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  • How to avoid using duplicate savepoint names in nested transactions in nested stored procs?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have a pattern that I almost always follow, where if I need to wrap up an operation in a transaction, I do this: BEGIN TRANSACTION SAVE TRANSACTION TX -- Stuff IF @error <> 0 ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX COMMIT TRANSACTION That's served me well enough in the past, but after years of using this pattern (and copy-pasting the above code), I've suddenly discovered a flaw which comes as a complete shock. Quite often, I'll have a stored procedure calling other stored procedures, all of which use this same pattern. What I've discovered (to my cost) is that because I'm using the same savepoint name everywhere, I can get into a situation where my outer transaction is partially committed - precisely the opposite of the atomicity that I'm trying to achieve. I've put together an example that exhibits the problem. This is a single batch (no nested stored procs), and so it looks a little odd in that you probably wouldn't use the same savepoint name twice in the same batch, but my real-world scenario would be too confusing to post. CREATE TABLE Test (test INTEGER NOT NULL) BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (1) COMMIT TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (2) COMMIT TRAN TX DELETE FROM Test ROLLBACK TRAN TX COMMIT TRAN TX SELECT * FROM Test DROP TABLE Test When I execute this, it lists one record, with value "1". In other words, even though I rolled back my outer transaction, a record was added to the table. What's happening is that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX at the outer level is rolling back as far as the last SAVE TRANSACTION TX at the inner level. Now that I write this all out, I can see the logic behind it: the server is looking back through the log file, treating it as a linear stream of transactions; it doesn't understand the nesting/hierarchy implied by either the nesting of the transactions (or, in my real-world scenario, by the calls to other stored procedures). So, clearly, I need to start using unique savepoint names instead of blindly using "TX" everywhere. But - and this is where I finally get to the point - is there a way to do this in a copy-pastable way so that I can still use the same code everywhere? Can I auto-generate the savepoint name on the fly somehow? Is there a convention or best-practice for doing this sort of thing? It's not exactly hard to come up with a unique name every time you start a transaction (could base it off the SP name, or somesuch), but I do worry that eventually there would be a conflict - and you wouldn't know about it because rather than causing an error it just silently destroys your data... :-(

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  • JQuery Tooltip Plugin from Jorn

    - by Jeff Ancel
    I am thinking someone may have run across this one, but not sure. From a high level, I am trying to roll over a input [type=text] and display a tool tip (with the contained value) using the plugin available at http://bassitance.de. I have to use titles and classes for validation on the specific elements, so I put a blank div to hold the input [type=text] value for the roll over. Issue: It won't hold the value of 2 text boxes at once. Once I put a value in the box on the right, the tooltip on the left goes away. Same thing if I switch it aroun. I can't keep a tooltip on more than one element. Here is the code (Note: You will have to download the plugins in the source as I am not sure where the live versions are if there are any). <link rel="stylesheet" href="/scripts/jquery-tooltip/jquery.tooltip.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="/scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/scripts/jquery-tooltip/jquery.tooltip.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ $("input").change(function(){ var newTitle = $(this).val(); $(this).parent().attr("title",newTitle); // re-init tool tip reload(); }); // Init tooltip reload(); }); reload = function(){ $("div").tooltip(); } </script> <body> <table border="1px solid black"> <tr> <td title="hello"> <div> <input type="text" value=""/> </div> </td> <td> <div> <input type="text" value=""/> </div> </td> </tr> </table> <div id="debug"></div> </body> </html>

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  • Oracle 9i Session Disconnections

    - by mlaverd
    [Cross-Posting from ServerFault] I am in a development environment, and our test Oracle 9i server has been misbehaving for a few days now. What happens is that we have our JDBC connections disconnecting after a few successful connections. We got this box set up by our IT department and handed over to. It is 'our problem', so options like 'ask you DBA' isn't going to help me. :( Our server is set up with 3 plain databases (one is the main dev db, the other is the 'experimental' dev db). We use the Oracle 10 ojdbc14.jar thin JDBC driver (because of some bug in the version 9 of the driver). We're using Hibernate to talk to the DB. The only thing that I can see that changed is that we now have more users connecting to the server. Instead of one developer, we now have 3. With the Hibernate connection pools, I'm thinking that maybe we're hitting some limit? Anyone has any idea what's going on? Here's the stack trace on the client: Caused by: org.hibernate.exception.GenericJDBCException: could not execute query at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.handledNonSpecificException(SQLStateConverter.java:126) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.convert(SQLStateConverter.java:114) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.exception.JDBCExceptionHelper.convert(JDBCExceptionHelper.java:66) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doList(Loader.java:2235) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.listIgnoreQueryCache(Loader.java:2129) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.list(Loader.java:2124) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.loader.hql.QueryLoader.list(QueryLoader.java:401) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.list(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:363) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.engine.query.HQLQueryPlan.performList(HQLQueryPlan.java:196) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.list(SessionImpl.java:1149) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.impl.QueryImpl.list(QueryImpl.java:102) [hibernate3.jar:na] ... Caused by: java.sql.SQLException: Io exception: Connection reset at oracle.jdbc.driver.DatabaseError.throwSqlException(DatabaseError.java:112) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at oracle.jdbc.driver.DatabaseError.throwSqlException(DatabaseError.java:146) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at oracle.jdbc.driver.DatabaseError.throwSqlException(DatabaseError.java:255) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CPreparedStatement.executeForDescribe(T4CPreparedStatement.java:829) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleStatement.executeMaybeDescribe(OracleStatement.java:1049) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CPreparedStatement.executeMaybeDescribe(T4CPreparedStatement.java:854) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleStatement.doExecuteWithTimeout(OracleStatement.java:1154) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at oracle.jdbc.driver.OraclePreparedStatement.executeInternal(OraclePreparedStatement.java:3370) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at oracle.jdbc.driver.OraclePreparedStatement.executeQuery(OraclePreparedStatement.java:3415) [ojdbc14.jar:Oracle JDBC Driver version - "10.2.0.4.0"] at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.getResultSet(AbstractBatcher.java:208) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.getResultSet(Loader.java:1812) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doQuery(Loader.java:697) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doQueryAndInitializeNonLazyCollections(Loader.java:259) [hibernate3.jar:na] at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doList(Loader.java:2232) [hibernate3.jar:na]

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  • Strategy pattern and "action" classes explosion

