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  • Passing.getText() String to another class

    - by DanMc
    I'm currently working on a first year university project and I have a problem, although I doubt it's a very complicated one, but I've been searching and I just can't find a suitable answer to it. The problem concerns two classes. A gui class (class1) and another class (class2). I have a JTextField in class1 and am trying to pass through the .getText() value to class2 and store it in a String type variable. The current code I'm trying to achieve this with is the following: (Class1) private JTextField textField = new JTextField("Something"); ... public String getTextFieldString() { return textField.getText(); } (Class2) private c1 Class1 = new Class1(); private String s = new String(); ... s = c1.getTextFieldString(); I'm pretty new to coding, I've read that maybe I need to pass through an argument somewhere and I assume that's because textField is not static in itself, it changes when somebody enters a new value. (sorry for stating the obvious there.) Anyway, help is appreciated. Thanks a lot!

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  • Extended Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract does not return values

    - by WesleyE
    Hi, I'm quite new to Zend and the database classes from it. I'm having problems mapping a Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract to my rows. The problem is that whenever I try to map it to a class (Job) that extends the Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract class, the database data is not receivable anymore. I'm not getting any errors, trying to get data simply returns null. Here is my code so far: Jobs: class Jobs extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'jobs'; protected $_rowsetClass = "Job"; public function getActiveJobs() { $select = $this->select()->where('jobs.jobDateOpen < UNIX_TIMESTAMP()')->limit(15,0); $rows = $this->fetchAll($select); return $rows; } } Job: class Job extends Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract { public function getCompanyName() { //Gets the companyName for this row (Is on another table), just for example } } Controller: $oJobs = new Jobs(); $aActiveJobs = $oJobs->getActiveJobs(); foreach ($aActiveJobs as $value) { var_dump($value->jobTitle); } When I remove the "protected $_rowsetClass = "Job";" line, so that the table row is not mapped to my own class, I get all the jobTitles perfectly. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks in advance, Wesley

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  • Strange offset space between <button> as parent container and <div> as child.

    - by Maxja
    I need to decorate a standard html button. The base element I took <button> instead of <input>, cos I decided that the element must be a parent container. And there is child element <div> in it. This <div> element will be been the core element for decoration, and should occupy the entire space of the parent element - button. <button> <div>*decoration goes here*</div> </button> And within Cascading Style Sheets it might be looks like this: css button { margin: 0; border: 0; padding: 0; width: *150*px; height: *50*px; position: relative; } div { margin: 0; border: 0; padding: 0; width: 100%; height: 100%; background: *black*; position: absolute; top: 0; left: 0; } html <button type="button"> <div>*decoration goes here*</div> </button> So, Opera(10) is doing well, webkits Chrome(6) and Safari(4) is doing also well, but Internet Explorer(8) is bad - DOM Inspector shows some strange Offset space in top and left, FireFox(3) is also bad - DOM Inspector shows that <div> get some negative value in css-property right: and bottom:. Even if this property will set to zero(0) DOM-Inspector still shows same negative value. I almost broke my brain. Help me, solve this problem, please!

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  • Problem in using xpath with xslt having distint values

    - by AB
    I have XML like, <items> <item> <products> <product>laptop</product> <product>charger</product> <product>Cam</product> </products> </item> <item> <products> <product>laptop</product> <product>headphones</product> <product>Photoframe</product> </products> </item> <item> <products> <product>laptop</product> <product>charger</product> <product>Battery</product> </products> </item> </items> and I am using xslt on it //can't change xpath as getting it from somewhere else <xsl:param name="xparameter" select="items/item[products/product='laptop' and products/product='charger']"></xsl:param> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:for-each select="$xparameter"> <xsl:for-each select="products/product[not(.=preceding::product)]"> <xsl:sort select="."></xsl:sort> <xsl:value-of select="." ></xsl:value-of>, </xsl:for-each> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> I want the output to be laptop charger cam Battery But I m not getting the result as I m expecting...distinct values is working fine ..something is getting wrong when I am adding that and claus

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  • How can I post an array of string to ASP.NET MVC Controller without a form?

    - by rodbv
    Hi there, I am creating a small app to teach myself ASP.NET MVC and JQuery, and one of the pages is a list of items in which some can be selected. Then I would like to press a button and send a List (or something equivalent) to my controller containing the ids of the items that were selected, using JQuery's Post function. I managed to get an array with the ids of the elements that were selected, and now I want to post that. One way I could do this is to have a dummy form in my page, with a hidden value, and then set the hidden value with the selected items, and post that form; this looks crufty, though. Is there a cleaner way to achieve this, by sending the array directly to the controller? I've tried a few different things but it looks like the controller can't map the data it's receiving. Here's the code so far: function generateList(selectedValues) { var s = { values: selectedValues //selectedValues is an array of string }; $.post("/Home/GenerateList", $.toJSON(s), function() { alert("back") }, "json"); } And then my Controller looks like this public ActionResult GenerateList(List<string> values) { //do something } All I managed to get is a "null" in the controller parameter... Any tips?

