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Django: Storing ordered, arbitrary references

- by Sarah

I'm new to Django, and I'm not sure what I want is possible: I have a number of items that I want each AppUser (extended User model) to be able to reference. That is, given an AppUser, I want to be able to extract its list of items in the way that AppUser has chosen to order them. In general, these items would actually be references to something else in the database, and this led me to one possible solution: Store the keys for the given objects in a CommaSeparatedIntegerField in AppUser. This way, a user could have stored {7, 3, 232, 42, 1} in their items field and both the references and their preferred order would be stored. However, this feels hacky. Since most db backends store CommaSeparatedIntegerField as a VARCHAR internally, the user is not only limited by a number of objects, but also the number of digits in their chosen items. Eg. "you may store 10 items if you choose items with itemID < 10, but only 5 items if 10 < itemID < 100". Is there a better way to do this?

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Merging two arrays in PHP

- by Industrial

Hi everyone, I am trying to create a new array from two current arrays. Tried array_merge, but it will not give me what I want. $array1 is a list of keys that I pass to a function. $array2 holds the results from that function, but doesn't contain any non-available resuls for keys. So, I want to make sure that all requested keys comes out with 'null':ed values, as according to the shown $result array. It goes a little something like this: $array1 = array('item1', 'item2', 'item3', 'item4'); $array2 = array( 'item1' => 'value1', 'item2' => 'value2', 'item3' => 'value3' ); Here's the result I want: $result = array( 'item1' => 'value1', 'item2' => 'value2', 'item3' => 'value3', 'item4' => '' ); It can be done this way, but I don't think that it's a good solution - I really don't like to take the easy way out and suppress PHP errors by adding @:s in the code. This sample would obviously throw errors since 'item4' is not in $array2, based on the example. foreach ($keys as $k => $v){ @$array[$v] = $items[$v]; } So, what's the fastest (performance-wise) way to accomplish the same result?

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jsf custom control strange behaviour

- by Cristian Boariu

hi, I have a jsf custom control which contains this: <rich:column> <c:if test="#{not empty columnTitle}"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:spacer/> </f:facet> </c:if> <s:link view="#{view}" value="#{messages['edit']}" propagation="#{propagation}"> <f:param name="${paramName}" value="${paramValue}"/> </s:link>   <h:commandLink action="#{entityHome.removeMethodName(entity)}" value="#{messages['remove']}"/> </rich:column> You see that command link action. I want it to call an action like this: action="#{documentHome.removeProperty(property)"} Well, in order to do this i call the control like: <up:columnDetails view="/admin/property.xhtml" columnTitle="yes" entity="#{property}" paramValue="#{property.propertyId}" propagation="nest" entityHome="documentHome" removeMethodName="removeProperty"/> So, i hardcode entityHome and removeMethodName. Well an error is firing. Caused by javax.servlet.ServletException with message: "#{entityHome.removeMethodName(entity)}: javax.el.MethodNotFoundException It seems that it cannot interpret "removeMethodName". If i print entityHome or removeMethodName it correctly shows the values i pass. But i think jsf has an error like not beeing able to "believe" that after an object.something, that something can be a parameter... Can anyone guide me...?

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Referencing java resource files for cold fusion

- by Chimeara

I am using a .Jar file containing a .properties file in my CF code, however it seems unable to find the .properties file when run from CF. My java code is: String key =""; String value =""; try { File file = new File("src/test.properties"); FileInputStream fileInput = new FileInputStream(file); Properties properties = new Properties(); properties.load(fileInput); fileInput.close(); Enumeration enuKeys = properties.keys(); while (enuKeys.hasMoreElements()) { key = (String) enuKeys.nextElement(); value = properties.getProperty(key); //System.out.println(key + ": " + value); } } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { e.printStackTrace(); key ="error"; } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); key ="error"; } return(key + ": " + value); I have my test.properties file in the project src folder, and make sure it is selected when compiling, when run from eclipse it gives the expected key and value, however when run from CF I get the caught errors. My CF code is simply: propTest = CreateObject("java","package.class"); testResults = propTest.main2(); Is there a special way to reference the .properties file so CF can access it, or do I need to include the file outside the .jar somewhere?

