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• Best (functional?) programming language to learn coming from Mathematica

  - by Will Robertson

  As a mechanical engineering PhD student, I haven't had a great pedigree in programming as part of my “day job”. I started out in Matlab (having written some Hypercard and Applescript back in the day, and being introduced to Ada, of all things, in my 1st undergrad year), learned to program—if you can call it that—in (La)TeX; and finally discovered and fell for Mathematica. Now I'm interested in learning a "real" programming language that I can enjoy in the same sort of style as Mathematica, which tries to stress functional programming since it seems to map more nicely to how certain kinds of mathematics can be written algorithmically. So which functional language should I learn? I guess the obvious answer is “as many as possible”, but let's start out humble and give a single, well-considered option a good crack. I've heard good things about, say, Haskell and Scala, but I wonder if (given my non–computer science background) I'd be better off starting in more “grounded” territory and going with Ruby or Python (the latter having the big advantage of being used for Sage, which I'd also like to investigate…after my PhD). Well, I guess this is pretty subjective, so perhaps I could rephrase: would it be better to start looking at Haskell (say) straight after an ad-hoc education to functional programming in Mathematica, or will I get more out of learning Python (say) first? In reference to the question "what do I want to do with it?", I guess my answer is "fun, and learning more". I've got this list of languages that I'd like to look at, and I don't know how to trim them down. And I'd rather start with something a little higher-level than C simply so that I can be somewhat productive without having to re-invent many wheels for any code I'd like to write.

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• Multidimensional Array To Mysql Codeigniter

  - by rochellecanale

  A little help how can I create an input query using this array? Or how can I pass it in the table? my table layout sample is this: sales_table id | product_name | price | qty | subtotal This is derived from the var_dump() function. Here is my code in array //array code from unserialized function $products = unserialize($this->session->userdata('product_list')); //This is the output. Array ( [2] => Array ( [id] => 2 [product_name] => NOKIA 5110 [product_desc] => Cellphone [product_price] => 500.00 [product_qty] => 1 [product_amount] => 500 [product_code] => NOKI2012-84353 ) [3] => Array ( [id] => 3 [product_name] => HP IPAQ RW6828 [product_desc] => Cellphone [product_price] => 1500.00 [product_qty] => 1 [product_amount] => 1500 [product_code] => HP I2012-08386 ) )

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• operator overloading and inheritance

  - by user168715

  I was given the following code: class FibHeapNode { //... // These all have trivial implementation virtual void operator =(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator ==(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator <(FibHeapNode& RHS); }; class Event : public FibHeapNode { // These have nontrivial implementation virtual void operator=(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator==(FibHeapNode& RHS); virtual int operator<(FibHeapNode& RHS); }; class FibHeap { //... int DecreaseKey(FibHeapNode *theNode, FibHeapNode& NewKey) { FibHeapNode *theParent; // Some code if (theParent != NULL && *theNode < *theParent) { //... } //... return 1; } }; Much of FibHeap's implementation is similar: FibHeapNode pointers are dereferenced and then compared. Why does this code work? (or is it buggy?) I would think that the virtuals here would have no effect: since *theNode and *theParent aren't pointer or reference types, no dynamic dispatch occurs and FibHeapNode::operator< gets called no matter what's written in Event.

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• Get element id on hover (or mouseover)

  - by Peter C

  Still getting to grips with jQuery and I am pleased to have got as far as I have, especially help from the posts in this forum. However, now got to a working function that does what I want, that is to create a radio group that looks like a button. It pulls data via json and loops through creating the radio buttons. I want to get the id of the radio buttons generated so that I can then parse through to the next step of the app but I can't get it to work. function FillDiv(groups, side) { var cnt = 1; var newClass = ''; var newType = ''; if (side == '#ck-button-left') { newClass = 'leftClass'; newType = 'radio' } else { newClass = 'rightClass'; newType = 'checkbox' } $.each(groups, function (index, groups) { $(side) .append( $(document.createElement('label')).attr({ id: cnt + 'lbl' }) ); $('#' + cnt + 'lbl') .append( $(document.createElement('input')).attr({ id: groups.GroupCode, type: newType, name: 'testGroup', class: newClass }) ); $('#' + groups.GroupCode).after ( $(document.createElement('span')).text(groups.GroupName).attr('class', 'leftSpan') ); $('#' + cnt + 'lbl').after($(document.createElement('br'))); cnt = cnt + 1; }); } Looking through various searched, it should work with something like... $('#leftSpan').mouseover(function () { $('#lblOutput').html(this.id); }); or, as I suspect, it is something to do with the nesting of the label/input that I need to reference the parent or child. Any pointers would be appreciated.

