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  • Wrapped WPF Control

    - by Robert
    Hi, I'm trying to create a GUI (WPF) Library where each (custom) control basically wraps an internal (third party) control. Then, I'm manually exposing each property (not all of them, but almost). In XAML the resulting control is pretty straightforward: <my:CustomButton Content="ClickMe" /> And the code behind is quite simple as well: public class CustomButton : Control { private MyThirdPartyButton _button = null; static CustomButton() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(CustomButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(CustomButton))); } public CustomButton() { _button = new MyThirdPartyButton(); this.AddVisualChild(_button); } protected override int VisualChildrenCount { get { return _button == null ? 0 : 1; } } protected override Visual GetVisualChild(int index) { if (_button == null) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); } return _button; } #region Property: Content public Object Content { get { return GetValue(ContentProperty); } set { SetValue(ContentProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty ContentProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Content", typeof(Object), typeof(CustomButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(new PropertyChangedCallback(ChangeContent)) ); private static void ChangeContent(DependencyObject source, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { (source as CustomButton).UpdateContent(e.NewValue); } private void UpdateContent(Object sel) { _button.Content = sel; } #endregion } The problem comes after we expose MyThirdPartyButton as a property (in case we don't expose something, we would like to give the programmer the means to use it directly). By simply creating the property, like this: public MyThirdPartyButton InternalControl { get { return _button; } set { if (_button != value) { this.RemoveVisualChild(_button); _button = value; this.AddVisualChild(_button); } } } The resulting XAML would be this: <my:CustomButton> <my:CustomButton.InternalControl> <thirdparty:MyThirdPartyButton Content="ClickMe" /> </my:CustomButton.InternalControl> And what I'm looking for, is something like this: <my:CustomButton> <my:CustomButton.InternalControl Content="ClickMe" /> But (with the code I have) its impossible to add attributes to InternalControl... Any ideas/suggestions? Thanks a lot, -- Robert

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  • Custom UITableViewCell with 2 UILabel's resized

    - by petert
    I'm struggling to create a custom UITableViewCell (in IB) that has a UIImageView on the left, fixed to the top left corner, then 2 UILabel's adjacent to it, side by side. So the cell looks something like: +---------------------------+ | IMAGE LABEL1 LABEL2 > | +---------------------------+ What I cannot seem to do is to change the frame of LABEL1 so it fits the text is contains, then make sure LABEL2 moves to the left (or right) so it ends up directly adjacent to it, filling all the space for the rest of the cell. So, concentrating on the label text, I'd like cell to look like this: +---------------------------+ | IMAGE Call 123456 > | +---------------------------+ after I've set LABEL1 to "Call" and LABEL2 to "123456" in: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath Actually I can resize LABEL1 with this: CGSize sizeToMakeLabel = [label.text sizeWithFont:label.font]; label.frame = CGRectMake(label.frame.origin.x, label.frame.origin.y, sizeToMakeLabel.width + 3, sizeToMakeLabel.height); Now the frame for the text "Call" fits this text (confirmed by setting a background color), but the text "123456" doesn't seem to shift to the left, whatever autosizing I set in IB, or methods to resize the cells view? I seem to need the +3 to make sure "Call" didn't look like this "C…" also? I'm using 2 labels so LABEL1 can be in a bold font say.

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  • Gridview empty when SelectedIndexChanged called

