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  • overload == (and != , of course) operator, can I bypass == to determine whether the object is null

    - by LLS
    Hello, when I try to overload operator == and != in C#, and override Equal as recommended, I found I have no way to distinguish a normal object and null. For example, I defined a class Complex. public static bool operator ==(Complex lhs, Complex rhs) { return lhs.Equals(rhs); } public static bool operator !=(Complex lhs, Complex rhs) { return !lhs.Equals(rhs); } public override bool Equals(object obj) { if (obj is Complex) { return (((Complex)obj).Real == this.Real && ((Complex)obj).Imaginary == this.Imaginary); } else { return false; } } But when I want to use if (temp == null) When temp is really null, some exception happens. And I can't use == to determine whether the lhs is null, which will cause infinite loop. What should I do in this situation. One way I can think of is to us some thing like Class.Equal(object, object) (if it exists) to bypass the == when I do the check. What is the normal way to solve the problem?

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  • Zend Framework How can I print a logged in user name from a Zend_Session_Namespace

    - by IrishStudent76
    Hi all I have created the following login controller for my site and it works fine in relation to logging users in a logging them out. The thing I want to do is echo the logged in users name into the FlashMessenger for the success page how ever as my code stands I only get the following message when redirected to the success page, "you have been successfully logged in as Array". Can I also ask the following does the line $session-user =$adaptergetResultArray('Password'); create an array of user information less the password value from the database. Many Thanks in advance, IrishStudent76 <?php class LoginController extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function init(){ $this->view->doctype('XHTML1_STRICT'); } // login action public function loginAction() { $form = new PetManager_Form_Login; $this->view->form = $form; /* check for valid input from the form and authenticate using adapter Add user record to session and redirect to the original request URL if present */ if ($this->getRequest()->isPost()) { if ($form->isValid($this->getRequest()->getPost())) { $values = $form->getValues(); $adapter = new PetManager_Auth_Adapter_Doctrine( $values['username'], $values['password'] ); $auth = Zend_Auth::getInstance(); $result = $auth->authenticate($adapter); if ($result->isValid()) { $session = new Zend_Session_Namespace('petmanager.auth'); $session->user = $adapter->getResultArray('Password'); if (isset($session->requestURL)) { $url = $session->requestURL; unset($session->requestURL); $this->_redirect($url); } else { $this->_helper->getHelper('FlashMessenger') ->addMessage('You have been successfully logged in as '.$session- >user); $this->_redirect('/login/success'); } } else { $this->view->message = 'You could not be logged in. Please try again.'; } } } } public function successAction() { if ($this->_helper->getHelper('FlashMessenger')->getMessages()) { $this->view->messages = $this->_helper ->getHelper('FlashMessenger') ->getMessages(); } else { $this->_redirect('/login'); } } public function logoutAction() { Zend_Auth::getInstance()->clearIdentity(); Zend_Session::destroy(); $this->_redirect('/'); } }

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  • C++ Segmentation Fault when Iterating through a Vector

    - by user1790374
    I have a program that maintains an integer vector. I have three functions that add an integer, remove an integer and check whether an integer is already in the vector. The problem is with the last one. vector<int> children; void CtpTestingApplication::addChild(int child) { for (int i=0; i<children.size(); i++) { //already a child if (children[i]==child) return; } //child not yet recorded children.push_back(child); received.push_back(false); cout<<"added child "<<child; } void CtpTestingApplication::removeChild(int child) { Enter_Method("removeChild"); for (int i=0; i<children.size(); i++) { //already a child, remove it if (children[i]==child) { children.erase(children.begin()+i); received.erase(received.begin()+i); cout<<"removed child "<<child; } } //not recorded, no need to remove } bool CtpTestingApplication::isChild(int child) { Enter_Method("isChild"); vector<int>::iterator ic; bool result = false; for (ic= children.begin(); ic < children.end(); ic++) { cout<<*ic<<" vs "<<child; // if (child==*ic) result = true; } return result; } I always get segmentation fault when I uncomment "if (child==*ic)", even though printouts show that the vector is not empty and contains the expected integers. For example, with the if statements commented, I can see 1 vs 4, 2 vs 4, 4 vs 4, 12 vs 4 I also attempted looping using children[i] and so on, but to no avail. Any help would be appreciated. Thank you.

