Search Results

Search found 19966 results on 799 pages for 'wild thing'.

Page 732/799 | < Previous Page | 728 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739  | Next Page >

  • Variables are "lost" somewhere, then reappear... all with no error thrown.

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hi All, I'm probably going to make myself look like a fool with my horrible scripting but here we go. I have a form that I am collecting a bunch of checkbox info from using a binary method. ON/SET=1 !ISSET=0 Anyway, all seems to be going as planned except for the query bit. When I run the script, it runs through and throws no errors, but it's not doing what I think I am telling it to. I've hard coded the values in the query and left them in the script and it DOES update the DB. I've also tried echoing all the needed variables after the script runs and exiting right after so I can audit them... and they're all there. Here's an example. ####FEATURES RECORD UPDATE ### HERE I DECIDE TO RUN THE SCRIPT BASED ON WHETHER AN IMAGE BUTTON WAS USED if (isset($_POST["button_x"])) { ### HERE I AM ASSIGNING 1 OR 0 TO A VAR BASED ON WHTER THE CHECKBOX WAS SET if (isset($_POST["pool"])) $pool=1; if (!isset($_POST["pool"])) $pool=0; if (isset($_POST["darts"])) $darts=1; if (!isset($_POST["darts"])) $darts=0; if (isset($_POST["karaoke"])) $karaoke=1; if (!isset($_POST["karaoke"])) $karaoke=0; if (isset($_POST["trivia"])) $trivia=1; if (!isset($_POST["trivia"])) $trivia=0; if (isset($_POST["wii"])) $wii=1; if (!isset($_POST["wii"])) $wii=0; if (isset($_POST["guitarhero"])) $guitarhero=1; if (!isset($_POST["guitarhero"])) $guitarhero=0; if (isset($_POST["megatouch"])) $megatouch=1; if (!isset($_POST["megatouch"])) $megatouch=0; if (isset($_POST["arcade"])) $arcade=1; if (!isset($_POST["arcade"])) $arcade=0; if (isset($_POST["jukebox"])) $jukebox=1; if (!isset($_POST["jukebox"])) $jukebox=0; if (isset($_POST["dancefloor"])) $dancefloor=1; if (!isset($_POST["dancefloor"])) $dancefloor=0; ### I'VE DONE LOADS OF PERMUTATIONS HERE... HARD SET THE 1/0 VARS AND LEFT THE $estab_id TO BE PICKED UP. SET THE $estab_id AND LEFT THE COLUMN DATA TO BE PICKED UP. ALL NO GOOD. IT _DOES_ WORK IF I HARD SET ALL VARS THOUGH mysql_query("UPDATE thedatabase SET pool_table='$pool', darts='$darts', karoke='$karaoke', trivia='$trivia', wii='$wii', megatouch='$megatouch', guitar_hero='$guitarhero', arcade_games='$arcade', dancefloor='$dancefloor' WHERE establishment_id='22'"); ###WEIRD THING HERE IS IF I ECHO THE VARS AT THIS POINT AND THEN EXIT(); they all show up as intended. header("location:theadminfilething.php"); exit(); THANKS ALL!!!

    Read the article

  • Crazy VS Designer Errors

    - by BlueRaja
    Here's a strange one. After renaming a class, one of my forms began giving me errors in the designer, refusing to open. Funny thing is, the form worked just fine when I ran the program. I began reverting my changes to deduce the problem. I have now reverted completely back to the last commit - in which I know the form was working in the designer - cleaned the solution, and deleted the bin/ and obj/ folders, as well as the *.suo file for good measure. The form still does not display in designer. Here are the errors it gives: Could not find 'MyNamespace.MyControl'. Please make sure that the assembly that contains this type is referenced. If this type is a part of your development project, make sure that the project has been successfully built. The variable 'myControl1' is either undeclared or was never assigned. The variable is both declared and assigned, and MyControl builds fine (again, the form works fine when the program is actually run). Stranger still, if I try to create a new form and drag a MyControl onto it, I get this Entity-Framework error: Failed to create component 'MyControl'. The error message follows: 'System.ArgumentException: The specified named connection is either not found in the configuration, not intended to be used with the EntityClient provider, or not valid. at System.Data.EntityClient.EntityConnection.ChangeConnectionString(String newConnectionString) at System.Data.EntityClient.EntityConnection..ctor(String connectionString) at System.Data.Objects.ObjectContect.CreateEntityConnection(String connectionString) etc. etc. There is nothing wrong with my connection string: it worked before, and, again, it works when I actually run the program (the control already exists on the old form from the previous commit). Any ideas whatsoever? I am completely at a loss. [Edit] The only significant code: MyControl.cs public MyControl() { _entities = new MyEFEntities(); //Entity-framework generated class } MyForm.Designer.cs private void InitializeComponent() { this.myControl1 = new MyNamespace.MyControl(); ... this.Controls.Add(this.myControl1); } MyEFDatabase.Designer.cs public MyEFEntities() : base("name=MyEFEntities", "MyEFEntities") { ... } App.Config <connectionStrings> <add name="MyEFEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/MyEFDatabase.csdl|res://*/MyEFDatabase.ssdl|res://*/MyEFDatabase.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=MyDatabaseServer;Initial Catalog=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> </connectionStrings> I've tried the "replace &quot; with '" trick - didn't help. [Edit2] It is happening to new projects also, but not immediately. Only after fiddling around a bit (it has something to do with adding a many-to-one relationship that EF did not figure out on its own), but I can't figure out the exact steps to reproduce.

    Read the article

  • Haskell: how to get through 'no instance for' ?