    - by xan
    I have a DataGrid which is being bound dynamically to a database query. The user enters some search text into a text field, clicks search, and the code behind creates the appropriate database query using LINQ (searches a table based on the string and returns a limited set of the columns). It then sets the GridView datasource to be the query and calls DataBind(). protected void btnSearch_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { var query = from record in DB.Table where record.Name.Contains(txtSearch.Text) //Extra string checking etc. removed. select new { record.ID, record.Name, record.Date }; gvResults.DataSource = query; gvResults.DataBind(); } This works fine. When a user selects a row in the grid, the SelectedIndexChanged event handler gets the id from the row in the grid (one of the fields), queries the full record from the DB and then populates a set of editor / details fields with the records full details. protected void gvResults_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { int id = int.Parse(gvResults.SelectedRow.Cells[1].Text); DisplayDetails(id); } This works fine on my local machine where I'm developing the code. On the production server however, the function is called successfully, but the row and column count on gvResults, the GridVeiw is 0 - the table is empty. The GridView's viewstate is enabled and I can't see obvious differences. Have I made some naive assumptions, or am I relying on something that is likely to be configured differently in debug? Locally I am running an empty asp.net web project in VS2008 to make development quicker. The production server is running the sitecore CMS so is configured rather differently. Any thoughts or suggestions would be most welcome. Thanks in advance!

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  • How could I make this display for listbox?

    - by baron
    Hello everyone, I have a databound listbox which is actually displaying two columns of data. It is displayed as follows: <UserControl.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="AlignedPairs"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="10" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Fruits}" Grid.Column="0" /> <TextBlock Text="->" TextAlignment="Center" Grid.Column="1" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Colors}" Grid.Column="3" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </UserControl.Resources> <ListBox Name="lbStuff" Grid.ColumnSpan="2" Grid.Row="1" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource AlignedPairs}"> <ListBox.ItemContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="ListBoxItem"> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch" /> </Style> </ListBox.ItemContainerStyle> </ListBox> Then Itemsource set in codebehind. Based on some logic however, I would like to set either a line or a item in one of the columns, e.g. a fruit to red, or the line to bold. I have code to work out which Fruit or Color I would like to differentiate (by color/bold) in the code behind, but I can't figure out, especially given the custom listbox display, how I could go about setting a particular item to a different color/bold. Does anyone have any ideas? Let me know if any further code is required. Cheers.

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  • LinqKit System.InvalidCastException When Invoking method-provided expression on member property.

    - by mdworkin
    Given a simple parent/child class structure. I want to use linqkit to apply a child lambda expression on the parent. I also want the Lambda expression to be provided by a utility method. public class Foo { public Bar Bar { get; set; } } public class Bar { public string Value { get; set; } public static Expression<Func<Bar, bool>> GetLambdaX() { return c => c.Value == "A"; } } ... Expression<Func<Foo, bool>> lx = c => Bar.GetLambdaX().Invoke(c.Bar); Console.WriteLine(lx.Expand()); The above code throws System.InvalidCastException: Unable to cast object of type 'System.Linq.Expressions.MethodCallExpression' to type 'System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression'. at LinqKit.ExpressionExpander.VisitMethodCall(MethodCallExpression m) at LinqKit.ExpressionVisitor.Visit(Expression exp) at LinqKit.ExpressionVisitor.VisitLambda(LambdaExpression lambda) at LinqKit.ExpressionVisitor.Visit(Expression exp) at LinqKit.Extensions.Expand<TDelegate>(Expression`1 expr) .... Please help!

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  • Looking for ideas how to refactor my (complex) algorithm

    - by _simon_
    I am trying to write my own Game of Life, with my own set of rules. First 'concept', which I would like to apply, is socialization (which basicaly means if the cell wants to be alone or in a group with other cells). Data structure is 2-dimensional array (for now). In order to be able to move a cell to/away from a group of another cells, I need to determine where to move it. The idea is, that I evaluate all the cells in the area (neighbours) and get a vector, which tells me where to move the cell. Size of the vector is 0 or 1 (don't move or move) and the angle is array of directions (up, down, right, left). This is a image with representation of forces to a cell, like I imagined it (but reach could be more than 5): Let's for example take this picture: Forces from lower left neighbour: down (0), up (2), right (2), left (0) Forces from right neighbour : down (0), up (0), right (0), left (2) sum : down (0), up (2), right (0), left (0) So the cell should go up. I could write an algorithm with a lot of if statements and check all cells in the neighbourhood. Of course this algorithm would be easiest if the 'reach' parameter is set to 1 (first column on picture 1). But what if I change reach parameter to 10 for example? I would need to write an algorithm for each 'reach' parameter in advance... How can I avoid this (notice, that the force is growing potentialy (1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32,...))? Can I use specific design pattern for this problem? Also: the most important thing is not speed, but to be able to extend initial logic. Things to take into consideration: reach should be passed as a parameter i would like to change function, which calculates force (potential, fibonacci) a cell can go to a new place only if this new place is not populated watch for corners (you can't evaluate right and top neighbours in top-right corner for example)

