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  • SignalR recording when a Web Page has closed

    - by Benjamin Rogers
    I am using MassTransit request and response with SignalR. The web site makes a request to a windows service that creates a file. When the file has been created the windows service will send a response message back to the web site. The web site will open the file and make it available for the users to see. I want to handle the scenario where the user closes the web page before the file is created. In that case I want the created file to be emailed to them. Regardless of whether the user has closed the web page or not, the message handler for the response message will be run. What I want to be able to do is have some way of knowing within the response message handler that the web page has been closed. This is what I have done already. It doesnt work but it does illustrate my thinking. On the web page I have $(window).unload(function () { if (event.clientY < 0) { // $.connection.hub.stop(); $.connection.exportcreate.setIsDisconnected(); } }); exportcreate is my Hub name. In setIsDisconnected would I set a property on Caller? Lets say I successfully set a property to indicate that the web page has been closed. How do I find out that value in the response message handler. This is what it does now protected void BasicResponseHandler(BasicResponse message) { string groupName = CorrelationIdGroupName(message.CorrelationId); GetClients()[groupName].display(message.ExportGuid); } private static dynamic GetClients() { return AspNetHost.DependencyResolver.Resolve<IConnectionManager>().GetClients<ExportCreateHub>(); } I am using the message correlation id as a group. Now for me the ExportGuid on the message is very important. That is used to identify the file. So if I am going to email the created file I have to do it within the response handler because I need the ExportGuid value. If I did store a value on Caller in my hub for the web page close, how would I access it in the response handler. Just in case you need to know. display is defined on the web page as exportCreate.display = function (guid) { setTimeout(function () { top.location.href = 'GetExport.ashx?guid=' + guid; }, 500); }; GetExport.ashx opens the file and returns it as a response. Thank you, Regards Ben

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  • C# Begin/EndReceive - how do I read large data?

    - by ryeguy
    When reading data in chunks of say, 1024, how do I continue to read from a socket that receives a message bigger than 1024 bytes until there is no data left? Should I just use BeginReceive to read a packet's length prefix only, and then once that is retrieved, use Receive() (in the async thread) to read the rest of the packet? Or is there another way? edit: I thought Jon Skeet's link had the solution, but there is a bit of a speedbump with that code. The code I used is: public class StateObject { public Socket workSocket = null; public const int BUFFER_SIZE = 1024; public byte[] buffer = new byte[BUFFER_SIZE]; public StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); } public static void Read_Callback(IAsyncResult ar) { StateObject so = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket s = so.workSocket; int read = s.EndReceive(ar); if (read > 0) { so.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(so.buffer, 0, read)); if (read == StateObject.BUFFER_SIZE) { s.BeginReceive(so.buffer, 0, StateObject.BUFFER_SIZE, 0, new AyncCallback(Async_Send_Receive.Read_Callback), so); return; } } if (so.sb.Length > 0) { //All of the data has been read, so displays it to the console string strContent; strContent = so.sb.ToString(); Console.WriteLine(String.Format("Read {0} byte from socket" + "data = {1} ", strContent.Length, strContent)); } s.Close(); } Now this corrected works fine most of the time, but it fails when the packet's size is a multiple of the buffer. The reason for this is if the buffer gets filled on a read it is assumed there is more data; but the same problem happens as before. A 2 byte buffer, for exmaple, gets filled twice on a 4 byte packet, and assumes there is more data. It then blocks because there is nothing left to read. The problem is that the receive function doesn't know when the end of the packet is. This got me thinking to two possible solutions: I could either have an end-of-packet delimiter or I could read the packet header to find the length and then receive exactly that amount (as I originally suggested). There's problems with each of these, though. I don't like the idea of using a delimiter, as a user could somehow work that into a packet in an input string from the app and screw it up. It also just seems kinda sloppy to me. The length header sounds ok, but I'm planning on using protocol buffers - I don't know the format of the data. Is there a length header? How many bytes is it? Would this be something I implement myself? Etc.. What should I do?

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  • Is the design notion of layers contrived?

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I'm reading through Eric Evans' awesome work, Domain-Driven Design. However, I can't help feeling that the 'layers' model is contrived. To expand on that statement, it seems as if it tries to shoe-horn various concepts into a specific, neat model, that of layers talking to each other. It seems to me that the layers model is too simplified to actually capture the way that (good) software works. To expand further: Evans says: "Partition a complex program into layers. Develop a design within each layer that is cohesive and that depends only on the layers below. Follow standard architectural patterns to provide loose coupling to the layers above." Maybe I'm misunderstanding what 'depends' means, but as far as I can see, it can either mean a) Class X (in the UI for example) has a reference to a concrete class Y (in the main application) or b) Class X has a reference to a class Y-ish object providing class Y-ish services (ie a reference held as an interface). If it means (a), then this is clearly a bad thing, since it defeats re-using the UI as a front-end to some other application that provides Y-ish functionality. But if it means (b), then how is the UI any more dependent on the application, than the application is dependent on the UI? Both are decoupled from each other as much as they can be while still talking to each other. Evans' layer model of dependencies going one way seems too neat. First, isn't it more accurate to say that each area of the design provides a module that is pretty much an island to itself, and that ideally all communication is through interfaces, in a contract-driven/responsibility-driven paradigm? (ie, the 'dependency only on lower layers' is contrived). Likewise with the domain layer talking to the database - the domain layer is as decoupled (through DAO etc) from the database as the database is from the domain layer. Neither is dependent on the other, both can be swapped out. Second, the idea of a conceptual straight line (as in from one layer to the next) is artificial - isn't there more a network of intercommunicating but separate modules, including external services, utility services and so on, branching off at different angles? Thanks all - hoping that your responses can clarify my understanding on this..

