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• LINQ to Entities question about orderby and null collections.

  - by Chevex

  I am currently developing a forum. I am new to LINQ and EF. In my forum I have a display that shows a list of topics with the most recent topics first. The problem is that "most recent" is relative to the topic's replies. So I don't want to order the list by the topic's posted date, rather I want to order the list by the topic's last reply's posted date. So that topics with newer replies pop back to the top of the list. This is rather simple if I knew that every topic had at least one reply; I would just do this: var topicsQuery = from x in board.Topics orderby x.Replies.Last().PostedDate descending select x; However, in many cases the topic has no replies. In which case I would like to use the topic's posted date instead. Is there a way within my linq query to order by x.PostedDate in the event that the topic has no replies? I'm getting confused by this and any help would be appreciated. With the above query, it breaks on topics with no replies because of the x.Replies.Last() which assumes there are replies. LastOrDefault() doesn't work because I need to access the PostedDate property which also assumes a reply exists. Thanks in advance for any insight.

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• Programatically enable/disable menuBar buttons in Flex 4

  - by Hamid

  I have the following XML in my Flex4 (AIR) project that defines the start of my menu interface: <mx:MenuBar x="0" y="0" width="100%" id="myMenuBar" labelField="@label" itemClick="menuChange(event)"> <mx:dataProvider> <s:XMLListCollection> <fx:XMLList xmlns=""> <menu label="File"> <item label="New"/> <item label="Load"/> <item label="Save" enabled="false"/> </menu> <menu label="Help"> <item label="About"/> </menu> </fx:XMLList> </s:XMLListCollection> </mx:dataProvider> </mx:MenuBar> I am trying to find the syntax that will let me set the save button to enabled=true after a file has been loaded by clicking "Load", however I can't figure out the syntax, can someone make a suggestion please. Currently the way that button clicks are detected is by a Switch/Case testing the String result of the MenuEvent event.item.@label. Maybe this isn't the best way?

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• How can I prevent a page to jump to top position after failed validation?

  - by Slauma

  I have a simple aspx page with a few TextBoxes and a submit button. Some fields are required and below the button is a ValidationSummary. The complete form is larger than screen height so one has to scroll down to reach the submit button. If I don't fill all required fields and click on submit validation fails as expected and the validation summary displays some info messages below the button. Validation happens on the client and no postback occurs. So this all works as wished. But disturbing is that the page moves ("jumps") to top position when I click on the submit button. To see the validation summary one has to move down the page again. I've tried to set the ShowSummary property to false (which doesn't make much sense): The validation still works (no postback) but in this case the page does not move to top position. So the problem seems to depend on rendering the validation texts. Is there a way to prevent this page jump? Thank you in advance!

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• Can this auto-stretcing scenario be realized undex XHTML/CSS?

  - by Vilx-

  I want two horizontal areas in my webpage. The first one is the menu. It's on the top. Unfortunately I don't know its size, and it might change in response to user actions. Below the menu is the main area which should stretch at least as far as the bottom of the window (if there is little content) or beyond (if there is a lot of content. To illustrate with ASCII art: +----------------------------------------------------+ | This area resizes vertically depending on contents | +----------------------------------------------------+ | This area stretches to the bottom of the window, | | but can be even larger if necessary. Note: this | | should be a separate area because it will contain | | children with height:100% as well. | | | +----------------------------------------------------+ Can this be done? Can it be done with Javascript? Added: To put things in perspective and avoid confusion, think of it this way: the top menu is generated by myself, but the bottom area is an IFrame which I want to fill the rest of the page. This is what it eventually comes down to anyway in my case.

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• Implementing list position locator in C++?

  - by jfrazier

  I am writing a basic Graph API in C++ (I know libraries already exist, but I am doing it for the practice/experience). The structure is basically that of an adjacency list representation. So there are Vertex objects and Edge objects, and the Graph class contains: list<Vertex *> vertexList list<Edge *> edgeList Each Edge object has two Vertex* members representing its endpoints, and each Vertex object has a list of Edge* members representing the edges incident to the Vertex. All this is quite standard, but here is my problem. I want to be able to implement deletion of Edges and Vertices in constant time, so for example each Vertex object should have a Locator member that points to the position of its Vertex* in the vertexList. The way I first implemented this was by saving a list::iterator, as follows: vertexList.push_back(v); v->locator = --vertexList.end(); Then if I need to delete this vertex later, then rather than searching the whole vertexList for its pointer, I can call: vertexList.erase(v->locator); This works fine at first, but it seems that if enough changes (deletions) are made to the list, the iterators will become out-of-date and I get all sorts of iterator errors at runtime. This seems strange for a linked list, because it doesn't seem like you should ever need to re-allocate the remaining members of the list after deletions, but maybe the STL does this to optimize by keeping memory somewhat contiguous? In any case, I would appreciate it if anyone has any insight as to why this happens. Is there a standard way in C++ to implement a locator that will keep track of an element's position in a list without becoming obsolete? Much thanks, Jeff