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Accessing my own datalayer using RIA & Silverlight

- by Norsten

Is it possible for me to connect to my own data provide via WCF RIA services? I've created a small datalayer that connnects to DynamicAX datasource. I would like to use Silverlight 4 & RIA service to access that datalayer. At it's most basic -I've done the following... 1) I've added an empty domainclass to the webproject and in that class I created a simple method to return a string... [EnableClientAccess()] public class ProjectService : DomainService { public string TestViaRIA() { return "Hello!"; } } 2) I then added reference to the web project in my silvelight class and created a bit of code to try and invoke the method... using ProjectApp.Web; namespace ProjectApp.Views { public partial class ProjectControl : UserControl { public ProjectControl() { InitializeComponent(); ProjectContext ctx = new ProjectContext(); var x = ctx.TestViaRIA(); testTextBox.Text = x.ToString(); } } } the returned value is "{System.ServiceModel.DomainServices.Client.InvokeOperation}". I'm obviously doing something wrong here and I would appreciate some guidance on how I can achive this. Thanks in advance

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What's the best practice for make username check like Twitter ?

- by Space Cracker

I develop registration form and it have username field, and it's required to be like twitter username check ( real time check ) .. i already develop as in every textbox key up I use jquery to pass textbox.Text to page that return if is username exist or not as following code : function Check() { var userName = $('#<%= TextBox1.ClientID %>').val(); if (userName.length < 3) { $('#checkUserNameDIV').html("user name must be between 3 and 20"); return; } $('#checkUserNameDIV').html('<img src="loader.gif" />'); //setTimeout("CheckExistance('" + userName + "')", 5000); CheckExistance(userName); } function CheckExistance(userName) { $.get( "JQueryPage.aspx", { name: userName }, function(result) { var msg = ""; if (result == "1") msg = "Not Exist " + '<img src="unOK.gif" />'; else if (result == "0") msg = "Exist" ; else if (result == "error") msg = "Error , try again"; $('#checkUserNameDIV').html(msg); } ); } but i don't know if is it the best way to do that ? specially i do check every keyup .. is there any design pattern for this problem or nay good practice for doing that ?

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how to send the values from TabActivity to Activity?

- by Anil M H

In my TabActivity , i'm sending value to other Activity how to do that in this TabActivity how can i send the bundle to other Activity plz tell me how to pass the value to my other ReceivedList Activity plz tell me .... public class TabViewForSendAndRecv extends TabActivity{ private TabActivity tabhost1; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.tabviewforsendandrecv); Bundle bundle = getIntent().getExtras(); String stuff = bundle.getString("number"); final TabHost tabHost = getTabHost(); TextView txtTab = new TextView(this); txtTab.setText("Received Alerts"); txtTab.setPadding(8, 9, 8, 9); txtTab.setTextColor(Color.WHITE); txtTab.setTextSize(14); //txtTab.setTypeface(localTypeface1); txtTab.setGravity(Gravity.CENTER_HORIZONTAL | Gravity.CENTER_VERTICAL); TabHost.TabSpec spec; // Initialize a TabSpec for each tab and add it to the TabHost spec = tabHost.newTabSpec("Tab1").setIndicator(txtTab). setContent(new Intent(this, ReceivedList.class).addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_CLEAR_TOP)); tabHost.addTab(spec); //tab 2 TextView txtTab1 = new TextView(this); txtTab1.setText("Sent Alerts"); txtTab1.setPadding(8, 9, 8, 9); txtTab1.setTextColor(Color.WHITE); txtTab1.setTextSize(14); //txtTab.setTypeface(localTypeface1); txtTab1.setGravity(Gravity.CENTER_HORIZONTAL | Gravity.CENTER_VERTICAL); TabHost.TabSpec spec1; // Initialize a TabSpec for each tab and add it to the TabHost spec1 = tabHost.newTabSpec("Tab2").setIndicator(txtTab1).setContent(new Intent(this, SentList.class).addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_CLEAR_TOP)); tabHost.addTab(spec1);

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If I cast an IQueryable as an IEnumerable then call a Linq extension method, which implementation gets called?