    - by artemave
    I am learning Haskell. I am on the 8th chapter of this book. The main thing I've learned so far is that Haskell is very unfriendly to me and it bites my ass where possible. Moreover... Heck! Enough mourning, to business. Here is the code: module GlobRegex ( globToRegex, matchesGlob ) where import Text.Regex.Posix import Text.Regex.Posix.String import Text.Regex.Base.RegexLike data CaseOpt = Case | NoCase deriving (Eq) matchesGlob :: String -> String -> CaseOpt -> Bool matchesGlob name pat caseopt = match regex name where regex = case caseopt of NoCase -> makeRegexOpts (defaultCompOpt + compIgnoreCase) defaultExecOpt (globToRegex pat) Case -> makeRegex (globToRegex pat) globToRegex :: String -> String ... And here is how it fails to compile: Prelude Text.Regex.Posix Text.Regex.Base.RegexLike> :load globtoregex\GlobRegex. hs [1 of 1] Compiling GlobRegex ( globtoregex\GlobRegex.hs, interpreted ) globtoregex\GlobRegex.hs:14:31: No instance for (RegexLike regex [Char]) arising from a use of `match' at globtoregex\GlobRegex.hs:14:31-46 Possible fix: add an instance declaration for (RegexLike regex [Char]) In the expression: match regex name In the definition of `matchesGlob': matchesGlob name pat caseopt = match regex name where regex = case caseopt of { NoCase -> makeRegexOpts (defaultCompOpt + compIgnoreCase) defaultExecOpt (globToRegex pat) Case -> makeRegex (globToRegex pat) } globtoregex\GlobRegex.hs:17:23: No instance for (RegexMaker regex CompOption execOpt String) arising from a use of `makeRegex' at globtoregex\GlobRegex.hs:17:23-49 Possible fix: add an instance declaration for (RegexMaker regex CompOption execOpt String) In the expression: makeRegex (globToRegex pat) In a case alternative: Case -> makeRegex (globToRegex pat) In the expression: case caseopt of { NoCase -> makeRegexOpts (defaultCompOpt + compIgnoreCase) defaultExecOpt (globToRegex p at) Case -> makeRegex (globToRegex pat) } Failed, modules loaded: none. To my best understanding, Text.Regex.Posix.String provides instances for RegexLike Regex String and RegexMaker Regex CompOption ExecOption String, so it should work. On the other hand, I can see that regex in the error message is type variable, not a concrete type, so, perhaps not... Anyway, this is where I am stuck. May be there is a common pattern for resolving no instance for type of problems? Or, in Haskell terms, instance of SmartGuess typeclass for no instance for?

    Read the article

  • DevExpress Reporting Session Issue

    - by LeeHull
    This is pretty complicated so I will explain what is going on. I have created an ASP.NET website for displaying images, the way we use our images is, we have a database table that contains the URL where the images are located, however we recently started moving them from the filesystem, and storing them directly into the database as binary, but since we don't want to break older applications, we currently store them both places till they are all updated. Alright, the website I'm working on, is just a reporting website to display images by a date range, I have created an HTTPHandler to display the image, depending if they exist in the database as binary, if the row is DBNull, I just grab the URL from the other table instead, I just read the image, convert it into a byte[] and write it to the response, so it is interpreted as an image. I have created a page to display the report using DevExpress Reporting, I just query the report, save the dataset into a session, and the report reads the session to bind the report, i also have a picturebox in the report bound to "Handler.ashx?id=ImageID", this is because I am not binding a URL to the image, since it is a byte[] Also since there could be a report with 10000+ images, I am reading the dataset from the session inside the handler and just pulling out the image from the passed in ImageID, I am doing this to prevent connecting to the database each and every row. Now the strange thing is, Report loads fine.. data is loading, I have paging on the devexpress report viewer, it is loading the images fine, however here is the issue. When I print or export, I am not getting any images, I am debugged and found out the Session.Count is 0 when it tries to print or export, which is strange since there is more than just the dataset in the session. I have also added IRequiresSessionState to allow sessions in the handler, but the session count is still 0, I have changing the Handler to an aspx page, same issue. Any ideas or suggestions on logic changes, I'm all ears.. this is a very difficult situation since I have to display the images from database as a string AND byte[] since one can be URL and other be the image bytes, but I also can't slam the database on connection calls each row either. I have also reported the issue to DevExpress and they are clueless as well, since they don't dispose the session in the exporting process.

    Read the article

  • OSX/Darwin unresolved symbols when linking functions from <math.h>

    - by tbone
    I'm in the process of porting a large'ish (~1M LOC) project from a Window/Visual Studio environment to other platforms, the first of which happens to be Mac OS X. Originally the project was configured as Visual Studio solutions and projects, but now I'm using (the excellent) Premake (http://industriousone.com/premake) to generate project files for multiple platforms (VS, XCode, GMake). I configured, ported and built the first few projects without any significant problems, but having ported the math lib, I ran into this weird linking error that I haven't been able to resolve: Any functions used from math.h will fail to link (causing unresolved symbols). For reference, I'm using Premake v4.2.1 to generate projects for XCode v3.2.1, which is building using gcc v4.2 for the x86_64 architecture. (All this on 64-bit Snow Leopard) I've tried to persuade gcc to link and build everything against a 'known' SDK by adding -isysroot /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.6.sdk -mmacosx-version-min=10.6 to the build command line. Now under normal circumstances, adding -lm should take care of this, however in Darwin, those math libs are included in libSystem, which, as far as I can tell, gets implicitly linked by gcc/ld. I've tried creating a dummy project from within XCode which just runs: float f = log2(2.0)+log2f(3.f)+log1p(1.1)+log1pf(1.2f)+sin(8.0); std::cout << f << std::endl; and as expected, this builds just fine. However, if I put the same thing in the code inside the Premake generated project, all those math functions end up unresolved. Now comparing the linking command from the 'native' XCode project with my generated XCode project, they seem pretty identical (except that my generated project links other libs as well). 'Native' project: /Developer/usr/bin/g++-4.2 -arch x86_64 -dynamiclib -isysroot /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.6.sdk -Lsomepath -Fsomepath -filelist somefile -install_name somename -mmacosx-version-min=10.6 -single_module -compatibility_version 1 -current_version 1 -o somename Generated project: /Developer/usr/bin/g++-4.2 -arch x86_64 -dynamiclib -Lsomepath -Fsomepath -filelist somefile -install_name somename -isysroot /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.6.sdk -mmacosx-version-min=10.6 somelib.a somelib2.a somelib.dylib somelib2.dylib -single_module -compatibility_version 1 -current_version 1 -o somename Any help or hints about how to proceed would be most appreciated. Are there any gcc flags or other tools that can help me resolve this?