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• Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

  - by bryan

  Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

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• Strange Sql Server 2005 behavior

  - by Justin C

  Background: I have a site built in ASP.NET with Sql Server 2005 as it's database. The site is the only site on a Windows Server 2003 box sitting in my clients server room. The client is a local school district, so for data security reasons there is no remote desktop access and no remote Sql Server connection, so if I have to service the database I have to be at the terminal. I do have FTP access to update ASP code. Problem: I was contacted yesterday about an issue with the system. When I looked in to it, it seems a bug that I had solved nearly a year ago had returned. I have a stored procedure that used to take an int as a parameter but a year ago we changed the structure of the system and updated the stored procedure to take an nvarchar(10). The stored procedure somehow changed back to taking an int instead of an nvarchar. There is an external hard drive connected to the server that copies data periodically and has the ability to restore the server in case of failure. I would have assumed that somehow an older version of the database had been restored, but data that I know was inserted 7 days and 1 day before the bug occurred is still in the database. Question: Is there anyway that the structure of a Sql Server 2005 database can revert to a previous version or be restored to a previous version without touching the actual data? No one else should have access to the server so I'm going a little insane trying to figure out how this even happened. Any ideas?

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• Change nhibernate config with nant xmlpoke

  - by isuruceanu

  Hi All How can I change the connection string from nhibernate.config file using nant the problem is that all examples are about changing attribute value, but nhibernate has inner text eq: <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2"> <session-factory> <property name="connection.connection_string">Data Source.\server;Database=UnitTestDb;UID=user;pwd=pass;</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.MsSql2008Dialect</property> <property name="connection.provider">NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider</property> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.SqlClientDriver</property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="connection.release_mode">auto</property> <property name="adonet.batch_size">500</property> .... I need to change property connection.connection_string <xmlpoke file="${nhibernate.file}" xpath="/hibernate-configuration/session-factory/add[@key='connection.connection_string']/@value" value="${connection.string}"> </xmlpoke> this does not work in this case. Thanks

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• Using pointers to adjust global objects in objective-c

  - by Rob

  Ok, so I am working with two sets of data that are extremely similar, and at the same time, these data sets are both global NSMutableArrays within the object. data_set_one = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; data_set_two = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Two new NSMutableArrays are loaded, which need to be added to the old, existing data. These Arrays are also global. xml_dataset_one = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; xml_dataset_two = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; To reduce code duplication (and because these data sets are so similar) I wrote a void method within the class to handle the data combination process for both Arrays: -(void)constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)down withMatchSelector:(NSString *)sel_str Now, I have a decent understanding of object oriented programming, so I was thinking that if I were to invoke the method with the global Arrays in the data like so... [self constructData:data_set_one fromDownloadArray:xml_dataset_one withMatchSelector:@"id"]; Then the global NSMutableArrays (data_set_one) would reflect the changes that happen to "array" within the method. Sadly, this is not the case, data_set_one doesn't reflect the changes (ex: new objects within the Array) outside of the method. Here is a code snippet of the problem // data_set_one is empty // xml_dataset_one has a few objects [constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data_set_one fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)xml_dataset_one withMatchSelector:(NSString *)@"id"]; // data_set_one should now be xml_dataset_one, but when echoed to screen, it appears to remain empty And here is the gist of the code for the method, any help is appreciated. -(void)constructData:(NSMutableArray *)data fromDownloadArray:(NSMutableArray *)down withMatchSelector:(NSString *)sel_str { if ([data count] == 0) { data = down; // set data equal to downloaded data } else if ([down count] == 0) { // download yields no results, do nothing } else { // combine the two arrays here } } This project is not ARC enabled. Thanks for the help guys! Rob

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• How to implement a 'safe' periodical executer without using the Rails helpers?