    - by devoured elysium
    Is it bad policy to have lots of "work" classes(such as Strategy classes), that only do one thing? Let's assume I want to make a Monster class. Instead of just defining everything I want about the monster in one class, I will try to identify what are its main features, so I can define them in interfaces. That will allow to: Seal the class if I want. Later, other users can just create a new class and still have polymorphism by means of the interfaces I've defined. I don't have to worry how people (or myself) might want to change/add features to the base class in the future. All classes inherit from Object and they implement inheritance through interfaces, not from mother classes. Reuse the strategies I'm using with this monster for other members of my game world. Con: This model is rigid. Sometimes we would like to define something that is not easily achieved by just trying to put together this "building blocks". public class AlienMonster : IWalk, IRun, ISwim, IGrowl { IWalkStrategy _walkStrategy; IRunStrategy _runStrategy; ISwimStrategy _swimStrategy; IGrowlStrategy _growlStrategy; public Monster() { _walkStrategy = new FourFootWalkStrategy(); ...etc } public void Walk() { _walkStrategy.Walk(); } ...etc } My idea would be next to make a series of different Strategies that could be used by different monsters. On the other side, some of them could also be used for totally different purposes (i.e., I could have a tank that also "swims"). The only problem I see with this approach is that it could lead to a explosion of pure "method" classes, i.e., Strategy classes that have as only purpose make this or that other action. In the other hand, this kind of "modularity" would allow for high reuse of stratagies, sometimes even in totally different contexts. What is your opinion on this matter? Is this a valid reasoning? Is this over-engineering? Also, assuming we'd make the proper adjustments to the example I gave above, would it be better to define IWalk as: interface IWalk { void Walk(); } or interface IWalk { IWalkStrategy WalkStrategy { get; set; } //or something that ressembles this } being that doing this I wouldn't need to define the methods on Monster itself, I'd just have public getters for IWalkStrategy (this seems to go against the idea that you should encapsulate everything as much as you can!) Why? Thanks

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  • Cannot integrate Gallio MBUnit with Team City

    - by Bernard Larouche
    I have been trying to get my MBUnit tests suite to work on Team City for many days now without any success. My solution builds no problem. The program is with my tests. After googling for Gallio integration with Team City I tried many ways to make this thing work and I think I am close but need help. I have included the gallio bin directory to my repository and also on my TC Server. Here is my build runner set up in Team City : Build runner : MSBuild Build file path : Myproject.msbuild Targets : RebuildSolution RunTests Here is Myproject.msbuild file I created and included in the Source control trunk directory : <Project xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <!-- This is needed by MSBuild to locate the Gallio task --> <UsingTask AssemblyFile="C:\Gallio\bin\Gallio.MSBuildTasks.dll" TaskName="Gallio" /> <!-- Specify the tests assemblies --> <ItemGroup> <TestAssemblies Include="C:\_CBL\CBL\CoderForTraders\Source\trunk\UnitTest\DomainModel.Tests\bin\Debug\CBL.CoderForTraders.DomainModel.Tests.dll" /> </ItemGroup> <Target Name="RunTests"> <Gallio IgnoreFailures="false" Assemblies="@(TestAssemblies)" RunnerExtensions="TeamCityExtension,Gallio.TeamCityIntegration"> <!-- This tells MSBuild to store the output value of the task's ExitCode property into the project's ExitCode property --> <Output TaskParameter="ExitCode" PropertyName="ExitCode"/> </Gallio> <Error Text="Tests execution failed" Condition="'$(ExitCode)' != 0" /> </Target> <Target Name="RebuildSolution"> <Message Text="Starting to Build"/> <MSBuild Projects="CoderForTraders.sln" Properties="Configuration=Debug" Targets="Rebuild" /> </Target> </Project> Here are the errors displayed by Team City : error MSB4064: The "Assemblies" parameter is not supported by the "Gallio" task. Verify the parameter exists on the task, and it is a settable public instance property error MSB4063: The "Gallio" task could not be initialized with its input parameters. Thanks for your help

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  • System.IO.IOException: file used by another process

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I've been working in this small piece of code that seems trivial but still i cannot really see where is the problem. My functions does a pretty simple thing. Opens a file, copy its contents, replace a string inside and copy it back to the original file (a simple search and replace inside a text file then). I didn't really know how to do that as I'm adding lines to the original file, so i just create a copy of the file, (file.temp) copy also a backup (file.temp) then delete the original file(file) and copy the file.temp to file. I get an exception while doing the delete of the file. Here is the sample code: private static bool modifyFile(FileInfo file, string extractedMethod, string modifiedMethod) { Boolean result = false; FileStream fs = new FileStream(file.FullName + ".tmp", FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write); StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(fs); StreamReader streamreader = file.OpenText(); String originalPath = file.FullName; string input = streamreader.ReadToEnd(); Console.WriteLine("input : {0}", input); String tempString = input.Replace(extractedMethod, modifiedMethod); Console.WriteLine("replaced String {0}", tempString); try { sw.Write(tempString); sw.Flush(); sw.Close(); sw.Dispose(); fs.Close(); fs.Dispose(); streamreader.Close(); streamreader.Dispose(); File.Copy(originalPath, originalPath + ".old", true); FileInfo newFile = new FileInfo(originalPath + ".tmp"); File.Delete(originalPath); File.Copy(fs., originalPath, true); result = true; } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex); } return result; }` And the related exception System.IO.IOException: The process cannot access the file 'E:\mypath\myFile.cs' because it is being used by another process. at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.File.Delete(String path) at callingMethod.modifyFile(FileInfo file, String extractedMethod, String modifiedMethod) Normally these errors come from unclosed file streams, but I've taken care of that. I guess I've forgotten an important step but cannot figure out where. Thank you very much for your help,

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  • Using Linq to filter a ComboBox.DataSource ?

    - by Pesche Helfer
    Hi board, in another topic, I've stumbled over this very elegant solution by Darin Dimitrov to filter the DataSource of one ComboBox with the selection of another ComboBox: how to filter combobox in combobox using c# combo2.DataSource = ((IEnumerable<string>)c.DataSource) .Where(x => x == (string)combo1.SelectedValue); I would like to do a similar thing, but intead of filtering by a second combobox, I would like to filter by the text of a TextBox. (Basically, instead of choosing from a second ComboBox, the user simply enters his filter in to a TextBox). However, it turned out to be not as straight forward as I had hoped it would be. I tried stuff as the following, but failed miserably: cbWohndresse.DataSource = ((IEnumerable<DataSet>)ds) .Where(x => x.Tables["Adresse"].Select("AdrLabel LIKE '%TEST%'")); cbWohndresse.DisplayMember = "Adresse.AdrLabel"; cbWohndresse.ValueMember = "Adresse.adress_id"; ds is the DataSet which I would like to use as filtered DataSource. "Adresse" is one DataTable in this DataSet. It contains a DataColumn "AdrLabel". Now I would like to display only those "AdrLabel", which contain the string from the user input. (Currently, %TEST% replaces the textbox.text.) The above code fails because the lambda expression does not return Bool. But I am sure, there are also other problems (which type should I use for IEnumerable? Now it's DataSet, but Darin used String. But how could I convert a DataSet to a string? Yes, I am as much newbyish as it gets, my experience is "void", and publicly so. So please forgive me my rather stupid questions. Your help is greatly appreciated, because I can't solve this on my own (tried hard already). Thank you very much! Pesche P.S. I am only using Linq to achieve an uncomplicated filter for the ComboBox (avoiding a View). The rest is not based on Linq, but on oldstyle Ado.NET (ds is filled by an SqlDataAdapter), if that's of any importance.