    Read the article

  • Creating a tiled map with blender

    - by JamesB
    I'm looking at creating map tiles based on a 3D model made in blender, The map is 16 x 16 in blender. I've got 4 different zoom levels and each tile is 100 x 100 pixels. The entire map at the most zoomed out level is 4 x 4 tiles constructing an image of 400 x 400. The most zoomed in level is 256 x 256 obviously constructing an image of 25600 x 25600 What I need is a script for blender that can create the tiles from the model. I've never written in python before so I've been trying to adapt a couple of the scripts which are already there. So far I've come up with a script, but it doesn't work very well. I'm having real difficulties getting the tiles to line up seamlessly. I'm not too concerned about changing the height of the camera as I can always create the same zoomed out tiles at 6400 x 6400 images and split the resulting images into the correct tiles. Here is what I've got so far... #!BPY """ Name: 'Export Map Tiles' Blender: '242' Group: 'Export' Tip: 'Export to Map' """ import Blender from Blender import Scene,sys from Blender.Scene import Render def init(): thumbsize = 200 CameraHeight = 4.4 YStart = -8 YMove = 4 XStart = -8 XMove = 4 ZoomLevel = 1 Path = "/Images/Map/" Blender.drawmap = [thumbsize,CameraHeight,YStart,YMove,XStart,XMove,ZoomLevel,Path] def show_prefs(): buttonthumbsize = Blender.Draw.Create(Blender.drawmap[0]); buttonCameraHeight = Blender.Draw.Create(Blender.drawmap[1]) buttonYStart = Blender.Draw.Create(Blender.drawmap[2]) buttonYMove = Blender.Draw.Create(Blender.drawmap[3]) buttonXStart = Blender.Draw.Create(Blender.drawmap[4]) buttonXMove = Blender.Draw.Create(Blender.drawmap[5]) buttonZoomLevel = Blender.Draw.Create(Blender.drawmap[6]) buttonPath = Blender.Draw.Create(Blender.drawmap[7]) block = [] block.append(("Image Size", buttonthumbsize, 0, 500)) block.append(("Camera Height", buttonCameraHeight, -0, 10)) block.append(("Y Start", buttonYStart, -10, 10)) block.append(("Y Move", buttonYMove, 0, 5)) block.append(("X Start", buttonXStart,-10, 10)) block.append(("X Move", buttonXMove, 0, 5)) block.append(("Zoom Level", buttonZoomLevel, 1, 10)) block.append(("Export Path", buttonPath,0,200,"The Path to save the tiles")) retval = Blender.Draw.PupBlock("Draw Map: Preferences" , block) if retval: Blender.drawmap[0] = buttonthumbsize.val Blender.drawmap[1] = buttonCameraHeight.val Blender.drawmap[2] = buttonYStart.val Blender.drawmap[3] = buttonYMove.val Blender.drawmap[4] = buttonXStart.val Blender.drawmap[5] = buttonXMove.val Blender.drawmap[6] = buttonZoomLevel.val Blender.drawmap[7] = buttonPath.val Export() def Export(): scn = Scene.GetCurrent() context = scn.getRenderingContext() def cutStr(str): #cut off path leaving name c = str.find("\\") while c != -1: c = c + 1 str = str[c:] c = str.find("\\") str = str[:-6] return str #variables from gui: thumbsize,CameraHeight,YStart,YMove,XStart,XMove,ZoomLevel,Path = Blender.drawmap XMove = XMove / ZoomLevel YMove = YMove / ZoomLevel Camera = Scene.GetCurrent().getCurrentCamera() Camera.LocZ = CameraHeight / ZoomLevel YStart = YStart + (YMove / 2) XStart = XStart + (XMove / 2) #Point it straight down Camera.RotX = 0 Camera.RotY = 0 Camera.RotZ = 0 TileCount = 4**ZoomLevel #Because the first thing we do is move the camera, start it off the map Camera.LocY = YStart - YMove for i in range(0,TileCount): Camera.LocY = Camera.LocY + YMove Camera.LocX = XStart - XMove for j in range(0,TileCount): Camera.LocX = Camera.LocX + XMove Render.EnableDispWin() context.extensions = True context.renderPath = Path #setting thumbsize context.imageSizeX(thumbsize) context.imageSizeY(thumbsize) #could be put into a gui. context.imageType = Render.PNG context.enableOversampling(0) #render context.render() #save image ZasString = '%s' %(int(ZoomLevel)) XasString = '%s' %(int(j+1)) YasString = '%s' %(int((3-i)+1)) context.saveRenderedImage("Z" + ZasString + "X" + XasString + "Y" + YasString) #close the windows Render.CloseRenderWindow() try: type(Blender.drawmap) except: #print 'initialize extern variables' init() show_prefs()

    Read the article

  • Unable to cast lists with Reflection in C#

    - by DrLazer
    I am having a lot of trouble with Reflection in C# at the moment. The app I am writing allows the user to modify the attributes of certain objects using a config file. I want to be able to save the object model (users project) to XML. The function below is called in the middle of a foreach loop, looping through a list of objects that contain all the other objects in the project within them. The idea is, that it works recursively to translate the object model into XML. Dont worry about the call to "Unreal" that just modifes the name of the objects slightly if they contain certain words. private void ReflectToXML(object anObject, XmlElement parentElement) { Type aType = anObject.GetType(); XmlElement anXmlElement = m_xml.CreateElement(Unreal(aType.Name)); parentElement.AppendChild(anXmlElement); PropertyInfo[] pinfos = aType.GetProperties(); //loop through this objects public attributes foreach (PropertyInfo aInfo in pinfos) { //if the attribute is a list Type propertyType = aInfo.PropertyType; if ((propertyType.IsGenericType)&&(propertyType.GetGenericTypeDefinition() == typeof(List<>))) { List<object> listObjects = (aInfo.GetValue(anObject,null) as List<object>); foreach (object aListObject in listObjects) { ReflectToXML(aListObject, anXmlElement); } } //attribute is not a list else anXmlElement.SetAttribute(aInfo.Name, ""); } } If an object attributes are just strings then it should be writing them out as string attributes in the XML. If an objects attributes are lists, then it should recursively call "ReflectToXML" passing itself in as a parameter, thereby creating the nested structure I require that nicely reflect the object model in memory. The problem I have is with the line List<object> listObjects = (aInfo.GetValue(anObject,null) as List<object>); The cast doesn't work and it just returns null. While debugging I changed the line to object temp = aInfo.GetValue(anObject,null); slapped a breakpoint on it to see what "GetValue" was returning. It returns a "Generic list of objects" Surely I should be able to cast that? The annoying thing is that temp becomes a generic list of objects but because i declared temp as a singular object, I can't loop through it because it has no Enumerator. How can I loop through a list of objects when I only have it as a propertyInfo of a class? I know at this point I will only be saving a list of empty strings out anyway, but thats fine. I would be happy to see the structure save out for now. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Sending large serialized objects over sockets is failing only when trying to grow the byte Array, bu