  - by Robbie

  I am very new to Ruby on Rails and was never really big on writing JavaScript, so the built in helpers were like a tiny silce of heaven. However I have recently learned that using the helper methods creates "obtrusive javascript" so I am doing a tiny bit of refactoring to get all this messy code out of my view. I'm also using the Prototype API to figure out what all these functions do. Right now, I have: <%= periodically_call_remote(:url => {:action => "tablerefresh", :id => 1 }, :frequency => '5', :complete => "load('26', 'table1', request.responseText)")%> Which produces: <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ new PeriodicalExecuter(function() {new Ajax.Request('/qrpsdrail/grids/tablerefresh/1', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, onComplete:function(request){load('26', 'table1', request.responseText)}, parameters:'authenticity_token=' + encodeURIComponent('dfG7wWyVYEpelfdZvBWk7MlhzZoK7VvtT/HDi3w7gPM=')})}, 5) //]]> </script> My concern is that the "encodeURIComponent" and the presence of "authenticity_token" are generated by Rails. I'm assuming these are used to assure the validity of a request. (Ensuring a request comes from a currently active session?) If that is the case, how can I implement this in application.js 'safely'? It seems that the built in method, although obtrusive, does add some beneficial security. Thanks, in advance, to all who answer.

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• How to copy generically superclass instances to subclass instances?

  - by gerry

  Hi @all, I have a class hierarchy / inheritance like this: public class A { private String name; // with getters & setters public void doAWithName(){ ... } } public class B extends A { public void doBWithName(){ // a differnt implementation to what I do in class A } } public class C extends B { public void doCWithName(){ // a differnt implementation to what I do in class A and B } } So at one time there is a instance of class A with the initialized field "name". Later I want this instance of A get wrapped into instance of B or C. So the superclasses should be get wrapped with a subclass! How can I make this most efficent with respect to DRY? I've thought about a constructor that does some copying with the getters/setters. But in this case I have to repeat myself - and this doesn't respect anymore to my initial requirement of DRY! So, how can I warp A to B by just initializing B's new fields (with default values) and delegating the rest to a method in A (which knows more than B about which fields of A should be accessed...). In the same way: If A should be wrapped into C only a method in c should init C's 'new' fields, delegate to B's wrap method (which therefore inits B's 'new' fields in C) and at last B delegates to A which copies it's fields to the fields of C). So in the end I have a new instance of C which has the values of A wrapped (and some default init values to the fields which the inheritance hierarchy has added).

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• Very strange Application.ThreadException behaviour.

  - by Brann

  I'm using the Application.ThreadException event to handle and log unexpected exceptions in my winforms application. Now, somewhere in my application, I've got the following code (or rather something equivalent, but this dummy code is enough to reproduce my issue) : try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } I'm clearly expecting my Application_ThreadException handler to be passed the "test2" exception, but this is not always the case. Typically, if another thread marshals my code to the UI, my handler receives the "test" exception, exactly as if I hadn't caught "test" at all. Here is a short sample reproducing this behavior. I have omitted the designer's code. static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Exception.Message); } } public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); button1.Click+=new EventHandler(button1_Click); System.Threading.Thread t = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(ThrowEx)); t.Start(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } } void ThrowEx() { this.BeginInvoke(new EventHandler(button1_Click)); } } The output of this program on my computer is : test ... here I click button1 test2 I've reproduced this on .net 2.0,3.5 and 4.0. Does someone have a logical explanation ?

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• Single log file for multiple webapps

  - by Ashish Aggarwal

  In my tomcat there are multiple webapps deployed and they communicate with each other. Currently they all have their own log file. But when there is some issue comes from call I have to 1st check with the app to whom I made a call and check log file of respective apps involved in the call. So I want that, as all apps is deployed in same tomcat and sharing a common log4j, if a call made to any app then all logs should be in a single log file and no matters how my webapps are involved all error comes from any webapp during the call should be in a single log file. I have no idea how can I achieve this. So any help is appreciable. Edited: I think my question is not cleared so updated with use case: I have three webapps A, B, C having logs files as A.log, B.log and C.log. I made two calls. 1st one to A (that internally calls C) and 2nd to B (that internally calls C). Now logging of first call must be in A.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c) and second call must be in B.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c).