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  • What should I do when the managed object context fails to save?

    - by dontWatchMyProfile
    Example: I have an Cat entity with an catAge attribute. In the data modeler, I configured catAge as int with a max of 100. Then I do this: [newManagedObject setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:125] forKey:@"catAge"]; // Save the context. NSError *error = nil; if (![context save:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); } I'm getting an error in the console, like this: 2010-06-12 11:40:41.947 CatTest[2250:207] Unresolved error Error Domain=NSCocoaErrorDomain Code=1610 UserInfo=0x10164d0 "Operation could not be completed. (Cocoa error 1610.)", { NSLocalizedDescription = "Operation could not be completed. (Cocoa error 1610.)"; NSValidationErrorKey = catAge; NSValidationErrorObject = <NSManagedObject: 0x10099f0> (entity: Cat; id: 0x1006a90 <x-coredata:///Cat/t3BCBC34B-8405-4F16-B591-BE804B6811562> ; data: { catAge = 125; catName = "No Name"; }); NSValidationErrorPredicate = SELF <= 100; NSValidationErrorValue = 125; } Well, so I have an validation error. But the odd thing is, that it seems the MOC is broken after this. If I just tap "add" to add another invalid Cat object and save that, I'm getting this: 2010-06-12 11:45:13.857 CatTest[2250:207] Unresolved error Error Domain=NSCocoaErrorDomain Code=1560 UserInfo=0x1232170 "Operation could not be completed. (Cocoa error 1560.)", { NSDetailedErrors = ( Error Domain=NSCocoaErrorDomain Code=1610 UserInfo=0x1215f00 "Operation could not be completed. (Cocoa error 1610.)", Error Domain=NSCocoaErrorDomain Code=1610 UserInfo=0x1209fc0 "Operation could not be completed. (Cocoa error 1610.)" ); } That seems to report two errors now. BUT: When I try to delete now an valid, existing object from the table view (using the default core data template in a navigation-based app), then the app crashes! All I get in the console is: 2010-06-12 11:47:18.931 CatTest[2250:207] Unresolved error Error Domain=NSCocoaErrorDomain Code=1560 UserInfo=0x123eb30 "Operation could not be completed. (Cocoa error 1560.)", { NSDetailedErrors = ( Error Domain=NSCocoaErrorDomain Code=1610 UserInfo=0x1217010 "Operation could not be completed. (Cocoa error 1610.)", Error Domain=NSCocoaErrorDomain Code=1610 UserInfo=0x123ea80 "Operation could not be completed. (Cocoa error 1610.)" ); } ...so no idea where or why it crashes, but it does. So the question is, what are the neccessary steps to take when there's an validation error?

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  • NameClaimType in ClaimsIdentity from SAML

    - by object88
    I am attempting to understand the world of WIF in context of a WCF Data Service / REST / OData server. I have a hacked up version of SelfSTS that is running inside a unit test project. When the unit tests start, it kicks off a WCF service, which generates my SAML token. This is the SAML token being generated: <saml:Assertion MajorVersion="1" MinorVersion="1" ... > <saml:Conditions>...</saml:Conditions> <saml:AttributeStatement> <saml:Subject> <saml:NameIdentifier Format="EMAIL">4bd406bf-0cf0-4dc4-8e49-57336a479ad2</saml:NameIdentifier> <saml:SubjectConfirmation>...</saml:SubjectConfirmation> </saml:Subject> <saml:Attribute AttributeName="emailaddress" AttributeNamespace="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/ws/2005/05/identity/claims"> <saml:AttributeValue>[email protected]</saml:AttributeValue> </saml:Attribute> <saml:Attribute AttributeName="name" AttributeNamespace="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/ws/2005/05/identity/claims"> <saml:AttributeValue>bob</saml:AttributeValue> </saml:Attribute> </saml:AttributeStatement> <ds:Signature>...</ds:Signature> </saml:Assertion> (I know the Format of my NameIdentifier isn't really EMAIL, this is something I haven't gotten to cleaning up yet.) Inside my actual server, I put some code borrowed from Pablo Cabraro / Cibrax. This code seems to run A-OK, although I confess that I don't understand what's happening. I note that later in my code, when I need to check my identity, Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is an instance of Microsoft.IdentityModel.Claims.ClaimsIdentity, which has a claim for all the attributes, plus a nameidentifier claim with the value in my NameIdentifier element in saml:Subject. It also has a property NameClaimType, which points to "http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/ws/2005/05/identity/claims/name". It would make more sense if NameClaimType mapped to nameidentifier, wouldn't it? How do I make that happen? Or am I expecting the wrong thing of the name claim? Thanks!

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  • Project References DLL version hell

    - by Mr Shoubs
    We're having problems getting visual studio to pick up the latest version of a DLL from one of our projects. We have multiple class library projects (e.g. BusinessLogic, ReportData) and a number of web services, each has a reference to a Connectivity DLL we've written (this ref to the connectivity DLL is the problem). We always point references to the DLL in the bin/debug folder, (which is where we always build to for any given project) and all custom DLL references have CopyLocal = True and SpecificVersion = False ReportData has a reference to business logic (which also has a reference to connectivity - I don't see why this should cause a problem, but thought it is worth mentioning) The weird thing is, when you click "Add Reference" and browse to Connectivity/bin/debug - you hover the mouse over the DLL file, the correct (latest) version is shown (version and file version are always incremented together), but when you click ok, a previous version number is pulled though. Even when I look in the current projects debug folder (where copy local would put the DLL after compiling) that shows the latest version number. - NO WHERE does can I find the previous version of the DLL outside of visual studio, but in that project references it has the old version - even though the path is correct. I'm at a loss as to where it might be getting the old versions from. Or even why it wants that one. This is possibly the most frustraighting problem I have ever come across. Does anyone know how to ensure the latest version is pulled through (preferably automatically or on compile). EDIT: Although not exactly the scenario I'm dealing with I was reading this article and somewhere it mentions about CLR ignoring revision numbers. Understandable (even though this hasn't been a problem before - we're on revision 39), so I thought I would update the build number, still didn't work. In a vain attempt I though I would update the minor version number and see if that made any difference. I'm not saying this is the answer as I have to check quite a few things first, but on the face of it, this seems to have solved my problem... Further edit: In other class libraries this seems to have solved the problem, however in a test windows application it still pulls a previous version through :( If I increment the minor version number again, the same problem come back and I am left with the wrong version being pulled though. Further Edit - I created an entirly new project, added a reference and still had the exact same problem. This suggests the problem is restriced to the project I am referencing. Wish I knew why! Anyone had this problem before and know how to get around it? HELP!