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  • Merging two XML files into one XML file using Java

    - by dmurali
    I am stuck with how to proceed with combining two different XML files(which has the same structure). When I was doing some research on it, people say that XML parsers like DOM or StAX will have to be used. But cant I do it with the regular IOStream? I am currently trying to do with the help of IOStream but this is not solving my purpose, its being more complex. For example, What I have tried is; public class GUI { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { // Creates file to write to Writer output = null; output = new BufferedWriter(new FileWriter("C:\\merged.xml")); String newline = System.getProperty("line.separator"); output.write(""); // Read in xml file 1 FileInputStream in = new FileInputStream("C:\\1.xml"); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(in)); String strLine; while ((strLine = br.readLine()) != null) { if (strLine.contains("<MemoryDump>")){ strLine = strLine.replace("<MemoryDump>", "xmlns:xsi"); } if (strLine.contains("</MemoryDump>")){ strLine = strLine.replace("</MemoryDump>", "xmlns:xsd"); } output.write(newline); output.write(strLine); System.out.println(strLine); } // Read in xml file 2 FileInputStream in = new FileInputStream("C:\\2.xml"); BufferedReader br1 = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(in)); String strLine1; while ((strLine1 = br1.readLine()) != null) { if (strLine1.contains("<MemoryDump>")){ strLine1 = strLine1.replace("<MemoryDump>", ""); } if (strLine1.contains("</MemoryDump>")){ strLine1 = strLine1.replace("</MemoryDump>", ""); } output.write(newline); output.write(strLine1); I request you to kindly let me know how do I proceed with merging two XML files by adding additional content as well. It would be great if you could provide me some example links as well..! Thank You in Advance..! System.out.println(strLine1); } }

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  • Problem deploying Rails with Passenger to Mac OS X Leopard Server

    - by Meltemi
    I'm spinning my wheels... Apache is working and serving static html, png, etc. normally. Trying to get Passenger to serve a rails app out of www.mydomain.com/rails/ as it stands when i try to hit my app: www.mydomain.com/rails/myapp/railsclassname I get only an Apache 403 Errors. Nothing in myapp's Production Log. Apache2 access.log: "GET /rails/ HTTP/1.1" 403 1085 Apache2 error.log: [Fri Jun 11 22:44:01 2010] [error] [client 10.0.1.41] File does not exist: /Library/WebServer/wwwroot/rails/railsclassname i've even tried www.mydomain.com/myapp/classname Passenger, obviously, isn't routing requests made into my sub-folder rails/ to my rails app. not sure where i've screwed up. the most obvious thing is "Passenger doesn't seem to be running"... instructions I've followed just say to sudo apachectl graceful, which i've done (as well as stopped/started). new to this so go easy on me! Here's some info that might be helpful. happy to provide more as needed... As per some instruction @ Passenger site i've created a symlink from /Library/WebServer/myapp/rails - /Library/WebServer/rails/myapp/public myhost:myapp joe$ passenger-config --root /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.14 myhost:myapp joe$ passenger-status ERROR: Phusion Passenger doesn't seem to be running. apollo:myapp joe$ cat /etc/httpd/httpd.conf ... <removed for brevity> ... # Copied From Passenger Installer LoadModule passenger_module /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.14/ext/apache2/mod_passenger.so PassengerRoot /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.14 PassengerRuby /System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/1.8/usr/bin/ruby # End Passenger Installer NameVirtualHost * <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName www.mydomain.com DocumentRoot /Library/WebServer/rails/myapp/public # <-- be sure to point to 'public'! RackBaseURI /rails <Directory /Library/WebServer/rails/myapp/public> AllowOverride all # <-- relax Apache security settings Options -MultiViews # <-- MultiViews must be turned off order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> This last bit from NameVirtualHost on is pieced together from a number of online material i've found...as i've been desperately trying to find something/anything that'll show Passenger at least has a pulse!?!

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  • Using OpenID as the only authentication method

    - by iconiK
    I have read the other questions and they mostly talk about the security of doing so. That's not entirely my concern, mostly because the website is question is a browser-based game. However, the larger issue is the user - not every user is literate enough to understand OpenID. Sure RPX makes this pretty easy, which is what I'll use, but what if the user does not have an account at Google or Facebook or whatever, or does not trust the system to log in with an existing account? They'd have to get an account at another provide - I'm sure most will know how to do it, let alone be bothered to do it. There is also the problem of how to manage it in the application. A user might want to use multiple identities with a single account, so it's not as simple as username + password to deal with. How do I store the OpenID identities of a user in the database? Using OpenID gives me a benefit too: RPX can provide extensive profile information, so I can just prefill the profile form and ask the user to edit as required. I currently have this: UserID Email ------ --------------- 86000 [email protected] 86001 [email protected] UserOpenID OpenID ---------- ------ 86000 16733 86001 16839 86002 19361 OpenID Provider Identifier ------ -------- ---------------- 16733 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bob#d36bd 16839 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bigbobby#x75af 19361 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\alice#c19fd Is that the right way to store OpenID identifiers in the database? How would I match the identifier RPX gave me with one in the database to log in the user (if the identifier is known). So here are concrete questions: How would I make it accessible to users not having an OpenID or not wanting to use one? (security concerns over say, logging in with their Google account for example) How do I store the identifier in the database? (I'm not sure if the tables above are right) What measures do I need to take in order to prevent someone from logging in as another user and happily doing anything with their account? (as I understand RPX sends the identifier via HTTP, so what anyone would have to do is to just somehow grab it then enter it in the "OpenID" field) What else do I need to be aware of when using OpenID?

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  • Really "wow" them in the interview