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• Getting started with open source

  - by lola

  Hi all, I'm an undergraduate who has decided that he wants to join the open source community and contribute. However, I have come to think that, once you have chosen an open source project, a lot of time is spent in learning the nitty gritties of that project in addition to stuff like subversion,etc which a typical undergraduate isn't exposed to. So, you have to stick with that project for a long time, say a year or two, before moving on to other projects. In this case, choosing the right(for you) initial project is very important since if you choose one,and say, the development in your field of interest(in that project) is a low priority and not exciting enough, you'll lose interest and stop contributing to open source all together. So what I wanted to know was, since there are thousands of open source projects, is all this being documented somewhere with tags,etc so that a beginner can choose his projects. The GSoc 2010 ideas list is a great starting point, but it only covers a handful. Hence, I thought why not ask this at stackoverflow: if you have any pointers as to where to start, when choosing a FOSS project or any other tips related to starting with FOSS. P.S. I'm interested in projects involving mobile ad hoc networks(those using TinyOS, preferably), so pointers related to these will be great. I'm looking through Freifunk and OLPC as of now, needed more ideas.

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• Does unboxing just return a pointer to the value within the boxed object on the heap?

  - by Charles

  I this MSDN Magazine article, the author states (emphasis mine): Note that boxing always creates a new object and copies the unboxed value's bits to the object. On the other hand, unboxing simply returns a pointer to the data within a boxed object: no memory copy occurs. However, it is commonly the case that your code will cause the data pointed to by the unboxed reference to be copied anyway. I'm confused by the sentence I've bolded and the sentence that follows it. From everything else I've read, including this MSDN page, I've never before heard that unboxing just returns a pointer to the value on the heap. I was under the impression that unboxing would result in you having a variable containing a copy of the value on the stack, just as you began with. After all, if my variable contains "a pointer to the value on the heap", then I haven't got a value type, I've got a pointer. Can someone explain what this means? Was the author on crack? (There is at least one other glaring error in the article). And if this is true, what are the cases where "your code will cause the data pointed to by the unboxed reference to be copied anyway"? I just noticed that the article is nearly 10 years old, so maybe this is something that changed very early on in the life of .Net.

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• Is the Java classpath final after JVM startup?

  - by Jens

  Hi, I have read a lot about the Java class loading process lately. Often I came across texts that claimed that it is not possible to add classes to the classpath during runtime and load them without class loader hackery (URLClassLoaders etc.) As far as I know classes are loaded dynamically. That means their bytecode representation is only loaded and transformed to a java.lang.Class object when needed. So shouldn't it be possible to add a JAR or *.class file to the classpath after the JVM started and load those classes, provided they haven't been loaded yet? (To be clear: In this case the classpath is simple folder on the filesystem. "Adding a JAR or *.class file" simply means dropping them in this folder.) And if not, does that mean that the classpath is searched on JVM startup and all fully qualified names of the found classes are cached in an internal "list"? It would be nice of you if you could point me to some sources in your answers. Preferably the offical SUN documentation: Sun JVM Spec. I have read the spec but could not find anything about the classpath and if it's finalized on JVM startup. P.s. This is a theoretical question. I just want to know if it is possible. There is nothing practical I want to achieve. There is just my thirst for knowledge :)

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• javascript error handeling

  - by pankaj

  I have a javascript function for checking errors which i am callin on OnClicentClick event of a button. Once it catch a error i want to stop execution of click event . But in my case it always it always executes the onclick event. Following is my function: function DisplayError() { if (document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length < 6 || document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length > 12) { document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Password length must be between 6 to 12 characters"; return false; } var str = <%=PhoneNumber()%>; if(str.length <10) { alert('<%=phoneNum%>'.length); document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Phone Number not in correct format"; return false; } } button html code: <asp:Button runat="server" Text="Submit" ID="btnSubmit" ValidationGroup="submit" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" OnClientClick="DisplayError()"/> It should not execute the button click event once it satisfies any of the IF condition in javascript function.

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• How do I initialize the controls in an InsertItemTemplate?

  - by Slauma

  I have - for instance - an asp:FormView which supports Read, Insert, Update, Delete and is bound to a DataSource: <asp:FormView ID="FormView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource1" > <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </EditItemTemplate> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </InsertItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> If I am in Read-Mode or Edit-Mode the control is initialized with the property MyText of the current object which is bound to the FormView. But when I go to Insert-Mode I do not have a "current object" (FormView1.DataItem is indeed null) and the controls are empty. If I want to have my TextBox control initialized with a specific value how can I do that? In which event can I hook in to set default values to the controls in the InsertItemTemplate? Especially I have in mind using an ObjectDataSource. I was expecting that the InsertItemTemplate is initialized with a business object which underlies my ObjectDataSource and which is created by the ASP.NET framework simply by using its default constructor when the InsertItemTemplate gets activated. In the default constructor I would init the class members to the default values I'd like to have in my controls of the InsertItemTemplate. But unfortunately that's not the case: No "default" object is created and bound to the FormView. So it seems I have to initialize all controls separately or to create the default object manually and bind it to the InsertItemTemplate of the FormView. But how and where can I do that? Thanks in advance!

