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  • java.util.Map with HtmlDataTable

    - by gerry
    Hi, I'm developing an application on GlassFish v3 which uses Suns-RI of JavaEE6 and JSF2.0, etc. And the bad thing is, that no changes/switches away from Suns RI can be made (to use MyFaces or something like that). Now, the problem is, that I want to build HtmlDatatable by hand ( in Java code). The datatable should represent a java.util.Map where the first column should display the key and the second the values of the map. I've build successfully a PanelGrid from a java.util.List and used every time the "setExpressionValue" methods of UIComponent to bind the UI to the underlying List. But now, this doesn't work with the Map. Here is a snippet of my code: public HtmlDataTable getEntityDetailsDataTable() { ... Application app = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getApplication(); HtmlDataTable component = (HtmlDataTable)app.createComponent(HtmlDataTable.COMPONENT_TYPE); component.setValueExpression("value", ExpressionUtil.createValueExpression("#{entityTree.entity."+fieldName+".entrySet()}", Map.class)); component.setVar("param"); UIColumn column = new UIColumn(); UIOutput label1 = DynamicHtmlComponentCreator.createHtmlOutputText("#{param[key]}", String.class); column.getChildren().add(label1); UIOutput label2 = DynamicHtmlComponentCreator.createHtmlOutputText("#{param[value]}", String.class); column.getChildren().add(label2); component.getChildren().add(column); ... return component; } component.getChildren().add(column); ... return component; } So, further the problem is, that this code only prints out the content of the Map, on another page I need the values displayed in HtmlInputText elements and the whole map updated if the user clicks a i.e. "Save" button. So, further the problem is, that this code only prints out the content of the Map, on another page I need the values displayed in HtmlInputText elements and the whole map updated if the user clicks a i.e. "Save" button. If there is a workaround, to represent the Map as to Lists...please help me, because for this (map as 2 lists) I've no idea how the underlying map/database model can be updated again. Hopefully, someone can help me....

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  • Suggestions for designing large-scale Java webapp from the ground up

    - by Chris Thompson
    Hi all, I'm about to start developing a large-scale system and I'm struggling with which direction to proceed. I've done plenty of Java web apps before and I have plenty of experience with servlet containers and GWT and some experience with Spring. The problem is most of my webapps have been thrown together just to be a proof of concept and what I'm struggling with is what set of frameworks to use. I need to have both a browser based application as well as a web service designed to support access from mobile devices (Android and iPhone for now). Ideally, I'd like to design this system in such a way that I don't end up rewriting all of my servlets for each client (browser and phone) although I don't mind having some small checks in there to properly format the data. In addition, although I'm the only developer now, that won't necessarily be the case down the road and I'd like to design something that scales well both with regards to traffic and number of developers (isn't just a nightmare to maintain). So where I am now is planning on using GWT to design the browser-based interface but I'm struggling with how to reuse that code with to present the interface (most likely xml) for the mobile devices. Using GWT RPC would, I think, make it relatively easy to do all of the AJAX in the browser, but might make generating xml for the mobile phones difficult. In addition, I like the idea of using something like Hibernate for persistence and Spring Security to secure the whole thing. Again, I'm not sure how well those will cooperate with GWT (I think Hibernate should be fine...) There's obviously a lot more to this than I've presented here, but I've tried to give you the 5-minute overview. I'm a bit stumped and was wondering if anybody in the community had any experience starting from this place. Does what I'm trying to do make sense? Is it realistic? I have no doubt I can make all of these frameworks speak the same language, I'm just wondering if it's worth my time to fight with them. Also, am I missing a framework that would be really beneficial? Thanks in advance and sorry for the relatively broad question... Chris

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  • Unable to start basic application using sencha 2. Library files are not loaded

    - by Gendaful
    I am a new bee to sencha 2.I wanted to run a basic application using sencha touch but unable to load the application. Here is what I have done. I have downloaded the notesApp from miamicoder and i am trying to run the first chapter. I have attached the folder structure in the screenshot. Please have a look to understand the folder structure. Here is my index.html <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title>My Notes</title> <link href="sencha-touch.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="sencha-touch-debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="app.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> </body> </html> I have downloaded sencha sdk 2.1 and took sencha-touch-debug.js and sencha-touch.css and placed in the root of the folder and referred from index.html as mentioned below. I used to to the same thing in sencha 1 and I was getting success but I am getting below error if I am trying to do the same with sencha 2. I am getting errors as below. Failed to load resource file:///path/NotesApp-Book-Code-Ch1/src/event/Dispatcher.js?_dc=1354982532236 Failed to load resource file:///path/NotesApp-Book-Code-Ch1/src/event/publisher/Dom.js?_dc=1354982532238 Uncaught Error: [Ext.Loader] Failed loading 'file:///path/ebook-building-a-sencha-touch-2-app%20(1)/NotesApp-Book-Code-Ch1/src/event/Dispatcher.js', please verify that the file exists sencha-touch-debug.js:8324 Uncaught Error: [Ext.Loader] Failed loading 'file:///path/ebook-building-a-sencha-touch-2-app%20(1)/NotesApp-Book-Code-Ch1/src/event/publisher/Dom.js', please verify that the file exists Is it necessary to use senchatools and generate folder structure? Simply copying the two lib files (sencha-touch-debug.js and sencha-touch.css) and refer them from index.html will not work with sencha 2? Please help. Thank you.

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  • DatagridView loses current edit on Background update

    - by yoni.s
    Here's my problem : I have a DataGridView bound to a BindingList of custom objects. A background thread is constantly updating a value of these objects. The udpates are showing correctly, and everything is fine except for one thing - If you try to edit a different field while the background-updated field is being updated, it loses the entered value. Here is a code sample that demonstrates this behavior: (for new form, drop a new DataGridView on:) using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Threading; namespace WindowsFormsApplication2 { public partial class Form1 : Form { private BindingList<foo> flist; private Thread thrd; private BindingSource b; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); flist = new BindingList<foo> { new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1} }; b = new BindingSource(); b.DataSource = flist; dataGridView1.DataSource = b; thrd = new Thread(new ThreadStart(updPRoc)); thrd.Start(); } private void upd() { flist.ToList().ForEach(f=>f.c++); } private void updPRoc() { while (true) { this.BeginInvoke(new MethodInvoker(upd)); Thread.Sleep(1000); } } } public class foo:INotifyPropertyChanged { private int _c; public int a { get; set; } public int b { get; set; } public int c { get {return _c;} set { _c = value; if (PropertyChanged!= null) PropertyChanged(this,new PropertyChangedEventArgs("c")); } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion } } So, you edit column a or b, you will see that the column c update causes you to lose your entry. Any thoughts appreciated.