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  • Working with a string as an array of characters

    - by Malfunction
    I'm having some trouble with a string represented as an array of characters. What I'd like to do, as I would do in java, is the following: while (i < chars.length) { char ch = chars[i]; if ((WORD_CHARS.indexOf(ch) >= 0) == punctuation) { String token = buffer.toString(); if (token.length() > 0) { parts.add(token); } buffer = new StringBuffer(); } buffer.append(ch); i++; } What I'm doing is something like this: while(i < strlen(chars)) { char ch = chars[i]; if(([WORD_CHARS rangeOfString:ch] >= 0) == punctuation) { NSString *token = buffer.toString(); if([token length] > 0) { [parts addObject:token]; } buffer = [NSMutableString string]; } [buffer append(ch)]; i++; } I'm not sure how I'm supposed to convert String token = buffer.toString(); to objective c, where buffer is an NSMutableString. Also, how do I check this if condition in objective c? if ((WORD_CHARS.indexOf(ch) >= 0) == punctuation) WORD_CHARS is an NSString. I'm also having trouble with appending ch to buffer. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • webview in tabhost

    - by user1905845
    I am new to android. I am using webview inside tabview. In my app in first activity facebook button available.when click facebook button connect to facebook in second activity inside tabs fine.In second activity i am using webview. this is the code. public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState){ super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.facebook); wvFacebook=(WebView)findViewById(R.id.webview); btnBack=(Button)findViewById(R.id.back); txtBarname=(TextView)findViewById(R.id.barnameheader); if(check==1){ strFacebook=MyBarsActivity.strFacebook; Log.e("Facebook url",strFacebook); strBarName=MyBarsActivity.strBarName; } wvFacebook.setWebViewClient(new MyWebViewClient()); wvFacebook.loadUrl(strFacebook); } private class MyWebViewClient extends WebViewClient { public boolean shouldOverrideUrlLoading(WebView view, String url) { view.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); view.loadUrl(url); return true; } @Override public void onPageStarted(WebView view, String url, Bitmap favicon) { super.onPageStarted(view, url, favicon); // progressDialog.show(getParent(), "In progress", "Loading, please wait..."); } public void onPageFinished(WebView view, String url) { super.onPageFinished(view, url); } But my problem is when i click connect button facebook page will be displayed well inside tabs.But when i click emial or username and password button it is not responding.Why it is not responding please help me regarding this.thanks in advance.

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  • self-destructing objects in php5?

    - by user151841
    I am working on a class in php that is basically an interface to a database row. I wanted to create a delete() method that would 1. delete the database row and 2. destroy the instance of itself so that further attempts to manipulate the row via the object would throw warnings. Doing some googling, it seems that, in php5, it's not possible for an object to unset itself. http://bugs.php.net/bug.php?id=36971 In fact they discuss the very situation I was wanting to do :( So how should I proceed? I could make boolean flag as a class property, for whether the row still exists, and have each operation check that flag and throw an error if the row has been deleted. This maintains the oo structure of code, so I would have $objDbRow->delete(); But then I have to put checks at the beginning of each method. Or, I could implement a __destruct method that deletes the row. But that would seem counter-intuitive to me; if I saw in code unset($objDbRow); All I would suspect that's happening is that the object is being discarded, not that a row is being deleted. So that to me would seem like bad practice.

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  • What guarantees are there on the run-time complexity (Big-O) of LINQ methods?

