Search Results

Search found 22641 results on 906 pages for 'use case'.

Page 739/906 | < Previous Page | 735 736 737 738 739 740 741 742 743 744 745 746  | Next Page >

• how would I call/use Subsonic from within a WinForms app being deployed over clickonce (with Sqlite

  - by Greg

  Hi, Background - I need a framework/approach to managed database updates for a .NET Winforms app being deployed on users PC's via clickonce deploy. The app uses a sqlite database. Q1. What mechanism does Subsonic use to run such migrations on the local PC? e.g. would it be MSBuild Q2. If it does need a tool like how can my application robustly kick off MsBuild? i.e. how can it be sure what path it is installed, what if it is not installed, should I be including the MSBuild.exe in the clickonce package so that I know it is there for sure myself? Q3. Any other suggestions on how to use Subsonic in this specific use case? Q4. Any comments on whether MigratorDotNet would be a better fit? (if someone has had experience with both) Q5. Could I use subsonic's bare migration framework and just have a set of SQL files to do the upgrade/downgrade? i.e. just use the framework to check database version and which scripts to run etc?

  Read the article

• Association Mapping Details confusion?

  - by AaronLS

  I have never understood why the associations in EntityFramework look the way they do in the Mapping Details window. When I select the line between 2 tables for an association, for example FK_ApplicationSectionsNodes_FormItems, it shows this: Association Maps to ApplicationSectionNodes FormItems (key symbol) FormItemId:Int32 <--> FormItemId:int ApplicationSectionNodes (key symbol) NodeId:Int32 <--> (key symbol) NodeId : int Fortunately this one was create automatically for me based on the foreign key constraints in my database, but whenever no constraints exist, I have a hard to creating associations manually(when the database doesn't have a diagram setup) because I don't understand the mapping details for associations. FormItems table has a primary key identity column FormItemId, and ApplicationSectionNodes contains a FormItemId column that is the foreign key and has NodeId as a primary key identity column. What really makes no sense to me is why the association has anything listed about the NodeId, when NodeId doesn't have anything to do with the foreign key relationship? (It's even more confusing with self referencing relationships, but maybe if I could understand the above case I'd have a better handle). CREATE TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes]( [NodeID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [OutlineText] [varchar](5000) NULL, [ParentNodeID] [int] NULL, [FormItemId] [int] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_ApplicationSectionNodes] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [NodeID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY], CONSTRAINT [UQ_ApplicationSectionNodesFormItemId] UNIQUE NONCLUSTERED ( [FormItemId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_ApplicationSectionNodes] FOREIGN KEY([ParentNodeID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] ([NodeID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_ApplicationSectionNodes] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_FormItems] FOREIGN KEY([FormItemId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[FormItems] ([FormItemId]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_FormItems] GO FormItems Table: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[FormItems]( [FormItemId] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [FormItemType] [int] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_FormItems] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [FormItemId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FormItems] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_FormItems_FormItemTypes] FOREIGN KEY([FormItemType]) REFERENCES [dbo].[FormItemTypes] ([FormItemTypeId]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FormItems] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_FormItems_FormItemTypes] GO

  Read the article

• When is factory method better than simple factory and vice versa?

  - by Bruce

  Hi all Working my way through the Head First Design Patterns book. I believe I understand the simple factory and the factory method, but I'm having trouble seeing what advantages factory method brings over simple factory. If an object A uses a simple factory to create its B objects, then clients can create it like this: A a = new A(new BFactory()); whereas if an object uses a factory method, a client can create it like this: A a = new ConcreteA(); // ConcreteA contains a method for instantiating the same Bs that the BFactory above creates, with the method hardwired into the subclass of A, ConcreteA. So in the case of the simple factory, clients compose A with a B factory, whereas with the factory method, the client chooses the appropriate subclass for the types of B it wants. There really doesn't seem to be much to choose between them. Either you have to choose which BFactory you want to compose A with, or you have to choose the right subclass of A to give you the Bs. Under what circumstances is one better than the other? Thanks all!

  Read the article

• AJAX Post Not Sending Data?