- by James Morcom

Considering the following code: IQueryable<T> queryable; // something to instantiate queryable var enumerable = (IEnumerable<T>) queryable; var filtered = enumerable.Where(i => i > 3); In the final line, which extension method gets called? Is it IEnumerable<T>.Where(...)? Or will IQueryable<T>.Where(...) be called because the actual implementation is still obviously a queryable? Presumably the ideal would be for the IQueryable version to be called, in the same way that normal polymorphism will always use the more specific override. In Visual Studio though when I right-click on the Where method and "Go to Definition" I'm taken to the IEnumerable version, which kind of makes sense from a visual point-of-view. My main concern is that if somewhere in my app I use Linq to NHibernate to get a Queryable, but I pass it around using an interface that uses the more general IEnumerable signature, I'll lose the wonders of deferred database execution!

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JMS message. Model to include data or pointers to data?

- by John

I am trying to resolve a design difference of opinion where neither of us has experience with JMS. We want to use JMS to communicate between a j2ee application and the stand-alone application when a new event occurs. We would be using a single point-to-point queue. Both sides are Java-based. The question is whether to send the event data itself in the JMS message body or to send a pointer to the data so that the stand-alone program can retrieve it. Details below. I have a j2ee application that supports data entry of new and updated persons and related events. The person records and associated events are written to an Oracle database. There are also stand-alone, separate programs that contribute new person and event records to the database. When a new event occurs through any of 5-10 different application functions, I need to notify remote systems through an outbound interface using an industry-specific standard messaging protocol. The outbound interface has been designed as a stand-alone application to support scalability through asynchronous operation and by moving it to a separate server. The j2ee application currently has most of the data in memory at the time the event is entered. The data would consist of approximately 6 different objects; a person object and some with multiple instances for an average size in the range of 3000 to 20,000 bytes. Some special cases could be many times this amount. From a performance and reliability perspective, should I model the JMS message to pass all the data needed to create the interface message, or model the JMS message to contain record keys for the data and have the stand-alone Java application retrieve the data to create the interface message?

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How to get a nicely formatted PHP Web Service response?

- by Bruno

I called an API like this: $service = new Class_Service(); $parameters = new GetClasses(); $parameters->Request = new GetClassesRequest(); $parameters->Request->SourceCredentials = new SourceCredentials(); $parameters->Request->SourceCredentials->SourceName = "Name"; $parameters->Request->SourceCredentials->Password = "Pass"; $parameters->Request->SourceCredentials->SiteIDs = array( 12 ); $classes = $service->GetClasses($parameters); var_dump($classes); And received a response like this: object(GetClassesResponse)#7 (1) { ["GetClassesResult"]=> object(GetClassesResult)#8 (6 { ["Classes"]=> object(stdClass)#9 (1) { ["Class"]=> array(25) { [0]=> object(Mi_Class)#10 (21) { ["ClassScheduleID"]=> int(15) ["Visits"]=> NULL ["Clients"]=> NULL ["Location"]=> object(Location)#11 (30) { ["BusinessID"]=> NULL ["SiteID"]=> int(12) ["BusinessDescription"]=> NULL ["AdditionalImageURLs"]=> object(stdClass)#12 (0) { } ["FacilitySquareFeet"]=> NULL Does a response normally look like this? How do I go about getting the data in a formatted manner?

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decoding jquery json data in php

- by Mac Taylor

hey guys recenlty i made a script to move objects and save the orders now i have a little to do to finish this script everything works fine , just one question : how can i save not numeric data in my json script this is my script : function updateWidgetData(){ var items=[]; $('.widget-title').each(function(){ var weightId=$(this).attr('id'); $('.column').each(function(){ var columnId=$(this).attr('id'); $('.widget', this).each(function(i){ var collapsed=0; if($(this).find('.widget-inside').css('display')=="none") collapsed=1; //Create Item object for current panel var item={ id: $(this).attr('id'), collapsed: collapsed, order : i, column: columnId, weight: weightId }; //Push item object into items array items.push(item); }); }); }); //Assign items array to sortorder JSON variable var sortorder={ items: items }; //Pass sortorder variable to server using ajax to save state $.post('updatePanels.php', 'data='+$.toJSON(sortorder), function(response){ if(response=="success") $("#console").html('<div class="success">Saved</div>').hide().fadeIn(1000); setTimeout(function(){ $('#console').fadeOut(1000); }, 2000); }); } and this is my php script : $data=json_decode($_POST["data"]); foreach($data->items as $item) { //Extract column number for panel $col_id=preg_replace('/[^\d\s]/', '', $item->column); //Extract id of the panel $widget_id=preg_replace('/[^\d\s]/', '', $item->id); $sql="UPDATE widgets SET column_id='$col_id', sort_no='".$item->order."', collapsed='".$item->collapsed."' WHERE id='".$widget_id."'"; mysql_query($sql) or die('Error updating widget DB'); } echo "success"; everything works fine till i use numeric value for columns' id but i need non numeric values forexample id='columnr' i want to extract r but i cant get it right any help plz !?