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  • Paperclip: delete attachments and "can't convert nil into String" error

    - by snitko
    I'm using Paperclip and here's what I do in the model to delete attachments: def before_save self.avatar = nil if @delete_avatar == 1.to_s end Works fine unless @delete_avatar flag is set when the user is actually uploading the image (so the model receives both params[:user][:avatar] and params[:user][:delete_avatar]. This results in the following error: TypeError: can't convert nil into String from /Work/project/src/vendor/plugins/paperclip/lib/paperclip/storage.rb:40:in `dirname' from /Work/project/src/vendor/plugins/paperclip/lib/paperclip/storage.rb:40:in `flush_writes' from /Work/project/src/vendor/plugins/paperclip/lib/paperclip/storage.rb:38:in `each' from /Work/project/src/vendor/plugins/paperclip/lib/paperclip/storage.rb:38:in `flush_writes' from /Work/project/src/vendor/plugins/paperclip/lib/paperclip/attachment.rb:144:in `save' from /Work/project/src/vendor/plugins/paperclip/lib/paperclip/attachment.rb:162:in `destroy' from /Work/project/src/app/models/user.rb:72:in `before_save' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/callbacks.rb:347:in `send' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/callbacks.rb:347:in `callback' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/callbacks.rb:249:in `create_or_update' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2538:in `save_without_validation' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/validations.rb:1078:in `save_without_dirty' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/dirty.rb:79:in `save_without_transactions' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:229:in `send' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:229:in `with_transaction_returning_status' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/abstract/database_statements.rb:136:in `transaction' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:182:in `transaction' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:228:in `with_transaction_returning_status' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:196:in `save' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:208:in `rollback_active_record_state!' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:196:in `save' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:723:in `create' I assume it has something to do with the avatar.dirty? value because when it certainly is true when this happens. The question is, how do I totally reset the thing if there are changes to be saved and abort avatar upload when the flag is set?

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  • What's the correct way to use Cakephp urls?

    - by Pichan
    Hello all, it's my first post here :) I'm having some difficulties with dealing with urls and parameters. I've gone through the router class api documentation over and over again and found nothing useful. First of all, I'd like to know if there is any 'universal' format in CakePHP(1.3) for handling urls. I'm currently handling all my urls as simple arrays(in the format that Router::url and $html-link accepts) and it's easy as long as I only need to pass them as arguments to cake's own methods. It usually gets tricky if I need something else. Mainly I'm having problems with converting string urls to the basic array format. Let's say I want to convert $arrayUrl to string and than again into url: $arrayUrl=array('controller'=>'SomeController','action'=>'someAction','someValue'); $url=Router::url($arrayUrl); //$url is now '/path/to/site/someController/someAction/someValue' $url=Router::normalize($url); //remove '/path/to/site' $parsed=Router::parse($url); /*$parsed is now Array( [controller] => someController [action] => someAction [named] => Array() [pass] => Array([0] => someValue) [plugin] => ) */ That seems an awful lot of code to do something as simple as to convert between 2 core formats. Also, note that $parsed is still not in the same as $arrayUrl. Of course I could tweak $parsed manually and actually I've done that a few times as a quick patch but I'd like to get to the bottom of this. I also noticed that when using prefix routing, $this-params in controller has the prefix embedded in the action(i.e. [action] = 'admin_edit') and the result of Router::parse() does not. Both of course have the prefix in it's own key. To summarize, how do I convert an url between any of these 3(or 4, if you include the prefix thing) mentioned formats the right way? Of course it would be easy to hack my way through this, but I'd still like to believe that cake is being developed by a bunch of people who have a lot more experience and insight than me, so I'm guessing there's a good reason for this "perceived misbehavior". I've tried to present my problem as good as I can, but due to my rusty english skills, I had to take a few detours :) I'll explain more if needed.

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  • What happens when several Java servlet apps running on the same port ?

    - by Frank
    Something strange happened to my servlets and I think I've figured out why, yet I'm more confused. I used Netbean6.7 to develop a Paypal IPN (Instant Payment Notification) message servlet, it listens on port 8080 by default for Paypal IPN messages. I used some sample Java code from it's web site, but when it ran, only about 1 in 10 messages came through, and they looked correct, but why 1 in 10 ? Not 100% or none ? So I asked some questions here and got some advices, one in particular points me to Google's App Engine, so I downloaded it and ran the demo guestbook while my IPN servlet is still running on Netbeans, the strange thing happened, after I entered "appengine-java-sdk-1.3.2\bin\dev_appserver.cmd appengine-java-sdk-1.3.2\demos\guestbook\war" from the command prompt, I went to the following url on my browser "http://localhost:8080/", I thought I would see the Google demo guestbook page, NO, what I saw was another servlet I developed 2 years ago : "Web Academy", online course registration app. How can that happen ? I never started it, and I haven't touch that project for years. I guess because it's also listening on port 8080, so now I understand why the IPN messages only came through 1 in 10 times, because another servlet was also listening on that port and could have got the messages intended for IPN, or some how those two servlets' processes mixed up and therefore couldn't respond to Paypal properly, and failed. In order to verify some of my guesses, I turn off Netbeans, and ran the Google guestbook again at the prompt, this time on my browser http://localhost:8080/ points to the demo guestbook page. My Urls look like this : [A] Paypal IPN : http://localhost:8080/PayPal_App/PayPal_Servlet [B] Web Academy : http://localhost:8080/ So now, my questions are : <1> Why the "Web Academy" servlet was auto started when I ran the Paypal servlet ? <2> If I change the IPN listening port to 8083, would that mean I can run both of them on my PC at the same time without affecting each other ? <3> But I still don't understand, [A] and [B] look different, if a page for [A] is refreshed, it should show the Paypal content, and another page looking at [B] should show the Web Academy content, and that's exactly what happens when I started Netbeans to run the Paypal servlet, both pages show their respective content correctly side by side without interfering with each other, how come the IPN messages couldn't get through 100% of the time ? <4> In Netbeans how to assign 8080 to servlet [A] and assign port 8083 to servlet [B] ? <5> How to turn off auto start of Web Academy by Netbeans ?