    - by Juliet
    Let me put it to you this way: I'm a top-notch programmer, but a notoriously bad interviewee. I've flunked 3 interviews consecutively because I get so nervous that my voice tightens at least 2 octaves higher and I start visibly shaking -- mind you, I can handle whatever technical questions the interviewer throws at me in that state, but I think it looks bad to come off as a quivering, squeaky-voiced young woman during a job interview. I've just got the personality type of a shy computer programmer. No matter how technical I am, I'm going to get passed up in favor of a smooth talker. I have another interview coming up shortly, and I want to really impress the company. Here are my trouble spots: What can I do to be less nervous during my interview? I always get really excited when I hear I have a face-to-face interview, but get more and more anxious as D-Day the interview approaches. My employers wants me to explain what I used to do at my prior employment. I'm a very chatty person and tend to talk/squeak for 10 minutes at a time. How long or short should I time my answers? On that note, when I'm explaining what I did at prior jobs, what exactly is my interviewer looking for? At some point, my interviewer will ask "do you have any questions for me while you're here?" I should, but what kinds of questions should I ask to show that I'm interested in being employed? My interviewer always asks why I'm looking for a new job. The real reason is that my present salary is $27K/yr [Edit to add: and I've yet to get a raise since I started], and I want to make more money -- otherwise the work environment is fine. How do I sugarcoat "I want to make more money" into something that sounds nicer? I have only one prior programmer job, and I've worked there for 18 months, but I have the skill of someone with 4 to 6 years of experience. What can I say to compete against applicants with more work experience? I took a low-paying $27K/yr programming job just to get my foot in IT, and I've been trying to leverage that job as a stepping stone to better opportunities. I get interviews because I consistently out-score senior-level developers in aptitude tests, and my desired salary range is right in the ballpark of what most companies want to offer. Unfortunately, while I've been a programming as a hobby for 10 years and I'm geared to graduate with my BA in Comp Sci in May '09, employers see me as a junior-level programmer with no degree. I want to prove them wrong and get a job that matches my skill level. I'd appreciate any advice anyone has to offer, especially if they can help me get a better job in the process.

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  • How to make efficient code emerge through unit testing

    - by Jean
    Hi, I participate in a TDD Coding Dojo, where we try to practice pure TDD on simple problems. It occured to me however that the code which emerges from the unit tests isn't the most efficient. Now this is fine most of the time, but what if the code usage grows so that efficiency becomes a problem. I love the way the code emerges from unit testing, but is it possible to make the efficiency property emerge through further tests ? Here is a trivial example in ruby: prime factorization. I followed a pure TDD approach making the tests pass one after the other validating my original acceptance test (commented at the bottom). What further steps could I take, if I wanted to make one of the generic prime factorization algorithms emerge ? To reduce the problem domain, let's say I want to get a quadratic sieve implementation ... Now in this precise case I know the "optimal algorithm, but in most cases, the client will simply add a requirement that the feature runs in less than "x" time for a given environment. require 'shoulda' require 'lib/prime' class MathTest < Test::Unit::TestCase context "The math module" do should "have a method to get primes" do assert Math.respond_to? 'primes' end end context "The primes method of Math" do should "return [] for 0" do assert_equal [], Math.primes(0) end should "return [1] for 1 " do assert_equal [1], Math.primes(1) end should "return [1,2] for 2" do assert_equal [1,2], Math.primes(2) end should "return [1,3] for 3" do assert_equal [1,3], Math.primes(3) end should "return [1,2] for 4" do assert_equal [1,2,2], Math.primes(4) end should "return [1,5] for 5" do assert_equal [1,5], Math.primes(5) end should "return [1,2,3] for 6" do assert_equal [1,2,3], Math.primes(6) end should "return [1,3] for 9" do assert_equal [1,3,3], Math.primes(9) end should "return [1,2,5] for 10" do assert_equal [1,2,5], Math.primes(10) end end # context "Functionnal Acceptance test 1" do # context "the prime factors of 14101980 are 1,2,2,3,5,61,3853"do # should "return [1,2,3,5,61,3853] for ${14101980*14101980}" do # assert_equal [1,2,2,3,5,61,3853], Math.primes(14101980*14101980) # end # end # end end and the naive algorithm I created by this approach module Math def self.primes(n) if n==0 return [] else primes=[1] for i in 2..n do if n%i==0 while(n%i==0) primes<<i n=n/i end end end primes end end end

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  • Non RBAC User Roles and Permissions System: a role with properties

    - by micha12
    We are currently designing a User Roles and Permissions System in our web application (ASP.NET), and it seems that we have several cases that do no fit within the classical Role-Based Access Control (RBAC). I will post several questions, each devoted to a particular case. This is my second question (the first question is here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2839797/non-rbac-user-roles-and-permissions-system-checking-the-users-city). We have the following case: we need to implement a Manager role in our web application. However, a Manager can belong to one or several companies (within a big group of companies for which we are creating this web app). Say, there can be “Manager of companies A and B”, “Manager of company C”, etc. Depending on the companies that the Manager belongs, he has access to certain operations: for example, he can communicate with clients only of those companies that he belongs to. That is, “Manager of companies A and B” can only have contacts with clients of companies A and B, and not with those of company C. He can also view clients’ details pages of companies A and B and not of C, etc. It seems that this case falls within the RBAC. However, this is not really the case. We will need to create a ManagerRole class that will have a Companies property – that is, this will not be just a role as a collection of permissions (like in the classical RBAC), but a role with properties! This was just one example of a role having properties. There will be others: for example, an Administrator role that will also belong to a number of companies and will also have other custom properties. This means that we will a hierarchy or roles classes: class Role – base class class ManagerRole : Role List Companies class AdministratorRole : Role List Companies Other properties We investigated pure RBAC and its implementation in several systems, and found no systems featuring a hierarchy or roles, each having custom properties. In RBAC, roles are just collections of permissions. We could model our cases using permission with properties, like ManagerPermission, AdministratorPermission, but this has a lot of drawbacks, the main being that we will not be able to assign a role like “Manager of Companies A and B” to a user directly, but will have to create a role containing a ManagerPermission for companies A and B… Moreover, a "Manager" seems to be rather a "role" (position in the company) rather than a "permission" from the linguistic point of view. Would be grateful for any ideas on this subject, as well as any experience in this field! Thank you.