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• Generic ASP.NET MVC Route Conflict

  - by Donn Felker

  I'm working on a Legacy ASP.NET system. I say legacy because there are NO tests around 90% of the system. I'm trying to fix the routes in this project and I'm running into a issue I wish to solve with generic routes. I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithPdn", "{controller}/{action}/{pdn}", new { controller = "", action = "Index", pdn = "" }, null ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithClientId", "{controller}/{action}/{clientId}", new { controller = "", action = "index", clientid = "" }, null ); The problem is that the first route is catching all of the traffic for what I need to be routed to the second route. The route is generic (no controller is defined in the constraint in either route definition) because multiple controllers throughout the entire app share this same premise (sometimes we need a "pdn" sometimes we need a "clientId"). How can I map these generic routes so that they go to the proper controller and action, yet not have one be too greedy? Or can I at all? Are these routes too generic (which is what I'm starting to believe is the case). My only option at this point (AFAIK) is one of the following: In the contraints, apply a regex to match the action values like: (foo|bar|biz|bang) and the same for the controller: (home|customer|products) for each controller. However, this has a problem in the fact that I may need to do this: ~/Foo/Home/123 // Should map to "DefaultwithPdn" ~/Foo/Home/abc // Should map to "DefaultWithClientId" Which means that if the Foo Controller has an action that takes a pdn and another action that takes a clientId (which happens all the time in this app), the wrong route is chosen. To hardcode these contstraints into each possible controller/action combo seems like a lot of duplication to me and I have the feeling I've been looking at the problem for too long so I need another pair of eyes to help out. Can I have generic routes to handle this scenario? Or do I need to have custom routes for each controller with constraints applied to the actions on those routes? Thanks

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• Protecting Content with AuthLogic

  - by Rob Wilkerson

  I know this sounds like a really, really simple use case and I'm hoping that it is, but I swear I've looked all over the place and haven't found any mention of any way - not even the best way - of doing this. I'm brand-spanking new to Ruby, Rails and everything surrounding either (which may explain a lot). The dummy app that I'm using as my learning tool requires authentication in order to do almost anything meaningful, so I chose to start by solving that problem. I've installed the AuthLogic gem and have it working nicely to the extent that is covered by the intro documentation and Railscast, but now that I can register, login and logout...I need to do something with it. As an example, I need to create a page where users can upload images. I'm planning to have an ImagesController with an upload action method, but I want that only accessible to logged in users. I suppose that in every restricted action I could add code to redirect if there's no current_user, but that seems really verbose. Is there a better way of doing this that allows me to define or identify restricted areas and handle the authentication check in one place?

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• How to send Event signal through Processes - C

  - by Jamie Keeling

  Hello all! I have an application consisting of two windows, one communicates to the other and sends it a struct constaining two integers (In this case two rolls of a dice). I will be using events for the following circumstances: Process a sends data to process b, process b displays data Process a closes, in turn closing process b Process b closes a, in turn closing process a I have noticed that if the second process is constantly waiting for the first process to send data then the program will be just sat waiting, which is where the idea of implementing threads on each process occurred and I have started to implement this already. The problem i'm having is that I don't exactly have a lot of experience with threads and events so I'm not sure of the best way to actually implement what I want to do. I'm trying to work out how the other process will know of the event being fired so it can do the tasks it needs to do, I don't understand how one process that is separate from another can tell what the states the events are in especially as it needs to act as soon as the event has changed state. Thanks for any help Edit: I can only use the Create/Set/Open methods for events, sorry for not mentioning it earlier.

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• After Delete Trigger Fires Only After Delete?

  - by Brandi

  I thought "after delete" meant that the trigger is not fired until after the delete has already taken place, but here is my situation... I made 3, nearly identical SQL CLR after delete triggers in C#, which worked beautifully for about a month. Suddenly, one of the three stopped working while an automated delete tool was run on it. By stopped working, I mean, records could not be deleted from the table via client software. Disabling the trigger caused deletes to be allowed, but re-enabling it interfered with the ability to delete. So my question is 'how can this be the case?' Is it possible the tool used on it futzed up the memory? It seems like even if the trigger threw an exception, if it is AFTER delete, shouldn't the records be gone? All the trigger looks like is this: ALTER TRIGGER [sysdba].[AccountTrigger] ON [sysdba].[ACCOUNT] AFTER DELETE AS EXTERNAL NAME [SQL_IO].[SQL_IO.WriteFunctions].[AccountTrigger] GO The CLR trigger does one select and one insert into another database. I don't yet know if there are any errors from SQL Server Mgmt Studio, but will update the question after I find out.