    - by tzaman
    I've recently started using LINQ quite a bit, and I haven't really seen any mention of run-time complexity for any of the LINQ methods. Obviously, there are many factors at play here, so let's restrict the discussion to the plain IEnumerable LINQ-to-Objects provider. Further, let's assume that any Func passed in as a selector / mutator / etc. is a cheap O(1) operation. It seems obvious that all the single-pass operations (Select, Where, Count, Take/Skip, Any/All, etc.) will be O(n), since they only need to walk the sequence once; although even this is subject to laziness. Things are murkier for the more complex operations; the set-like operators (Union, Distinct, Except, etc.) work using GetHashCode by default (afaik), so it seems reasonable to assume they're using a hash-table internally, making these operations O(n) as well, in general. What about the versions that use an IEqualityComparer? OrderBy would need a sort, so most likely we're looking at O(n log n). What if it's already sorted? How about if I say OrderBy().ThenBy() and provide the same key to both? I could see GroupBy (and Join) using either sorting, or hashing. Which is it? Contains would be O(n) on a List, but O(1) on a HashSet - does LINQ check the underlying container to see if it can speed things up? And the real question - so far, I've been taking it on faith that the operations are performant. However, can I bank on that? STL containers, for example, clearly specify the complexity of every operation. Are there any similar guarantees on LINQ performance in the .NET library specification?

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  • Accessing global variables in a flash[:notice]

    - by Trip
    This is deals_controller.rb. And it works like this, except two things. Not sure how to call Deal.count to add in my flash[:notice] . I get the hunch that its not calling something global. I need that contional statement back, as I'm pretty sure its responsible for actually adding the new @deal . So I assume my syntax is off. Do note, I added an extra 'end' when I uncomment this block. def create -# This will use the disclaimer_ids submitted from the check boxes in the view -# to add/delete deal.disclaimers entries to matched the list of checked boxes. @deal = Deal.new(params[:deal]) -# <------I Need this commented out IF statement back ------- -#if @deal.valid? && @organization.deals << @deal flash[:notice] = 'Your promotion is published! You may find it in the number 1 position of our #{deal.count} previously posted promotions. To see your promotion, click here."' respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to organization_deals_path(@organization) } format.js -# I Need this IF Statement Back! -#else -#@disclaimers = Disclaimer.all -#render :action = 'new' end end Thanks!

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  • Help with string equality in Java

    - by annayena
    The following function accepts 2 strings, the 2nd (not 1st) possibly containing *'s (asterisks). An * is a replacement for a string (empty, 1 char or more), it can appear appear (only in s2) once, twice, more or not at all, it cannot be adjacent to another * (ab**c), no need to check that. public static boolean samePattern(String s1, String s2) It returns true if strings are of the same pattern. It must be recursive, not use any loops, static or global variables. Also it's prohibited to use the method equals in the String class. Can use local variables and method overloading. Can use only these methods: charAt(i), substring(i), substring(i, j), length(). Examples: 1: TheExamIsEasy; 2: "The*xamIs*y" ---> true 1: TheExamIsEasy; 2: "Th*mIsEasy*" ---> true 1: TheExamIsEasy; 2: "*" ---> true 1: TheExamIsEasy; 2: "TheExamIsEasy" ---> true 1: TheExamIsEasy; 2: "The*IsHard" ---> FALSE I am stucked on this question for many hours now! I need the solution in Java please kindly help me.

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  • JAR file: Could not find main class

    - by ApertureT3CH
    Okay, I have a strange problem. I wanted to run one of my programs as a .jar file, but when I open it by double-clicking it, I get an error message like "Could not find main class, program is shutting down". I'm pretty sure I did everything right, the jar should work afaik. I also tried other programs, it's the same with every single one. (I'm creating the .jar's through BlueJ) There is no problem when I run them through a .bat . And here comes the strangest thing of all: The .jar's have worked some time ago (one or two months I guess), and I don't remember doing anything different. It's the same BlueJ-Version. Okay, maybe Java updated and something got messed up... I googled, but I couldn't find a solution. (some people seem to have a similar problem, and it seems to be only them who can't run their .jar's; they uploaded them and other people say the .jar's run fine.) What could be the problem? How can I solve it? I'd really appreciate some help here. Thank you :) ApertureT3CH EDIT: okay guys, you're making me unsure here. Imma check the manifest again, at this unholy time ( 1:34 am ) :P EDIT2: This is my MANIFEST.MF Manifest-Version: 1.0 Class-Path: Main-Class: LocalChatClientGUI [empty line] [empty line] The Main class is correct. EDIT3: Thanks to hgrey: There is nothing wrong with the jar. I can run it from a bat file, which actually should not be different from double-clicking the jar, right? Yet I get the error when clicking it, and it works fine through the bat. EDIT4: I finally solved the problem. I re-installed the JRE and now it works, although I can't see any version differences. Thanks to everyone!