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  • NHibernate (3.1.0.4000) NullReferenceException using Query<> and NHibernate Facility

    - by TigerShark
    I have a problem with NHibernate, I can't seem to find any solution for. In my project I have a simple entity (Batch), but whenever I try and run the following test, I get an exception. I've triede a couple of different ways to perform a similar query, but almost identical exception for all (it differs in which LINQ method being executed). The first test: [Test] public void QueryLatestBatch() { using (var session = SessionManager.OpenSession()) { var batch = session.Query<Batch>() .FirstOrDefault(); Assert.That(batch, Is.Not.Null); } } The exception: System.NullReferenceException : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at NHibernate.Linq.NhQueryProvider.PrepareQuery(Expression expression, ref IQuery query, ref NhLinqExpression nhQuery) at NHibernate.Linq.NhQueryProvider.Execute(Expression expression) at System.Linq.Queryable.FirstOrDefault(IQueryable`1 source) The second test: [Test] public void QueryLatestBatch2() { using (var session = SessionManager.OpenSession()) { var batch = session.Query<Batch>() .OrderBy(x => x.Executed) .Take(1) .SingleOrDefault(); Assert.That(batch, Is.Not.Null); } } The exception: System.NullReferenceException : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at NHibernate.Linq.NhQueryProvider.PrepareQuery(Expression expression, ref IQuery query, ref NhLinqExpression nhQuery) at NHibernate.Linq.NhQueryProvider.Execute(Expression expression) at System.Linq.Queryable.SingleOrDefault(IQueryable`1 source) However, this one is passing (using QueryOver<): [Test] public void QueryOverLatestBatch() { using (var session = SessionManager.OpenSession()) { var batch = session.QueryOver<Batch>() .OrderBy(x => x.Executed).Asc .Take(1) .SingleOrDefault(); Assert.That(batch, Is.Not.Null); Assert.That(batch.Executed, Is.LessThan(DateTime.Now)); } } Using the QueryOver< API is not bad at all, but I'm just kind of baffled that the Query< API isn't working, which is kind of sad, since the First() operation is very concise, and our developers really enjoy LINQ. I really hope there is a solution to this, as it seems strange if these methods are failing such a simple test. EDIT I'm using Oracle 11g, my mappings are done with FluentNHibernate registered through Castle Windsor with the NHibernate Facility. As I wrote, the odd thing is that the query works perfectly with the QueryOver< API, but not through LINQ.

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  • Set maven to use archiva repositories WITHOUT using activeByDefault?

    - by Sam Levin
    I am very close to finally having a working setup with archiva and maven. The last thing that's really boggling me, is how to set up my internal and snapshot repositories - without using a profile which contains activeByDefault set to true. I am using a SUPER super pom - a company-wide pom which contains distributionManagement information for releases. I was thinking that I could specify the repositories in this pom, and configure the authentication settings in settings.xml? Can I use repositories tag without a profile? There should be no "profile" for my internal and snapshot repositories, as they will never change... What I'm trying to steer clear from, is using a "default" profile, which is active all the time. I hear activeByDefault is NOT a best practice and I don't intend to use it. With that said, how should I go about doing this? My internal repo is a mirror of the maven central repo, so I would like to lock down my developers to ONLY use our internal artifact server. Remember - I do NOT want a profile with activeByDefault set to true. I cannot stress this enough! Should I use Maven mirrors? Should I "add" additional repositories? If I take the repositories tag instead of the mirrors tag, will maven force builds to use ONLY my archiva settings, instead of the default maven central? Or is what I seek to accomplish able to be done using only the mirrors tag in maven? I know how to configure repo credentials when using repositories tag, but not with mirrors. How is this done? Is providing credentials for anything in mirrors tags the same as for anything in repositories tags? Am I missing something obvious? I've had it up to here with getting things up and running using maven. I know it will be worthwhile in the end, but it is surely causing me a ton of aggravation and resources seem to be sparse. Either that, or people are content using it however they please without regard to best-practices. Thank you

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  • Asynchronous Silverlight 4 call to the World of Warcraft armoury streaming XML in C#

    - by user348446
    Hello - I have been stuck on this all weekend and failed miserably! Please help me to claw back my sanity!! Your challenge For my first Silverlight application I thought it would be fun to use the World of Warcraft armoury to list the characters in my guild. This involves making an asyncronous from Silverlight (duh!) to the WoW armoury which is XML based. SIMPLE EH? Take a look at this link and open the source. You'll see what I mean: http://eu.wowarmory.com/guild-info.xml?r=Eonar&n=Gifted and Talented Below is code for getting the XML (the call to ShowGuildies will cope with the returned XML - I have tested this locally and I know it works). I have not managed to get the expected returned XML at all. Notes: If the browser is capable of transforming the XML it will do so, otherwise HTML will be provided. I think it examines the UserAgent I am a seasoned asp.net web developer C# so go easy if you start talking about native to Windows Forms / WPF I can't seem to set the UserAgent setting in .net 4.0 - doesn't seem to be a property off the HttpWebRequest object for some reason - i think it used to be available. Silverlight 4.0 (created as 3.0 originally before I updated my installation of Silverlight to 4.0) Created using C# 4.0 Please explain as if you talking to a web developer and not a proper programming lol! Below is the code - it should return the XML from the wow armoury. private void button7_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { // URL for armoury lookup string url = @"http://eu.wowarmory.com/guild-info.xml?r=Eonar&n=Gifted and Talented"; // Create the web request HttpWebRequest httpWebRequest = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(url); // Set the user agent so we are returned XML and not HTML //httpWebRequest.Headers["User-Agent"] = "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.0)"; // Not sure about this dispatcher thing - it's late so i have started to guess. Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(delegate() { // Call asyncronously IAsyncResult asyncResult = httpWebRequest.BeginGetResponse(ReqCallback, httpWebRequest); // End the response and use the result using (HttpWebResponse httpWebResponse = (HttpWebResponse)httpWebRequest.EndGetResponse(asyncResult)) { // Load an XML document from a stream XDocument x = XDocument.Load(httpWebResponse.GetResponseStream()); // Basic function that will use LINQ to XML to get the list of characters. ShowGuildies(x); } }); } private void ReqCallback(IAsyncResult asynchronousResult) { // Not sure what to do here - maybe update the interface? } Really hope someone out there can help me! Thanks mucho! Dan. PS Yes, I have noticed the irony in the name of the guild :)

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  • What are the benefits of using ORM over XML Serialization/Deserialization?