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• Actionscript - combining AS2 assets into a single SWF

  - by Justin Bachorik

  Hi guys, I have a flash project that I'm trying to export as a single SWF. There's a main SWF file that loads about 6 other SWFs, and both the main and the child SWFs reference other external assets (images, sounds, etc). I'd like to package everything as a single .swf file so I don't have to tote the other assets around with the .swf. All the coding is done in the timeline, but the assets haven't been imported into the Flash Authoring environment and I don't have time to do that right now (there are too many references to them everywhere). I'm hoping that there's just an option I'm missing that allows this sort of packaged export, but I haven't found anything like that. I don't have access to Flex or mxmlc (and as the AS is timeline-based, they wouldn't necessarily help me). Any thoughts? Thanks! PS...if there's no way of doing exactly what I'm saying, I could deal with having all the assets in a "assets" folder or something like that, so I'd just be toting around main.swf and an assets folder. The problem here is that all the references to the assets assume that they're in the same folder as the main.swf file, so everything's assumed to be local...is there a way to change the scope of all external references in Flash (so, for example, all local references in the code are actually searched in /assets)?

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• Permission Denied error in IE when closing popups

  - by Kenia

  Hi everyone! I have a simple web testing application which is supposed to open and close several popups by itself (without user interaction). For this purpose i have a javascript function to access the variable where the popup reference is stored and close it if it´s not null, fairly simple. However I get random errors in IE (in FF it works as expected, all popups are closed correctly) like Message: No such interface supported Line: 86 Char: 3 Code: 0 URI: http://10.10.0.61:10000/savmailer/adm/tests/common_tests_code.js and Message: Permission denied Line: 86 Char: 3 Code: 0 URI: http://10.10.0.61:10000/savmailer/adm/tests/common_tests_code.js The line 86 references exactly the point at which I do popup.close(); in the following function function closePopupWindow(popup){ if (popup != null) { popup.close(); popup = null; } } I have googled and it seems this permission denied error is quite common to come through among IE developers, however there´s no clear solution for it, it´s just a matter of changing the code slightly "to please" IE, so to speak. However i have no idea how to change mine since it´s just 3 lines! Tried also to change the security browser settings by adding my domain to the trusted zone, but nothing, doesn't help either. If anyone has any helpful idea or notices something i might be forgetting, please, reply to this! Thanks in advance, Kenia

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• Templates, Function Pointers and C++0x

  - by user328543

  One of my personal experiments to understand some of the C++0x features: I'm trying to pass a function pointer to a template function to execute. Eventually the execution is supposed to happen in a different thread. But with all the different types of functions, I can't get the templates to work. #include `<functional`> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 4;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> int func(C&& c) { //typedef typename std::result_of< C() >::type result_type; typedef typename std::conditional< std::is_pointer< C >::value, std::result_of< C() >::type, std::conditional< std::is_object< C >::value, std::result_of< typename C::operator() >::type, void> >::type result_type; result_type result = c(); return result; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); // call with a member function bar b; func(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 12;} ); return 0; } The result_of template alone doesn't seem to be able to find the operator() in class bar and the clunky conditional I created doesn't compile. Any ideas? Will I have additional problems with const functions?

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• [OpenCV] What do the "left" and "right" values mean in the haar cascade xml files?