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  • UITableViewCells appear behind backgroundView

    - by Khanzor
    I am having a problem setting the background of UITableView to a UIImageView (see below for why I am doing this), once the view is set, it works fine, and scrolls with the UITableView, but it hides the elements of the Table View. I need to have a UIImageView as the background for a UITableView. I know this has been answered before, but the answers are to use: [UIColor colorWithPatternImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]]; Or something like (which I need to use): UIImageView *background = [MainWindow generateBackgroundWithFrame:tableView.bounds]; [tableView addSubview:background]; [tableView sendSubviewToBack:background]; The reason I need to use the latter is because of my generateBackgroundWithFrame method, which takes a large image, and draws a border around that image to the dimensions specified, and clips the remainder of the image: + (UIImageView *) generateBackgroundWithFrame: (CGRect)frame { UIImageView *background = [[[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:frame] autorelease]; background.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"globalBackground.png"]; [background.layer setMasksToBounds:YES]; [background.layer setCornerRadius:10.0]; [background.layer setBorderColor:[[UIColor grayColor] CGColor]]; [background.layer setBorderWidth:3.0]; return background; } Please note: I understand that this might poorly effect performance, but I don't have the resources to go through and make those images for each potential screen in the app. Please do not answer this question with a mindless "you shouldn't do this" response. I am aware that it is possibly the wrong thing to do. How do I show my UITableView control elements? Is there something that I am doing wrong in my delegate? Here is a simplified version: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(20, 20, 261, 45) reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDetailDisclosureButton; UIImage *rowBackground; NSString *imageName = @"standAloneTVButton.png"; rowBackground = [UIImage imageNamed:imageName]; UITextView *textView = [[UITextView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 5, 300, 200)]; textView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; textView.textColor = [UIColor blackColor]; textView.font = [UIFont fontWithName:@"Helvetica" size:18.0f]; Purchase *purchase = [[PurchaseModel productsPurchased] objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; textView.text = [purchase Title]; selectedTextView.text = textView.text; UIImageView *normalBackground = [[[UIImageView alloc] init] autorelease]; normalBackground.image = rowBackground; [normalBackground insertSubview:textView atIndex:0]; cell.backgroundView = normalBackground; [textView release]; } return cell; }

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  • Using Apple’s Bonjour service from .NET?

    - by Martín Marconcini
    I have an iPhone app that publishes through Bonjour. The Mac counterpart works, they sync and exchange data. Now I have to port that little Mac app to Windows. I’ve decided to go with .NET (because that’s what I know). The app is not complex, but I’m in the early stages. I need to browse/discover Bonjour services. For this task, I’ve downloaded Mono.Zeroconf and Apple’s latest SDK (which includes a couple of C# Samples). I’m not really pasting code because I’m really copy/pasting the samples. In fact, Mono.Zeroconf has a MZClient.exe that can be used to test “all the API”. My 1st test was -on the same box- open two cmd.exe and launch a MZclient registering a service and on the other, launch it and “discover it”. It doesn’t work. Here’s the server: C:\MZ>MZClient -v -p "_http._tcp 80 mysimpleweb” *** Registering name = 'mysimpleweb', type = '_http._tcp', domain = 'local.' *** Registered name = ‘mysimpleweb’ On the other terminal: c:\MZ>MZClient -v -t "_http._tcp" Creating a ServiceBrowser with the following settings: Interface = 0 (All) Address Protocol = Any Domain = local Registration Type = _http._tcp Resolve Shares = False Hit ^C when you're bored waiting for responses. And that’s it. Nothing happens. I’ve of course tried with different services to no avail. Even played a little bit with that domain thing. Remember this is the same box. I tried on another computer, because this was a VM inside OSX, so I went ahead and tried on a “pure” win XP. Nothing. note: I have Apple Bonjour Service (up and running) and also the Apple SDK (installed later). Given that this didn’t work, I went ahead and decided to try the Apple SDK which has an Interop and a few pre-compiled samples (and its source code). Short story, neither the mDSNBrowser.exe nor the SimpleChat.exe work/see/discover anything. My box is a Win7 under Parallels, but that doesn’t seem to be affecting anything, given that the native XP exhibits the same problems. What am I doing so awfully wrong?

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  • MySql multiple selects batching in .net

    - by Amith George
    I have a situation in my application. For each x-axis point in my chart, I am plotting 5 y-axis values. To calculate each of these 5 values, I need to make 4 different queries. Ie, for each x-axis point I need to fire 20 sql queries. Now, I need to plot 40 such points in the my chart. Its resulting in a pathetic performance where it takes close to a minute to get all the data back from the database. Each of 4 different queries consists of a join between 2 tables. One has only 6 rows. The other close to 10,000. Each of the 4 queries has different WHERE clauses, so they are different queries. For each point in the x-axis, only the values for the where clauses change. I have tried combining each of the 4 queries into one big string. Basically batch the four selects. These are again batched for each y-axis value. So, for each x-axis point, I am now firing one big command that consists of 20 different select statements. Technically, I should be experiencing a big performance boost, right? Instead of hitting the db 40x5x4 = 800 times, I am now hitting it just 40 times. But instead of taking 60 seconds, it taking 50-55 seconds... not much of a help. I am using MySql 5.1, and the 6.1 version of its .Net connector. What can I do to improve the performance? Edit: One of the 4 queries is as follows: SELECT SUM(TIME_TO_SEC(TIMEDIFF(T1.col2, T1.col1))* T2.col1 / (3600 *1000)) AS TotalTime FROM Table T1 JOIN Table T2 ON T1.col3 = T2.col3 WHERE T1.col4 = 'i' AND T1.col1 >= '2009-12-25 00:00:00' AND T1.col2 <= '2009-12-26 00:00:00'; The other 3 queries are similar, only the where clause changes slightly. This set of 4 queries is fired 5 times. The first 3 times against the join of table T1 and T2, passing in different values for col4. And the next two times against the join of table T3 and T2 passing in different values for col4. These 5 values are the y-axis values for a particular x-axis point. The data returned by all these queries is the same format. so, we tried doing a UNION ALL on all these queries. No substantial difference. One strange thing, however, after indexing the foreign key on the table T1 [while it contained over a lakh records], the queries were using the index, but they had become slower. At times, the queries would take double the time to return the data.