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How do I call a variable from another class?

- by squeezemylime

I have a class called 'Constants' that I am storing a String variable in. This class contains a few global variables used in my app. I want to be able to reference this class and call the variable (called profileId) in other Views of my app. I looked around and found a few examples, but am not sure how to do this. Currently my setup is: Constants.h @interface Constants : UIViewController { NSString *profileId; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *profileId; @end Constants.m #import "Constants.h" @implementation Constants @synthesize profileId; - (void)dealloc { [profileId release]; [super dealloc]; } And I am trying to call the variable profileId in a new View via this way: NewView.h file @class Constants; NewView.m file NSLog(@"ProfileId is:", [myConstants profileId]); Is there something I'm missing? It is coming up null, even though I am properly storing a value in it in another function via this way: Constants *Constant; Constant = [[Constants alloc] init]; Constant.profileId = userId;

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Configuration Error , Finding assembly after I swapped referenced dll out. Visual Studio 2003

- by TampaRich

Here is the situation. I had a clean build of my asp.net web application working. I then went into the bin folder under the web app and replaced two referenced dll's with two older version of the same dll's. (Same name etc.) After testing I replaced those dll's back to the new ones and now my application keeps throwing the configuration error === Pre-bind state information === LOG: DisplayName = xxxxx.xxxx.Personalization (Partial) LOG: Appbase = file:///c:/inetpub/wwwroot/appname LOG: Initial PrivatePath = bin Calling assembly : (Unknown). LOG: Policy not being applied to reference at this time (private, custom, partial, or location-based assembly bind). I found this issue on the web and tried all the solutions to it but nothing worked. I then went into all my projects that it references under the solution and cleared out the bin/debug folder in each, I cleared out the obj folder under each and also deleted the temporary files associated with the application. I rebuilt it and it still will not work due to this error Not sure what is causing this or how to fix this issue. I have tried restarting IIS, stopping index services which was said to be a known issue. This is .net framework 1.1 app and visual studio 2003 Any suggestions would be great. Thanks.

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Nested bind expressions

- by user328543

This is a followup question to my previous question. #include <functional> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 3;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> auto func(C&& c) -> decltype(c()) { return c(); } template <class C> int doit(C&& c) { return c();} template <class C> void func_wrapper(C&& c) { func( std::bind(doit<C>, std::forward<C>(c)) ); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); func_wrapper(foo); // error // call with a member function bar b; func(b); func_wrapper(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); func_wrapper(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // error // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 42;} ); func_wrapper( [](void)->int {return 42;} ); return 0; } I'm getting a compile errors deep in the C++ headers: functional:1137: error: invalid initialization of reference of type ‘int (&)()’ from expression of type ‘int (*)()’ functional:1137: error: conversion from ‘int’ to non-scalar type ‘std::_Bind(bar, int)’ requested func_wrapper(foo) is supposed to execute func(doit(foo)). In the real code it packages the function for a thread to execute. func would the function executed by the other thread, doit sits in between to check for unhandled exceptions and to clean up. But the additional bind in func_wrapper messes things up...