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  • Is it possible to change HANDLE that has been opened for synchronous I/O to be opened for asynchrono

    - by Martin Dobšík
    Dear all, Most of my daily programming work in Windows is nowadays around I/O operations of all kind (pipes, consoles, files, sockets, ...). I am well aware of different methods of reading and writing from/to different kinds of handles (Synchronous, asynchronous waiting for completion on events, waiting on file HANDLEs, I/O completion ports, and alertable I/O). We use many of those. For some of our applications it would be very useful to have only one way to treat all handles. I mean, the program may not know, what kind of handle it has received and we would like to use, let's say, I/O completion ports for all. So first I would ask: Let's assume I have a handle: HANDLE h; which has been received by my process for I/O from somewhere. Is there any easy and reliable way to find out what flags it has been created with? The main flag in question is FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED. The only way known to me so far, is to try to register such handle into I/O completion port (using CreateIoCompletionPort()). If that succeeds the handle has been created with FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED. But then only I/O completion port must be used, as the handle can not be unregistered from it without closing the HANDLE h itself. Providing there is an easy a way to determine presence of FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED, there would come my second question: Is there any way how to add such flag to already existing handle? That would make a handle that has been originally open for synchronous operations to be open for asynchronous. Would there be a way how to create opposite (remove the FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED to create synchronous handle from asynchronous)? I have not found any direct way after reading through MSDN and googling a lot. Would there be at least some trick that could do the same? Like re-creating the handle in same way using CreateFile() function or something similar? Something even partly documented or not documented at all? The main place where I would need this, is to determine the the way (or change the way) process should read/write from handles sent to it by third party applications. We can not control how third party products create their handles. Dear Windows gurus: help please! With regards Martin

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  • How to represent different entities that have identical behavior?

    - by Dominik
    I have several different entities in my domain model (animal species, let's say), which have a few properties each. The entities are readonly (they do not change state during the application lifetime) and they have identical behavior (the differ only by the values of properties). How to implement such entities in code? Unsuccessful attempts: Enums I tried an enum like this: enum Animals { Frog, Duck, Otter, Fish } And other pieces of code would switch on the enum. However, this leads to ugly switching code, scattering the logic around and problems with comboboxes. There's no pretty way to list all possible Animals. Serialization works great though. Subclasses I also thought about where each animal type is a subclass of a common base abstract class. The implementation of Swim() is the same for all Animals, though, so it makes little sense and serializability is a big issue now. Since we represent an animal type (species, if you will), there should be one instance of the subclass per application, which is hard and weird to maintain when we use serialization. public abstract class AnimalBase { string Name { get; set; } // user-readable double Weight { get; set; } Habitat Habitat { get; set; } public void Swim(); { /* swim implementation; the same for all animals but depends uses the value of Weight */ } } public class Otter: AnimalBase{ public Otter() { Name = "Otter"; Weight = 10; Habitat = "North America"; } } // ... and so on Just plain awful. Static fields This blog post gave me and idea for a solution where each option is a statically defined field inside the type, like this: public class Animal { public static readonly Animal Otter = new Animal { Name="Otter", Weight = 10, Habitat = "North America"} // the rest of the animals... public string Name { get; set; } // user-readable public double Weight { get; set; } public Habitat Habitat { get; set; } public void Swim(); } That would be great: you can use it like enums (AnimalType = Animal.Otter), you can easily add a static list of all defined animals, you have a sensible place where to implement Swim(). Immutability can be achieved by making property setters protected. There is a major problem, though: it breaks serializability. A serialized Animal would have to save all its properties and upon deserialization it would create a new instance of Animal, which is something I'd like to avoid. Is there an easy way to make the third attempt work? Any more suggestions for implementing such a model?

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  • Maven-ear-plugin - excluding multiple modules i.e. jars, wars etc.

    - by James Murphy
    I've been using the Maven EAR plugin for creating my ear files for a new project. I noticed in the plugin documentation you can specify exclude statements for modules. For example the configuration for my plugin is as follows... <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-ear-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.4.1</version> <configuration> <jboss> <version>5</version> </jboss> <modules> <!-- Include the templatecontroller.jar inside the ear --> <jarModule> <groupId>com.kewill.kdm</groupId> <artifactId>templatecontroller</artifactId> <bundleFileName>templatecontroller.jar</bundleFileName> <includeInApplicationXml>true</includeInApplicationXml> </jarModule> <!-- Exclude the following classes from the ear --> <jarModule> <groupId>javax.activation</groupId> <artifactId>activation</artifactId> <excluded>true</excluded> </jarModule> <jarModule> <groupId>antlr</groupId> <artifactId>antlr</artifactId> <excluded>true</excluded> </jarModule> ... declare multiple excludes <security> <security-role id="SecurityRole_1234"> <role-name>admin</role-name> </security-role> </security> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> This approach is absolutely fine with small projects where you have say 4-5 modules to exclude. However, in my project I have 30+ and we've only just started the project so as it expands this is likely to grow. Besides explicitly declaring exclude statements per module is it possible to use wildcards or and exclude all maven dependencies flag to only include those modules i declare and exclude everything else? Is anyone aware of a more elegant solution?

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  • Mock static method Activator.CreateInstance to return a mock of another class

    - by Jeep87c
    I have this factory class and I want to test it correctly. Let's say I have an abstract class which have many child (inheritance). As you can see in my Factory class the method BuildChild, I want to be able to create an instance of a child class at Runtime. I must be able to create this instance during Runtime because the type won't be know before runtime. And, I can NOT use Unity for this project (if so, I would not ask how to achieve this). Here's my Factory class that I want to test: public class Factory { public AnAbstractClass BuildChild(Type childType, object parameter) { AnAbstractClass child = (AnAbstractClass) Activator.CreateInstance(childType); child.Initialize(parameter); return child; } } To test this, I want to find a way to Mock Activator.CreateInstance to return my own mocked object of a child class. How can I achieve this? Or maybe if you have a better way to do this without using Activator.CreateInstance (and Unity), I'm opened to it if it's easier to test and mock! I'm currently using Moq to create my mocks but since Activator.CreateInstance is a static method from a static class, I can't figure out how to do this (I already know that Moq can only create mock instances of objects). I took a look at Fakes from Microsoft but without success (I had some difficulties to understand how it works and to find some well explained examples). Please help me! EDIT: I need to mock Activator.CreateInstance because I want to force this method to return another mocked object. The correct thing I want is only to stub this method (not to mock it). So when I test BuildChild like this: [TestMethod] public void TestBuildChild() { var mockChildClass = new Mock(AChildClass); // TODO: Stub/Mock Activator.CreateInstance to return mockChildClass when called with "type" and "parameter" as follow. var type = typeof(AChildClass); var parameter = "A parameter"; var child = this._factory.BuildChild(type, parameters); } Activator.CreateInstance called with type and parameter will return my mocked object instead of creating a new instance of the real child class (not yet implemented).