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  • Is the below thread pool implementation correct(C#3.0)

    - by Newbie
    Hi Experts, For the first time ever I have implemented thread pooling and I found it to be working. But I am not very sure about the way I have done is the appropriate way it is supposed to be. Would you people mind in spending some valuable time to check and let me know if my approach is correct or not? If you people find that the approach is incorrect , could you please help me out in writing the correct version. I have basicaly read How to use thread pool and based on what ever I have understood I have developed the below program as per my need public class Calculation { #region Private variable declaration ManualResetEvent[] factorManualResetEvent = null; #endregion public void Compute() { factorManualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent[2]; for (int i = 0; i < 2; i++){ factorManualResetEvent[i] = new ManualResetEvent(false); ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(ThreadPoolCallback, i);} //Wait for all the threads to complete WaitHandle.WaitAll(factorManualResetEvent); //Proceed with the next task(s) NEXT_TASK_TO_BE_EXECUTED(); } #region Private Methods // Wrapper method for use with thread pool. public void ThreadPoolCallback(Object threadContext) { int threadIndex = (int)threadContext; Method1(); Method2(); factorManualResetEvent[threadIndex].Set(); } private void Method1 () { //Code of method 1} private void Method2 () { //Code of method 2 } #endregion }

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  • IE 7 floated div auto-clearing next element ?

    - by schweb-design-llc
    Hello, I'm having trouble with the following example. Background: I first have a element floated to the right with an image output inside it. I then have a element with other content within it. In FF and IE 8, as expected, the .images div floated to the right displays floated to the right pushing the content within the .product-body div to the left nicely. The problem: But when viewed in IE 7 compatibility mode, the .product-body div is cleared underneath the .images div and thus the .images div does not fall nicely to the right as expected. IT does this regardless of whether or not i have clear:none; on the .broduct-body div. Please see the example at www.hotelmarketingbudget.com Look at the source code there at the div element #content-body to see these divs. Feel free to use Firebug or IE Dev toolbar or whatnot to check this out. The relevant CSS: content-body{ width:auto; height:auto; position:relative; margin:0 auto; } .product-group .images { float:right; width:auto; height:auto; position:relative; margin:0 auto; margin-left:15px; } .product-group .product-body { width:auto; height:auto; position:relative; margin:0 auto; } I've spent hours already trying to figure out how to fix this- googling, reading other threads here on stackoverflow, but alas i cannot find any solutions and it's hard to know what words to even search with. I'm really hoping this is just some brain-fart on my part. Any advice or ideas or questions would be GREATLY appreciated!

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  • How can I get size in bytes of an object sent using RMI?

    - by Lucas Batistussi
    I'm implementing a cache server with MongoDB and ConcurrentHashMap java class. When there are available space to put object in memory, it will put at. Otherwise, the object will be saved in a mongodb database. Is allowed that user specify a size limit in memory (this should not exceed heap size limit obviously!) for the memory cache. The clients can use the cache service connecting through RMI. I need to know the size of each object to verify if a new incoming object can be put into memory. I searched over internet and i got this solution to get size: public long getObjectSize(Object o){ try { ByteArrayOutputStream bos = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); ObjectOutputStream oos = new ObjectOutputStream(bos); oos.writeObject(o); oos.close(); return bos.size(); } catch (Exception e) { return Long.MAX_VALUE; } } This solution works very well. But, in terms of memory use doesn't solve my problem. :( If many clients are verifying the object size at same time this will cause stack overflow, right? Well... some people can say: Why you don't get the specific object size and store it in memory and when another object is need to put in memory check the object size? This is not possible because the objects are variable in size. :( Someone can help me? I was thinking in get socket from RMI communication, but I don't know how to do this...