    - by FinancialRadDeveloper
    I have code where I am trying to grow the byte array while receiving the data over my socket. This is erroring out. public bool ReceiveObject2(ref Object objRec, ref string sErrMsg) { try { byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; byte[] byArrAll = new byte[0]; bool bAllBytesRead = false; int iRecLoop = 0; // grow the byte array to match the size of the object, so we can put whatever we // like through the socket as long as the object serialises and is binary formatted while (!bAllBytesRead) { if (m_socClient.Receive(buffer) > 0) { byArrAll = Combine(byArrAll, buffer); iRecLoop++; } else { m_socClient.Close(); bAllBytesRead = true; } } MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(buffer); BinaryFormatter bf1 = new BinaryFormatter(); ms.Position = 0; Object obj = bf1.Deserialize(ms); objRec = obj; return true; } catch (System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException se) { objRec = null; sErrMsg += "SocketClient.ReceiveObject " + "Source " + se.Source + "Error : " + se.Message; return false; } catch (Exception e) { objRec = null; sErrMsg += "SocketClient.ReceiveObject " + "Source " + e.Source + "Error : " + e.Message; return false; } } private byte[] Combine(byte[] first, byte[] second) { byte[] ret = new byte[first.Length + second.Length]; Buffer.BlockCopy(first, 0, ret, 0, first.Length); Buffer.BlockCopy(second, 0, ret, first.Length, second.Length); return ret; } Error: mscorlibError : The input stream is not a valid binary format. The starting contents (in bytes) are: 68-61-73-43-68-61-6E-67-65-73-3D-22-69-6E-73-65-72 ... Yet when I just cheat and use a MASSIVE buffer size its fine. public bool ReceiveObject(ref Object objRec, ref string sErrMsg) { try { byte[] buffer = new byte[5000000]; m_socClient.Receive(buffer); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(buffer); BinaryFormatter bf1 = new BinaryFormatter(); ms.Position = 0; Object obj = bf1.Deserialize(ms); objRec = obj; return true; } catch (Exception e) { objRec = null; sErrMsg += "SocketClient.ReceiveObject " + "Source " + e.Source + "Error : " + e.Message; return false; } } This is really killing me. I don't know why its not working. I have lifted the Combine from a suggestion on here too, so I am pretty sure this is not doing the wrong thing? I hope someone can point out where I am going wrong

    Read the article

  • Workflows not starting after fresh install

    - by Greg McGuffey
    I just installed Dynamics CRM 4.0. It is working nicely except for workflows. They won't start. I turned on tracing and it appears that there is an IO error. The server is setup with IFD and SSL. No issues accessing it internally or externally. Here is the trace: # CRM Tracing Version 2.0 # LocalTime: 2010-06-08 11:34:58.2 # Categories: # CallStackOn: No # ComputerName: FOX-CRM1 # CRMVersion: 4.0.7333.2741 # DeploymentType: OnPremise # ScaleGroup: # ServerRole: AppServer, AsyncService, DiscoveryService, WebService, ApiServer, HelpServer, DeploymentService [2010-06-08 11:34:58.2] Process:CrmAsyncService |Organization:821a137e-7191-49a4-86cc-69101e2b6d20 |Thread: 24 |Category: Platform.Async |User: 00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000 |Level: Error | AsyncOperationCommand.Execute >Exception while trying to execute AsyncOperationId: {DF68F483-2C73-DF11-9A34-18A9053B7B38} AsyncOperationType: 1 - System.Net.WebException: The underlying connection was closed: An unexpected error occurred on a send. ---> System.IO.IOException: The handshake failed due to an unexpected packet format. at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartReadFrame(Byte[] buffer, Int32 readBytes, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartReceiveBlob(Byte[] buffer, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.CheckCompletionBeforeNextReceive(ProtocolToken message, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartSendBlob(Byte[] incoming, Int32 count, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.ForceAuthentication(Boolean receiveFirst, Byte[] buffer, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.ProcessAuthentication(LazyAsyncResult lazyResult) at System.Net.TlsStream.CallProcessAuthentication(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Net.TlsStream.ProcessAuthentication(LazyAsyncResult result) at System.Net.TlsStream.Write(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) at System.Net.PooledStream.Write(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) at System.Net.ConnectStream.WriteHeaders(Boolean async) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebClientProtocol.GetWebResponse(WebRequest request) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.HttpWebClientProtocol.GetWebResponse(WebRequest request) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at Microsoft.Crm.SdkTypeProxy.CrmService.Retrieve(String entityName, Guid id, ColumnSetBase columnSet) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.SdkTypeProxyCrmServiceWrapper.Retrieve(String entityName, Guid id, ColumnSetBase columnSet) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.SdkPluginDescriptionProvider.GetPluginTypeDescription(Guid pluginTypeId, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Caching.PluginTypeCacheLoader.LoadCacheData(Guid key, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Caching.CrmMultiOrgCache`2.CreateEntry(TKey key, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Caching.CrmSharedMultiOrgCache`2.LookupEntry(TKey key, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Caching.PluginTypeCache.LookupEntry(Guid pluginTypeId, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.AsyncOperationCommand.GetPluginType(Guid pluginTypeId) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.EventOperation.InternalExecute(AsyncEvent asyncEvent) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.AsyncOperationCommand.Execute(AsyncEvent asyncEvent) The only thing I've tried to to update the AsyncSdkRootDomain row in the Deployment table to match the ADSdkRootDomain and the ADApplicationRootDomain values. It was blank. That didn't appear to work. After some more research, I think this might be caused because the Asynch service can't access the SDK web services using SSL. If this is correct, how would one configure a CRM server for secure access, internal and external (IFD) and still allow asynch service to hit web site? Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • .NET MVC Ajax Form - How do you hide it?

    - by Tommy
    Ok, everything is 'functionally' working with what I am attempting to accomplish and once again, I am sure this is something dumb, but I cannot figure out how to do this one thing. I have an edit form for an entity, lets say a car. This 'car' can have 0 - many passengers. So on my edit form, I have all the fields for the car, then a list view showing each passenger (partial). I also have a 'add new passenger' button that will render a new partial view that allows you to enter a passenger. This has a cancel link and an add button to submit an Ajax form. When you add a passenger, the passenger is automatically added to the list, but I need the enter passenger form to go away. I have tried using the onSuccess and onComplete functions to hide the div that the form is in, but both render just the partial view HTML elements (white screen, text) and not the partialView in the context of the entire page. Sources: 1) Main Edit View <script type="text/javascript"> Function hideForm(){ document.getElementById('newPassenger').style.display = 'none'; } </script> <h2>Edit</h2> <%-- The following line works around an ASP.NET compiler warning --%> <%= ""%> <%Html.RenderPartial("EditCar", Model)%> <h2>Passengers for this car</h2> <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Add New Passenger", "AddPassenger", New With {.ID = Model.carID}, New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "newPassenger", .InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace})%> <div id="newPassenger"></div> <div id="passengerList"> <%Html.RenderPartial("passengerList", Model.Passengers)%> </div> <div> <%= Html.ActionLink("Back to List", "Index") %> </div> 2) AddPassenger View. The cancel link below is an action that returns nothing, thus removing the information in the div. <% Using Ajax.BeginForm("AddPassengerToCar", New With {.id = ViewData("carID")}, New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "passengerList", .InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace})%> <%=Html.DropDownList("Passengers")%> <input type="submit" value="Add" /> <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Cancel", "CancelAddControl", _ New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "newPassenger", .InsertionMode = InsertionMode.Replace})%><% end using %>

    Read the article

  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL (Question updated)

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

    Read the article

  • Flex: Create custom stroke on LineSeries?