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  • How to make dynamically generated .net service client read configuration from another location than

    - by Bryan
    Hi, I've currently written code to use the ServiceContractGenerator to generate web service client code based on a wsdl, and then compile it into an assembly in memory using the code dom. I'm then using reflection to set up the binding, endpoint, service values/types, and then ultimately invoke the web service method based on xml configuration that can be altered at run time. This all currently works fine. However, the problem I'm currently running into, is that I'm hitting several exotic web services that require lots of custom binding/security settings. This is forcing me to add more and more configuration into my custom xml configurations, as well as the corresponding updates to my code to interpret and set those binding/security settings in code. Ultimately, this makes adding these 'exotic' services slower, and I can see myself eventually reimplementing the 'system.serviceModel' section of the web or app.config file, which is never a good thing. My question is, and this is where my lack of experience .net and C# shows, is there a way to define the configuration normally found in the web.config or app.config 'system.serviceModel' section somewhere else, and at run time supply this to configuration to the web service client? Is there a way to attach an app.config directly to an assembly as a resource or any other way to supply this configuration to the client? Basically, I'd like attach an app.config only containing a 'system.serviceModel' to the assembly containing a web service client so that it can use its configuration. This way I wouldn't need to handle every configuration under the sun, I could let .net do it for me. Fyi, it's not an option for me to put the configuration for every service in the app.config for the running application. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance! Bryan

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  • Check box and text box for Other value

    - by Svish
    When I have a set of either check boxes or radio buttons I often need to have an Other choice. This check box or radio button is very often accompanied by a text box where the user is supposed to fill out what this Other is. How do you usually handle this set up? What kind of markup do you use? What do you require in your validation? Do you use java script for anything? For example: How do you make the form accessible? Do you use and how do you use the label tag, for example. Do you connect the check box and text box in any way with some javascript? For example, do you activate the text box when the check box is checked? Do you check or uncheck the check box automatically if the text box is filled out or cleared? Do you let validation fail with error messages if the check box is checked but the text box is not filled out, or if the text box is filled out but the check box is not checked? Or do you just consider it not filled out and not checked? Very unsure how to best deal with this issue, so any advice and examples are most welcome c",)

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  • scripsharp reference web service / strongly type to results model

    - by user175528
    With scriptsharp (script#) is it possible to get strong typing when calling a service defined in my web app? The only way I can see is to: 1 - use linked / shared files to shadow copy my results classes / domain models across into my script# lib 2 - replicate my model across in the script# lib and use automapper to validate? 3 - use some .tt to code gen? also, even if I can do this, how do I get around the auto camel-casing script# does, when my service result (asmx) wont do this? (so my JSON response will comback as UserMessage, script# will have changed that to userMessage) basically, what I am looking to use script# to achieve is better compile time support against our domain model when calling and processing services in javascript, so something like this: Scriptlet public static class MyScriptlet { public static void Main() { MyService.Service1("hello", ProcessResponse);} public static void ProcessResponse(MyService.Service1ResponseData resp) { jQuery.Select('#Message').Text(resp.UserMessage); jQuery.Select('#Detail').Text(resp.UserDetail); } Service (in our web app) public class MyService { public class Service1ResponseData { public string UserMessage {get;set;} public string UserDetail {get;set;} } public Service1ResponseData Service1(string user) { return new Service1ResponseData() { UserMessage:"hi",UserDetail:"some text"}; } }

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  • How Do You Get the bufspec While Using Vimdiff Through Git