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  • How do you handle EF Data Contexts combined with asp.net custom membership/role providers

    - by KallDrexx
    I can't seem to get my head around how to implement a custom membership provider with Entity Framework data contexts into my asp.net MVC application. I understand how to create a custom membership/role provider by itself (using this as a reference). Here's my current setup: As of now I have a repository factory interface that allows different repository factories to be created (right now I only have a factory for EF repositories and and in memory repositories). The repository factory looks like this: public class EFRepositoryFactory : IRepositoryFactory { private EntitiesContainer _entitiesContext; /// <summary> /// Constructor that generates the necessary object contexts /// </summary> public EFRepositoryFactory() { _entitiesContext = new EntitiesContainer(); } /// <summary> /// Generates a new entity framework repository for the specified entity type /// </summary> /// <typeparam name="T">Type of entity to generate a repository for </typeparam> /// <returns>Returns an EFRepository</returns> public IRepository<T> GenerateRepository<T>() where T : class { return new EFRepository<T>(_entitiesContext); } } Controllers are passed an EF repository factory via castle Windsor. The controller then creates all the service/business layer objects it requires and passes in the repository factory into it. This means that all service objects are using the same EF data contexts and I do not have to worry about objects being used in more than one data context (which of course is not allowed and causes an exception). As of right now I am trying to decide how to generate my user and authorization service layers, and have run against a design roadblock. The User/Authization service will be a central class that handles the logic for logging in, changing user details, managing roles and determining what users have access to what. The problem is, using the current methodology the asp.net mvc controllers will initialize it's own EF repository factory via Windsor and the asp.net membership/role provider will have to initialize it's own EF repository factory. This means that each part of the site will then have it's own data context. This seems to mean that if asp.net authenticates a user, that user's object will be in the membership provider's data context and thus if I try to retrieve that user object in the service layer (say to change the user's name) I will get a duplication exception. I thought of making the repository factory class a singleton, but I don't see a way for that to work with castle Windsor. How do other people handle asp.net custom providers in a MVC (or any n-tier) architecture without having object duplication issues?

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  • How do you unit test a unit test?

    - by FlySwat
    I was watching Rob Connerys webcasts on the MVCStoreFront App, and I noticed he was unit testing even the most mundane things, things like: public Decimal DiscountPrice { get { return this.Price - this.Discount; } } Would have a test like: [TestMethod] public void Test_DiscountPrice { Product p = new Product(); p.Price = 100; p.Discount = 20; Assert.IsEqual(p.DiscountPrice,80); } While, I am all for unit testing, I sometimes wonder if this form of test first development is really beneficial, for example, in a real process, you have 3-4 layers above your code (Business Request, Requirements Document, Architecture Document), where the actual defined business rule (Discount Price is Price - Discount) could be misdefined. If that's the situation, your unit test means nothing to you. Additionally, your unit test is another point of failure: [TestMethod] public void Test_DiscountPrice { Product p = new Product(); p.Price = 100; p.Discount = 20; Assert.IsEqual(p.DiscountPrice,90); } Now the test is flawed. Obviously in a simple test, it's no big deal, but say we were testing a complicated business rule. What do we gain here? Fast forward two years into the application's life, when maintenance developers are maintaining it. Now the business changes its rule, and the test breaks again, some rookie developer then fixes the test incorrectly...we now have another point of failure. All I see is more possible points of failure, with no real beneficial return, if the discount price is wrong, the test team will still find the issue, how did unit testing save any work? What am I missing here? Please teach me to love TDD, as I'm having a hard time accepting it as useful so far. I want too, because I want to stay progressive, but it just doesn't make sense to me. EDIT: A couple people keep mentioned that testing helps enforce the spec. It has been my experience that the spec has been wrong as well, more often than not, but maybe I'm doomed to work in an organization where the specs are written by people who shouldn't be writing specs.

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  • SQL Server stored procedures - update column based on variable name..?

    - by ClarkeyBoy
    Hi, I have a data driven site with many stored procedures. What I want to eventually be able to do is to say something like: For Each @variable in sproc inputs UPDATE @TableName SET @variable.toString = @variable Next I would like it to be able to accept any number of arguments. It will basically loop through all of the inputs and update the column with the name of the variable with the value of the variable - for example column "Name" would be updated with the value of @Name. I would like to basically have one stored procedure for updating and one for creating. However to do this I will need to be able to convert the actual name of a variable, not the value, to a string. Question 1: Is it possible to do this in T-SQL, and if so how? Question 2: Are there any major drawbacks to using something like this (like performance or CPU usage)? I know if a value is not valid then it will only prevent the update involving that variable and any subsequent ones, but all the data is validated in the vb.net code anyway so will always be valid on submitting to the database, and I will ensure that only variables where the column exists are able to be submitted. Many thanks in advance, Regards, Richard Clarke Edit: I know about using SQL strings and the risk of SQL injection attacks - I studied this a bit in my dissertation a few weeks ago. Basically the website uses an object oriented architecture. There are many classes - for example Product - which have many "Attributes" (I created my own class called Attribute, which has properties such as DataField, Name and Value where DataField is used to get or update data, Name is displayed on the administration frontend when creating or updating a Product and the Value, which may be displayed on the customer frontend, is set by the administrator. DataField is the field I will be using in the "UPDATE Blah SET @Field = @Value". I know this is probably confusing but its really complicated to explain - I have a really good understanding of the entire system in my head but I cant put it into words easily. Basically the structure is set up such that no user will be able to change the value of DataField or Name, but they can change Value. I think if I were to use dynamic parameterised SQL strings there will therefore be no risk of SQL injection attacks. I mean basically loop through all the attributes so that it ends up like: UPDATE Products SET [Name] = '@Name', Description = '@Description', Display = @Display Then loop through all the attributes again and add the parameter values - this will have the same effect as using stored procedures, right?? I dont mind adding to the page load time since this is mainly going to affect the administration frontend, and will marginly affect the customer frontend.

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  • Stand-alone Java code formatter/beautifier/pretty printer?