  - by Jascha

  I can't for the life of me figure out why this is happening. This is kind of a repost, so forgive me, but I have new data. I am running a javascript log out function called logOut() that has make a jQuery ajax call to a php script... function logOut(){ var data = new Object; data.log_out = true; $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'http://www.mydomain.com/functions.php', data: data, success: function() { alert('done'); } }); } the php function it calls is here: if(isset($_POST['log_out'])){ $query = "INSERT INTO `token_manager` (`ip_address`) VALUES('logOutSuccess')"; $connection->runQuery($query); // <-- my own database class... // omitted code that clears session etc... die(); } Now, 18 hours out of the day this works, but for some reason, every once in a while, the POST data will not trigger my query. (this will last about an hour or so). I figured out the post data is not being set by adding this at the end of my script... $query = "INSERT INTO `token_manager` (`ip_address`) VALUES('POST FAIL')"; $connection->runQuery($query); So, now I know for certain my log out function is being skipped because in my database is the following data: if it were NOT being skipped, my data would show up like this: I know it is being skipped for two reasons, one the die() at the end of my first function, and two, if it were a success a "logOutSuccess" would be registered in the table. Any thoughts? One friend says it's a janky hosting company (hostgator.com). I personally like them because they are cheap and I'm a fan of cpanel. But, if that's the case??? Thanks in advance. -J

  Read the article

• Why is Request not available for my PDF request?

  - by Beska

  We're trying to create a .NET aspx page that will have a PDF within it. Doing this by hardcoding it is easy. <object height="1250px" width="100%" type="application/pdf" data="our.pdf"> <param value="our.pdf" name="src" /> <param value="transparent" name="wmode" /> </object> (don't worry too much about the transparent thing...we're doing that for other reasons...but I include it here "just in case".) The problem is when we want to generate the PDF dynamically. Our code to populate the literal on the front end looks like this: ltrPDF.Text = String.Format("<object height=\"1250px\" width=\"100%\" type=\"application/pdf\" data=\"ourPdfGenerator.aspx?var0={0}&var1={1}&var2={2}\">", var0, var1, var2); ltrPDF.Text += String.Format("<param value=\"ourPdfGenerator.aspx?var0={0}&var1={1}&var2={2}\">", var0, var1, var2); ltrPDF.Text += "<param value=\"transparent\" name=\"wmode\"/>"; ltrPDF.Text += "</object>"; Kind of ugly, but it seems like it should work. But it doesn't. When I debug, and put a breakpoint on the first line of ourPdfGenerator.aspx.cs Page_Load method, I reach the breakpoint without any difficulty. However, the first thing we do is try to use Request.QueryString: string var0 = Request.QueryString["var0"]; which immediately throws an HttpException: "Request is not available in this context." I'm not clear on: Why isn't it available? What can I do about it?

  Read the article

• XPath ordered priority attribute search

  - by user94000

  I want to write an XPath that can return some link elements on an HTML DOM. The syntax is wrong, but here is the gist of what I want: //web:link[@text='Login' THEN_TRY @href='login.php' THEN_TRY @index=0] THEN_TRY is a made-up operator, because I can't find what operator(s) to use. If many links exist on the page for the given set of [attribute=name] pairs, the link which matches the most left-most attribute(s) should be returned instead of any others. For example, consider a case where the above example XPath finds 3 links that match any of the given attributes: link A: text='Sign In', href='Login.php', index=0 link B: text='Login', href='Signin.php', index=15 link C: text='Login', href='Login.php', index=22 Link C ranks as the best match because it matches the First and Second attributes. Link B ranks second because it only matches the First attribute. Link A ranks last because it does not match the First attribute; it only matches the Second and Third attributes. The XPath should return the best match, Link C. If more than one link were tied for "best match", the XPath should return the first best link that it found on the page.

  Read the article

• Doing a POST to a Service Operation in ADO.NET data services

  - by DataServices123

  Is it possible to POST to a service operation defined in an ADO.NET data service (it is decorated with WebInvoke)? I had no problem calling the service operation as an HTTP GET. However, when I switched to doing a POST, the stack trace consistently comes back with "Parameter cannot be NULL". I am using the jQuery syntax below, and sending the POST as JSON (though I'm not including the $.ajax call, the parameter names line up exactly). It would be possible to try this with WCF, as opposed to ADO.NET data services (newly renamed as WCF data services). However, my preference would be to use this approach first. I have tried this with and without the stringify method. Most examples online only show how to use a POST to entities (i.e. for handling CRUD operations). However, in this case we are POSTing to a Service Operation. function PostToDataService() { varType = "POST"; varUrl = "http://dev-server/MyServices/MyService.svc/SampleSO"; varData = { CustomMessage: $("#TextBox1").val() }; varData = JSON.stringify(varData); varContentType = "application/json; charset=utf-8"; varDataType = "json"; varProcessData = true; CallService(); }