    - by Elizabeth Buckwalter
    I've read Vimdiff and Viewing differences with Vimdiff plus doing various google searches using things like "vimdiff multiple", "vimdiff git", "vimdiff commands" etc. When using do or diffg I get the error "More than two buffers in diff mode, don't know which one to use". When using diffg v:fname_in I get "No matching buffer for v:fname_in". From the vimdiff documentation: :[range]diffg[et] [bufspec] Modify the current buffer to undo difference with another buffer. If [bufspec] is given, that buffer is used. If [bufspec] refers to the current buffer then nothing happens. Otherwise this only works if there is one other buffer in diff mode. and more: When 'diffexpr' is not empty, Vim evaluates to obtain a diff file in the format mentioned. These variables are set to the file names used: v:fname_in original file v:fname_new new version of the same file v:fname_out resulting diff file So, I need to get the name of bufspec, but the default variables (fname_in, fname_new, and fname_out) aren't set. I ran the command git mergetool on a linux box through a terminal. [Edit] A partial solution that bred more questions. I used the "filename" at the bottom of the buffer. It's only a half answer, because occasionally I get a file does not exist error. I believe it's consistently the remote version of the file that "does not exist". I suspect this has something to do with git and indexing. How do you get the bufspec value consistently while using vimdiff through git-mergetool?

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  • asp.net mvc cookies not being sent back

    - by brian b
    My application at mysubdomain.mydomain.com needs to set a cookie that contains some user session information. They log in at a https page. We authenticate them and set some session info in a cookie. We do this in a helper library that takes in the controller context contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].Value = encryptedTicket; contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].Expires = cookieExpires; contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].Domain= ConfigHelper.CookieDomain; contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].HttpOnly=true; We do a quick redirect in the controller (to a non https page): this.ControllerContext.HttpContext.Response.Redirect(redirectTo, false); return null; The cookie appears in the response (according to firebug's net tab). But neither fireforx nor ie send the cookie on subsequent gets. We are setting the cookie domain to mydomain.com even though the site is mysubdomain.mydomain.com. Skipping the redirect command has no effect, nor does changing the cookie value. I'm baffled. Thanks for any suggestions.

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  • Firebird sequence-backed ID shorthand

    - by pilcrow
    What do others do to simplify the creation of simple, serial surrogate keys populated by a SEQUENCE (a.k.a. GENERATOR) in Firebird = 2.1? I finc the process comparatively arduous: For example, in PostgreSQL, I simply type: pg> CREATE TABLE tbl ( > id SERIAL NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, > ... In MySQL, I simply type: my> CREATE TABLE tbl ( > id INT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY AUTO_INCREMENT, > ... But in Firebird I type: fb> CREATE TABLE tbl ( > id BIGINT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, > ... fb> CREATE SEQUENCE tbl_id_seq; fb> SET TERM !!; > CREATE TRIGGER tbl_id_trg FOR tbl > ACTIVE BEFORE INSERT POSITION 0 > AS > BEGIN > IF ((new.id IS NULL) OR (new.id <= 0)) THEN > BEGIN > new.id = GEN_ID(tbl_id_seq, 1); > END > END !! > SET TERM ; !! ... and I get pretty bored by the time I reach trigger definition. However, I routinely make SEQUENCE-backed ID fields for temporary, developement and throw-away tables. What do others do to simplify this? Work with an IDE? Run a pre-processing, in-house perl script over the DDL file? Etc.

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  • How do I pass data from a BroadcastReceiver through to an Activity being started?