  - by user117046

  In OpenCV's haar cascade files, what are the "left" and "right" values, and how does this refer to the "threshold" value? Thanks! Just for reference, here's the structure of the files: <haarcascade_frontalface_alt type_id="opencv-haar-classifier"> <size>20 20</size> <stages> <_> <!-- stage 0 --> <trees> <_> <!-- tree 0 --> <_> <!-- root node --> <feature> <rects> <_>3 7 14 4 -1.</_> <_>3 9 14 2 2.</_></rects> <tilted>0</tilted></feature> <threshold>4.0141958743333817e-003</threshold> <left_val>0.0337941907346249</left_val> <right_val>0.8378106951713562</right_val></_></_> <_>

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• C#: Determine Type for (De-)Serialization

  - by dbemerlin

  Hi, i have a little problem implementing some serialization/deserialization logic. I have several classes that each take a different type of Request object, all implementing a common interface and inheriting from a default implementation: This is how i think it should be: Requests interface IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class DefaultRequest : IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class LoginRequest : DefaultRequest { public String User {get;set;} public String Pass {get;set;} } Handlers interface IHandler<T> { public Type GetRequestType(); public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request); } class DefaultHandler<T> : IHandler<T> // Used as fallback if the handler cannot be determined { public Type GetRequestType() { return /* ....... how to get the Type of T? ((new T()).GetType()) ? .......... */ } public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request) { /* ... */ } } class LoginHandler : DefaultHandler<LoginRequest> { public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel mode, LoginRequest request) { } } Calling class Controller { public ProcessRequest(String action, String serializedRequest) { IHandler handler = GetHandlerForAction(action); IRequest request = serializer.Deserialize<handler.GetRequestType()>(serializedRequest); handler(this.Model, request); } } Is what i think of even possible? My current Solution is that each handler gets the serialized String and is itself responsible for deserialization. This is not a good solution as it contains duplicate code, the beginning of each HandleRequest method looks the same (FooRequest request = Deserialize(serializedRequest); + try/catch and other Error Handling on failed deserialization). Embedding type information into the serialized Data is not possible and not intended. Thanks for any Hints.

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• Passing mix of T and T[] to a Java varargs method

  - by rfalke

  Suppose you have a Java method void foobar(int id, String ... args) and want to pass both String arrays and Strings into the method. Like this String arr1[]={"adas", "adasda"}; String arr2[]={"adas", "adasda"}; foobar(0, "adsa", "asdas"); foobar(1, arr1); foobar(2, arr1, arr2); foobar(3, arr1, "asdas", arr2); In Python there is "*" for this. Is there some way better than such rather ugly helper method: static String[] concat(Object... args) { List<String> result = new ArrayList<String>(); for (Object arg : args) { if (arg instanceof String) { String s = (String) arg; result.add(s); } else if (arg.getClass().isArray() && arg.getClass().getComponentType().equals(String.class)) { String arr[] = (String[]) arg; for (String s : arr) { result.add(s); } } else { throw new RuntimeException(); } } return result.toArray(new String[result.size()]); } which allows foobar(4, concat(arr1, "asdas", arr2));

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• Get parameter values from method at run time

  - by Landin Martens

  I have the current method example: public void MethodName(string param1,int param2) { object[] obj = new object[] { (object) param1, (object) param2 }; //Code to that uses this array to invoke dynamic methods } Is there a dynamic way (I am guessing using reflection) that will get the current executing method parameter values and place them in a object array? I have read that you can get parameter information using MethodBase and MethodInfo but those only have information about the parameter and not the value it self which is what I need. So for example if I pass "test" and 1 as method parameters without coding for the specific parameters can I get a object array with two indexes { "test", 1 }? I would really like to not have to use a third party API, but if it has source code for that API then I will accept that as an answer as long as its not a huge API and there is no simple way to do it without this API. I am sure there must be a way, maybe using the stack, who knows. You guys are the experts and that is why I come here. Thank you in advance, I can't wait to see how this is done. EDIT It may not be clear so here some extra information. This code example is just that, an example to show what I want. It would be to bloated and big to show the actual code where it is needed but the question is how to get the array without manually creating one. I need to some how get the values and place them in a array without coding the specific parameters.