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How to easily apply a function to a collection in C++

- by Jesse Beder

I'm storing images as arrays, templated based on the type of their elements, like Image<unsigned> or Image<float>, etc. Frequently, I need to perform operations on these images; for example, I might need to add two images, or square an image (elementwise), and so on. All of the operations are elementwise. I'd like get as close as possible to writing things like: float Add(float a, float b) { return a+b; } Image<float> result = Add(img1, img2); and even better, things like complex ComplexCombine(float a, float b) { return complex(a, b); } Image<complex> result = ComplexCombine(img1, img2); or struct FindMax { unsigned currentMax; FindMax(): currentMax(0) {} void operator(unsigned a) { if(a > currentMax) currentMax = a; } }; FindMax findMax; findMax(img); findMax.currentMax; // now contains the maximum value of 'img' Now, I obviously can't exactly do that; I've written something so that I can call: Image<float> result = Apply(img1, img2, Add); but I can't seem to figure out a generic way for it to detect the return type of the function/function object passed, so my ComplexCombine example above is out; also, I have to write a new one for each number of arguments I'd like to pass (which seems inevitable). Any thoughts on how to achieve this (with as little boilerplate code as possible)?

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Get the parent class of a null object (C# Reflection)

- by Nick

How would I get the parent class of an object that has a value of null? For example... 'Class A' contains 'int? i' which is not set to any value when the class is created. Then in some other place in the code I want to pass in 'i' as a parameter to some function. Using 'i' as the only info, I want to be able to figure out that 'Class A' "owns" 'i'. The reason for this is because 'Class A' also contains some other object, and I want to call this other object's value from that same function mentioned in the above paragraph. Could also be: public class A { public class B { public int? i; public int? j; } B classBInstance = new B(); public string s; } { ... A someClassAInstance = new A(); ... doSomething(someClassAInstance.classBInstance.i); ... } public static bool doSomething(object theObject) { string s = /* SOMETHING on theObject to get to "s" from Class A */; int someValue = (int)theObject; }

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.Net SQL Parameter for String List Problem

- by JK

I am writing a C# program in which I send a query to SQL Server to be processed and a dataset returns. I am using parameters to pass information to the query before it is sent to SQL server. This works fine except in the situation below. The query looks like this: reportQuery = " Select * From tableName Where Account_Number in (@AccountNum); and Account_Date = @AccountDate "; The AccountDate parameter works find but not the AccountNum parameter. I need the final query to execute like this: Select * From tableName Where Account_Number in ('AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'); and Account_Date = '1-Jan-2010' The problem is that I have these account numbers (actually text) in a C# string list. To feed it to the parameter, I have been declaring the parameter as a string. I turn the list into one string and feed it to the parameter. I think the problem is that I am feeding the paramater this: "'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'" when it wants this 'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123' How do I get the string list into the query using a parameter and have it execute as shown above? This is how I am declaring and assigning the parameter. SqlParameter AccountNumsParam = new SqlParameter(); AccountNumsParam.ParameterName = "@AccountNums"; AccountNumsParam.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.NVarChar; AccountNumsParam.Value = AccountNumsString; FYI, AccountNumString == "'AX3456','YZYL123','ZZZ123'"

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Listening to PHP function calls to intercept the returned value

- by Lansen Q

I am working on making use of a Web Services API offered by the hosts of our internal system. I am accessing it via PHP with the built-in SOAP offering. The API session is initiated by a remote call to a function that returns some session tokens; every call to any function thereafter will return a new session token, which must accompany the next request. I have an API Client class that is doing the bulk of the work; what I would like to do is to set something up whereby any SOAP call that is made will make sure to update the API Client class' $session variable with the new session details, and then pass the data along. So far the only way I can think of doing this is creating a new class extending the SoapClient class, with a __call function wrapper to execute the function, update the new session token, and return the results nonetheless. I'm not sure that this will a) work b) be the best way to go about this. The wrapper class would be identical to making a SOAP call, and it would return an identical result, just it would update the session token before you get your result back. Thanks! Hope I explained myself properly.