    - by Tom Hume
    I've got an Android application which needs to be woken up sporadically throughout the day. To do this, I'm using the AlarmManager to set up a PendingIntent and have this trigger a BroadcastReceiver. This BroadcastReceiver then starts an Activity to bring the UI to the foreground. All of the above seems to work, in that the Activity launches itself correctly; but I'd like the BroadcastReceiver to notify the Activity that it was started by the alarm (as opposed to being started by the user). To do this I'm trying, from the onReceive() method of the BroadcastReceiver to set a variable in the extras bundle of the intent, thus: Intent i = new Intent(context, MyActivity.class); i.putExtra(wakeupKey, true); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); context.startActivity(i); In the onResume() method of my Activity, I then look for the existence of this boolean variable: protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); String wakeupKey = "blah"; if (getIntent()!=null && getIntent().getExtras()!=null) Log.d("app", "onResume at " + System.currentTimeMillis() + ":" + getIntent().getExtras().getBoolean(wakeupKey)); else Log.d("app", "onResume at " + System.currentTimeMillis() + ": null"); } The getIntent().getExtras() call in onResume() always returns null - I don't seem to be able to pass any extras through at all in this bundle. If I use the same method to bind extras to the PendingIntent which triggers the BroadcastReceiver however, the extras come through just fine. Can anyone tell me what's different about passing a bundle from a BroadcastReceiver to an Activity, as opposed to passing the bundle from an Activity to a BroadcastReceiver? I fear I may be doing something very very obvious wrong here...

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  • Data view web part throwing error

    - by Ashutosh Singh
    Hi I'm using a xslt based dataview webpart the steps i have taken to create a data view webpart is that 1. added a list view webpart on the page 2. Modified the toolbar property to show fulll toolbar 3. open the web page containing above list view webpart in sharepoint desginer and converted it to xslt based webpart (to make further changes in UI) 4. saved the page and previewed in browser in browser web part was throwing the error while i was able to see it properly in desginer witout any error the error maesseged shown in webpart was: ** Unable to display this Web Part. To troubleshoot the problem, open this Web page in a Windows SharePoint Services-compatible HTML editor such as Microsoft Office SharePoint Designer. If the problem persists, contact your Web server administrator. ** the error message provided in sharepoint log file was : 05/12/2010 17:56:29.54 w3wp.exe (0x19FC) 0x1E9C Windows SharePoint Services Web Parts 89a1 Monitorable Error while executing web part: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.DataFormWebPart.ResolveParameterValuesToXsl(ArgumentClassWrapper argList) at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.DataFormWebPart.PrepareAndPerformTransform() 05/12/2010 17:56:29.62 w3wp.exe (0x19FC) 0x1E9C Windows SharePoint Services Web Controls 88wy Medium SPDataSourceView.ExecuteSelect() - selectArguments: IsEmpty=True, MaximumRows=0, RetrieveTotalRowCount=False, SortExpression=, StartRowIndex=0, TotalRowCount=-1 05/12/2010 17:56:29.62 w3wp.exe (0x19FC) 0x1E9C Windows SharePoint Services Web Controls 88x2 Medium SPDataSourceView.ExecuteSelect() - formattedQuery = 1 05/12/2010 17:56:29.64 w3wp.exe (0x19FC) 0x1E9C Windows SharePoint Services Web Parts 89a1 Monitorable Error while executing web part: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.DataFormWebPart.ResolveParameterValuesToXsl(ArgumentClassWrapper argList) at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.DataFormWebPart.PrepareAndPerformTransform()

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  • How does Android decide which background resource to draw on the foreground?

    - by Sebi
    I defined two ImageButton which are contained in a LinearLayout in my XML layout file: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/tabs" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="horizontal" android:minHeight="40px" android:background="@drawable/library_tabs_background"> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/button_library" android:layout_width="160px" android:paddingTop="7px" android:layout_height="40px" android:paddingLeft="30px" android:orientation="horizontal"> <ImageButton android:id="@+id/list" android:layout_width="110px" android:layout_height="30px" android:src="@drawable/library_tab1_button_active"> </ImageButton> </LinearLayout> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/button_search" android:layout_width="160px" android:paddingTop="7px" android:layout_height="40px" android:orientation="horizontal"> <ImageButton android:id="@+id/search" android:layout_width="110px" android:layout_height="30px" android:src="@drawable/library_tab2_button_deactive"> </ImageButton> </LinearLayout> </LinearLayout> As one can see in the XML file, also the LinearLayout in which the buttons are contained, a background image is set. This two images (the button background and the linearlayout background) are overlapping. So in some views, the button background is in front of the layout background and in other views (im using a view flipper), the background of the layer is in the foreground. How can i set a clear rule? How does Android decide which BackgroundResource to draw first?