    - by Tequila Jinx
    I've been reading about NHibernate and Microsoft's Entity Framework to perform Object Relational Mapping against my data access layer. I'm interested in the benefits of having an established framework to perform ORM, but I'm curious as to the performance costs of using it against standard XML Serialization and Deserialization. Right now, I develop stored procedures in Oracle and SQL Server that use XML Types for either input or output parameters and return or shred XML depending on need. I use a custom database command object that uses generics to deserialize the XML results into a specified serializable class. By using a combination of generics, xml (de)serialization and Microsoft's DAAB, I've got a process that's fairly simple to develop against regardless of the data source. Moreover, since I exclusively use Stored Procedures to perform database operations, I'm mostly protected from changes in the data structure. Here's an over-simplified example of what I've been doing. static void main() { testXmlClass test = new test(1); test.Name = "Foo"; test.Save(); } // Example Serializable Class ------------------------------------------------ [XmlRootAttribute("test")] class testXmlClass() { [XmlElement(Name="id")] public int ID {set; get;} [XmlElement(Name="name")] public string Name {set; get;} //create an instance of the class loaded with data. public testXmlClass(int id) { GenericDBProvider db = new GenericDBProvider(); this = db.ExecuteSerializable("myGetByIDProcedure"); } //save the class to the database... public Save() { GenericDBProvider db = new GenericDBProvider(); db.AddInParameter("myInputParameter", DbType.XML, this); db.ExecuteSerializableNonQuery("mySaveProcedure"); } } // Database Handler ---------------------------------------------------------- class GenericDBProvider { public T ExecuteSerializable<T>(string commandText) where T : class { XmlSerializer xml = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T)); // connection and command code is assumed for the purposes of this example. // the final results basically just come down to... return xml.Deserialize(commandResults) as T; } public void ExecuteSerializableNonQuery(string commandText) { // once again, connection and command code is assumed... // basically, just execute the command along with the specified // parameters which have been serialized. } public void AddInParameter(string name, DbType type, object value) { StringWriter w = new StringWriter(); XmlSerializer x = new XmlSerializer(value.GetType()); //handle serialization for serializable classes. if (type == DbType.Xml && (value.GetType() != typeof(System.String))) { x.Serialize(w, value); w.Close(); // store serialized object in a DbParameterCollection accessible // to my other methods. } else { //handle all other parameter types } } } I'm starting a new project which will rely heavily on database operations. I'm very curious to know whether my current practices will be sustainable in a high-traffic situation and whether or not I should consider switching to NHibernate or Microsoft's Entity Framework to perform what essentially seems to boil down to the same thing I'm currently doing. I appreciate any advice you may have.

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  • Adobe Reader process fails when starting second instance

    - by Reddog
    In our C# WinForms application, we generate PDF files and launch Adobe Reader (or whatever the default system .pdf handler is) via the Process class. Since our PDF files can be large (approx 200K), we handle the Exited event to then clean up the temp file afterwards. The system works as required when a file is opened and then closed again. However, when a second file is opened (before closing Adobe Reader) the second process immediately exits (since Reader is now using it's MDI powers) and in our Exited handler our File.Delete call should fail because it's locked by the now joined Adobe process. However, in Reader we instead get: There was an error opening this document. This file cannot be found. The unusual thing is that if I put a debugger breakpoint before the file deletion and allow it to attempt (and fail) the deletion, then the system behaves as expected! I'm positive that the file exists and fairly positive that all handles/file streams to the file are closed before starting the process. We are launching with the following code: // Open the file for viewing/printing (if the default program supports it) var pdfProcess = new Process(); pdfProcess.StartInfo.FileName = tempFileName; if (pdfProcess.StartInfo.Verbs.Contains("open", StringComparer.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase)) { var verb = pdfProcess.StartInfo.Verbs.First(v => v.Equals("open", StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase)); pdfProcess.StartInfo.Verb = verb; } pdfProcess.StartInfo.Arguments = "/N"; // Specifies a new window will be used! (But not definitely...) pdfProcess.SynchronizingObject = this; pdfProcess.EnableRaisingEvents = true; pdfProcess.Exited += new EventHandler(pdfProcess_Exited); _pdfProcessDictionary.Add(pdfProcess, tempFileName); pdfProcess.Start(); Note: We are using the _pdfProcessDictionary to store references to the Process objects so that they stay in scope so that Exited event can successfully be raised. Our cleanup/exited event is: void pdfProcess_Exited(object sender, EventArgs e) { Debug.Assert(!InvokeRequired); var p = sender as Process; try { if (_pdfProcessDictionary.ContainsKey(p)) { var tempFileName = _pdfProcessDictionary[p]; if (File.Exists(tempFileName)) // How else can I check if I can delete it!!?? { // NOTE: Will fail if the Adobe Reader application instance has been re-used! File.Delete(tempFileName); _pdfProcessDictionary.Remove(p); } CleanOtherFiles(); // This function will clean up files for any other previously exited processes in our dictionary } } catch (IOException ex) { // Just swallow it up, we will deal with trying to delete it at another point } } Possible solutions: Detect that the file is still open in another process Detect that the second process hasn't really been fully exited and that the file is opened in the first process instead

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  • how to make the android app load faster?