    - by Greg Mattes
    I'm interested in learning about the available choices of high-quality, stand-alone source code formatters for Java. The formatter must be stand-alone, that is, it must support a "batch" mode that is decoupled from any particular development environment. Ideally it should be independent of any particular operating system as well. So, a built-in formatter for the IDE du jour is of little interest here (unless that IDE supports batch mode formatter invocation, perhaps from the command line). A formatter written in closed-source C/C++ that only runs on, say, Windows is not ideal, but is somewhat interesting. To be clear, a "formatter" (or "beautifier") is not the same as a "style checker." A formatter accepts source code as input, applies styling rules, and produces styled source code that is semantically equivalent to the original source code. A style checker also applies styling rules, but it simply reports rule violations without producing modified source code as output. So the picture looks like this: Formatter (produces modified source code that conforms to styling rules) Read Source Code → Apply Styling Rules → Write Styled Source Code Style Checker (does not produce modified source code) Read Source Code → Apply Styling Rules → Write Rule Violations Further Clarifications Solutions must be highly configurable. I want to be able to specify my own style, not simply select from a canned list. Also, I'm not looking for a general purpose pretty-printer written in Java that can pretty-print many things. I want to style Java code. I'm also not necessarily interested in a grand-unified formatter for many languages. I suppose it might be nice for a solution to have support for languages other than Java, but that is not a requirement. Furthermore, tools that only perform code highlighting are right out. I'm also not interested in a web service. I want a tool that I can run locally. Finally, solutions need not be restricted to open source, public domain, shareware, free software, commercial, or anything else. All forms of licensing are acceptable.

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  • Use native HBitmap in C# while preserving alpha channel/transparency. Please check this code, it works on my computer...

    - by David
    Let's say I get a HBITMAP object/handle from a native Windows function. I can convert it to a managed bitmap using Bitmap.FromHbitmap(nativeHBitmap), but if the native image has transparency information (alpha channel), it is lost by this conversion. There are a few questions on Stack Overflow regarding this issue. Using information from the first answer of this question (How to draw ARGB bitmap using GDI+?), I wrote a piece of code that I've tried and it works. It basically gets the native HBitmap width, height and the pointer to the location of the pixel data using GetObject and the BITMAP structure, and then calls the managed Bitmap constructor: Bitmap managedBitmap = new Bitmap(bitmapStruct.bmWidth, bitmapStruct.bmHeight, bitmapStruct.bmWidth * 4, PixelFormat.Format32bppArgb, bitmapStruct.bmBits); As I understand (please correct me if I'm wrong), this does not copy the actual pixel data from the native HBitmap to the managed bitmap, it simply points the managed bitmap to the pixel data from the native HBitmap. And I don't draw the bitmap here on another Graphics (DC) or on another bitmap, to avoid unnecessary memory copying, especially for large bitmaps. I can simply assign this bitmap to a PictureBox control or the the Form BackgroundImage property. And it works, the bitmap is displayed correctly, using transparency. When I no longer use the bitmap, I make sure the BackgroundImage property is no longer pointing to the bitmap, and I dispose both the managed bitmap and the native HBitmap. The Question: Can you tell me if this reasoning and code seems correct. I hope I will not get some unexpected behaviors or errors. And I hope I'm freeing all the memory and objects correctly. private void Example() { IntPtr nativeHBitmap = IntPtr.Zero; /* Get the native HBitmap object from a Windows function here */ // Create the BITMAP structure and get info from our nativeHBitmap NativeMethods.BITMAP bitmapStruct = new NativeMethods.BITMAP(); NativeMethods.GetObjectBitmap(nativeHBitmap, Marshal.SizeOf(bitmapStruct), ref bitmapStruct); // Create the managed bitmap using the pointer to the pixel data of the native HBitmap Bitmap managedBitmap = new Bitmap( bitmapStruct.bmWidth, bitmapStruct.bmHeight, bitmapStruct.bmWidth * 4, PixelFormat.Format32bppArgb, bitmapStruct.bmBits); // Show the bitmap this.BackgroundImage = managedBitmap; /* Run the program, use the image */ MessageBox.Show("running..."); // When the image is no longer needed, dispose both the managed Bitmap object and the native HBitmap this.BackgroundImage = null; managedBitmap.Dispose(); NativeMethods.DeleteObject(nativeHBitmap); } internal static class NativeMethods { [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct BITMAP { public int bmType; public int bmWidth; public int bmHeight; public int bmWidthBytes; public ushort bmPlanes; public ushort bmBitsPixel; public IntPtr bmBits; } [DllImport("gdi32", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, EntryPoint = "GetObject")] public static extern int GetObjectBitmap(IntPtr hObject, int nCount, ref BITMAP lpObject); [DllImport("gdi32.dll")] internal static extern bool DeleteObject(IntPtr hObject); }

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  • How to use AVCaptureSession to stream live preview video, then take a photo, then return to streaming

    - by Matthew
    I have an application that creates its own live preview prior to taking a still photo. The app needs to run some processing on the image data and thus is not able to rely on AVCaptureVideoPreviewLayer. Getting the initial stream to work is going quite well, using Apple's example code. The problem comes when I try to switch to the higher quality image to take the snapshot. In response to a button press I attempt to reconfigure the session for taking a full resolution photo. I've tried many variations but here is my latest example (which still does not work): - (void)sessionSetupForPhoto { [session beginConfiguration]; session.sessionPreset = AVCaptureSessionPresetPhoto; AVCaptureStillImageOutput *output = [[[AVCaptureStillImageOutput alloc] init] autorelease]; for (AVCaptureOutput *output in [session outputs]) { [session removeOutput:output]; } if ([session canAddOutput:output]){ [session addOutput:output]; } else { NSLog(@"Not able to add an AVCaptureStillImageOutput"); } [session commitConfiguration]; } I am consistently getting an error message just after the commitConfiguration line that looks like this: (that is to say, I am getting an AVCaptureSessionRuntimeErrorNotification sent to my registered observer) Received an error: NSConcreteNotification 0x19d870 {name = AVCaptureSessionRuntimeErrorNotification; object = ; userInfo = { AVCaptureSessionErrorKey = "Error Domain=AVFoundationErrorDomain Code=-11800 \"The operation couldn\U2019t be completed. (AVFoundationErrorDomain error -11800.)\" UserInfo=0x19d810 {}"; The documentation in XCode ostensibly provides more information for the error number (-11800), "AVErrorUnknown - Reason for the error is unknown."; Previously I had also tried calls to stopRunning and startRunning, but no longer do that after watching WWDC Session 409, where it is discouraged. When I was stopping and starting, I was getting a different error message -11819, which corresponds to "AVErrorMediaServicesWereReset - The operation could not be completed because media services became unavailable.", which is much nicer than simply "unknown", but not necessarily any more helpful. It successfully adds the AVCaptureStillImageOutput (i.e., does NOT emit the log message). I am testing on an iPhone 3g (w/4.1) and iPhone 4. This call is happening in the main thread, which is also where my original AVCaptureSession setup took place. How can I avoid the error? How can I switch to the higher resolution to take the photo? Thank you!