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• Passing params in rails... Breakthrough in understanding params, aka, the "aha" moment

  - by Brian McDonough

  I have a simple has_many belongs_to relationship and I want to include the parent object for the view of the belongs_to model and I have had some success, but I want it to work better. class Submission < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :contest end class Contest < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_many :submissions, :dependent => :destroy end In the case that works, I pass contest_id to submissions by placing it in the url: <%= link_to 'Submit Contest Entry', new_submission_path(:contest_id => @contest.id), :class => 'btn btn-primary btn-large mleft10' %> So that, combined with a hidden_field: <%= f.hidden_field :contest_id %> And a find_contest method in the controller (called with a before_filter): def find_contest #the next line is giving the error (line 76) @contest = Contest.find(params[:submission][:contest_id]) end Makes it work for submissions/new, but how do I add a find to the controller that just works across more than that one page, like if I want to access in show and index. Right now, I get an error: Started GET "/submissions?contest_id=5" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-12-01 16:01:45 -0800 Processing by SubmissionsController#index as HTML Parameters: {"contest_id"=>"5"} User Load (0.3ms) SELECT "users".* FROM "users" WHERE "users"."id" = 2 ORDER BY users.created_at DESC LIMIT 1 Completed 500 Internal Server Error in 37ms NoMethodError (undefined method `[]' for nil:NilClass): app/controllers/submissions_controller.rb:76:in `find_contest' [edited] Adding show action for submissions: before_filter :find_contest, :except => [:index, :show, :edit, :update, :destroy] def find_contest @contest = Contest.find(params[:submission][:contest_id]) end def show contest_id = @submission.contest_id @submission = @commentable = Submission.find(params[:id]) @comments = @commentable.comments.order(:created_at).reverse respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.json { render :json => @submission } end end

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• How can I change a form's input value with javascript

  - by Biroka

  How can I change a form's input value with javascript depending on witch combobox item is selected. I have a form with some imported values, and there is a field of witch imported value can be changed via a combobox. In my case: print("<input type='hidden' name='issue_array[{$issue["nr"]}][\"supplier\"]' value='{$issue["supplier"]}' />"); I have a combobox, that if I change it's value, should change the value of the input above. This is what I tried: print("<select name='supplier_combo' onchange='setSupplierInputValue(this.value, ${issue['nr']})'>"); and the script: echo "\r\n" . '<SCRIPT TYPE="text/javascript">' . "\r\n"; echo 'function setSupplierInputValue(value, issue_nr)' . "\r\n"; echo '{' . "\r\n"; echo ' issue_array[issue_nr]["supplier"] = value;'; echo '}' . "\r\n"; echo '</SCRIPT>'. "\r\n"; But it doesn't work, please help.

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• Understanding Hibernate saveOrUpdate and the Persistence Life Cycle

  - by Stephano

  The books that I've read regarding hibernate are, at best, reference tomes. They very seldom have good code examples, so I tend to use online resources for those needs. However, I've always had a problem understanding the basic idea of hibernate persistence. I've read the books and understand the concepts, but in practice, I often see results that I don't understand. Perhaps you all can help, as you have in the past. Let's look at a simple example of a dog and a cat that are friends. This isn't a rare occurrence. It also has the benefit of being much more interesting than my business case. We want a function called "saveFriends" that takes a dog name and a cat name. We'll save the Dog and then the Cat. For this example to work, the cat is going to have a reference back to the dog. I understand this isn't an ideal example, but it's cute and works for our purposes. FriendService.java public int saveFriends(String dogName, String catName) { Dog fido = new Dog(); Cat felix = new Cat(); fido.name = dogName; fido = animalDao.saveDog(fido); felix.name = catName; [ex.A]felix.friend = fido; [ex.B]felix.friend = animalDao.getDogByName(dogName); animalDao.saveCat(felix); } AnimalDao.java (extends HibernateDaoSupport) public Dog saveDog(Dog dog) { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(dog); return dog } public Cat saveCat(Cat cat) { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(cat); return cat; } public Dog getDogByName(String name) { return (Dog) getHibernateTemplate().find("from Dog where name=?", name).get(0); } Now, assume for a minute that I would like to use either example A or example B to save my friend. Is one better than the other to use? I'll understand if neither of those examples work, but please explain why.

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