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  • Change Default Winform Icon Across Entire App

    - by Kyle Gagnet
    Can I change the default icon used on a Winform? Most of my forms have their icon property set to a custom icon. For the few forms that slip through the cracks, I don't want the generic "hey look, he made this in visual studio" icon. One solution is to tediously check every one of my forms to make sure they either have a custom icon set or have ShowIcon set to False. Another solution is to have every one of my forms inherit from a base class that sets a custom icon in the constructor. Aside from those solutions, what other options do I have? EDIT: I was hoping there would be a way to replace the source of the stock icon with my own. Is it in a resource file somewhere? Or is it embedded in a .NET dll that I can't (or really, really shouldn't) modify? BOUNTY EDIT: Is there a way to accomplish this without editing or writing a single line of code? I don't care how impractical, complicated, waste-of-time the solution is... I just want to know if it's possible. I need to satisfy my curiosity.

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  • nothrow or exception ?

    - by Muggen
    I am a student and I have small knowledge on C++, which I try to expand. This is more of a philosophical question.. I am not trying to implement something. Since #include <new> //... T * t = new (std::nothrow) T(); if(t) { //... } //... Will hide the Exception, and since dealing with Exceptions is heavier compared to a simple if(t), why isn't the normal new T() not considered less good practice, considering we will have to use try-catch() to check if a simple allocation succeeded (and if we don't, just watch the program die)?? What are the benefits (if any) of the normal new allocation compared to using a nothrow new? Exception's overhead in that case is insignificant ? Also, Assume that an allocation fails (eg. no memory exists in the system). Is there anything the program can do in that situation, or just fail gracefully. There is no way to find free memory on the heap, when all is reserved, is there? Incase an allocation fails, and an std::bad_alloc is thrown, how can we assume that since there is not enough memory to allocate an object (Eg. a new int), there will be enough memory to store an exception ?? Thanks for your time. I hope the question is in line with the rules.

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  • Patterns to deal with with functions that can have different kinds of results.

    - by KaptajnKold
    Suppose you have an method on an object that given the some input alters the objects state if the input validates according to some complex logic. Now suppose that when the input doesn't validate, it can be due to several different things, each of which we would like to be able to deal with in different ways. I'm sure many of you are thinking: That's what exceptions are for! I've thought of this also. But my reservation against using exceptions is that in some cases there is nothing exceptional about the input not validating and I really would like to avoid using exceptions to control what is really just in the expected flow of the program. If there were only one interpretation possible, I could simply choose to return a boolean value indicating whether or not the operation resulted in a state change or not and the respond appropriately when it did not. There is of course also the option to return a status code which the client can then choose to interpret or not. I don't like this much either because there is nothing semantic about status codes. The solution I have so far is to always check for each possible situation which I am able to handle before I call the method which then returns a boolean to inform the client if the object changed state. This leaves me the flexibility to handle as few or as many as the possible situations as I wish depending on the context I am in. It also has the benefit of making the method I am calling simpler to write. The drawback is that there is quite a lot of duplication in the client code wherever I call the method. Which of these solutions do you prefer and why? What other patterns do people use for providing meaningful feedback from functions? I know that some languages support multiple return values, and I if I had that option I would surely prefer it.

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  • Powershell wait for file to delete, then copy a folder

    - by user3317623
    Morning guys, I have a couple of scripts that have to sync a folder from the network server, to the local terminal server, and lastly into the %LOCALAPPDATA%. I need to first check if a folder is being synced (this is done by creating a temporary COPYING.TXT on the server), and wait until that is removed, THEN copy to %LOCALAPPDATA%. Something like this: Server-side script executes, which syncs my folder to all of my terminal servers. It creates a COPYING.TXT temporary file, which indicates the sync is in progress. Once the sync is finished, the script removes the COPYING.TXT If someone logs on during the sync, I need a script to wait until the COPYING.TXT is deleted I.E the sync is finished, then resume the local sync into their %LOCALAPPDATA%. do{cp c:\folder\program $env:LOCALAPPDATA} while(!(test-path c:\folder\COPYING.txt)) (So that copies the folder while the file DOESN'T exist, but I don't think that exits cleanly) I cannot format the above as code for some reason I'm sorry? Or: while(!(test-path c:\folder\COPYING.txt)){ cp c:\folder\program $env:LOCALAPPDATA\ -recurse -force if (!(test-path c:\folder\program)){return} } But that script quits if the COPYING.TXT exists. I think I need to create a function and insert that function within itself, or a nested while loop, but that is starting to make my head hurt. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks guys.