  Read the article

• Handling user interface in a multi-threaded application (or being forced to have a UI-only main thre

  - by Patrick

  In my application, I have a 'logging' window, which shows all the logging, warnings, errors of the application. Last year my application was still single-threaded so this worked [quite] good. Now I am introducing multithreading. I quickly noticed that it's not a good idea to update the logging window from different threads. Reading some articles on keeping the UI in the main thread, I made a communication buffer, in which the other threads are adding their logging messages, and from which the main thread takes the messages and shows them in the logging window (this is done in the message loop). Now, in a part of my application, the memory usage increases dramatically, because the separate threads are generating lots of logging messages, and the main thread cannot empty the communication buffer quickly enough. After the while the memory decreases again (if the other threads have finished their work and the main thread gradually empties the communication buffer). I solved this problem by having a maximum size on the communication buffer, but then I run into a problem in the following situation: the main thread has to perform a complex action the main thread takes some parts of the action and let's separate threads execute this while the seperate threads are executing their logic, the main thread processes the results from the other threads and continues with its work if the other threads are finished Problem is that in this situation, if the other threads perform logging, there is no UI-message loop, and so the communication buffer is filled, but not emptied. I see two solutions in solving this problem: require the main thread to do regular polling of the communication buffer only performing user interface logic in the main thread (no other logic) I think the second solution seems the best, but this may not that easy to introduce in a big application (in my case it performs mathematical simulations). Are there any other solutions or tips? Or is one of the two proposed the best, easiest, most-pragmatic solution? Thanks, Patrick

  Read the article

• Socket isn't listed by netstat unless using certain ports

  - by illuzive

  I'm a computer science student with a few years of programming experience. Yesterday, while working on a project (Mac OS X, BSD sockets) at school, I encountered a strange problem. I was adding several modules to a very basic "server" (mostly a bunch of functions to set up and manage an UDP socket on a certain port). While doing this, I started the server from time to time in order to see that everything worked like it should. I've been using port 32000 during the development of the server. When I start the server and run netstat, the socket is listed as expected. > netstat -p UDP | grep 32000 udp46 0 0 *.32000 *.* However, when I run the server on other ports (random (10000 - 50000)), it's not listed by netstat. My thought was that I had somehow hard coded the port somewhere in the code, but that's not the case. The thing is - I can connect to the socket on any of the tested ports, and it reads data sent to it without any problem at all. It just doesn't get listed by netstat. What I wonder, is if anyone of you have any idea of why this happens? Note: Although this is a project at school, it's not homework. This is just something I want to understand for my own benefit.

  Read the article

• Draw a comparison between an integer in a specific row and a count

  - by XCoderX

  This is a follow-up question to this one: Check for specific integer in a row WHERE user = $name I want a user to be able to comment on my site for exactly five times a day. After this five times, the user has to wait 24 hours. In order to accomplish that I raise a counter in my MYSQL database, right next to the user. So where the name of the user is, there is where the counter gets raised. When it reaches 5 it should stop counting and reset after 24 hours. In order to check the time I use a timestamp. I check if the timestamp is older than 24 hours. If that is the case, the counter gets reseted (-5) and the user can comment again. In order to do that, I use the following code, however it never stops at five, my guess is that my comparison is wrong somehow: $counter = "SELECT FROM table VALUES CommentCounterReset WHERE Name = '$name'"; if(!isset($_SESSION['ts'])); { $_SESSION['ts'] = time(); } if ($counter >= 5) { if (time() - $_SESSION['ts'] <= 60*60*24){ echo "You already wrote five comments."; } else { $sql = "UPDATE table SET CommentCounterReset = CommentCounterReset-5 WHERE Name = '$name'"; } } else { $sql = "UPDATE table SET CommentCounterReset = CommentCounterReset+1 WHERE Name = '$name'"; echo "Your comment has been added."; }

  Read the article

• How to close InAppBrowser itself in Phonegap Application?