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• jquery .children() returning wrong size

  - by i need help

  Hi guys, I just found the children size not consistent. Below attach full code with alert, for easy reference. Is the way I get the data wrong? <body> <table width="100" border="0" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr> <td height="30" valign="top"><strong>Header Title</strong></td> </tr> <tr> <td height="32" valign="top">Date : <strong>01/01/2010 </strong> <br><div><b></b></div><span></span></td> </tr> </table> </body> $("td").each(function() { alert($(this).children().size()); }); //first td showing 1 direct children- <strong> //second td showing 4 direct children- <strong> <br> <div> <span> ----- $("tr").each(function() { alert($(this).children().size()); }); //first tr showing 1 direct children - <td> //second tr showing 1 direct children - <td> ----- $("table").each(function() { alert($(this).children().size()); }); // ERROR // this table showing 1 direct children only.... something WRONG. // I thought there are 2 <tr> inside this table?

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• Java redirected system output to jtext area, doesnt update until calculation is finished

  - by user1806716

  I have code that redirects system output to a jtext area, but that jtextarea doesnt update until the code is finished running. How do I modify the code to make the jtextarea update in real time during runtime? private void updateTextArea(final String text) { SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { consoleTextAreaInner.append(text); } }); } private void redirectSystemStreams() { OutputStream out = new OutputStream() { @Override public void write(int b) throws IOException { updateTextArea(String.valueOf((char) b)); } @Override public void write(byte[] b, int off, int len) throws IOException { updateTextArea(new String(b, off, len)); } @Override public void write(byte[] b) throws IOException { write(b, 0, b.length); } }; System.setOut(new PrintStream(out, true)); System.setErr(new PrintStream(out, true)); } The rest of the code is mainly just an actionlistener for a button: private void updateButtonActionPerformed(java.awt.event.ActionEvent evt) { // TODO add your handling code here: String shopRoot = this.shopRootDirTxtField.getText(); String updZipPath = this.updateZipTextField.getText(); this.mainUpdater = new ShopUpdater(new File(shopRoot), updZipPath); this.mainUpdater.update(); } That update() method begins the process of copying+pasting files on the file system and during that process uses system.out.println to provide an up-to-date status on where the program is currently at in reference to how many more files it has to copy.

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• How to get the value of an XML element using Linq even when empty.

  - by Yeodave

  Please excuse my stupidity, I tend to find the traversing XML overly complicated. I am using ASP.NET in VB. I have an XML document which contains all the details of staff in my company... <staff> <staffName>Test Staff</staffName> <staffTitle>Slave</staffTitle> <staffDepartmentName>Finance</staffDepartmentName> <staffOffice>London</staffOffice> <staffEmail>[email protected]</staffEmail> <staffPhone>0207 123 456</staffPhone> <staffNotes>Working hours Mon to Thurs 9.15 - 5.15</staffNotes> <staffBio></staffBio> </staff> As you can see, some nodes do not always contain data for ever member of staff; only Directors have biographies. I access the values like this... For Each staff In ( _ From matches In myXMLFile.Descendants("staff").Descendants("staffName") _ Where matches.Nodes(0).ToString.ToLower.Contains(LCase(search)) _ Order By matches.Value _ Select matches) staffName = staff.Descendants("staffName").Nodes(0).ToString) staffTitle = staff.Descendants("staffTitle").Nodes(0).ToString) staffOffice = staff.Descendants("staffOffice").Nodes(0).ToString) staffEmail = staff.Descendants("staffEmail").Nodes(0).ToString) staffPhone = staff.Descendants("staffPhone").Nodes(0).ToString) staffNotes = staff.Descendants("staffNotes").Nodes(0).ToString) staffBio = staff.Descendants("staffBio").Nodes(0).ToString) ' Do something with that data... Next Once it gets to staffBio I get an error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." obviously because that node does not exist. My question is how can I assign the value to a variable even when it is empty without having to do a conditional check before each assignment?

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• How do I delete duplicates between two excel sheets quickly vba