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  • Trying to read FormsAuthentication tickets to read in other areas of site

    - by Pasha Aryana
    Hi, NOTE: I have included 3 links in here to my localhost areas but could not submit the post so I seperetaed them with a space character so it would post on stackoverflow. I currently have 2 ASP.NET MVC apps in my solution. First I run the first one by setting it to be startup project. It goes to the login page, from there once the data has been entered I execute the following code: var authTicket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, login.LoginDataContract.MSISDN, DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(Convert.ToDouble("30")), true, ""); string cookieContents = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(authTicket); var cookie = new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookieContents) { Expires = authTicket.Expiration, //Path = FormsAuthentication.FormsCookiePath //Path = "http://localhost" Domain = "" }; if (System.Web.HttpContext.Current != null) { System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); } As you can see I have set the Domain = "", so theoretically speaking it should work on any thing under my http: //localhost. Then I have set the persist security of the cookie to true so I can access it from any where under localhost. The cookie writes fine and I get logged in and all godd for now. BTW the url for this login page is: http //localhost/MyAccount/Login Now then I stop the solution and set the other MVC apps to be the startup. Then I run it. The URL for the second site is: http: //localhost/WebActivations/ Here is the code in the other apps start controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["Message"] = "Welcome to ASP.NET MVC!"; // PASHA: Added code to read the authorization cookie set at // login in MyAccount *.sln for (int i = 0; i < System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies.Count;i++) { Response.Write(System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[i].Name + " " + System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[i].Value); } HttpCookie authorizationCookie = System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName.ToString()]; // decrypt. FormsAuthenticationTicket authorizationForm = FormsAuthentication.Decrypt(authorizationCookie.Value); ViewData["Message"] = authorizationForm.UserData[0].ToString(); return View(); } public ActionResult About() { return View(); } The problem is in this Home controller when I run the solution it cannot read the authentication cookie, you see the loop there it does not find the .ASPXAUTH cookie. But once it crashes in Firefox I have a look in the Page Info and then security and Cookies and its there and its the same cookie. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Filtering a dropdown in Angular IE11 issue

    - by Brian S.
    I have a requirement for a select html element that can be duplicated multiple times on a page. The options for these select elements all come from a master list. All of the select elements can only show all of the items in the master list that have not been selected in any of the other select elements unless they just were duplicated. So I wrote a custom filter to do this in Angular and it seems to work just fine provided you are not using IE11. In IE when you select a new item from a duplicated select element, it seems to select the option after the one you selected even though the model still has the correct one set. I realize this sounds convoluted, so I created a jFiddle example. Using IE 11 try these steps: Select Bender Click the duplicate link Select Fry Notice that the one that is selected is Leela but the model still has Fry (id:2) as the one selected Now if you do the same thing in Chrome everything works as expected. Can anyone tell me how I might get around this or what I might be doing wrong? Here is the relevant Angular code: myapp.controller('Ctrl', function ($scope) { $scope.selectedIds = [{}]; $scope.allIds = [{ name: 'Bender', value: 1}, {name: 'Fry', value: 2}, {name: 'Leela', value: 3 }]; $scope.dupDropDown = function(currentDD) { var newDD = angular.copy(currentDD); $scope.selectedIds.push(newDD); } }); angular.module('appFilters',[]).filter('ddlFilter', function () { return function (allIds, currentItem, selectedIds) { //console.log(currentItem); var listToReturn = allIds.filter(function (anIdFromMasterList) { if (currentItem.id == anIdFromMasterList.value) return true; var areThereAny = selectedIds.some(function (aSelectedId) { return aSelectedId.id == anIdFromMasterList.value; }); return !areThereAny; }); return listToReturn; } }); And here is the relevant HTML <div ng-repeat="aSelection in selectedIds "> <a href="#" ng-click="dupDropDown(aSelection)">Duplicate</a> <select ng-model="aSelection.id" ng-options="a.value as a.name for a in allIds | ddlFilter:aSelection:selectedIds"> <option value="">--Select--</option> </select> </div>

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  • Classic ASP vs. ASP.NET encryption options

    - by harrije
    I'm working on a web site where the new pages are ASP.NET and the legacy pages are Classic ASP. Being new to development in the Windows env, I've been studying the latest technology, i.e. .NET and I become like a deer in headlights when ever legacy issues come up regarding COM objects. Security on the website is an abomination, but I've easily encrypted the connectionStrings in the web.config file per http://www.4guysfromrolla.com/articles/021506-1.aspx based on DPAPI machine mode. I understand this approach is not the most secure, but it's better than nothing which is what it was for the ASP.NET pages. Now, I question how to do similar encryption for the connection strings used by the Classic ASP pages. A complicating factor is that the web sited is hosted where I do not have admin permissions or even command line access, just FTP. Moreover I want to avoid managing the key. My research has found: DPAPI with COM interop. Seems like this should already be available, but the only thing I could find discussing this is CyptoUtility (see http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc163884.aspx) which is not installed on the hosting server. There are plenty of other third party COM objects, e.g. Crypto from Dalun Software http://www.dalun.com, but these aren't on the hosted server either, and they look to me to require you to do some kind of key management. There is CAPICOM on the hosted server, but M$ has deprecated it and many report it is not the easiest to use. It is not clear to me whether I can avoid key management with CAPICOM similar to using DPAPI for ASP.NET. If anyone happens to know, please clue me in. I could write an web service in ASP.NET and have the classic ASP pages use it to get the decrypted connection strings and then store those in an application variable. I would not need to use SSL since I could use localhost and nothing would be sent over the internet. In the simpliest form I could implement what someone termed a poor man's version based on a simple XML stream, however, I really was looking to avoid any development since I find it hard to believe there is not a simple solution for Classic ASP like there is for ASP.NET. Maybe I'm missing some options... Recommendations are requested...