    - by Tapan Desai
    I have designed an application for android, in which i am showing a splash screen before the main activity is started but the application takes 5-7 seconds to start on low-end devices. I want to reduce that time to as low as possible. I have been trying to reduce the things to be done in onCreate() but now i cannot remove any thing more from that. I am pasting the code that i have used to show the splash and the code from MainActivity. Please help me in reducing the startup time of the application. Splash.java @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); this.requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_NO_TITLE); setContentView(R.layout.activity_splash); txtLoad = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.txtLoading); txtLoad.setText("v1.0"); new Thread() { public void run() { try { sleep(1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } finally { finish(); Intent intent = new Intent(SplashActivity.this,MainActivity.class); startActivity(intent); } } }.start(); } MainActivity.java @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); this.requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_NO_TITLE); setContentView(R.layout.activity_main); editType1UserName = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.editTextType1UserName); editType1Password = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.editTextType1Password); editType2UserName = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.editTextType2UserName); editType2Password = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.editTextType2Password); editType3UserName = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.editTextType3UserName); editType3Password = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.editTextType3Password); editType4UserName = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.editTextType4UserName); editType4Password = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.editTextType4Password); mTxtPhoneNo = (AutoCompleteTextView) findViewById(R.id.mmWhoNo); mTxtPhoneNo.setThreshold(1); editText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.editTextMessage); spinner1 = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.spinnerGateway); btnsend = (Button) findViewById(R.id.btnSend); btnContact = (Button) findViewById(R.id.btnContact); btnsend.setOnClickListener((OnClickListener) this); btnContact.setOnClickListener((OnClickListener) this); mPeopleList = new ArrayList<Map<String, String>>(); PopulatePeopleList(); mAdapter = new SimpleAdapter(this, mPeopleList, R.layout.custcontview, new String[] { "Name", "Phone", "Type" }, new int[] { R.id.ccontName, R.id.ccontNo, R.id.ccontType }); mTxtPhoneNo.setAdapter(mAdapter); mTxtPhoneNo.setOnItemClickListener((OnItemClickListener) this); readPerson(); Panel panel; topPanel = panel = (Panel) findViewById(R.id.mytopPanel); panel.setOnPanelListener((OnPanelListener) this); panel.setInterpolator(new BounceInterpolator(Type.OUT)); getLoginDetails(); }

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  • Best Practices / Patterns for Enterprise Protection/Remediation of SSNs (Social Security Numbers)

    - by Erik Neu
    I am interested in hearing about enterprise solutions for SSN handling. (I looked pretty hard for any pre-existing post on SO, including reviewing the terriffic SO automated "Related Questions" list, and did not find anything, so hopefully this is not a repeat.) First, I think it is important to enumerate the reasons systems/databases use SSNs: (note—these are reasons for de facto current state—I understand that many of them are not good reasons) Required for Interaction with External Entities. This is the most valid case—where external entities your system interfaces with require an SSN. This would typically be government, tax and financial. SSN is used to ensure system-wide uniqueness. SSN has become the default foreign key used internally within the enterprise, to perform cross-system joins. SSN is used for user authentication (e.g., log-on) The enterprise solution that seems optimum to me is to create a single SSN repository that is accessed by all applications needing to look up SSN info. This repository substitutes a globally unique, random 9-digit number (ASN) for the true SSN. I see many benefits to this approach. First of all, it is obviously highly backwards-compatible—all your systems "just" have to go through a major, synchronized, one-time data-cleansing exercise, where they replace the real SSN with the alternate ASN. Also, it is centralized, so it minimizes the scope for inspection and compliance. (Obviously, as a negative, it also creates a single point of failure.) This approach would solve issues 2 and 3, without ever requiring lookups to get the real SSN. For issue #1, authorized systems could provide an ASN, and be returned the real SSN. This would of course be done over secure connections, and the requesting systems would never persist the full SSN. Also, if the requesting system only needs the last 4 digits of the SSN, then that is all that would ever be passed. Issue #4 could be handled the same way as issue #1, though obviously the best thing would be to move away from having users supply an SSN for log-on. There are a couple of papers on this: UC Berkely: http://bit.ly/bdZPjQ Oracle Vault: bit.ly/cikbi1

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  • Stuck with Regular Expression code to apply HTML tag to text but exclude if inside <?> tag

    - by James Buckingham
    Hi there. I'm trying to write a bit of regex which would go through some text, written by our Editors, and apply an <acronym> tag to the first instance it finds of an abbreviation set we hold in our "Glossary of Terms". So for this example I've used the abbreviation ITS. 1st thing I thought I'd do is setup an example with a mix of scenerios I could test against, i.e. ITS sitting with punctuation, in HTML tags & ones that we've applied this to already (in other words the script has run through this before, so no need to do again). I'm almost there but just got stuck at the last point :-(. Here's the regex I've got so far - <[^<|]+?>?>ITS<[^<]+?>|ITS The Example - FROM ( EVERY ITS IN BOLD TO BE WRAPPED WITH ACRONYM ): I want you to tag thisITS, but not this wrapped one - <acronym title="ITS" id="thisIsATest">ITS</acronym> This is another test as I still want to update <p>ITS</p> that have other HTML tags wrapped around them.` ITS want ones that start sentences and ones that finish ITS. ITS, and ones which are wrapped in punctuation.` Test link: <a href="index.cfm>ITS</a> AND I WANT THIS CHANGE TO : I want you to tag this <acronym title="ITS">ITS</acronym>, but not this wrapped one - <acronym title="ITS">ITS</acronym> This is another test as I still want to update <acronym title="ITS">ITS</acronym> that have other HTML tags wrapped around them.` <acronym title="ITS">ITS</acronym> want ones that start sentences and ones that finish <acronym title="ITS">ITS</acronym>. <acronym title="ITS">ITS</acronym>, and ones which are wrapped in punctuation. Test link: <acronym title="ITS"><a href="index.cfm>ITS</a></acronym> Are there any Reg Ex experts out there that could help me finish this off? Any other hints tips would also be appreciated. Thanks a lot, James P.S. This is going to be placed in a ColdFusion application if that helps anyone in specific syntax.

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  • Method interception in PHP 5.*

    - by Rolf
    Hi everybody, I'm implementing a Log system for PHP, and I'm a bit stuck. All the configuration is defined in an XML file, that declares every method to be logged. XML is well parsed and converted into a multidimensionnal array (classname = array of methods). So far, so good. Let's take a simple example: #A.php class A { public function foo($bar) { echo ' // Hello there !'; } public function bar($foo) { echo " $ù$ùmezf$z !"; } } #B.php class B { public function far($boo) { echo $boo; } } Now, let's say I've this configuration file: <interceptor> <methods class="__CLASS_DIR__A.php"> <method name="foo"> <log-level>INFO</log-level> <log-message>Transaction init</log-message> </method> </methods> <methods class="__CLASS_DIR__B.php"> <method name="far"> <log-level>DEBUG</log-level> <log-message>Useless</log-message> </method> </methods> </interceptor> The thing I'd like AT RUNTIME ONLY (once the XML parser has done his job) is: #Logger.php (its definitely NOT a final version) -- generated by the XML parser class Logger { public function __call($name,$args) { $log_level = args[0]; $args = array_slice($args,1); switch($method_name) { case 'foo': case 'far': //case ..... //write in log files break; } //THEN, RELAY THE CALL TO THE INITIAL METHOD } } #"dynamic" A.php class A extends Logger { public function foo($log_level, $bar) { echo ' // Hello there !'; } public function bar($foo) { echo " $ù$ùmezf$z !"; } } #"dynamic" B.php class B extends Logger { public function far($log_level, $boo) { echo $boo; } } The big challenge here is to transform A and B into their "dynamic" versions, once the XML parser has completed its job. The ideal would be to achieve that without modifying the code of A and B at all (I mean, in the files) - or at least find a way to come back to their original versions once the program is finished. To be clear, I wanna find the most proper way to intercept method calls in PHP. What are your ideas about it ??? Thanks in advance, Rolf