  - by Shashi

  I am developing Phonegap application and currently i am using InAppBrowser to display external pages. On some of the external pages I place a close button and i want to close the InAppBrowser itself. because InAppBrowser displays these pages that is why the reference of it is not accessed on itself to close it and Please do not suggest me to use ChildBrowser Plugin. window.close(); //Not Worked for me or iabRef.close(); //Also not Worked for me because iabRef is not accessible on InAppBrowser. It is created on Parent Window Some of the Android device and iOS device display a Done Button to close it. As well as the iPad also display the Done button. but in Case of Android tablet there is not any kind of button to close it. UPDATE :- Here is my full code :- var iabRef = null; function iabLoadStart(event) { } function iabLoadStop(event) { } function iabClose(event) { iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.removeEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.removeEventListener('exit', iabClose); } function startInAppB() { var myURL=encodeURI('http://www.domain.com/some_path/mypage.html'); iabRef = window.open(myURL,'_blank', 'location=yes'); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstart', iabLoadStart); iabRef.addEventListener('loadstop', iabLoadStop); iabRef.addEventListener('exit', iabClose); }

  Read the article

• doubt in javascript name validation

  - by raja

  Hi: I am using the below validation for textbox which accepts only alphabets and maximum of 50 characters. I am passing the object directly in the parameter. The below case by giving the field name i.e "my_text" directly is working is working fine. But if i pass it in variable, that time it is not working(commented the if statement). Please help me. My requirement is each time when we enter the charater, the hardcode field name should not be used in the validation. <html><head> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_form,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); // if (my_form.fieldName.value.length >= maxLen) { if (my_form.my_text.value.length >= maxLen) { var msg = "You have reached your maximum limit of characters allowed"; alert(msg); my_form.my_text.value = my_form.my_text.value.substring(0, maxLen); } else{ var keyCode = window.event.keyCode; if ((keyCode < 65 || keyCode > 90) && (keyCode < 97 || keyCode > 123) && keyCode != 32) { window.event.returnValue = false; alert("Enter only Alphabets"); } my_form.text_num.value = maxLen - my_form.my_text.value.length;} } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onKeyPress=check_length(this.form,this.name); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• Sequential access to asynchronous sockets

  - by Lars A. Brekken

  I have a server that has several clients C1...Cn to each of which there is a TCP connection established. There are less than 10,000 clients. The message protocol is request/response based, where the server sends a request to a client and then the client sends a response. The server has several threads, T1...Tm, and each of these may send requests to any of the clients. I want to make sure that only one of these threads can send a request to a specific client at any one time, while the other threads wanting to send a request to the same client will have to wait. I do not want to block threads from sending requests to different clients at the same time. E.g. If T1 is sending a request to C3, another thread T2 should not be able to send anything to C3 until T1 has received its response. I was thinking of using a simple lock statement on the socket: lock (c3Socket) { // Send request to C3 // Get response from C3 } I am using asynchronous sockets, so I may have to use Monitor instead: Monitor.Enter(c3Socket); // Before calling .BeginReceive() And Monitor.Exit(c3Socket); // In .EndReceive I am worried about stuff going wrong and not letting go of the monitor and therefore blocking all access to a client. I'm thinking that my heartbeat thread could use Monitor.TryEnter() with a timeout and throw out sockets that it cannot get the monitor for. Would it make sense for me to make the Begin and End calls synchronous in order to be able to use the lock() statement? I know that I would be sacrificing concurrency for simplicity in this case, but it may be worth it. Am I overlooking anything here? Any input appreciated.

  Read the article

• .NET MissingMethodException occuring on one of thousands of end-user machines -- any insight?

  - by Yoooder

  This issue has me baffled, it's affecting a single user (to my knowledge) and hasn't been reproduced by us... The user is receiving a MissingMethodException, our trace file indicates it's occuring after we create a new instance of a component, when we're calling an Initialize/Setup method in preparation to have it do work (InitializeWorkerByArgument in the example) The Method specified by the error is an interface method, which a base class implements and classes derived from the base class can override as-needed The user has the latest release of our application All the provided code is shipped within a single assembly Here's a very distilled version of the component: class Widget : UserControl { public void DoSomething(string argument) { InitializeWorkerByArgument(argument); this.Worker.DoWork(); } private void InitializeWorkerByArgument(string argument) { switch (argument) { case "SomeArgument": this.Worker = new SomeWidgetWorker(); break; } // The issue I'm tracking down would have occured during "new SomeWidgetWorker()" // and would have resulted in a missing method exception stating that // method "DoWork" could not be found. this.Worker.DoWorkComplete += new EventHandler(Worker_DoWorkComplete); } private IWidgetWorker Worker { get; set; } void Worker_DoWorkComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("All done"); } } interface IWidgetWorker { void DoWork(); event EventHandler DoWorkComplete; } abstract class BaseWorker : IWidgetWorker { virtual public void DoWork() { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000); RaiseDoWorkComplete(this, null); } internal void RaiseDoWorkComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (DoWorkComplete != null) { DoWorkComplete(this, null); } } public event EventHandler DoWorkComplete; } class SomeWidgetWorker : BaseWorker { public override void DoWork() { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(2000); RaiseDoWorkComplete(this, null); } }

