. Visual Studio 2003

    - by TampaRich
    Here is the situation. I had a clean build of my asp.net web application working. I then went into the bin folder under the web app and replaced two referenced dll's with two older version of the same dll's. (Same name etc.) After testing I replaced those dll's back to the new ones and now my application keeps throwing the configuration error === Pre-bind state information === LOG: DisplayName = xxxxx.xxxx.Personalization (Partial) LOG: Appbase = file:///c:/inetpub/wwwroot/appname LOG: Initial PrivatePath = bin Calling assembly : (Unknown). LOG: Policy not being applied to reference at this time (private, custom, partial, or location-based assembly bind). I found this issue on the web and tried all the solutions to it but nothing worked. I then went into all my projects that it references under the solution and cleared out the bin/debug folder in each, I cleared out the obj folder under each and also deleted the temporary files associated with the application. I rebuilt it and it still will not work due to this error Not sure what is causing this or how to fix this issue. I have tried restarting IIS, stopping index services which was said to be a known issue. This is .net framework 1.1 app and visual studio 2003 Any suggestions would be great. Thanks.

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  • Sys. engineer has decided to dynamically transform all XSLs into DLLs on website build process. DLL

    - by John Sullivan
    Hello, OS: Win XP. Here is my situation. I have a browser based application. It is "wrapped" in a Visual Basic application. Our "Systems Engineer Senior" has decided to spawn DLL files from all of our XSL pages (many of which have duplicate names) upon building a new instance of the website and have the active server pages (ASPX) use the DLL instead. This has created a "known issue" in which ~200 DLL naming conflicts occur and, thus, half of our application is broken. I think a solution to this problem is that, thankfully, we're generating the names of the DLLs and linking them up with our application dynamically. Therefore we can do something kludgy like generate a hash and append it to the end of the DLL file name when we build our website, then always reference the DLL that had some kind of random string / hash appended to its name. Aside from outright renaming the DLLs, is there another way to have multiple DLLs with the same name register for one application? I think the answer is "No, only between different applications using a special technique." Please confirm. Another question I have on my mind is whether this whole idea is a good practice -- converting our XSL pages (which we use in mass -- every time a response from our web app occurs) into DLL functions that call a "function" to do what the XSL page did via an active server page (ASPX), when we were before just sending an XML response to an XSL page via aspx.

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  • How to strongly type properties in JavaScript that map to models in C# ?

    - by Roberto Sebestyen
    I'm not even sure if I worded the question right, but I'll try and explain as clearly as possible with an example: In the following example scenario: 1) Take a class such as this: public class foo { public string firstName {get;set;} public string lastName {get;set} } 2) Serialize that into JSON, pass it over the wire to the Browser. 3) Browser de-serializes this and turns the JSON into a JavaScript object so that you can then access the properties like this: var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.firstName); alert(foo.lastName); What if now a new developer comes along working on this project decides that firstName is no longer a suitable property name. Lets say they use ReSharper to rename this property, since ReSharper does a pretty good job at finding (almost) all the references to the property and renaming them appropriately. However ReSharper will not be able to rename the references within the JavaScript code (#3) since it has no way of knowing that these also really mean the same thing. Which means the programmer is left with the responsibility of manually finding these references and renaming those too. The risk is that if this is forgotten, no one will know about this error until someone tests that part of the code, or worse, slip through to the customer. Back to the actual question: I have been trying to think of a solution to this to some how strongly type these property names when used in javascript, so that a tool like ReSharper can successfully rename ALL usages of the property? Here is what I have been thinking for example (This would obviously not work unless i make some kind of static properties) var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.<%=foo.firstName.GetPropertyName()%>) alert(foo.<%=foo.lastName.GetPropertyName()%>) But that is obviously not practical. Does anyone have any thoughts on this? Thanks, and kudos to all of the talented people answering questions on this site.

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