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  • IIS8 Asp.net State service remote connection failure

    - by maxisam
    Recently we upgrade our web server to windows server 2012 with IIS8. We have this issue when users try to connect the asp.net state service to this web server remotely. It always popup Unable to make the session state request to the session state server. Please ensure that the ASP.NET State service is started and that the client and server ports are the same. If the server is on a remote machine, please ensure that it accepts remote requests by checking the value of HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Services\aspnet_state\Parameters\AllowRemoteConnection. If the server is on the local machine, and if the before mentioned registry value does not exist or is set to 0, then the state server connection string must use either 'localhost' or '127.0.0.1' as the server name. In IIS7 / 7.5 we use the same way and it works fine. As long as the state service is running and firewall is set properly, we don't have any problem. However, in IIS8 it doesn't work. (We even turn off firewall to test it) Thanks for helping.

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  • Setting Path and Expiration for session cookie in asp.net

    - by Sergej Andrejev
    Anything I have tried didn't work. Currenly I have following code to change asp.net session cookie expiration date and path, but asp doesn't want to listen to me. I sends same cookie in Set-Cookie header two times sometimes, sometimes it sends it's default cookie ignoring path and expiration date, sometimes it sends everything as expected, and sometimes it doesn't send Set-Cookie at all. What should I do. This drives me nuts :( My code in Global.asax protected void Application_PreRequestHandlerExecute(Object sender, EventArgs e) { /// only apply session cookie persistence to requests requiring session information if (Context.Handler is IRequiresSessionState || Context.Handler is IReadOnlySessionState) { var sessionState = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("system.web/sessionState") as SessionStateSection; var cookieName = sessionState != null && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(sessionState.CookieName) ? sessionState.CookieName : "ASP.NET_SessionId"; var timeout = sessionState != null ? sessionState.Timeout : TimeSpan.FromMinutes(20); /// Ensure ASP.NET Session Cookies are accessible throughout the subdomains. if (Request.Cookies[cookieName] != null && Session != null && Session.SessionID != null) { Response.Cookies[cookieName].Value = Session.SessionID; Response.Cookies[cookieName].Path = Request.ApplicationPath; Response.Cookies[cookieName].Expires = DateTime.Now.Add(timeout); } } }

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  • [WPF Datagrid] Binding to a List<>

    - by Tr?n Qu?c Bình
    I have a datagrid like this: <dg:DataGrid Name="dg" AutoGenerateColumns="False" CanUserDeleteRows="True"> <dg:DataGrid.Columns> <dg:DataGridTextColumn Header="Product Code" x:Name="columnProductCode" Binding="{Binding Path=Product.ProductCode}" IsReadOnly="True" ></dg:DataGridTextColumn> <dg:DataGridTextColumn Header="Product Name" x:Name="columnProductName" Binding="{Binding Path=Product.Name}" IsReadOnly="True" ></dg:DataGridTextColumn> <dg:DataGridTextColumn Header="ProductMeasure" x:Name="columnDonViTinh" Binding="{Binding Path=Product.Measure IsReadOnly="True"></dg:DataGridTextColumn> <dg:DataGridTextColumn Header="Quantity" x:Name="ColumnQuantity" Binding="{Binding Path=Quantity IsReadOnly="False"></dg:DataGridTextColumn> </dg:DataGrid.Columns> </dg:DataGrid> In the behind code, I have a struct like this: private struct ProductDetail { public TProduct Product { get; set ; } // TProduct is a class provied by a web service public int Quantity { get; set; } } and a List like this: private IList<ProductDetail> bs = new List<ProductDetail>(); I had tried to fill data to "bs". And binding like this: this.dg.ItemsSource = this.bs; Everything is ok. I can insert a new row, delete row, but when I try to modified the column Quantity then click on the header of the datagrid (to resort) -- the Quantity column change to it is before. How can I fix this problem. Thanks advanced.