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  • hibernate column uniqueness question

    - by Seth
    I'm still in the process of learning hibernate/hql and I have a question that's half best practices question/half sanity check. Let's say I have a class A: @Entity public class A { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @Column(unique=true) private String name = ""; //getters, setters, etc. omitted for brevity } I want to enforce that every instance of A that gets saved has a unique name (hence the @Column annotation), but I also want to be able to handle the case where there's already an A instance saved that has that name. I see two ways of doing this: 1) I can catch the org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException that could be thrown during the session.saveOrUpdate() call and try to handle it. 2) I can query for existing instances of A that already have that name in the DAO before calling session.saveOrUpdate(). Right now I'm leaning towards approach 2, because in approach 1 I don't know how to programmatically figure out which constraint was violated (there are a couple of other unique members in A). Right now my DAO.save() code looks roughly like this: public void save(A a) throws DataAccessException, NonUniqueNameException { Session session = sessionFactory.getCurrentSession(); try { session.beginTransaction(); Query query = null; //if id isn't null, make sure we don't count this object as a duplicate if(obj.getId() == null) { query = session.createQuery("select count(a) from A a where a.name = :name").setParameter("name", obj.getName()); } else { query = session.createQuery("select count(a) from A a where a.name = :name " + "and a.id != :id").setParameter("name", obj.getName()).setParameter("name", obj.getName()); } Long numNameDuplicates = (Long)query.uniqueResult(); if(numNameDuplicates > 0) throw new NonUniqueNameException(); session.saveOrUpdate(a); session.getTransaction().commit(); } catch(RuntimeException e) { session.getTransaction().rollback(); throw new DataAccessException(e); //my own class } } Am I going about this in the right way? Can hibernate tell me programmatically (i.e. not as an error string) which value is violating the uniqueness constraint? By separating the query from the commit, am I inviting thread-safety errors, or am I safe? How is this usually done? Thanks!

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  • What was your the most impressive technical programming achievement performed to impress a romantic

    - by DVK
    OK, so the archetypal human story is for a guy to go out and impress the girl with some wonderful achievement like slaying a dragon or building a monument or conquering neighboring tribe. This being enlightened 21st century on SO, let's morph this into a: StackOverflower performing a feat of programming to impress a romantic interest. There are two ways to do this: Technical achievement: Impressing a person with suitable background/understanding of programming with actual coding powerss you displayed. A dumb movie example would be that kid in "Hackers" move showing off his hacking skills in front of Angeline Jolie. Artistic achievement: Impressing a person with a result of running said code, whether they understand just how incredible the code itself is. An example is the animated ANSI rose (for a guy who actually wrote the ANSI code) This question is only about the first kind (technical achievements) - e.g. the person of interest was presented with impressive code/design that (s)he was able to properly appreciate. Rules (what doesn't qualify): The target audience must have been a person of romantic interest (prospective or present significant other or random hook-up). E.g. showing your program to your sister who's also a software developer doesn't count. The achievement must have been done specifically with the goal to impress such a person. However, it is OK if the achievement was done to impress a generic qualifying person, not someone specific. Although... if you write code to impress girls in general, I'd say "get a better idea of the opposite sex" The achievement must have been done with the goal of impressing the person. In other words, if you would have done it without romantic interest's knowledge anyway, it doesn't count. As examples, the following does not count: programming for your job. Programming for a coding contest. Open Source program that you'd have done anyway. The precise nature of the awesomeness of the achievement is somewhat irrelevant - from learning entire J2EE in 2 days to writing fancy game engine to implementing Python compiler in LOGO. As long as it's programming/software development related. The achievement should preferably be something other people would rank highly as well. If your date was impressed with your skill at calculating Fibonacci sequence without recursive function calls, it doesn't mean most developers will be. But it does mean you need to start finding better things to do on dates ;)

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  • AVFoundation buffer comparison to a saved image

    - by user577552
    Hi, I am a long time reader, first time poster on StackOverflow, and must say it has been a great source of knowledge for me. I am trying to get to know the AVFoundation framework. What I want to do is save what the camera sees and then detect when something changes. Here is the part where I save the image to a UIImage : if (shouldSetBackgroundImage) { CGColorSpaceRef colorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); // Create a bitmap graphics context with the sample buffer data CGContextRef context = CGBitmapContextCreate(rowBase, bufferWidth, bufferHeight, 8, bytesPerRow, colorSpace, kCGBitmapByteOrder32Little | kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedFirst); // Create a Quartz image from the pixel data in the bitmap graphics context CGImageRef quartzImage = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(context); // Free up the context and color space CGContextRelease(context); CGColorSpaceRelease(colorSpace); // Create an image object from the Quartz image UIImage * image = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:quartzImage]; [self setBackgroundImage:image]; NSLog(@"reference image actually set"); // Release the Quartz image CGImageRelease(quartzImage); //Signal that the image has been saved shouldSetBackgroundImage = NO; } and here is the part where I check if there is any change in the image seen by the camera : else { CGImageRef cgImage = [backgroundImage CGImage]; CGDataProviderRef provider = CGImageGetDataProvider(cgImage); CFDataRef bitmapData = CGDataProviderCopyData(provider); char* data = CFDataGetBytePtr(bitmapData); if (data != NULL) { int64_t numDiffer = 0, pixelCount = 0; NSMutableArray * pointsMutable = [NSMutableArray array]; for( int row = 0; row < bufferHeight; row += 8 ) { for( int column = 0; column < bufferWidth; column += 8 ) { //we get one pixel from each source (buffer and saved image) unsigned char *pixel = rowBase + (row * bytesPerRow) + (column * BYTES_PER_PIXEL); unsigned char *referencePixel = data + (row * bytesPerRow) + (column * BYTES_PER_PIXEL); pixelCount++; if ( !match(pixel, referencePixel, matchThreshold) ) { numDiffer++; [pointsMutable addObject:[NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(SCREEN_WIDTH - (column/ (float) bufferHeight)* SCREEN_WIDTH - 4.0, (row/ (float) bufferWidth)* SCREEN_HEIGHT- 4.0)]]; } } } numberOfPixelsThatDiffer = numDiffer; points = [pointsMutable copy]; } For some reason, this doesn't work, meaning that the iPhone detects almost everything as being different from the saved image, even though I set a very low threshold for detection in the match function... Do you have any idea of what I am doing wrong?