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  • CSS Background-Images Loading after HTML Images (Involves Javascript)

    - by Kevin C.
    I threw together a quick little microsite that you can see at http://monterraauction.com. If you don't have a super-fast connection (and nothing's cached), the very last items to load are the background-images that are used for CSS image-text replacement (primarily, that h1#head at the top, with a 7kb background image). Nothing debilitating, but it looks slightly awkward. And I'm asking this question as a matter of curiosity more than anything else ;) Also, please note that this occurs in Firefox, but not Chrome. Now, underneath the h1#head I have a jquery.cycle.lite-powered slideshow in div#photo. In the HTML markup there are a total of 13, heavy image files that make up each of the slides. If I remove all but the first slide, then the problem goes away! So the CSS background-images are loading after...those HTML images are done? But here's what's confusing: I check it out in YSlow...the CSS background-images have a much lower response time than all of the slides in #photo. Right after all the JS files finish loading, in fact. So why aren't they showing up first? I tried $('#photo img:last-child').load(function() { alert('Locked and Loaded!')});, but the background-images pop up a while before the alert does, so I'm assuming it's not waiting until the last slide has loaded (admittedly I'm a bit of JS noob so maybe I'm just making a wrong assumption). I also tried commenting out all the jquery.cycle.lite stuff, so that I knew I didn't have any JS manipulating the DOM elements in #photo, but that wasn't the problem. I tried putting all the JS at the bottom of the document, right before </body>, but that didn't work. Lastly, I tried turning off javascript, and of course the css background-image loads way before the images in #photo, so it's definitely a JS thing (amirite?) I guess the obvious solution here is to mark the slides up as LINKS rather than IMGs, and have Javascript insert those 12 extra slideshow images after the DOM is ready--users without javascript shouldn't need to download the extra images anyways. But again, I'm curious: Why does removing the extra HTML images from within #photo solve the problem? And why are the CSS background-images showing up after the HTML images have loaded, even though YSlow says the css background-images loaded first? Seeing as how it happens in FF but not Chrome, is it simply a browser issue? I appreciate any insight you guys could give me!

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  • .NET SerialPort DataReceived event thread interference with main thread

    - by Kiran
    I am writing a serial communication program using the SerialPort class in C# to interact with a strip machine connected via a RS232 cable. When i send the command to the machine it responds with some bytes depending on the command. Like when i send a "\D" command, i am expecting to download the machine program data of 180 bytes as a continous string. As per the machine's manual, it suggests as a best practice to send an unreognized characters like comma (,) character to make sure the machine is initialized before sending the first command in the cycle. My serial communication code is as follows: public class SerialHelper { SerialPort commPort = null; string currentReceived = string.Empty; string receivedStr = string.Empty; private bool CommInitialized() { try { commPort = new SerialPort(); commPort.PortName = "COM1"; if (!commPort.IsOpen) commPort.Open(); commPort.BaudRate = 9600; commPort.Parity = System.IO.Ports.Parity.None; commPort.StopBits = StopBits.One; commPort.DataBits = 8; commPort.RtsEnable = true; commPort.DtrEnable = true; commPort.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(commPort_DataReceived); return true; } catch (Exception ex) { return false; } } void commPort_DataReceived(object sender, SerialDataReceivedEventArgs e) { SerialPort currentPort = (SerialPort)sender; currentReceived = currentPort.ReadExisting(); receivedStr += currentReceived; } internal int CommIO(string outString, int outLen, ref string inBuffer, int inLen) { receivedStr = string.Empty; inBuffer = string.Empty; if (CommInitialized()) { commPort.Write(outString); } System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1500); int i = 0; while ((receivedStr.Length < inLen) && i < 10) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(500); i += 1; } if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(receivedStr)) { inBuffer = receivedStr; } commPort.Close(); return inBuffer.Length; } } I am calling this code from a windows form as follows: len = SerialHelperObj.CommIO(",",1,ref inBuffer, 4) len = SerialHelperObj.CommIO(",",1,ref inBuffer, 4) If(inBuffer == "!?*O") { len = SerialHelperObj.CommIO("\D",2,ref inBuffer, 180) } A valid return value from the serial port looks like this: \D00000010000000000010 550 3250 0000256000 and so on ... I am getting some thing like this: \D00000010D,, 000 550 D,, and so on... I feel that my comm calls are getting interferred with the one when i send commands. But i am trying to make sure the result of the comma command then initiating the actual command. but the received thread is inserting the bytes from the previous communication cycle. Can any one please shed some light into this...? I lost quite some hair just trying to get this work. I am not sure where i am doing wrong

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  • How to better create stacked bar graphs with multiple variables from ggplot2?

    - by deoksu
    I often have to make stacked barplots to compare variables, and because I do all my stats in R, I prefer to do all my graphics in R with ggplot2. I would like to learn how to do two things: First, I would like to be able to add proper percentage tick marks for each variable rather than tick marks by count. Counts would be confusing, which is why I take out the axis labels completely. Second, there must be a simpler way to reorganize my data to make this happen. It seems like the sort of thing I should be able to do natively in ggplot2 with plyR, but the documentation for plyR is not very clear (and I have read both the ggplot2 book and the online plyR documentation. My best graph looks like this, the code to create it follows: the R code I use to get it is the following: library(epicalc) ### recode the variables to factors ### recode(c(int_newcoun, int_newneigh, int_neweur, int_newusa, int_neweco, int_newit, int_newen, int_newsp, int_newhr, int_newlit, int_newent, int_newrel, int_newhth, int_bapo, int_wopo, int_eupo, int_educ), c(1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9, NA), c('Very Interested','Somewhat Interested','Not Very Interested','Not At All interested',NA,NA,NA,NA,NA,NA)) ### Combine recoded variables to a common vector Interest1<-c(int_newcoun, int_newneigh, int_neweur, int_newusa, int_neweco, int_newit, int_newen, int_newsp, int_newhr, int_newlit, int_newent, int_newrel, int_newhth, int_bapo, int_wopo, int_eupo, int_educ) ### Create a second vector to label the first vector by original variable ### a1<-rep("News about Bangladesh", length(int_newcoun)) a2<-rep("Neighboring Countries", length(int_newneigh)) [...] a17<-rep("Education", length(int_educ)) Interest2<-c(a1, a2, a3, a4, a5, a6, a7, a8, a9, a10, a11, a12, a13, a14, a15, a16, a17) ### Create a Weighting vector of the proper length ### Interest.weight<-rep(weight, 17) ### Make and save a new data frame from the three vectors ### Interest.df<-cbind(Interest1, Interest2, Interest.weight) Interest.df<-as.data.frame(Interest.df) write.csv(Interest.df, 'C:\\Documents and Settings\\[name]\\Desktop\\Sweave\\InterestBangladesh.csv') ### Sort the factor levels to display properly ### Interest.df$Interest1<-relevel(Interest$Interest1, ref='Not Very Interested') Interest.df$Interest1<-relevel(Interest$Interest1, ref='Somewhat Interested') Interest.df$Interest1<-relevel(Interest$Interest1, ref='Very Interested') Interest.df$Interest2<-relevel(Interest$Interest2, ref='News about Bangladesh') Interest.df$Interest2<-relevel(Interest$Interest2, ref='Education') [...] Interest.df$Interest2<-relevel(Interest$Interest2, ref='European Politics') detach(Interest) attach(Interest) ### Finally create the graph in ggplot2 ### library(ggplot2) p<-ggplot(Interest, aes(Interest2, ..count..)) p<-p+geom_bar((aes(weight=Interest.weight, fill=Interest1))) p<-p+coord_flip() p<-p+scale_y_continuous("", breaks=NA) p<-p+scale_fill_manual(value = rev(brewer.pal(5, "Purples"))) p update_labels(p, list(fill='', x='', y='')) I'd very much appreciate any tips, tricks or hints. Thanks.