  Read the article

• Class library reference problem

  - by Anindya Chatterjee

  I am building a class library and using its default namespace as "System". There suppose I am creating a generic data structure say PriorityQueue and putting it under System.Collections.Generic namespace. Now when I am referencing that library from another project, I can't see PriorityQueue under "System.Collections.Generic" namespace anymore. Though the library is referenced in that project I can not access any of the classes in it. My question was mscorlib and System.dll share similar namespaces, but still classes from both the assembly is accessible, but why can't mine? If I put a public class under System.Collections.Generic namespace in my class library and refer that library in a project and use a statement like "using System.Collections.Generic", still why I can't access my class there? This was an experimentation I did, I know using System namespace is not encouraged in custom class library, but I want to know the reason behind why I can't access my class in this special case? Please someone shed some light on it. PS: Last time I asked similar question but put it wrongly, so people got misunderstood and I didn't get my answer. This time I am trying to put it correctly as far as I can. Sorry for the misunderstanding.

  Read the article

• Getting Outlook calendar items based on subject

  - by EKS

  I'm trying to get a list of calendar objects from exchange and sorting them based on subject. The part of of getting the objects just based on date and sorting out via subject is in "code" is now working, but i want to do a sort on subject in the "sql" first, but im unable to make it work ( Currently getting error from exchange saying the query is wrong. The line I added is: + "AND lcase(\"urn:schemas:calendar:subject\") = 'onsite%' " What I want is the ability to catch all appointments that start with onsite, both in upper and lower case. strQuery = "<?xml version=\"1.0\"?>" + "<g:searchrequest xmlns:g=\"DAV:\">" + "<g:sql>SELECT \"urn:schemas:calendar:location\", \"urn:schemas:httpmail:subject\", " + "\"urn:schemas:calendar:dtstart\", \"urn:schemas:calendar:dtend\", " + "\"urn:schemas:calendar:busystatus\", \"urn:schemas:calendar:instancetype\" " + "FROM Scope('SHALLOW TRAVERSAL OF \"" + strCalendarURI + "\"') " + "WHERE NOT \"urn:schemas:calendar:instancetype\" = 1 " + "AND \"DAV:contentclass\" = 'urn:content-classes:appointment' " + "AND \"urn:schemas:calendar:dtstart\" > '2003/06/01 00:00:00' " //'" + DateString + "'" + "AND lcase(\"urn:schemas:calendar:subject\") = 'onsite' " + "ORDER BY \"urn:schemas:calendar:dtstart\" ASC" + "</g:sql></g:searchrequest>";

  Read the article

• ScriptManager duplicates javascript

  - by Andreas

  Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Elements added later All images and text loaded to function. (jQuery or Javascript)

  - by Tayatt

  #clickArea click to #contents prepend #loadingText(Loading...) and #contents append HTML-source. If append HTML-source(All images and text) Load complete to #loadingText(Loading...) is fadeOut. The code that it is the best in this case? HTML <div id="contents"> <p id="clickArea">Click</p> </div> JavaScript(jQuery) $('p#clickArea').click(function(){ $('div#contents').prepend('<p id="loadingText">Loading...</p>'); $('div#contents').append('<div><p class="image"><img src="bigSizeImage01.jpg" alt="" /></p><p class="image"><img src="bigSizeImage02.jpg" alt="" /></p><p class="image"><img src="bigSizeImage03.jpg" alt="" /></p><p class="text">Hello, this is text.</p><p class="text">Hello, this is text.</p></div>'); $('**********').load( function(){ $('#loadingText').fadeOut(1200); } ); }); Supplement : $('div#contents').append(HTML-source) <div> <p class="image"><img src="bigSizeImage01.jpg" alt="" /></p> <p class="image"><img src="bigSizeImage02.jpg" alt="" /></p> <p class="image"><img src="bigSizeImage03.jpg" alt="" /></p> <p class="text">Hello, this is text.</p> <p class="text">Hello, this is text.</p> </div>

  Read the article

• Implementation of MVC with SQLite and NSURLConnection, use cases?