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  • What's wrong with this inner query (MySQL)...

    - by stuboo
    ...besides the fact that I am a total amateur? My table is set up like this: CREATE TABLE `messages` ( `id` int(6) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `patient_id` int(6) unsigned NOT NULL, `message` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `savedate` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL, `senddate` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL, `SmsSid` varchar(40) NOT NULL COMMENT 'where we store the cookies from twilio', `sendorder` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL COMMENT 'the order we want the msg sent in', `sent` tinyint(1) NOT NULL COMMENT '0=queued, 1=sent, 2=sent-unqueued,4=rec-unread,5=recd-read', PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=143 ; I need a query that will SELECT * FROM `messages` WHERE `senddate` < $now AND `sent` = 0 (AND LIMIT TO ONLY ONE RECORD PER `patient_id`) I've tried the following: SELECT * FROM `messages` WHERE `senddate` IN (SELECT `patient_id`, max(`senddate`) GROUP by `patient_id`) AND `senddate` < $now AND `sent` = 0 ; But I get this error: MySQL client version: 5.1.37 `#1064 - You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'GROUP by patient_id) AND senddate < 1270093898 AND sent = 0 LIMIT 0, 30' at line 5

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  • How should I solve this MySql problem (PHP) ? (Beginner)

    - by Camran
    I have several tables in a MySql database. I have a classifieds website, and at the bottom I display the users last visited classifieds. I do this by storing the ID:s of the ads to an array in the cookie. Now, my db is made up like this kindof: Main Table: // Stores global information, ie these fields have to be filled out in every record, never be blank ID Price category Seller Item Table: // Stores descriptive info about whats for sale ID AD_ID (FK) //This is the same as ID in the MAIN TABLE Color Size Mileage etc My problem is that I need to know what category the ad is in, in order to query mysql for the right information I think. So I need two variables, but the cookie only has one (ID) stored. Offcourse I could make two queries, first one just matching the ID to the main_table and fetch the category from the Main_table. Then make the second query and fetch all other info from the right table. Here is an example if the category was Vehicles: SELECT * FROM main_table, vehicles_table, WHERE main_table.id=$id_from_cookie AND main_table.ad_id=vehicles_table.ad_id As you can see above, I need the category to write in what table to check, right? But I think there must be a smarter way, like fetching them in one single query using only one variable (id from cookie)? How should I do this? Understand? Let me know if you need more input... Thanks

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  • Log4j Logging to the Wrong Directory

    - by John
    I have a relatively complex log4j.xml configuration file with many appenders. Some machines the application runs on need a separate log directory, which is actually a mapped network drive. To get around this, we embed a system property as part of the filename in order to specify the directory. Here is an example: The "${user.dir}" part is set as a system property on each system, and is normally set to the root directory of the application. On some systems, this location is not the root of the application. The problem is that there is always one appender where this is not set, and the file appears not to write to the mapped drive. The rest of the appenders do write to the correct location per the system property. As a unit test, I set up our QA lab to hard-code the values for the appender above, and it worked: however, a different appender will then append to the wrong file. The mis-logged file is always the same for a given configuration: it is not a random file each time. My best educated guess is that there is a HashMap somewhere containing these appenders, and for some reason, the first one retrieved from the map does not have the property set. Our application does have custom system properties loading: the main() method loads a properties file and calls into System.setProperties(). My first instinct was to check the static initialization order, and to ensure the controller class with the main method does not call into log4j (directly or indirectly) before setting the properties just in case this was interfering with log4j's own initialization. Even removing all vestiges of log4j from the initialization logic, this error condition still occurs.

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  • Why could "insert (...) values (...)" not insert a new row?