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  • Can't Set Crystal Report Selection Formula Programatically

    - by eidylon
    Hello all, first, I can't stand Crystal! Okay, that's off my chest... Now, we have an old VB6 app we maintain for a client, which uses the Crystal Automation library to programatically change the record selection formulas in a bunch of Crystal Reports 8.5 reports. There are two reports which are ALMOST identical. I had to change them recently to add another field from another table. When I added the table in to the reports though, while it added it in the visual designer, it did not add it in the FROM clause of the SQL statement. So, I manually edited the SQL statement to add in the additional join. KO, works great. If i run the reports in Crystal preview mode, they work exactly as expected. Now, the users went to test the changes from within the VB app. One of the reports works fine and dandy. The other report however, is failing to set the selection formula as expected. The code sets the selection formulas using the function PESetSelectionFormula. I verified that the string being passed in to the function as the new selection formula is correct via a step-through examination of the variables. The call to PESetSelectionFormula seems to be working okay, and is returning a value of 1, which as near as I can find anywhere indicates success. (The other report, which is working fine from code is also returning 1.) However, the report is failing with an error: Error Code: 534 - Error detected by database DLL. The code, for debugging purposes dumps out the SQL string currently being used by the report. The SQL coming out of the report is: SELECT ... FROM ... WHERE ORDER BY ... As you can see, the WHERE clause is blank, which I would imagine is why the database DLL is upchucking on this statement. I don't understand why the automation library is not setting the WHERE clause even though the call to PESetSelectionFormula is being passed a valid string and is returning success. I thought perhaps it was because I had manually edited the SQL in the report to add the table it wasn't adding, but I did the same thing in the other nearly identical report, and that one is working fine. Anyone have any ideas why PESetSelectionFormula might report success but not actually do anything? P.S. I have already tried doing a Database Verify Database from the menus, and that said the report was all up to date and did not help at all.

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  • Gwt-gdata authentication

    - by Raffo
    Hi guys, I'm writing an application with GWT and I found on the internet that there's a library to use easily gdata features. In particular I need to use the integration with Google Calendar. I followed the official guide on gwt-gdata site to do the authentication ( http://code.google.com/p/gwt-gdata/wiki/GettingStarted ) but unfortunately, I got an error. This is the error: 17:59:12.463 [ERROR] [testmappa] Unable to load module entry point class testMappa.client.TestMappa (see associated exception for details) com.google.gwt.core.client.JavaScriptException: (TypeError): $wnd.google.accounts is undefined fileName: http://127.0.0.1:8888 lineNumber: 29 stack: ("http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/")@http://127.0.0.1:8888:29 connect("http://127.0.0.1:8888/TestMappa.html?gwt.codesvr=127.0.0.1:9997","`gL1<a3s4B&Y{(Ci","127.0.0.1:9997","testmappa","2.0")@:0 ((void 0),"testmappa","http://127.0.0.1:8888/testmappa/")@http://127.0.0.1:8888/testmappa/hosted.html?testmappa:264 z()@http://127.0.0.1:8888/testmappa/testmappa.nocache.js:2 (-2)@http://127.0.0.1:8888/testmappa/testmappa.nocache.js:8 at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.BrowserChannelServer.invokeJavascript(BrowserChannelServer.java:195) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.ModuleSpaceOOPHM.doInvoke(ModuleSpaceOOPHM.java:120) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.ModuleSpace.invokeNative(ModuleSpace.java:507) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.ModuleSpace.invokeNativeObject(ModuleSpace.java:264) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.JavaScriptHost.invokeNativeObject(JavaScriptHost.java:91) at com.google.gwt.accounts.client.User.login(User.java) at testMappa.client.TestMappa.onModuleLoad(TestMappa.java:68) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.ModuleSpace.onLoad(ModuleSpace.java:369) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.OophmSessionHandler.loadModule(OophmSessionHandler.java:185) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.BrowserChannelServer.processConnection(BrowserChannelServer.java:380) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.BrowserChannelServer.run(BrowserChannelServer.java:222) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:637) I'm not able to understand the reason of this error. My code is simply: String scope = "http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/"; User.login(scope); And as far as I know it should work as it is. I don't know what to do and I'm here to ask how to solve this problem and if I can directly use gdata native java library, but I believe this other thing is not possible to be done for client-side gwt code (since the code is going to be converted to javascript). Thank you.

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  • trying to build Boost MPI, but the lib files are not created. What's going on?