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  • Internet Explorer and onMouseOver/onMouseOut

    - by Thorbjørn Reimann-Andersen
    Hi all, I have tried looking a similar question on here but couldnt find one so here it comes: I have this html (ignore the "+whatever+@", its in a codebehind file so im putting some variables that im getting from there): <div id='ReferenceContainer"+UniqueID+@"' style='background-color:"+BackcolourOFF+@"; width:"+CompWidth+@"; height:"+CompHeight+@";'> <div id='Reference"+UniqueID+@"' style='width:"+CompWidth+@"; height:"+CompHeight+@"; '> <div id='RefTextContainer"+UniqueID+@"' style='float:left; width:"+CompWidth+@"; height:"+CompHeight+@"; ' > <div id='RefTitleCon' style='margin-top:"+RefTitleMargin+@"px; color:"+RefTitleColor+@"; z-index:-1;' ><p><b>"+RefTitle+@"</b></p> </div> <div id='RefTextCon'><p>"+RefText+@"</p></div> </div> <div id='RefPicContainer"+UniqueID+@"' style='float:right;'> <img id='RefImg"+UniqueID+@"first' class='first' name='RefImg"+UniqueID+@"' src=" + StartImg + @" style='position:absolute;' ></img> <img id='RefImg"+UniqueID+@"second' class='second' name='RefImg"+UniqueID+@"' src=" + AltImg + @" style='display:none;' ></img> </div> </div> <div id='ScriptContainer"+UniqueID+@"' style='width:"+CompWidth+@"; height:"+CompHeight+@"; position:relative; top:-"+CompHeight+@"px; left:0px;' onMouseOver='ChangeBackcolourON"+UniqueID+@"()' onMouseOut='ChangeBackcolourOFF"+UniqueID+@"()'></div> </div> Now in firefox, everything works just perfect. The div "ScriptContainer" sits in front of the whole thing and when the mouse enters or leaves the functions work exactly as they should. But IE8 places the text in front of everything and then the functions do not work as i would like them to. "ChangeBackcolourOFF" gets called every time the mouse enters the text, which sits in front of everything and "ChangeBackcolourON" gets called every time the mouse enters the "Scriptcontainer" from the text. So i either need to figure out how to force the text to be placed behind the "Scriptcontainer" or some other solutions. I appreciate you answers

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  • JDBC CommunicationsException with MySQL Database

    - by Dominik Siebel
    I'm having a little trouble with my MySQL- Connection- Pooling. This is the case: Different jobs are scheduled via Quartz. All jobs connect to different databases which works fine the whole day while the nightly scheduled jobs fail with a CommunicationsException... Quartz-Jobs: Job1 runs 0 0 6,10,14,18 * * ? Job2 runs 0 30 10,18 * * ? Job3 runs 0 0 5 * * ? As you can see the last job runs at 18 taking about 1 hour to run. The first job at 5am is the one that fails. I already tried all kinds of parameter-combinations in my resource config this is the one I am running right now: <!-- Database 1 (MySQL) --> <Resource auth="Container" driverClassName="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" maxActive="100" maxIdle="30" maxWait="10000" removeAbandoned="true" removeAbandonedTimeout="60" logAbandoned="true" type="javax.sql.DataSource" name="jdbc/appDbProd" username="****" password="****" url="jdbc:mysql://127.0.0.1:3306/appDbProd?autoReconnect=true&amp;useUnicode=true&amp;characterEncoding=UTF-8" testWhileIdle="true" testOnBorrow="true" testOnReturn="true" validationQuery="SELECT 1" timeBetweenEvictionRunsMillis="1800000" /> <!-- Database 2 (MySQL) --> <Resource auth="Container" driverClassName="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" maxActive="100" maxIdle="30" maxWait="10000" removeAbandoned="true" removeAbandonedTimeout="60" logAbandoned="true" type="javax.sql.DataSource" name="jdbc/prodDbCopy" username="****" password="****" url="jdbc:mysql://127.0.0.1:3306/prodDbCopy?autoReconnect=true&amp;useUnicode=true&amp;characterEncoding=UTF-8" testWhileIdle="true" testOnBorrow="true" testOnReturn="true" validationQuery="SELECT 1" timeBetweenEvictionRunsMillis="1800000" /> <!-- Database 3 (MSSQL)--> <Resource auth="Container" driverClassName="net.sourceforge.jtds.jdbc.Driver" maxActive="30" maxIdle="30" maxWait="100" removeAbandoned="true" removeAbandonedTimeout="60" logAbandoned="true" name="jdbc/catalogDb" username="****" password="****" type="javax.sql.DataSource" url="jdbc:jtds:sqlserver://127.0.0.1:1433;databaseName=catalog;useNdTLMv2=false" testWhileIdle="true" testOnBorrow="true" testOnReturn="true" validationQuery="SELECT 1" timeBetweenEvictionRunsMillis="1800000" /> For obvious reasons I changed IPs, Usernames and Passwords but they can be assumed to be correct, seeing that the application runs successfully the whole day. The most annoying thing is: The first job that runs first queries Database2 successfully but fails to query Database1 for some reason (CommunicationsException): Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: The last packet successfully received from the server was 39,376,539 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 39,376,539 milliseconds ago. is longer than the server configured value of 'wait_timeout'. You should consider either expiring and/or testing connection validity before use in your application, increasing the server configured values for client timeouts, or using the Connector/J connection property 'autoReconnect=true' to avoid this problem. Any ideas? Thanks!