    - by John Isaacks
    You can easily set a stroke on a line series like this: <mx:LineSeries yField="apple"> <mx:lineStroke> <mx:Stroke color="0x6699FF" weight="4" alpha=".8" /> </mx:lineStroke> </mx:LineSeries> This will set alpha for the entire stroke to .8 But I want to be able to set a different alpha on the stoke for each plot based on something in the dataProvider. For example the yField in the lineSeries is "Apple" which is how it knows where to plot for the lineSeries. I want to be able to add something like alphaField which tells it what to set the stroke alpha for each plot. so if my dataProvider was: <result month="Jan-04"> <apple>81768</apple> <alpha>1</alpha> </result> <result month="Feb-04"> <apple>51156</apple> <alpha>1</alpha> </result> <result month="Mar-04"> <apple>51156</apple> <alpha>.5</alpha> </result> And I set alphaField="alpha" then I would have a solid stroke from plot 0 to plot 1 and then a 50% alpha stroke from plot 1 to plot 2. How can I do this??? I am looking in the commitProperties() and updateDisplayList() methods of LineSeries and have no idea what would need to be added/changed to make this? I am pretty sure, this class has to use Graphics.lineTo() to draw each plot, so basically it would need to "get" the current alphaField value somehow, and apply a Graphics.lineStyle() with the correct alpha before drawing each line. Thanks!! UPDATE I have gotten much closer to my answer. When I extend LineRenderer I override updateDisplayList() which calls GraphicsUtilities.drawPolyLine() I extend GraphicsUtilities and override the method drawPolyLine() as this is where the line is actually drawn. I can call lineStyle() in here and change the alpha of the line... I still have 1 thing I cannot figure out, from within the drawPolyLine() method how can I access that data that dictates what the alpha should be? Thanks!!!!

    Read the article

  • Help organising controllers logically

    - by kenny99
    Hi guys, I'm working on a site which i'm developing using an MVC structure. My models will represent all of data in the site, but i'm struggling a bit to decide on a good controller structure. The site will allow users to login/register and see personal data on a number of pages, but also still have access to public pages, e.g FAQs, Contact page etc. This is what I have at the moment... A Template Controller which handles main template display. The basic template for the site will remain the same whether or not you are logged in. A main Website Controller which extends the Template Controller and handles basic authentication. If the user is logged in, a User::control_panel() method is called from the constructor and this builds the control panel which will be present throughout the authenticated session. If user is not logged in, then a different view is loaded instead of the control panel, e.g with a login form. All protected/public page related controllers will extend the website controller. The user homepage has a number of widgets I want to display, which I'm doing via a Home Controller which extends the Website Controller. This controller generates these widgets via the following static calls: $this->template->content->featured_pet = Pet::featured(); $this->template->content->popular_names = Pet::most_popular(); $this->template->content->owner_map = User::generate_map(); $this->template->content->news = News::snippet(); I suppose the first thing I'm unsure about is if the above static calls to controllers (e.g Pet and User) are ok to remain static - these static methods will return views which are loaded into the main template. This is the way I've done things in the past but I'm curious to find out if this is a sensible approach. Other protected pages for signed in users will be similar to the Home Controller. Static pages will be handled by a Page Controller which will also extend the Website Controller, so that it will know whether or not the user control panel or login form should be shown on the left hand side of the template. The protected member only pages will not be routed to the Page Controller, this controller will only handle publicly available pages. One problem I have at the moment, is that if both public and protected pages extend the Website Controller, how do I avoid an infinite loop - for example, the idea is that the website controller should handle authentication then redirect to the requested controller (URL), but this will cause an infinite redirect loop, so i need to come up with a better way of dealing with this. All in all, does this setup make any sense?! Grateful for any feedback.

    Read the article

  • Best way to handle multiple tables to replace one big table in Rails? (e.g. 'Books1', 'Books2', etc.

    - by mikep
    Hello, I've decided to use multiple tables for an entity (e.g. Books1, Books2, Books3, etc.), instead of just one main table which could end up having a lot of rows (e.g. just Books). I'm doing this to try and to avoid a potential future performance drop that could come with having too many rows in one table. With that, I'm looking for a good way to handle this in Rails, mainly by trying to avoid loading a bunch of unused associations. (I know that I could use a partition for this, but, for now, I've decided to go the 'multiple tables' route.) Each user has their books placed into a specific table. The actual book table is chosen when the user is created, and all of their books go into the same table. I'm going to split the adds across the tables. The goal is to try and keep each table pretty much even -- but that's a different issue. One thing I don't particularly want to have is a bunch of unused associations in the User class. Right now, it looks like I'd have to do the following: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :books1, :books2, :books3, :books4, :books5 end class Books1 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end class Books2 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end class Books3 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end I'm assuming that the main performance hit would come in terms of memory and possibly some method call overhead for each User object, since it has to load all of those associations, which in turn creates all of those nice, dynamic model accessor methods like User.find_by_. But for each specific user, only one of the book tables would be usable/applicable, since all of a user's books are stored in the same table. So, only one of the associations would be in use at any time and any other has_many :bookX association that was loaded would be a waste. For example, with a user.id of 2, I'd only need books3.find_by_author('Author'), but the way I'm thinking of setting this up, I'd still have access to Books1..n. I don't really know Ruby/Rails does internally with all of those has_many associations though, so maybe it's not so bad. But right now I'm thinking that it's really wasteful, and that there may just be a better, more efficient way of doing this. So, a few questions: 1) Is there's some sort of special Ruby/Rails methodology that could be applied to this 'multiple tables to represent one entity' scheme? Are there any 'best practices' for this? 2) Is it really bad to have so many unused has_many associations for each object? Is there a better way to do this? 3) Does anyone have any advice on how to abstract the fact that there's multiple book tables behind a single books model/class? For example, so I can call books.find_by_author('Author') instead of books3.find_by_author('Author'). Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Cascade Saves with Fluent NHibernate AutoMapping - Old Anwser Still Valid?