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  • Rendering a control generates security exception in .Net 4

    - by Jason Short
    I am having a problem with code that worked fine in .Net 2 giving this error under .Net 4. Build (web): Inheritance security rules violated while overriding member: 'Controls.RelatedPosts.RenderControl(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter)'. Security accessibility of the overriding method must match the security accessibility of the method being overriden. This is in DotNetBlogEngine. There were several other security demands in the code that .Net 4 didn't seem to like. I followed some of the advice I found on blogs (and here) and got rid of all the other errors. But this one still eludes me. The Main blogengine core dll is not set for security demands anylonger and is compiled for .Net 4 as well. This error is in the website side attempting to use the dll. There are controls that call a RenderControl method taking an HtmlTextWriter. Apparently the text writer now has some soft of security attributes set on it. Each of the controls implements a custom interface ( public interface ICustomFilter ), there are no security permissions present or demands. The site is running full trust on my local dev machine.

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  • Working around MySQL error "Deadlock found when trying to get lock; try restarting transaction"

    - by Anon Guy
    Hi all: I have a MySQL table with about 5,000,000 rows that are being constantly updated in small ways by parallel Perl processes connecting via DBI. The table has about 10 columns and several indexes. One fairly common operation gives rise to the following error sometimes: DBD::mysql::st execute failed: Deadlock found when trying to get lock; try restarting transaction at Db.pm line 276. The SQL statement that triggers the error is something like this: UPDATE file_table SET a_lock = 'process-1234' WHERE param1 = 'X' AND param2 = 'Y' AND param3 = 'Z' LIMIT 47 The error is triggered only sometimes. I'd estimate in 1% of calls or less. However, it never happened with a small table and has become more common as the database has grown. Note that I am using the a_lock field in file_table to ensure that the four near-identical processes I am running do not try and work on the same row. The limit is designed to break their work into small chunks. I haven't done much tuning on MySQL or DBD::mysql. MySQL is a standard Solaris deployment, and the database connection is set up as follows: my $dsn = "DBI:mysql:database=" . $DbConfig::database . ";host=${DbConfig::hostname};port=${DbConfig::port}"; my $dbh = DBI->connect($dsn, $DbConfig::username, $DbConfig::password, { RaiseError => 1, AutoCommit => 1 }) or die $DBI::errstr; I have seen online that several other people have reported similar errors and that this may be a genuine deadlock situation. I have two questions: What exactly about my situation is causing the error above? Is there a simple way to work around it or lessen its frequency? For example, how exactly do I go about "restarting transaction at Db.pm line 276"? Thanks in advance.

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  • C# Why can't I find Sum() of this HashSet. says "Arithmetic operation resulted in an overflow."

    - by user2332665
    I was trying to solve this problem projecteuler,problem125 this is my solution in python(just for understanding the logic) import math lim=10**8 found=set() for start in xrange(1,int(math.sqrt(lim))): sos = start*start for i in xrange(start+1,int(math.sqrt(lim))): sos += (i*i) if sos >= lim: break s=str(int(sos)) if s==s[::-1]: found.add(sos) print sum(found) the same code I wrote in C# is as follows using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { public static bool isPalindrome(string s) { string temp = ""; for (int i=s.Length-1;i>=0;i-=1){temp+=s[i];} return (temp == s); } static void Main(string[] args) { int lim = Convert.ToInt32(Math.Pow(10,8)); var found = new HashSet<int>(); for (int start = 1; start < Math.Sqrt(lim); start += 1) { int s = start *start; for (int i = start + 1; start < Math.Sqrt(lim); i += 1) { s += i * i; if (s > lim) { break; } if (isPalindrome(s.ToString())) { found.Add(s); } } } Console.WriteLine(found.Sum()); } } } the code debugs fine until it gives an exception at Console.WriteLine(found.Sum()); (line31). Why can't I find Sum() of the set found

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  • OpenStreetMap Proximity search using mySQL