    - by nang
    Hi, I have a simple SQL insert statement of the form: insert into MyTable (...) values (...) It is used repeatedly to insert rows and usually works as expected. It inserts exactly 1 row to MyTable, which is also the value returned by the Delphi statement AffectedRows:= myInsertADOQuery.ExecSQL. After some time there was a temporary network connectivity problem. As a result, other threads of the same application perceived EOleExceptions (Connection failure, -2147467259 = unspecified error). Later, the network connection was reestablished, these threads reconnected and were fine. The thread responsible for executing the insert statement described above, however, did not perceive the connectivity problems (No exceptions) - probably it was simply not executed while the network was down. But after the network connectivity problems myInsertADOQuery.ExecSQL always returned 0 and no rows were inserted to MyTable anymore. After a restart of the application the insert statement worked again as expected. For SQL Server, is there any defined case where an insert statment like the one above would not insert a row and return 0 as the number of affected rows? Primary key is an autogenerated GUID. There are no unique or check constraints (which should result in an exception anyway rather than not inserting a row). Are there any known ADO bugs (Provider=SQLOLEDB.1)? Any other explanations for this behaviour? Thanks, Nang.

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  • Use jQuery.post() result in javascript function

    - by Juvlius
    I've got no clue how to do the following, so I wasn't sure what to search for either. For validating my registration form I've a javascript function that checkes the existence of the inserted username in the database onblur of the username textfield. function checkUsername(username){ $.post("checkmail.php", {mail: mailcheck} , function(data){ var $response=$(data); var response = $response.filter('#mail-response').text(); if(response == "taken") { document.getElementById('username').style.borderColor = rood; valid = false; } }); } This works fine, but now I want to validate it again onsubmit of the form in case users decide to submit an existing username. function validateForm() { var valid = true; //checks different fields //now check voor username existence var username = document.getElementById('username').value; checkUsername.call(username); if (!valid) { return false; } else { return true; } } I'm not familiar enough with Javascript to get this working. Probably thinking in the wrong direction...

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  • What is Rails way to DRY up the controller pattern of verifying :id is for a valid object (else redirect to error page)

    - by jpwynn
    One of my controllers has close to 100 methods (eg routes) and nearly every one starts out the same code to redirect to an error page if the id param is invalid, followed by a similar check if the user that id doesn't belong in the user's account: def something @foo = Foo.find_by_guid(params[:id]) unless @foo @msg ||= { :title => 'No such page!', :desc => "There is no such page!" } render :action => "error" and return end unless @foo.owner_id == current_user.id @msg ||= { :title => 'Really?', :desc => "There is no such page." } render :action => "error" and return end What is the best way to DRY up that sort of page id and owner id validation, given the code is doing a render ... and return? What I don't want to do at this point is offload it to a blackbox roles and permissions library like CanCan... my goal is simply to have the in-app code to handle this be as clean as possible.

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  • Recurrent yearly date alert in Python

    - by coulix
    Hello Hackerz, Here is the idea A user can set a day alert for a birthday. (We do not care about the year of birth) He also picks if he wants to be alerted 0, 1, 2, ou 7 days (Delta) before the D day. Users have a timezone setting. I want the server to send the alerts at 8 am on the the D day - deleta +- user timezone Example: 12 jun, with "alert me 3 days before" will give 9 of Jun. My idea was to have a trigger_datetime extra field saved on the 'recurrent event' object. Like this a cron Job running every hour on my server will just check for all events matching irs current time hour, day and month and send to the alert. The problem from a year to the next the trigger_date could change ! If the alert is set on 1st of March, with a one day delay that could be either 28 or 29 of February .. Maybe i should not use the trigger date trick and use some other kind of scheme. All plans are welcome.

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  • Jquery Ajax refresh not working in IE.

    - by Probocop
    Hi, I have a <ul> which refreshes every ten seconds to check if there have been any new tweets (its pulling from a twitter feed). This works fine in Firefox and Chrome etc, but it does not work in any version if Internet Explorer. My code is as follows: setInterval(function() { $("#banter .scroll-pane").load(location.href+" #banter .scroll-pane>*",""); }, 10000); My PHP function creating the list is as follows: function showTweets($section, $limit, $class) { $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM hash WHERE section = '".$section."' ORDER BY date DESC LIMIT ".$limit); echo '<ul class="scroll-pane '.$class.'">'; while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<li>'; echo '<p>'.html_entity_decode($row['tweet']).'</p>'; echo '<a href="'.$row['user_url'].'">'.$row['user'].'</a>'; echo '</li>'; } echo '</ul>'; } Any idea what's going wrong? Thanks

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