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  • velocity vector

    - by wanderer
    Hi, I am trying to simulate a collision. The collision is shown here http://www.freeimagehosting.net/image.php?c5ae01b476.jpg A particle falls down on a sphere and a collision between sphere and particle takes place. The sphere always remain stationary and the collision itself is not elastic. So if the particle falls directly n top of sphere, the velocity of particle will become zero. I was trying to set the velocity of particle to be zero after the collision. But that does not give good simulation when the collision does not occur on top of sphere but along the side of sphere. So now after the collision i need to make sure that the particle has a velocity which is orthogonal to the vector of the point of collision from the center of sphere. The velocity along the vector from center of sphere to point of collision should become zero. How do i do that? I am a bit mathematically challenged but i think it has something to do with dot product of vectors. Or maybe i am wrong :) I have the initial velocity vector and 'radiusvector' say :- 1)velocity <-1.03054, -1.56563, 1.33341e-016 2) radius vector <2.04406, 2.19587, 1.0514 Pseudo code for the problem is: foreach( particle particle in particlesCollections) { //sphere.x, sphere.y sphere.z give the center of the sphere dist = particle.pos-vector(sphere.x,sphere.y,sphere.z); //detect if a collision has taken place. if (dist.mag < sphere.radius) { rVector=dist/dist.mag*sphere.radius; particle.pos=vector(sphere.x,sphere.y,sphere.z) + rVector; //particle.Velocity gives the velocity vector of the particle at the time of collision //i need to modify particle.Velocity so that the component of velocity that runs along // with the rvector becomes zero as i have a non elsatic collision. The remaining //velocity that the particle will have is the one which runs along with tangent to the //rVector. The sphere remains stationary. //example values: particle.Velocity == <-1.03054, -1.56563, .006> //and rVector = <2.04406, 2.19587, 1.0514> } } Thanks

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  • understanding semcor corpus structure h

    - by Sharmila
    I'm learning NLP. I currently playing with Word Sense Disambiguation. I'm planning to use the semcor corpus as training data but I have trouble understanding the xml structure. I tried googling but did not get any resource describing the content structure of semcor. <s snum="1"> <wf cmd="ignore" pos="DT">The</wf> <wf cmd="done" lemma="group" lexsn="1:03:00::" pn="group" pos="NNP" rdf="group" wnsn="1">Fulton_County_Grand_Jury</wf> <wf cmd="done" lemma="say" lexsn="2:32:00::" pos="VB" wnsn="1">said</wf> <wf cmd="done" lemma="friday" lexsn="1:28:00::" pos="NN" wnsn="1">Friday</wf> <wf cmd="ignore" pos="DT">an</wf> <wf cmd="done" lemma="investigation" lexsn="1:09:00::" pos="NN" wnsn="1">investigation</wf> <wf cmd="ignore" pos="IN">of</wf> <wf cmd="done" lemma="atlanta" lexsn="1:15:00::" pos="NN" wnsn="1">Atlanta</wf> <wf cmd="ignore" pos="POS">'s</wf> <wf cmd="done" lemma="recent" lexsn="5:00:00:past:00" pos="JJ" wnsn="2">recent</wf> <wf cmd="done" lemma="primary_election" lexsn="1:04:00::" pos="NN" wnsn="1">primary_election</wf> <wf cmd="done" lemma="produce" lexsn="2:39:01::" pos="VB" wnsn="4">produced</wf> <punc>``</punc> <wf cmd="ignore" pos="DT">no</wf> <wf cmd="done" lemma="evidence" lexsn="1:09:00::" pos="NN" wnsn="1">evidence</wf> <punc>''</punc> <wf cmd="ignore" pos="IN">that</wf> <wf cmd="ignore" pos="DT">any</wf> <wf cmd="done" lemma="irregularity" lexsn="1:04:00::" pos="NN" wnsn="1">irregularities</wf> <wf cmd="done" lemma="take_place" lexsn="2:30:00::" pos="VB" wnsn="1">took_place</wf> <punc>.</punc> </s> I'm assuming wnsn is 'word sense'. Is it correct? What does the attribute lexsn mean? How does it map to wordnet? What does the attribute pn refer to? (third line) How is the rdf attribute assigned? (again third line) In general, what are the possible attributes?

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  • Is it possible to programatically catch JavaScript SyntaxErrors?

    - by Matty
    I don't think that this is doable, but wanted to throw it out to the community to confirm my suspicions. Let's say you're writing a program in another language like Python, PHP, or ASP. This program is intended to build another program written in JavaScript. However, the first program is unfortunately not immune to errors. So, occasionally, the program which builds the JavaScript program does some funky stuff and outputs a syntax error in the JavaScript source. Now some user goes and loads the program and it essentially halts, because the web browser running it can't properly parse the JavaScript. This user is probably not going to be happy. I wouldn't be. This brings me to my question. Is it possible to write an error handler that would catch these kind of syntax problems allowing the application to fail gracefully? Here's an example: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> window.onerror = errorHandler; function errorHandler(a,b,c) { alert('horray! No wait, Booo!'); } vara jfs; </script> </head> <body> Can this be done? </body> </html> or <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> try { vara jfs; } catch (e) { alert('horray! No wait, Booo!'); } </script> </head> <body> Can this be done? </body> </html>

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