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Image does not update when file name remains the same in XCode 3.1.2

- by vman049

Hi Everyone, I'm using XCode version 3.1.2 and am developing for iPhone using the Simulator with iOS 2.2.1 on Leopard. I had an image file named "img.jpg" in my project which I decided to switch for a different file. After adding the new file into the XCode Resources folder, I removed the first file and renamed the new file to the same name as the previous one, "img.jpg." When I run my program, however, the Simulator loads the old image instead of the new one, even though the old one has been deleted from disk (not just the reference). I tried changing the name of the file to "img2.jpg," and it worked like it should - loading the new image, but I want to keep the name "img.jpg." I ran a search with Spotlight for "img.jpg" to see if there was another copy stored somewhere that XCode was using, but it only returned my new image file. I have tried uninstalling the app from the Simulator and running the application again, but that also does not fix the problem. What must I do for XCode to recognize that I want to use the new image file and not the old one? Thanks for your help!!

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wget not completely processing the http call

- by user578458

Here is a wget command that executes a HTML / PHP stack report suite that is hosted by a third party - we don't have control over the PHP or HTML page wget --no-check-certificate --http-user=/myacc --http-password=mypass -O /tmp/myoutput.csv "https://myserver.mydomain.com/mymodule.php?myrepcode=9999&action=exportcsv&admin=myappuserid&password=myappuserpass&startdate=2011-01-16&enddate=2011-01-16&reportby=mypreferredview" All the elements are working perfectly: --http-user / --http-pass as offered by a browsers standard popup for username and password prompt -O /tmp/myoutput.csv - the output file of interest https://myserver.mydomain.com/mymodule.php?myrepcode=9999&action=exportcsv&admin=myappuserid&password=myappuserpass&startdate=2011-01-16&enddate=2011-01-16&reportby=mypreferredview" The file generated on the fly by the parameters myrepcode=9999 - a reference to the report in question action=exportcsv internally written in the function admin=myappuserid the third party operats SSL to access the site - then internal username and password stored in a database to access the functions of the site) password=myappuserpass startdate=2011-01-16 this and end data are parameters specific to the report 9999 enddate=2011-01-16 reportby=mypreferredview This is an option in the report that facilitates different levels of detail or aggregation The problem is that the reportby parameter is a radio button selection in a list of 5 selections (sure I enough the default is highest level of aggregation , I want the last one which is the most detailed) Here is a sample of the HTML page code for the options of reportby View by The Default My Least Preferred My Second Least Preferred My Third Least Preferred My Preferred No matter which of the reportby items I select in the wget statement - thedefault is always executed. Questions 1) Has anyone come across this notation in HTML (id=inputname[inputelement]) I spoke to a senior web developer and he has never seen this notation for inputs (id=inputname[inputelement]) - and w3schools do not appear familiar with this either based on an extensive search 2) Can a wget command select a none default radio item when executing the command ? This probably will be initially received with a "Use CURL" response- however the wget approach works very well in the limited environment I am operating in - particularly as I need to download 10000 of these such items. Thanks ahead of response

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MVC design pattern in complex iPad app: is one fat controller acceptable?

- by nutsmuggler

I am building a complex iPad application; think of it as a scrapbook. For the purpose of this question, let's consider a page with two images over it. My main view displays my doc data rendered as a single UIImage; this because I need to do some global manipulation over them. This is my DisplayView. When editing I need to instantiate an EditorView with my two images as subviews; this way I can interact with a single image, (rotate it, scale it, move it). When editing is triggered, I hide my DisplayView and show my EditorView. In a iPhone app, I'd associate each main view (that is, a view filling the screen) to a view controller. The problem is here there is just one view controller; I've considered passing the EditorView via a modal view controller, but it's not an option (there a complex layout with a mask covering everything and palettes over it; rebuilding it in the EditorView would create duplicate code). Presently the EditorView incorporates some logic (loads data from the model, invokes some subviews for fine editing, saves data back to the model); EditorView subviews also incorporate some logic (I manipulate images and pass them back to the main EditorView). I feel this logic belongs more to a controller. On the other hand, I am not sure making my only view controller so fat a good idea. What is the best, cocoa-ish implementation of such a class structure? Feel free to ask for clarifications. Cheers.