  - by MainTank

  I am using vba and I have two sheets one is named "Do Not Call" and has about 800,000 rows of data in column A. I want to use this data to check column I in the second sheet, named "Sheet1". If it finds a match I want it to delete the whole row in "Sheet1". I have tailored the code I have found from a similar question here: Excel formula to Cross reference 2 sheets, remove duplicates from one sheet and ran it but nothing happens. I am not getting any errors but it is not functioning. Here is the code I am currently trying and have no idea why it is not working Option Explicit Sub CleanDupes() Dim wsA As Worksheet Dim wsB As Worksheet Dim keyColA As String Dim keyColB As String Dim rngA As Range Dim rngB As Range Dim intRowCounterA As Integer Dim intRowCounterB As Integer Dim strValueA As String keyColA = "A" keyColB = "I" intRowCounterA = 1 intRowCounterB = 1 Set wsA = Worksheets("Do Not Call") Set wsB = Worksheets("Sheet1") Dim dict As Object Set dict = CreateObject("Scripting.Dictionary") Do While Not IsEmpty(wsA.Range(keyColA & intRowCounterA).Value) Set rngA = wsA.Range(keyColA & intRowCounterA) strValueA = rngA.Value If Not dict.Exists(strValueA) Then dict.Add strValueA, 1 End If intRowCounterA = intRowCounterA + 1 Loop intRowCounterB = 1 Do While Not IsEmpty(wsB.Range(keyColB & intRowCounterB).Value) Set rngB = wsB.Range(keyColB & intRowCounterB) If dict.Exists(rngB.Value) Then wsB.Rows(intRowCounterB).delete intRowCounterB = intRowCounterB - 1 End If intRowCounterB = intRowCounterB + 1 Loop End Sub I apologize if the above code is not in a code tag. This is my first time posting code online and I have no idea if I did it correctly.

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• GNU Makefile: multiple outputs from single rule + preventing intermediate files from being deleted

  - by makesaurus

  This is sort of a continuation of question from link text. The problem is that there is a rule generating multiple outputs from a single input, and the command is time-consuming so we would prefer to avoid recomputation. Now there is an additional twist, that we want to keep files from being deleted as intermediate files, and rules involve wildcards to allow for parameters. The solution suggested was that we set up the following rule: file-a.out: program file.in ./program file.in file-a.out file-b.out file-c.out file-b.out: file-a.out @ file-c.out: file-b.out @ Then, calling make file-c.out creates both and we avoid issues with running make in parallel with -j switch. All fine so far. The problem is the following. Because the above solution sets up a chain in the DAG, make considers it differently; the files file-a.out and file-b.out are treated as intermediate files, and they by default get deleted as unnecessary as soon as file-c.out is ready. A way of avoiding that was mentioned somewhere here, and consists of adding file-a.out and file-b.out as dependencies of a target .SECONDARY, which keeps them from being deleted. Unfortunately, this does not solve my case because my rules use wildcard patters; specifically, my rules look more like this: file-a-%.out: program file.in ./program $* file.in file-a-$*.out file-b-$*.out file-c-$*.out file-b-%.out: file-a-%.out @ file-c-%.out: file-b-%.out @ so that one can pass a parameter that gets included in the file name, for example by running make file-c-12.out The solution that make documentation suggests is to add these as implicit rules to the list of dependencies of .PRECIOUS, thus keeping these files from being deleted. The solution with .PRECIOUS works, but it also prevents these files from being deleted when a rule fails and files are incomplete. Is there any other way to make this work?

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• Why does reusing arrays increase performance so significantly in c#?

  - by Willem

  In my code, I perform a large number of tasks, each requiring a large array of memory to temporarily store data. I have about 500 tasks. At the beginning of each task, I allocate memory for an array : double[] tempDoubleArray = new double[M]; M is a large number depending on the precise task, typically around 2000000. Now, I do some complex calculations to fill the array, and in the end I use the array to determine the result of this task. After that, the tempDoubleArray goes out of scope. Profiling reveals that the calls to construct the arrays are time consuming. So, I decide to try and reuse the array, by making it static and reusing it. It requires some additional juggling to figure out the minimum size of the array, requiring an extra pass through all tasks, but it works. Now, the program is much faster (from 80 sec to 22 sec for execution of all tasks). double[] tempDoubleArray = staticDoubleArray; However, I'm a bit in the dark of why precisely this works so well. Id say that in the original code, when the tempDoubleArray goes out of scope, it can be collected, so allocating a new array should not be that hard right? I ask this because understanding why it works might help me figuring out other ways to achieve the same effect, and because I would like to know in what cases allocation gives performance issues.