    - by Glenn
    I want to do exactly what this question asks: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/586888/cascade-saves-with-fluent-nhibernate-automapping Using Fluent Nhibernate Mappings to turn on "cascade" globally once for all classes and relation types using one call rather than setting it for each mapping individually. The answer to the earlier question looks great, but I'm afraid that the Fluent Nhibernate API altered its .WithConvention syntax last year and broke the answer... either that or I'm missing something. I keep getting a bunch of name space not found errors relating to the IOneToOnePart, IManyToOnePart and all their variations: "The type or namespace name 'IOneToOnePart' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)" I've tried the official example dll's, the RTM dll's and the latest build and none of them seem to make VS 2008 see the required namespace. The second problem is that I want to use the class with my AutoPersistenceModel but I'm not sure where to this line: .ConventionDiscovery.AddFromAssemblyOf() in my factory creation method. private static ISessionFactory CreateSessionFactory() { return Fluently.Configure() .Database(SQLiteConfiguration.Standard.UsingFile(DbFile)) .Mappings(m => m.AutoMappings .Add(AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Shelf>(type => type.Namespace.EndsWith("Entities")) .Override<Shelf>(map => { map.HasManyToMany(x => x.Products).Cascade.All(); }) ) )//emd mappings .ExposeConfiguration(BuildSchema) .BuildSessionFactory();//finalizes the whole thing to send back. } Below is the class and using statements I'm trying using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using FluentNHibernate.Conventions; using FluentNHibernate.Cfg; using FluentNHibernate.Cfg.Db; using NHibernate; using NHibernate.Cfg; using NHibernate.Tool.hbm2ddl; using FluentNHibernate.Mapping; namespace TestCode { public class CascadeAll : IHasOneConvention, IHasManyConvention, IReferenceConvention { public bool Accept(IOneToOnePart target) { return true; } public void Apply(IOneToOnePart target) { target.Cascade.All(); } public bool Accept(IOneToManyPart target) { return true; } public void Apply(IOneToManyPart target) { target.Cascade.All(); } public bool Accept(IManyToOnePart target) { return true; } public void Apply(IManyToOnePart target) { target.Cascade.All(); } } }

    Read the article

  • When is it worth using a BindingSource?

    - by Justin
    I think I understand well enough what the BindingSource class does - i.e. provide a layer of indirection between a data source and a UI control. It implements the IBindingList interface and therefore also provides support for sorting. And I've used it frequently enough, without too many problems. But I'm wondering if I use it more often than I should. Perhaps an example would help. Let's say I have just a simple textbox on a form (using WinForms), and I'd like to bind that textbox to a simple property inside a class that returns a string. Is it worth using a BindingSource in this situation? Now let's say I have a grid on my form, and I'd like to bind it to a DataTable. Should I use a BindingSource now? In the latter case, I probably would not use a BindingSource, as a DataTable, from what I can gather, provides the same functionality that the BindingSource itself would. The DataTable will fire the the right events when a row is added, deleted, etc so that the grid will automatically update. But in the first case with the textbox being bound to a string, I would probably have the class that contains the string property implement INotifyPropertyChanged, so that it could fire the PropertyChanged event when the string changes. I would use a BindingSource so that it could listen to these PropertyChanged events so that it could update the textbox automatically when the string changes. How does this sound so far? I still feel like there's a gap in my understanding that's preventing me from seeing the whole picture. This has been a pretty vague question so far, so I'll try to ask some more specific questions - ideally the answers will reference the above examples or something similar... (1) Is it worth using a BindingSource in either of the above examples? (2) It seems that developers just "assume" that the DataTable class will do the right thing, in firing PropertyChanged events at the right time. How does one know if a data source is capable of doing this? Is there a particular interface that a data source should implement in order for developers to be able to assume this behaviour? (3) Does it matter what Control is being bound to, when considering whether or not to use a BindingSource? Or is it only the data source that should affect the decision? Perhaps the answer is (and this would seem logical enough): the Control needs to be intelligent enough to listen to the PropertyChanged events, otherwise a BindingSource is required. So how does one tell if the Control is capable of doing this? Again, is there a particular interface that developers can look for that the Control must implement? It is this confusion that has, in the past, led to me always using a BindingSource. But I'd like to understand better exactly when to use one, so that I do so only when necessary.

    Read the article

  • Fluent | Nhibernate multiple inheritance mapping?

    - by Broken Pipe
    I'm trying to map this classes: public interface IBusinessObject { Guid Id { get; set; } } public class Product { public virtual Guid Id { get; set; } public virtual int ProductTypeId { get; set; } } public class ProductWeSell : Product, IBusinessObject { } public class ProductWeDontSell : Product { } Using this Fluent mapping code: public class IBusinessObjectMap : ClassMap<IBusinessObject> { public IBusinessObjectMap() { Id(t => t.Id).GeneratedBy.Guid(); Table("BusinessObject"); } } public class ProductMap : ClassMap<Product> { public ProductMap() { Id(t => t.Id); DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn("ProductTypeId", "null").Nullable(); } } public class ProductWeSellMap : SubclassMap<ProductWeSell> { public ProductWeSellMap() { DiscriminatorValue(1); KeyColumn("Id"); } } public class ProductWeDontSellMap : SubclassMap<ProductWeDontSell> { public ProductWeDontSellMap() { DiscriminatorValue(2); KeyColumn("Id"); } } But I get {"Duplicate class/entity mapping ProductWeSell"} error. And if we take a look at generated HBM, indeed it's duplicated, but i have no idea how to write this mapping without duplicating it if it's possible at all. Produced hbm: <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" name="IBusinessObject" table="BusinessObject"> <joined-subclass name="ProductWeSell" table="ProductWeSell"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" discriminator-value="null" name="Product" table="Product"> <discriminator type="String"> <column name="ProductTypeId" not-null="false" /> </discriminator> <subclass name="ProductWeDontSell" discriminator-value="2" /> <subclass name="ProductWeSell" discriminator-value="1" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> So far I was unable to figure out how to map this using fluent Nhibernate (i haven't tried mapping this using hmb files). Any help appreciated Fluent or HBM files. The thing I'm trying to solve look identical to this topic: NHibernate inheritance mapping question

    Read the article

  • Tearing my hair out - ASP.Net AJAX AutoComplete not working

    - by Dave
    Hope someone can help with this. I've been up and down the web and through this site looking for an answer, but still can't get the Autocomplete AJAX control to work. I've gone from trying to include it in an existing site to stripping it right back to a very basic form and it's still not functioning. I'm having a little more luck using Page Methods rather than a local webservice, so here is my code <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="droptest.aspx.cs" Inherits="droptest" %> <%@ Register Assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" Namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" TagPrefix="cc1" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" EnablePageMethods="true" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <cc1:AutoCompleteExtender ID="AutoCompleteExtender1" runat="server" MinimumPrefixLength="1" ServiceMethod="getResults" TargetControlID="TextBox1"> </cc1:AutoCompleteExtender> </form> </body> </html> using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.Script.Services; using System.Web.Services; public partial class droptest : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } [WebMethod] public string[] getResults(string prefixText, int count) { string[] test = new string[5] { "One", "Two", "Three", "Four", "Five" }; return test; } } Tried to keep things as simple as possible, but all I get is either the autocomplete dropdown with the source of the page (starting with the <! doctype...) letter by letter, or in IE7 it just says "UNDEFINED" all the way down the list. I'm using Visual Web Developer 2008 at the moment, this is running on Localhost. I think I've exhausted all the "Try this..." options I can find, everything from adding in [ScriptMethod] to changing things in Web.Config. Is there anything obviously wrong with this code? Only other thing that may be having an effect is in Global.asax I do a Context.RewritePath to rewrite URLs - does this have any effect on AJAX? Thanks for any help you can give.