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Printing the "source" class in a log statement with a log4j wrapper

- by Dur4ndal

My application has a homebrew logging class that I'm migrating to using log4j under the covers. However, since I'm using the homebrew class to pass the rest of the application's logging statements to log4j, the output statements are logged as coming from the wrapper class instead of the source class. Is there a way to ensure that the "correct" source is being shown besides creating new org.apache.log4j.Logger instances for every log statement? I've also tried using the Logger.log(String callerFQCN, Priority level, Object message, Throwable t) method, but it doesnt seem to be working, for example: public class Logger2 { public static org.apache.log4j.Logger log4JLogger = org.apache.log4j.Logger.getLogger(Logger2.class); public static void warning(Object source, String message) { log(source, message, Level.WARN, null) } private static void log(Object source, String message, Level level, Throwable t) { String className = source.getClass().getName(); System.out.println("Logging class should be " + className); log4JLogger.log(className, loggingLevel, message, t); } } When called by: public void testWarning() { Logger2.warning(new Integer(3), "This should warn"); } Prints: Logging class should be java.lang.Integer 2010-05-25 10:49:57,152 WARN test.Logger2 - This should warn

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How to start x-axis labels(dates) from 0th position without using set_range(..)

- by Rishi2686

Hi there, First of all, I am really a newbie for flash charts. I have problem in using it. I am developing an app which gets values from database for chart. I have a line on chart, there are dates on x-axis starting from 0th position. I have dates 03-06-2010 and 05-06-2010 right now and may increase in future. When I set range of 1 month i.e 1st jun to 30th jun , it does not show lines but show values on y-axis. When I use range, i am not able to pass array of above two dates from database to chart, and viceversa. Here is my code-snippet can you give some hint. $x = new x_axis(); $x->set_range( mktime(0, 0, 0, 6, 1, date('Y')), // <-- min == 1st Jan, this year mktime(0, 0, 0, 6, 16, date('Y')) // <-- max == 31st Jan, this year ); $x->set_steps(86400); $labels = new x_axis_labels(); $labels->text('#date: jS, M Y#'); $labels->set_steps(86400); $labels->visible_steps(1); $labels->rotate(90); //$labels->set_labels($data_4); // date_4 is array of database values $x->set_labels($labels);

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Persisting object changes from child form to parent form based on button press.

- by Shyran

I have created a form that is used for both adding and editing a custom object. Which mode the form takes is provided by an enum value passed from the calling code. I also pass in an object of the custom type. All of my controls at data bound to the specific properties of the custom object. When the form is in Add mode, this works great as when the controls are updated with data, the underlying object is as well. However, in Edit mode, I keep two variables of the custom object supplied by the calling code, the original, and a temporary one made through deep copying. The controls are then bound to the temporary copy, this makes it easy to discard the changes if the user clicks the Cancel button. What I want to know is how to persist those changes back to the original object if the user clicks the OK button, since there is now a disconnect because of the deep copying. I am trying to avoid implementing a internal property on the Add/Edit form if I can. Below is an example of my code: public AddEditCustomerDialog(Customer customer, DialogMode mode) { InitializeComponent(); InitializeCustomer(customer, mode); } private void InitializeCustomer(Customer customer, DialogMode mode) { this.customer = customer; if (mode == DialogMode.Edit) { this.Text = "Edit Customer"; this.tempCustomer = ObjectCopyHelper.DeepCopy(this.customer); this.customerListBindingSource.DataSource = this.tempCustomer; this.phoneListBindingSource.DataSource = this.tempCustomer.PhoneList; } else { this.customerListBindingSource.DataSource = this.customer; this.phoneListBindingSource.DataSource = this.customer.PhoneList; } }

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Passing null child object from parent object to a partial view

- by Mike

I have an object which contains models for my ASP.NET MVC web app. The Model that is being passed into the view has sub models for "gadgets" on that particular view. Each of these sub models gets passed to a partial view (gadget). The problem is when I have a null model in the view model. See example below. View Model: public class FooBarHolder() { public FooBar1 FooBar1 { get; set; } public FooBar2 FooBar2 { get; set; } } We pass FooBarHolder into the view and inside the view we make calls such as <% Html.RenderPartial("Foo", Model.FooBar1); %> <% Html.RenderPartial("Foo2", Model.FooBar2); %> Now say for instance that Model.FooBar2 was null. What I am experiencing from the strongly typed partial view is an error that says "This view expected a model of type FooBar2 but got a model of type FooBarHolder." Why is this happening instead of just passing in a null?

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