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• UpdateModelFromDatabaseException when trying to add a table to Entity Framework model

  - by Agent_9191

  I'm running into a weird issue with Entity Framework in .NET 3.5 SP1 within Visual Studio 2008. I created a database with a few tables in SQL Server and then created the associated .edmx Entity Framework model and had no issues. I then created a new table in the database that has a foreign key to an existing table and needed to be added to the .edmx. So I opened the .edmx in Visual Studio and in the models right-clicked and chose "Update Model From Database...". I saw the new table in the "add" tab, so I checked it and clicked finish. However I get an error message with the following text: --------------------------- Microsoft Visual Studio --------------------------- An exception of type 'Microsoft.Data.Entity.Design.Model.Commands.UpdateModelFromDatabaseException' occurred while attempting to update from the database. The exception message is: 'Cannot update from the database. Cannot resolve the Name Target for ScalarProperty 'ID <==> CustomerID'.'. --------------------------- OK --------------------------- For reference, here's the tables seem to be the most pertinent to the error. CustomerPreferences already exists in the .edmx. Diets is the table that was added afterwards and trying to add to the .edmx. CREATE TABLE [dbo].[CustomerPreferences]( [ID] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [LastUpdatedTime] [datetime] NOT NULL, [LastUpdatedBy] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [ID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Diets]( [ID] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [CustomerID] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Description] [nvarchar](50) NOT NULL, [LastUpdatedTime] [datetime] NOT NULL, [LastUpdatedBy] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [ID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Diets] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Diets_CustomerPreferences] FOREIGN KEY([CustomerID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[CustomerPreferences] ([ID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Diets] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_Diets_CustomerPreferences] GO This seems like a fairly common use case, so I'm not sure where I'm going wrong.

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• Can a conforming C# compiler optimize away a local (but unused) variable if it is the only strong re

  - by stakx

  The title says it all, but let me explain: void Case_1() { var weakRef = new WeakReference(new object()); GC.Collect(); // <-- doesn't have to be an explicit call; just assume that // garbage collection would occur at this point. if (weakRef.IsAlive) ... } In this code example, I obviously have to plan for the possibility that the new'ed object is reclaimed by the garbage collector; therefore the if statement. (Note that I'm using weakRef for the sole purpose of checking if the new'ed object is still around.) void Case_2() { var unusedLocalVar = new object(); var weakRef = new WeakReference(unusedLocalVar); GC.Collect(); // <-- doesn't have to be an explicit call; just assume that // garbage collection would occur at this point. Debug.Assert(weakReferenceToUseless.IsAlive); } The main change in this code example from the previous one is that the new'ed object is strongly referenced by a local variable (unusedLocalVar). However, this variable is never used again after the weak reference (weakRef) has been created. Question: Is a conforming C# compiler allowed to optimize the first two lines of Case_2 into those of Case_1 if it sees that unusedLocalVar is only used in one place, namely as an argument to the WeakReference constructor? i.e. is there any possibility that the assertion in Case_2 could ever fail?

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• Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. MS SQL Server

  - by geekzlla

  I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID)? nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 xORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

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• Testing paginated UIScrollView on iPad

  - by Piotr Czapla

  I'm creating a magazine reader (something like iGizmo on iPad). I have two scrollviews one that paginate over articles and second to paginate inside of an article through pages. I'd like to check memory usage of my app after scrolling through 20 pages. To do so I decided to create an automated ui test that scrolls 20 times right and the check the memory foot print at the end of the test. I need that info to have some metrics before I start optimizing the memory usage And Here is the thing: I can't make the ui automation to pass to the second page. My automation code looks like that: var window = UIATarget.localTarget().frontMostApp().mainWindow(); var articleScrollView = window.scrollViews()[0]; articleScrollView.scrollRight(); // do you know any command to wait until first scrolls ends? articleScrollView.scrollRight(); // this one doesn't work I guess that I need to wait for the first scorlling to end before I can run another one, but I don't know how to do that as each page is just an image. (I don't have anything else on pages yet) Any idea?

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• How to strongly type properties in JavaScript that map to models in C# ?