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  • Display lable character by character using javascript

    - by Muhammad Sajid
    Hi, I am creating Hang a Man using PHP, MySQL & Javascript. Every thing is going perfect, I get a word randomly from DB show it as a label apply it a class where display = none. Now when I click on a Character that character become disable fine which i actually want but the label-character does not show. My code is: <link href="style.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" media="screen" /> <?php include( 'config.php' ); $question = questions(); // Get question. $alpha = alphabats(); // Get alphabets. ?> <script language="javascript"> function clickMe( name ){ var question = '<?php echo $question; ?>'; var questionLen = <?php echo strlen($question); ?>; for ( var i = 0; i < questionLen; i++ ){ if ( question[i] == name ){ var link = document.getElementById( name ); link.style.display = 'none'; var label = document.getElementById( 'questionLabel' + i ); label.style.display = 'none'; } } } </script> <div> <table align="center" style="border:solid 1px"> <tr> <?php for ( $i = 0; $i < 26; $i++ ) { echo "<td><a href='#' id=$alpha[$i] name=$alpha[$i] onclick=clickMe('$alpha[$i]');>". $alpha[$i] ."</a>&nbsp;</td>"; } ?> </tr> </table> <br/> <table align="center" style="border:solid 1px"> <tr> <?php for ( $i = 0; $i < strlen($question); $i++ ) { echo "<td class='question'><label id=questionLabel$i >". $question[$i] ."</label></td>"; } ?> </tr> </table> </div>

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  • problem with custom NSProtocol and caching on iPhone

    - by TomSwift
    My iPhone app embeds a UIWebView which loads html via a custom NSProtocol handler I have registered. My problem is that resources referenced in the returned html, which are also loaded via my custom protocol handler, are cached and never reloaded. In particular, my stylesheet is cached: <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="./styles.css" /> The initial request to load the html in the UIWebView looks like this: NSString* strUrl = [NSMutableString stringWithFormat: @"myprotocol:///entry?id=%d", entryID ]; NSURL* url = [NSURL URLWithString: strUrl]; [_pCurrentWebView loadRequest: [NSURLRequest requestWithURL: url cachePolicy: NSURLRequestReloadIgnoringLocalCacheData timeoutInterval: 60 ]]; (note the cache policy is set to ignore, and I've verified this cache policy carries through to subsequent requests for page resources on the initial load) The protocol handler loads the html from a database and returns it to the client using code like this: // create the response record NSURLResponse *response = [[NSURLResponse alloc] initWithURL: [request URL] MIMEType: mimeType expectedContentLength: -1 textEncodingName: textEncodingName]; // get a reference to the client so we can hand off the data id client = [self client]; // turn off caching for this response data [client URLProtocol: self didReceiveResponse:response cacheStoragePolicy: NSURLCacheStorageNotAllowed]; // set the data in the response to our jfif data [client URLProtocol: self didLoadData:data]; [data release]; (Note the response cache policy is "not allowed"). Any ideas how I can make it NOT cache my styles.css resource? I need to be able to dynamically alter the content of this resource on subsequent loads of html that references this file. I thought clearing the shared url cache would work, but it doesnt: [[NSURLCache sharedURLCache] removeAllCachedResponses]; One thing that does work, but it's terribly inefficient, is to dynamically cache-bust the url for the stylesheet by adding a timestamp parameter: <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="./styles.css?ts=1234567890" /> To make this work I have to load my html from the db, search and replace the url for the stylesheet with a cache-busting parameter that changes on each request. I'd rather not do this. My presumption is that there is no problem if I were to load my content via the built-in HTTP protocol. In that case, I'm guessing that the UIWebView looks at any Cache-Control flags in the NSURLHTTPResponse object's http headers and abides by them. Since my NSURLResponseObject has no http headers (it's not http...) then perhaps UIWebView just decides to cached the resource (ignoring the NSURLRequest caching directive?). Ideas???

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  • Avoiding stack overflows in wrapper DLLs

    - by peachykeen
    I have a program to which I'm adding fullscreen post-processing effects. I do not have the source for the program (it's proprietary, although a developer did send me a copy of the debug symbols, .map format). I have the code for the effects written and working, no problems. My issue now is linking the two. I've tried two methods so far: Use Detours to modify the original program's import table. This works great and is guaranteed to be stable, but the user's I've talked to aren't comfortable with it, it requires installation (beyond extracting an archive), and there's some question if patching the program with Detours is valid under the terms of the EULA. So, that option is out. The other option is the traditional DLL-replacement. I've wrapped OpenGL (opengl32.dll), and I need the program to load my DLL instead of the system copy (just drop it in the program folder with the right name, that's easy). I then need my DLL to load the Cg framework and runtime (which relies on OpenGL) and a few other things. When Cg loads, it calls some of my functions, which call Cg functions, and I tend to get stack overflows and infinite loops. I need to be able to either include the Cg DLLs in a subdirectory and still use their functions (not sure if it's possible to have my DLLs import table point to a DLL in a subdirectory) or I need to dynamically link them (which I'd rather not do, just to simplify the build process), something to force them to refer to the system's file (not my custom replacement). The entire chain is: Program loads DLL A (named opengl32.dll). DLL A loads Cg.dll and dynamically links (GetProcAddress) to sysdir/opengl32.dll. I now need Cg.dll to also refer to sysdir/opengl32.dll, not DLL A. How would this be done? Edit: How would this be done easily without using GetProcAddress? If nothing else works, I'm willing to fall back to that, but I'd rather not if at all possible. Edit2: I just stumbled across the function SetDllDirectory in the MSDN docs (on a totally unrelated search). At first glance, that looks like what I need. Is that right, or am I misjudging? (off to test it now) Edit3: I've solved this problem by doing thing a bit differently. Instead of dropping an OpenGL32.dll, I've renamed my DLL to DInput.dll. Not only does it have the advantage of having to export one function instead of well over 120 (for the program, Cg, and GLEW), I don't have to worry about functions running back in (I can link to OpenGL as usual). To get into the calls I need to intercept, I'm using Detours. All in all, it works much better. This question, though, is still an interesting problem (and hopefully will be useful for anyone else trying to do crazy things in the future). Both the answers are good, so I'm not sure yet which to pick...

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  • How to call Ajax to run a PHP file while maintaining PHP & Javascript variables.