  - by user324723

  I'm interested in knowing how others have implemented/designed database & web services in their iphone app and how they simplified it for the entire application. My application is dependent on these services and I can't figure out a efficient way to use them together due to the (semi)complexity of my requirements. My past attempts on combining them haven't been completely successful or at least optimal in my mind. I'm building a database driven iphone app that uses a relational database in sqlite and consumes web services based on missing content or user interaction. Like this hasn't been done before...right? Since I am using a relational database - any web services consumed requires normalization, parsing the result and persisting it to the database before it can be displayed in a table view controller. The applications UI consists of nested(nav controller) table views where a user can select a cell and be taken to the next table view where it attempts to populate the table views data source from the database. If nothing exists in the database then it will send a request via web services to download its content, thus download - parse - persist - query - display. Since the user has the ability to request a refresh of this data it still requires the same process. Quickly describing what I've implemented and tried to run with - 1st attempt - Used a singleton web service class that handled sending web service requests, parsing the result and returning it to the table view controller via delegate protocols. Once the controller received that data it would then be responsible for persisting it to the database and re-returning the result. I didn't like the idea of only preventing the case where the app delegate selector doesn't exists(released) causing the app to crash. 2nd attempt - Used NSNotificationCenter for easy access to both database and web services but later realized it was more complex due to adding and removing observers per view(which isn't advised anyways).

  Read the article

• jquery events on input submit fields

  - by dfilkovi

  I have a problem with jquery submit button onclick and default event. What I want to do is replace an click event on submit button if it has one, and get an dialog box to show up, on clicking yes the dialog should start that default onclick event if submit button has one defined, if it hasn't than the default event should happen (button submits form), .submit() function does not work for me in any case cause I need to send this button also through a form and if button wasn't clicked .submit() sends form data without submit data. Bellow code has a problem, alert('xxx') is always called and it shouldn't, and on clicking yes button alert and dialog creation is called again, also if I remove alert button, I cannot call default submit button event (form submitting with a button). $('input.confirm').each(function() { var input = this; var dialog = document.createElement("div"); $(dialog).html('<p>AREYOUSHURE</p>'); $(input).click(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); var buttons = {}; buttons['NO'] = function() { $(this).dialog("close"); }; buttons['YES'] = function() { $(input).trigger('click'); $(this).dialog("close"); }; $(dialog).dialog( { autoOpen: false, width: 200, modal: true, resizable: false, buttons: buttons }); $(dialog).dialog('open'); return false; }); }); <form method="post" action=""> <input type="hidden" value="1" name="eventId" /> <input type="submit" value="Check" name="checkEvent" class="confirm" onclick="alert('xxx');" /> </form>

  Read the article

• How can I create an Image in GDI+ from a Base64-Encoded string in C++?

  - by Schnapple

  I have an application, currently written in C#, which can take a Base64-encoded string and turn it into an Image (a TIFF image in this case), and vice versa. In C# this is actually pretty simple. private byte[] ImageToByteArray(Image img) { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); img.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Tiff); return ms.ToArray(); } private Image byteArrayToImage(byte[] byteArrayIn) { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(byteArrayIn); BinaryWriter bw = new BinaryWriter(ms); bw.Write(byteArrayIn); Image returnImage = Image.FromStream(ms, true, false); return returnImage; } // Convert Image into string byte[] imagebytes = ImageToByteArray(anImage); string Base64EncodedStringImage = Convert.ToBase64String(imagebytes); // Convert string into Image byte[] imagebytes = Convert.FromBase64String(Base64EncodedStringImage); Image anImage = byteArrayToImage(imagebytes); (and, now that I'm looking at it, could be simplified even further) I now have a business need to do this in C++. I'm using GDI+ to draw the graphics (Windows only so far) and I already have code to decode the string in C++ (to another string). What I'm stumbling on, however, is getting the information into an Image object in GDI+. At this point I figure I need either a) A way of converting that Base64-decoded string into an IStream to feed to the Image object's FromStream function b) A way to convert the Base64-encoded string into an IStream to feed to the Image object's FromStream function (so, different code than I'm currently using) c) Some completely different way I'm not thinking of here. My C++ skills are very rusty and I'm also spoiled by the managed .NET platform, so if I'm attacking this all wrong I'm open to suggestions.