    - by Chris
    Hi, I'm just playing around with a dataset of my region generated by JOSM. I moved it into a mySQL DB with the 0.6 API scheme using Osmosis and now I'm desperately trying the following: I want to get all streets of a city. AFAIK there is no tag/relation in the OSM data to determine this so I tried it using a proximity search to get all nodes in a radius around a node representing the city center. Most of the time I looked at the approaches here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/574691/mysql-great-circle-distance-haversine-formula What I got is the following SQL code that should get me the closest 100 nodes around the node with id 36187002 and within a radius of 10km. set @nodeid = 36187002; set @dist = 10; select longitude, latitude into @mylon, @mylat from nodes where id=@nodeid limit 1; SELECT id, ( 6371 * acos( cos( radians(@mylon) ) * cos( radians( latitude ) ) * cos( radians( longitude ) - radians(@mylat) ) + sin( radians(@mylon) ) * sin( radians( latitude ) ) ) ) AS distance FROM nodes HAVING distance < @dist ORDER BY distance LIMIT 0 , 100; Well.. it doesn't work. :( I guess the main problem is that OSM lats/lons are multiplied by 10.000.000 and I don't know how I can correct this function to make it work. Any ideas about this? All solutions/alternatives are very welcome! Have a nice weekend! Chris

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  • Tracking Down a Stack Overflow in My Linq Query

    - by Lazarus
    I've written the following Linq query: IQueryable<ISOCountry> entries = (from e in competitorRepository.Competitors join c in countries on e.countryID equals c.isoCountryCode where !e.Deleted orderby c.isoCountryCode select new ISOCountry() { isoCountryCode = e.countryID, Name = c.Name }).Distinct(); The objective is to retrieve a list of the countries represented by the competitors found in the system. 'countries' is an array of ISOCountry objects explicitly created and returned as an IQueryable (ISOCountry is an object of just two strings, isoCountryCode and Name). Competitors is an IQueryable which is bound to a database table through Linq2SQL though I created the objects from scratch and used the Linq data mapping decorators. For some reason this query causes a stack overflow when the system tries to execute it. I've no idea why, I've tried trimming the Distinct, returning an anonymous type of the two strings, using 'select c', all result in the overflow. The e.CountryID value is populated from a dropdown that was in itself populated from the IQueryable so I know the values are appropriate but even if not I wouldn't expect a stack overflow. Can anyone explain why the overflow is occurring or give good speculation as to why it might be happening? EDIT As requested, code for ISOCountry: public class ISOCountry { public string isoCountryCode { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } }

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  • Creating instance of a service-side DataContract class on client-side in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

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  • ASP.Net MVC Object Reference in Edit View when using DropDownListFor()

    - by hermiod
    This question is related to another I ask recently, it can be found here for some background information. Here is the code in the Edit ActionResult: public virtual ActionResult Edit(int id) { ///Set data for DropDownLists. ViewData["MethodList"] = tr.ListMethods(); ViewData["GenderList"] = tr.ListGenders(); ViewData["FocusAreaList"] = tr.ListFocusAreas(); ViewData["SiteList"] = tr.ListSites(); ViewData["TypeList"] = tr.ListTalkbackTypes(); ViewData["CategoryList"] = tr.ListCategories(); return View(tr.GetTalkback(id)); } I add lists to the ViewData to use in the dropdownlists, these are all IEnumerable and are all returning values. GetTalkback() returns an Entity framework object of type Talkback which is generated from the Talkback table. The DropDownListFor code is: <%: Html.DropDownListFor(model=>model.method_id,new SelectList(ViewData["MethodList"] as IEnumerable<SelectListItem>,"Value","Text",Model.method_id)) %> The record I am viewing has values in all fields. When I click submit on the View, I get an Object reference not set to an instance of an object. error on the above line. There are a number of standard fields in the form prior to this, so the error is only occurring on dropdown lists, and it is occurring on all of them. Any ideas? This is my first foray in to MVC, C#, and Entity so I am completely lost!

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