    - by Umar
    Hi Stackoverflowers. I'm using the Facebook php-sdk to get the users name and friends, right now the loading friends part takes about +3 seconds so I wanted to do it via Ajax, e.g. so the document can load and jQuery then calls an external PHP script which loads the friends (their names and their profile pictures). So to do this I did: $(document).ready(function() { var loadUrl = "http://localhost/fb/getFriends.php" ; $("#friends") .html("Hold on, your friends are loading!") .load(loadUrl); }); But I get a PHP error: Fatal error: Call to a member function api() on a non-object If I do this in the same PHP file (so I don't use Ajax at all to call it) it works fine. Now I think I understand the reason this is happening, but I don't know how to fix it. In my main index.php file I have a bunch of init and session code e.g. FB.init({ appId : '<?php echo $facebook->getAppId(); ?>', session : <?php echo json_encode($session); ?>, // don't refetch the session when PHP already has it status : true, // check login status cookie : true, // enable cookies to allow the server to access the session xfbml : true // parse XFBML }); So I'm just wondering what is the best way to treat my new separate PHP file getFriends.php in a way where it has access to all PHP/JavaScript session data/variables? If you haven't used the Facebook php-sdk I'll quickly explain what I mean: Lets say I have index.php and getUsername.php, from index.php I want to retrieve the getUsername.php file via Ajax using .load. Now the problem is getUsername.php needs to access PHP session data/Javascript Init functions which were created in index.php, so I'm thinking of ways to solve this (I'm new to PHP so sorry if this sounds silly) but I'm thinking maybe I could do a POST in jQuery Ajax and post the session data? Or maybe I could create a PHP class, so something like: class getUsername extends index{} /*Yes I'm a newbie*/ If you have a look at the php-sdk example.php link posted at the top maybe you'd better understand what variables exactly need to be accessed from a new file. Also on a different note, I'm using PHP to work out page rendering times and it seems that fetching the users name alone : // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } Can take a good 4 seconds, is this normal? Once I get the users details is it good to cache it or something? -Speed isn't as important right now, for now I'm just trying to figure out this Ajax-separating php files thing. Woah this is a long post. Thanks very much for your time.

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  • FormView templates break when refactored to Master/Content

    - by ZaijiaN
    Let's say I have an abstract class IA, with subclasses A1, A2, A3. For each subclass, I had a page with a FormView to insert/edit/view, with code specific to that class. The templates for insert/edit/view are all very similar, so it was mostly cut & paste, and the compiler had no problem that there were controls with the same IDs in the different templates. Something like this: <asp:FormView> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </InsertItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </EdittItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> Much of the code/markup ended up being redundant across the pages, so I refactored it to use a master/content format, with the master page having content placeholders for the insert/edit/view templates. Master page: <asp:FormView> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="InsertItemTemplate"></asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </InsertItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="EditItemTemplate"></asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </EdittItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> And content page: <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="InsertItemTemplate"> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="EditItemTemplate"> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </asp:Content> In the content page templates, I'm doing the exact same thing I was doing before I refactored, but now the compiler is blowing up with the error BC30260: 'Label1' is already declared as 'Protected WithEvents Label1 As System.Web.UI.WebControls.Label' in this class. For some reason, it's not separating the controls in the content blocks the same way it did when they were in the templates, even though the content placeholders are in the individual templates. Is there a way around this, other than to rename all my controls?

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  • Positioning element under another

    - by Cedar Jensen
    I am not an expert web-dev so please bear with me here. I would like to display a banner style header for a page with the top part taken up by an image that is 275x116 and then a horizontal menu bar (styled using ul items) appearing at 70% from the top of the banner. How would I set this up so that the banner appears underneath my navigation? Currently, a portion of the left side of my menu bar sits underneath the image but I'd like it to be the opposite so the menu bar is above the image, some thing like this: ============= <start of header> =========== -------- | img | | | | Horizontal menu | | -------- ============= <end of header> =========== My css: #header { background-color: green; border: 0; margin: 0; padding: 0; overflow: hidden; width: 100%; height: 120px; } #logo { background: green url(images/logo.png) no-repeat scroll 0 0; margin: 0px 0px; border: 1px solid white; left: 20px; top: 20px; width: 275px; height: 116px; position: absolute; z-index: -1000; } .container { border:1px solid grey; margin-left:auto; margin-right:auto; width:960px; } My Html: <body> <div id="header"> <div id="logo"> </div> <div class="container" id="primaryNavbar"> <ul> <li><a href="#">Home</a></li> <li><a href="#">Books</a></li> <li><a href="#">Shows</a></li> <li><a href="#">Movies</a></li> </ul> <div class="clear">&nbsp;</div> </div> <!-- end of container --> </div> <!-- end of header --> </body> I thought that setting the position to "absolute" for the logo element and adding in a very low z-index would achieve this but that isn't the case here. Any suggestions?

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  • Middleware with generic communication media layer

    - by Tom
    Greetings all, I'm trying to implement middleware (driver) for an embedded device with generic communication media layer. Not sure what is the best way to do it so I'm seeking an advice from more experienced stackoverflow users:). Basically we've got devices around the country communicating with our servers (or a pda/laptop in used in field). Usual form of communication is over TCP/IP, but could be also using usb, RF dongle, IR, etc. The plan is to have object corresponding with each of these devices, handling the proprietary protocol on one side and requests/responses from other internal systems on the other. The thing is how create something generic in between the media and the handling objects. I had a play around with the TCP dispatcher using boost.asio but trying to create something generic seems like a nightmare :). Anybody tried to do something like that? What is the best way how to do it? Example: Device connects to our Linux server. New middleware instance is created (on the server) which announces itself to one of the running services (details are not important). The service is responsible for making sure that device's time is synchronized. So it asks the middleware what is the device's time, driver translates it to device language (protocol) and sends the message, device responses and driver again translates it for the service. This might seem as a bit overkill for such a simple request but imagine there are more complex requests which the driver must translate, also there are several versions of the device which use different protocol, etc. but would use the same time sync service. The goal is to abstract the devices through the drivers to be able to use the same service to communicate with them. Another example: we find out that the remote communications with the device are down. So we send somebody out with PDA, he connects to the device using USB cable. Starts up the application which has the same functionality as the timesync service. Again middleware instance is created (on the PDA) to translate communication between application and the device this time only using USB/serial media not TCP/IP as in previous example. I hope it makes more sense now :) Cheers, Tom

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