  - by Roberto Sebestyen

  I'm not even sure if I worded the question right, but I'll try and explain as clearly as possible with an example: In the following example scenario: 1) Take a class such as this: public class foo { public string firstName {get;set;} public string lastName {get;set} } 2) Serialize that into JSON, pass it over the wire to the Browser. 3) Browser de-serializes this and turns the JSON into a JavaScript object so that you can then access the properties like this: var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.firstName); alert(foo.lastName); What if now a new developer comes along working on this project decides that firstName is no longer a suitable property name. Lets say they use ReSharper to rename this property, since ReSharper does a pretty good job at finding (almost) all the references to the property and renaming them appropriately. However ReSharper will not be able to rename the references within the JavaScript code (#3) since it has no way of knowing that these also really mean the same thing. Which means the programmer is left with the responsibility of manually finding these references and renaming those too. The risk is that if this is forgotten, no one will know about this error until someone tests that part of the code, or worse, slip through to the customer. Back to the actual question: I have been trying to think of a solution to this to some how strongly type these property names when used in javascript, so that a tool like ReSharper can successfully rename ALL usages of the property? Here is what I have been thinking for example (This would obviously not work unless i make some kind of static properties) var foo = deSerialize("*******the JSON from above**************"); alert(foo.<%=foo.firstName.GetPropertyName()%>) alert(foo.<%=foo.lastName.GetPropertyName()%>) But that is obviously not practical. Does anyone have any thoughts on this? Thanks, and kudos to all of the talented people answering questions on this site.

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• Icons in menu are smaller than they should be

  - by martinpelant

  Hello I have a little problem. All the icons in my apk are smaller than the same icons in other apps (Gmail etc.) This is how it looks like in my apk and this is the same icon in Gmail.apk. I have copied these icons directly from SDK to the specific folders for hdpi, mdpi and ldpi. Here is an example of a hdpi icon I use and my menu.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <menu xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:id="@+id/refresh" android:title="@string/refresh" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_refresh" /> <item android:id="@+id/add" android:title="@string/add" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_add" /> <item android:id="@+id/login" android:title="@string/account" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_login" /> </menu> Does anybody know how to make these icon have the same size as in other apk's? I have tried the asset studio with no effect. UPDATE: If I reference an icon directly from android (android:drawable) then it has normal size. However not all icons can be referenced.

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• Integration test for H1 text failing when it should be passing (Rspec and Capybara)

  - by rebec

  Below you can see my test for what happens when a user tries to access the page to edit a profile photo that they don't own. I've used the same test on the NEW action, where it worked fine, but it surprised me by failing when I copied it down to the EDIT action tests. I've used save_and_open_page to test what Capybara's seeing (as you can see below); the resulting page definitely has an h1 with the specified text in it. No spelling errors, and case is all the same as in the test. I've tried using both have_css and have_selector. Both fail. I'm still learning Ruby, Rails, Rspec and especially Capybara (was using webrat previously and recently switched over), and wonder if I'm misconceiving of something that's making me expect this to pass when it doesn't. Any thoughts? Thanks! describe "EDIT" do let(:user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user) } let(:different_user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user) } let(:admin_user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user, role: "admin") } let(:profile_photo1) { FactoryGirl.create(:profile_photo, user: user) } subject { page } context "when signed in as any member" do before { login different_user visit edit_user_profile_photo_path(:id => profile_photo1, :user_id => profile_photo1.user_id) save_and_open_page } # It should deny access with an Unauthorised/Forbidden message. it { should have_css('h1', text: "Unauthorised/Forbidden.") } end

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• How can I get a list of modified records from a SQL Server database?

  - by Pixelfish

  I am currently in the process of revamping my company's management system to run a little more lean in terms of network traffic. Right now I'm trying to figure out an effective way to query only the records that have been modified (by any user) since the last time I asked. When the application starts it loads the job information and caches it locally like the following: SELECT * FROM jobs. I am writing out the date/time a record was modified ala UPDATE jobs SET Widgets=@Widgets, LastModified=GetDate() WHERE JobID=@JobID. When any user requests the list of jobs I query all records that have been modified since the last time I requested the list like the following: SELECT * FROM jobs WHERE LastModified>=@LastRequested and store the date/time of the request to pass in as @LastRequest when the user asks again. In theory this will return only the records that have been modified since the last request. The issue I'm running into is when the user's date/time is not quite in sync with the server's date/time and also of server load when querying an un-indexed date/time column. Is there a more effective system then querying date/time information?

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