    Read the article

  • rails paperclip unable to access image from another view

    - by curiousCoder
    my app has an habtm relation b/w listings and categories. now from the categories index page, a user filters select box to view listings in the show page. now i am not able to access images attached to listings in the category show page. listing.rb attr_accessible :placeholder, :categories_ids has_and_belongs_to_many :categories has_attached_file :placeholder, :styles => { :medium => "300x300>", :thumb => "100x100>" }, :default_url => "/images/:style/missing.png", :url => "/system/:hash.:extension", :hash_secret => "longSecretString" categories controller def index @categories = Category.all end def show @categories = Category.find_by_sql ["select distinct l.* from listings l , categories c, categories_listings cl where c.id = cl.category_id and l.id = cl.listing_id and c.id in (?,?)" , params[:c][:id1] , params[:c][:id2]] end the sql just filters and displays the listings in show page where i can show its attributes, but cant access the placeholder. note the plural @categories in show categories show page <ul> <% @categories.each_with_index do |c, index| %> <% if index == 0 %> <li class="first"><%= c.place %></li> <%= image_tag c.placeholder.url(:thumb) %> <li><%= c.price %></li> <% else %> <li><%= c.place %></li> <li><%= c.price %></li> <%= image_tag c.placeholder.url(:thumb) %> <% end %> <% end %> </ul> Access image from different view in a view with paperclip gem ruby on rails this said to make the object plural and call a loop, wch shall allow to access the image. it does not work in this case. undefined method `placeholder' for #<Category:0x5c78640> but the amazing thing is, placeholder will be displayed as an array of all images for all the listings if used as suggested in that stackoverflow, wch is, obviously, not the way i prefer. where's the issue? what am i missing?

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQL: To Attach or Not To Attach

    - by bradhe
    So I'm have a really hard time figuring out when I should be attaching to an object and when I shouldn't be attaching to an object. First thing's first, here is a small diagram of my (very simplified) object model. Edit: Okay, apparently I'm not allowed to post images...here you go: http://i.imgur.com/2ROFI.png In my DAL I create a new DataContext every time I do a data-related operation. Say, for instance, I want to save a new user. In my business layer I create a new user. var user = new User(); user.FirstName = "Bob"; user.LastName = "Smith"; user.Username = "bob.smith"; user.Password = StringUtilities.EncodePassword("MyPassword123"); user.Organization = someOrganization; // Assume that someOrganization was loaded and it's data context has been garbage collected. Now I want to go save this user. var userRepository = new RepositoryFactory.GetRepository<UserRepository>(); userRepository.Save(user); Neato! Here is my save logic: public void Save(User user) { if (!DataContext.Users.Contains(user)) { user.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); user.CreatedDate = DateTime.Now; user.Disabled = false; //DataContext.Organizations.Attach(user.Organization); DataContext.Users.InsertOnSubmit(user); } else { DataContext.Users.Attach(user); } DataContext.SubmitChanges(); // Finished here as well. user.Detach(); } So, here we are. You'll notice that I comment out the bit where the DataContext attachs to the organization. If I attach to the organization I get the following exception: NotSupportedException: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. This is not supported. Hmm, that doesn't work. Let me try it without attaching (i.e. comment out that line about attaching to the organization). DuplicateKeyException: Cannot add an entity with a key that is already in use. WHAAAAT? I can only assume this is trying to insert a new organization which is obviously false. So, what's the deal guys? What should I do? What is the proper approach? It seems like L2S makes this quite a bit harder than it should be...

    Read the article

  • Capture Highlighted Text from any window using C#

    - by dineshrekula
    How to read the highlighted/Selected Text from any window using c#. i tried 2 approaches. Send "^c" whenever user selects some thing. But in this case my clipboard is flooded with lots of unnecessary data. Sometime it copied passwords also. so i switched my approach to 2nd method, send message method. see this sample code [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern int GetFocus(); [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern bool AttachThreadInput(uint idAttach, uint idAttachTo, bool fAttach); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] static extern uint GetCurrentThreadId(); [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern uint GetWindowThreadProcessId(int hWnd, int ProcessId); [DllImport("user32.dll") ] static extern int GetForegroundWindow(); [DllImport("user32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = false)] static extern int SendMessage(int hWnd, int Msg, int wParam, StringBuilder lParam); // second overload of SendMessage [DllImport("user32.dll")] private static extern int SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, uint Msg, out int wParam, out int lParam); const int WM_SETTEXT = 12; const int WM_GETTEXT = 13; private string PerformCopy() { try { //Wait 5 seconds to give us a chance to give focus to some edit window, //notepad for example System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(5000); StringBuilder builder = new StringBuilder(500); int foregroundWindowHandle = GetForegroundWindow(); uint remoteThreadId = GetWindowThreadProcessId(foregroundWindowHandle, 0); uint currentThreadId = GetCurrentThreadId(); //AttachTrheadInput is needed so we can get the handle of a focused window in another app AttachThreadInput(remoteThreadId, currentThreadId, true); //Get the handle of a focused window int focused = GetFocus(); //Now detach since we got the focused handle AttachThreadInput(remoteThreadId, currentThreadId, false); //Get the text from the active window into the stringbuilder SendMessage(focused, WM_GETTEXT, builder.Capacity, builder); return builder.ToString(); } catch (System.Exception oException) { throw oException; } } this code working fine in Notepad. But if i try to capture from another applications like Mozilla firefox, or Visual Studio IDE, it's not returning the text. Can anybody please help me, where i am doing wrong? First of all, i have chosen the right approach?

    Read the article

  • WPF Datagrid zoom issue

    - by David Osborn
    I'm working with the WPF DataGrid from the WPFToolkit and I'm having issues with trying to zoom the entire datagrid. My initial thought was that it was going to be really easy and I would just apply a scale transform to the grid and animate the ScaleX, ScaleY properties when the used clicked a button. This did not work however because the scrollbar was zoomed in making it larger. I need fixed headers and fixed columns on the datagrid so I can't simple use a scrollviewer outside of the datagrid to handle the scrolling. The second thing I tried was to just scale the font size in the grid, but this failed because on shrinking the font size the columns stay at the original width and do not shrink. Finally I thought I had it working by using the below code which goes into the view tree for the datagrid and adds a scale transform to the Scroll Content Presenter. (Also not shown in this code, I apply a transform to the visual tree item for the headers in the same manner so that it scales as well). I thought this was working great until I tested out the horizontal scrolling after zooming. (Vertical scrolling works perfectly.) Before zooming at all the horizontal scrolling is fine, but after zooming, when I scroll horzonitally the display freaks out. It is hard to tell exactly what it is doing, but it sort of looks like the content that is scrolling off the left of the screen is "folding over" and coming back in on the left. Maybe it is just all smashing up on the left side. Does anyone have any ideas how I can get this working, hopefully without throwing out my whole datagrid that is already working quite well otherwise. ScrollContentPresenter sp = (ScrollContentPresenter) VisualTreeHelper.GetChild( VisualTreeHelper.GetChild( VisualTreeHelper.GetChild(VisualTreeHelper.GetChild(dgMatrix, 0), 0), 0),2); ScaleTransform st = new ScaleTransform(1, 1); sp.LayoutTransform = st; DoubleAnimation a = new DoubleAnimation(); a.By = 1.5; a.AutoReverse = false; a.Duration = new Duration(TimeSpan.Parse("0:0:0.25")); st.BeginAnimation(ScaleTransform.ScaleXProperty, a); st.BeginAnimation(ScaleTransform.ScaleYProperty, a);