  Read the article

• Client-server synchronization pattern / algorithm?

  - by tm_lv

  I have a feeling that there must be client-server synchronization patterns out there. But i totally failed to google up one. Situation is quite simple - server is the central node, that multiple clients connect to and manipulate same data. Data can be split in atoms, in case of conflict, whatever is on server, has priority (to avoid getting user into conflict solving). Partial synchronization is preferred due to potentially large amounts of data. Are there any patterns / good practices for such situation, or if you don't know of any - what would be your approach? Below is how i now think to solve it: Parallel to data, a modification journal will be held, having all transactions timestamped. When client connects, it receives all changes since last check, in consolidated form (server goes through lists and removes additions that are followed by deletions, merges updates for each atom, etc.). Et voila, we are up to date. Alternative would be keeping modification date for each record, and instead of performing data deletes, just mark them as deleted. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• Multi-module Maven build

  - by Don

  Hi, My project has a fairly deep graph of Maven modules. The root POM has the following plugin configured <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.jvnet</groupId> <artifactId>animal-sniffer</artifactId> <version>1.2</version> <configuration> <signature> <groupId>org.jvnet.animal-sniffer</groupId> <artifactId>java1.4</artifactId> <version>1.0</version> </signature> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> If I invoke this target from the command line in the root directory via: mvn animal-sniffer:check Then it works fine as long as the current module extends (either directly or indirectly) from the root POM. However there are many children (or grandchildren) of the root module, which do not inherit from that module's POM. In this case, the goal fails because it cannot find the necessary configuration [ERROR] BUILD ERROR [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] One or more required plugin parameters are invalid/missing for 'animal-sniffer:check' [0] Inside the definition for plugin 'animal-sniffer' specify the following: <configuration> ... <signature>VALUE</signature> </configuration>. When configuring this plugin in the root module, is there any way to exclude a list of sub-modules either by name, or by packaging type? Thanks, Donal

  Read the article

• iPhone Apps, Objective C, a Graph, and Functions vs. Objects (or something like that)

  - by BillEccles

  Gentleones, I've got a UIImageView that I have in a UIView. This particular UIImageView displays a PNG of a graph. It's important for this particular view controller and another view controller to know what the graph "looks like," i.e., the function described by the PNG graph. These other view controllers need to be able to call a "function" of some sort with the X value returning the Y value. Please ignore the fact (from an outsider's perspective) that I could probably generate the graph programmatically. So my questions are: 1 - Where should I put this function? Should it go in one view controller or the other, or should it go in its own class or main or...? 2 - Should it be an object in some way? Or should it be a straight function? (In either case, where's it belong?) Pardon the apparent n00b-iness of the question. It's 'cause I'm honestly a n00b! This OOP stuff is giving my head a spin having been a procedural programmer for 30 years. (And I choose to learn it by jumping into an iPhone app. Talk about baptism by fire!) Thanks in advance,Bill

  Read the article

• php: autoload exception handling.

  - by YuriKolovsky

  Hello again, I'm extending my previous question (Handling exceptions within exception handle) to address my bad coding practice. I'm trying to delegate autoload errors to a exception handler. <?php function __autoload($class_name) { $file = $class_name.'.php'; try { if (file_exists($file)) { include $file; }else{ throw new loadException("File $file is missing"); } if(!class_exists($class_name,false)){ throw new loadException("Class $class_name missing in $file"); } }catch(loadException $e){ header("HTTP/1.0 500 Internal Server Error"); $e->loadErrorPage('500'); exit; } return true; } class loadException extends Exception { public function __toString() { return get_class($this) . " in {$this->file}({$this->line})".PHP_EOL ."'{$this->message}'".PHP_EOL . "{$this->getTraceAsString()}"; } public function loadErrorPage($code){ try { $page = new pageClass(); echo $page->showPage($code); }catch(Exception $e){ echo 'fatal error: ', $code; } } } $test = new testClass(); ?> the above script is supposed to load a 404 page if the testClass.php file is missing, and it works fine, UNLESS the pageClass.php file is missing as well, in which case I see a "Fatal error: Class 'pageClass' not found in D:\xampp\htdocs\Test\PHP\errorhandle\index.php on line 29" instead of the "fatal error: 500" message I do not want to add a try/catch block to each and every class autoload (object creation), so i tried this. What is the proper way of handling this?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 735 736 737 738 739 740 741 742 743 744 745 746  | Next Page >