    - by unknownthreat
    I am trying to run a program with Boost MPI, but the thing is I don't have the .lib. So I try to create one by following the instruction at http://www.boost.org/doc/libs/1_43_0/doc/html/mpi/getting_started.html#mpi.config The instruction says "For many users using LAM/MPI, MPICH, or OpenMPI, configuration is almost automatic", I got myself OpenMPI in C:\, but I didn't do anything more with it. Do we need to do anything with it? Beside that, another statement from the instruction: "If you don't already have a file user-config.jam in your home directory, copy tools/build/v2/user-config.jam there." Well, I simply do what it says. I got myself "user-config.jam" in C:\boost_1_43_0 along with "using mpi ;" into the file. Next, this is what I've done: bjam --with-mpi C:\boost_1_43_0>bjam --with-mpi WARNING: No python installation configured and autoconfiguration failed. See http://www.boost.org/libs/python/doc/building.html for configuration instructions or pass --without-python to suppress this message and silently skip all Boost.Python targets Building the Boost C++ Libraries. warning: skipping optional Message Passing Interface (MPI) library. note: to enable MPI support, add "using mpi ;" to user-config.jam. note: to suppress this message, pass "--without-mpi" to bjam. note: otherwise, you can safely ignore this message. warning: Unable to construct ./stage-unversioned warning: Unable to construct ./stage-unversioned Component configuration: - date_time : not building - filesystem : not building - graph : not building - graph_parallel : not building - iostreams : not building - math : not building - mpi : building - program_options : not building - python : not building - random : not building - regex : not building - serialization : not building - signals : not building - system : not building - test : not building - thread : not building - wave : not building ...found 1 target... The Boost C++ Libraries were successfully built! The following directory should be added to compiler include paths: C:\boost_1_43_0 The following directory should be added to linker library paths: C:\boost_1_43_0\stage\lib C:\boost_1_43_0> I see that there are many libs in C:\boost_1_43_0\stage\lib, but I see no trace of libboost_mpi-vc100-mt-1_43.lib or libboost_mpi-vc100-mt-gd-1_43.lib at all. These are the libraries required for linking in mpi applications. What could possibly gone wrong when libraries are not being built?

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  • Client-side templating frameworks to streamline using jQuery with REST/JSON

    - by Tauren
    I'm starting to migrate some html generation tasks from a server-side framework to the client. I'm using jQuery on the client. My goal is to get JSON data via a REST api and use this data to populate HTML into the page. Right now, when a user on my site clicks a link to My Projects, the server generates HTML like this: <dl> <dt>Clean Toilet</dt> <dd>Get off your butt and clean this filth!</dd> <dt>Clean Car</dt> <dd>I think there's something growing in there...</dd> <dt>Replace Puked on Baby Sheets</dt> </dl> I'm changing this so that clicking My Projects will now do a GET request that returns something like this: [ { "name":"Clean Car", "description":"I think there's something growing in there..." }, { "name":"Clean Toilets", "description":"Get off your butt and clean this filth!" }, { "name":"Replace Puked on Baby Sheets" } ] I can certainly write custom jQuery code to take that JSON and generate the HTML from it. This is not my question, and I don't need advice on how to do that. What I'd like to do is completely separate the presentation and layout from the logic (jquery code). I don't want to be creating DL, DT, and DD elements via jQuery code. I'd rather use some sort of HTML templates that I can fill the data in to. These templates could simply be HTML snippets that are hidden in the page that the application was loaded from. Or they could be dynamically loaded from the server (to support user specific layouts, i18n, etc.). They could be displayed a single time, as well as allow looping and repeating. Perhaps it should support sub-templates, if/then/else, and so forth. I have LOTS of lists and content on my site that are presented in many different ways. I'm looking to create a simple and consistent way to generate and display content without creating custom jQuery code for every different feature on my site. To me, this means I need to find or build a small framework on top of jQuery (probably as a plugin) that meets these requirements. The only sort of framework that I've found that is anything like this is jTemplates. I don't know how good it is, as I haven't used it yet. At first glance, I'm not thrilled by it's template syntax. Anyone know of other frameworks or plugins that I should look into? Any blog posts or other resources out there that discuss doing this sort of thing? I just want to make sure that I've surveyed everything out there before building it myself. Thanks!

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  • apache cxf: c error

    - by robinmag
    I tried to deploy the sample application from this tutorial: http://united-coders.com/phillip-steffensen/developing-a-simple-soap-webservice-using-spring-30-apache-cxf-226-and-maven-2 In eclipse everything works fine, but i went to troubles when deploying the service. The cxf-java2ws-plugin throws a ClassNotFoundException for org.springframework.core.NestedRuntimeException. Here is my maven pom build plugin (copy from the example) <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.cxf</groupId> <artifactId>cxf-java2ws-plugin</artifactId> <version>${cxf.version}</version> <dependencies> <dependency> <groupId>org.apache.cxf</groupId> <artifactId>cxf-rt-frontend-jaxws</artifactId> <version>${cxf.version}</version> </dependency> <dependency> <groupId>org.apache.cxf</groupId> <artifactId>cxf-rt-frontend-simple</artifactId> <version>${cxf.version}</version> </dependency> </dependencies> <executions> <execution> <id>process-classes</id> <phase>process-classes</phase> <configuration> <className>vn.vdconline.ws.sso.PersonService</className> <genWsdl>true</genWsdl> <verbose>true</verbose> </configuration> <goals> <goal>java2ws</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> </plugin> Please tell me if i missed any thing. Thank you!

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  • List of objects sent over WCF, but null list received?

    - by GONeale
    Hey there, I have an object containing a list of custom objects which I am returning over a response in WCF, however on the receiving end, the list is null? But it contains 112 objects just prior to stepping out of the service on the server. This wasn't always the case, I have seen it return a list. I've just recently upgraded it to use NET TCP bindings, but I can't confirm when I started losing the data or if it was since the conversion from wsHttpBinding to netTcpBinding as it moved along with about four other services. I have looked on the WCF Service messages and trace file and also the WCF client's messages and trace file, no exceptions reported, and both message logs indicate they are sending the List<T> and for client, receiving the list - very frustrating! It's not a super light array, but not huge either, around 100KB. it has about 12 properties each and as stated 112 items are being sent. I have tried everything I can think of on client and server, note: Client: this.binding = new NetTcpBinding(SecurityMode.None) { MaxReceivedMessageSize = int.MaxValue, ReaderQuotas = { MaxStringContentLength = int.MaxValue, MaxArrayLength = int.MaxValue } }; ... Server app.config (sorry I have no idea if the quota settings have any bearing on net tcp? I only just added it similar to what I use for wsHttpBinding to test, but still list is null): <netTcpBinding> <binding name="SecurityByNetTcpTransportBinding" sendTimeout="00:03:00" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <readerQuotas maxStringContentLength="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" /> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </netTcpBinding> and something else I tried in my net tcp binding behavior: <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="2147483647" /> <serviceTimeouts transactionTimeout="05:05:00" /> <serviceThrottling maxConcurrentSessions="400" maxConcurrentInstances="400" maxConcurrentCalls="400"/> I hope somebody can help, I hate 5 steps forward 3 steps backward which always seems to be the case with WCF :P In the interim until I [hopefully] get a response I will now try reducing this array just to see if it's a sizing issue.. Ok, It seems I have bigger problems. Because the list was the only thing I was sending, I thought it was an array issue. I am even setting an int to "25" and it's coming back as 0 - Anybody? I know I must have done something obviously stupid.

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