    Read the article

  • Asynchronous subprocess on Windows

    - by Stigma
    First of all, the overall problem I am solving is a bit more complicated than I am showing here, so please do not tell me 'use threads with blocking' as it would not solve my actual situation without a fair, FAIR bit of rewriting and refactoring. I have several applications which are not mine to modify, which take data from stdin and poop it out on stdout after doing their magic. My task is to chain several of these programs. Problem is, sometimes they choke, and as such I need to track their progress which is outputted on STDERR. pA = subprocess.Popen(CommandA, shell=False, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) # ... some more processes make up the chain, but that is irrelevant to the problem pB = subprocess.Popen(CommandB, shell=False, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE, stdin=pA.stdout ) Now, reading directly through pA.stdout.readline() and pB.stdout.readline(), or the plain read() functions, is a blocking matter. Since different applications output in different paces and different formats, blocking is not an option. (And as I wrote above, threading is not an option unless at a last, last resort.) pA.communicate() is deadlock safe, but since I need the information live, that is not an option either. Thus google brought me to this asynchronous subprocess snippet on ActiveState. All good at first, until I implement it. Comparing the cmd.exe output of pA.exe | pB.exe, ignoring the fact both output to the same window making for a mess, I see very instantaneous updates. However, I implement the same thing using the above snippet and the read_some() function declared there, and it takes over 10 seconds to notify updates of a single pipe. But when it does, it has updates leading all the way upto 40% progress, for example. Thus I do some more research, and see numerous subjects concerning PeekNamedPipe, anonymous handles, and returning 0 bytes available even though there is information available in the pipe. As the subject has proven quite a bit beyond my expertise to fix or code around, I come to Stack Overflow to look for guidance. :) My platform is W7 64-bit with Python 2.6, the applications are 32-bit in case it matters, and compatibility with Unix is not a concern. I can even deal with a full ctypes or pywin32 solution that subverts subprocess entirely if it is the only solution, as long as I can read from every stderr pipe asynchronously with immediate performance and no deadlocks. :)

    Read the article

  • What'd be a good pattern on Doctrine to have multiple languages

    - by PERR0_HUNTER
    Hi! I have this challenge which consist in having a system that offers it's content in multiple languages, however a part of the data contained in the system is not translatable such as dates, ints and such. I mean if I have a content on the following YAML Corporativos: columns: nombre: type: string(254) notnull: true telefonos: type: string(500) email: type: string(254) webpage: type: string(254) CorporativosLang: columns: corporativo_id: type: integer(8) notnull: true lang: type: string(16) fixed: false ubicacion: type: string() fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: true autoincrement: false contacto: type: string() fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: true autoincrement: false tipo_de_hoteles: type: string(254) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: true autoincrement: false paises: type: string() fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: true autoincrement: false relations: Corporativo: class: Corporativos local: corporativo_id foreign: id type: one foreignAlias: Data This would allow me to have different corporative offices, however the place of the corp, the contact and other things can be translate into a different language (lang) Now this code here would create me a brand new corporative office with 2 translations $corporativo = new Corporativos(); $corporativo->nombre = 'Duck Corp'; $corporativo->telefonos = '66303713333'; $corporativo->email = '[email protected]'; $corporativo->webpage = 'http://quack.com'; $corporativo->Data[0]->lang = 'en'; $corporativo->Data[0]->ubicacion = 'zomg'; $corporativo->Data[1]->lang = 'es'; $corporativo->Data[1]->ubicacion = 'zomg amigou'; the thing now is I don't know how to retrieve this data in a more friendly way, because if I'd like to access my Corporative info in english I'd had to run DQL for the corp and then another DQL for the specific translation in english, What I'd love to do is have my translatable fields available in the root so I could simply access them $corporativo = new Corporativos(); $corporativo->nombre = 'Duck Corp'; $corporativo->telefonos = '66303713333'; $corporativo->email = '[email protected]'; $corporativo->webpage = 'http://quack.com'; $corporativo->lang = 'en'; $corporativo->ubicacion = 'zomg'; this way the translatable fields would be mapped to the second table automatically. I hope I can explain my self clear :( any suggestions ?

    Read the article

  • Properly setting up willSelectRowAtIndexPath and didSelectRowAtIndexPath to send cell selections

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    Feel like I'm going a bit nutty here. I have a detail view with a few stand-alone UITextFields, a few UITextFields in UITAbleViewCells, and one single UITableViewCell that will be used to hold notes, if there are any. I only want this cell selectable when I am in edit mode. When I am not in edit mode, I do not want to be able to select it. Selecting the cell (while in edit mode) will fire a method that will init a new view. I know this is very easy, but I am missing something somewhere. Here are the current selection methods I am using: -(NSIndexPath *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView willSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (!self.editing) { NSLog(@"Returning nil, not in edit mode"); return nil; } NSLog(@"Cell will be selected, not in edit mode"); if (indexPath.section == 0) { NSLog(@"Comments cell will be selected"); return indexPath; } return nil; } -(void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (!self.editing) { NSLog(@"Not in edit mode. Should not have made it this far."); return; } if (indexPath.section == 0) [self pushCommentsView]; else return; } My problem is really 2 fold; 1) Even when I'm not in edit mode, and I know I am returning nil (due to the NSLog message), I can still select the row (it flashes blue). From my understanding of the willSelectRowAtIndexPath method, this shouldn't be happening. Maybe I am wrong about this? 2) When I enter edit mode, I can't select anything at all. the willSelectRowAtIndexPath method never fires, and neither does the didSelectRowAtIndexPath. The only thing I am doing in the setEditing method, is hiding the back button while editing, and assigning firstResponder to the top textField to get the keyboard to pop up. I thought maybe the first responder was getting in the way of the click (which would be dumb), but even with that commented out, I cannot perform the cell selection during editing.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 728 729 730 731 732 733 734 735 736 737 738 739  | Next Page >