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  • c# Display the data in the List view

    - by Kumu
    private void displayResultsButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { gameResultsListView.Items.Clear(); //foreach (Game game in footballLeagueDatabase.games) //{ ListViewItem row = new ListViewItem(); row.SubItems.Add(game.HomeTeam.ToString()); row.SubItems.Add(game.HomeScore.ToString()); row.SubItems.Add(game.AwayTeam.ToString()); row.SubItems.Add(game.AwayScore.ToString()); gameResultsListView.Items.Add(row); // } //footballLeagueDatabase.games.Sort(); } } } This is the display button and the following code describes the add button. private void addGameButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if ((homeTeamTxt.Text.Length) == 0) MessageBox.Show("You must enter a Home Team"); else if (homeScoreUpDown.Maximum <= 9 && homeScoreUpDown.Minimum >= 0) MessageBox.Show("You must enter one digit between 0 and 9"); else if ((awayTeamTxt.Text.Length) == 0) MessageBox.Show("You must enter a Away Team"); else if (awayScoreUpDown.Maximum <= 9 && awayScoreUpDown.Minimum >= 0) MessageBox.Show("You must enter one digit between 0 to 9"); else { //checkGameInputFields(); game = new Game(homeTeamTxt.Text, int.Parse(homeScoreUpDown.Value.ToString()), awayTeamTxt.Text, int.Parse(awayScoreUpDown.Value.ToString())); MessageBox.Show("Home Team" + 't' + homeTeamTxt.Text + "Away Team" + awayTeamTxt.Text + "created"); footballLeagueDatabase.AddGame(game); //clearCreateStudentInputFields(); } } I need to insert data into the above text field and Numeric up down control and display them in the list view. But I dont know How to do it, because when I press the button "Display Results" it displays the error message. If you know how can I display the data in the list view, please let me know.This is the first time I am using List view.

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  • Does IE completely ignore cache control headers for AJAX requests?

    - by Joshua Hayworth
    Hello there, I've got, what I would consider, a simple test web site. A single page with a single button. Here is a copy of the source I'm working with if you would like to download it and play with it. When that button is clicked, it creates a JavaScript timer that executes once a second. When the timer function is executed, An AJAX call is made to retrieve a text value. That text value is then placed into the DOM. What's my problem? IE Caching. Crack open Task Manager and watch what happens to the iexplorer.exe process (IE 8.0.7600.16385 for me) while the timer in that page is executing. See the memory and handle count getting larger? Why is that happening when, by all accounts, I have caching turned off. I've got the jQuery cache option set to false in $.ajaxSetup. I've got the CacheControl header set to no-cache and no-store. The Expires header is set to DateTime.Now.AddDays(-1). The headers are set in both the page code-behind as well as the HTTP Handler's response. Anybody got any ideas as to how I could prevent IE from caching the results of the AJAX call? Here is what the iexplorer.exe process looks like in ProcessMonitor. I believe that the activity shown in this picture is exactly what I'm attempting to prevent.

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  • How can I prevent infinite recursion when using events to bind UI elements to fields?

    - by Billy ONeal
    The following seems to be a relatively common pattern (to me, not to the community at large) to bind a string variable to the contents of a TextBox. class MyBackEndClass { public event EventHandler DataChanged; string _Data; public string Data { get { return _Data; } set { _Data = value; //Fire the DataChanged event } } } class SomeForm : // Form stuff { MyBackEndClass mbe; TextBox someTextBox; SomeForm() { someTextBox.TextChanged += HandleTextBox(); mbe.DataChanged += HandleData(); } void HandleTextBox(Object sender, EventArgs e) { mbe.Data = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } void HandleData(Object sender, EventArgs e) { someTextBox.Text = ((MyBackEndClass) sender).Data; } } The problem is that changing the TextBox fires the changes the data value in the backend, which causes the textbox to change, etc. That runs forever. Is there a better design pattern (other than resorting to a nasty boolean flag) that handles this case correctly? EDIT: To be clear, in the real design the backend class is used to synchronize changes between multiple forms. Therefore I can't just use the SomeTextBox.Text property directly. Billy3

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  • vectorize is indeterminate

    - by telliott99
    I'm trying to vectorize a simple function in numpy and getting inconsistent behavior. I expect my code to return 0 for values < 0.5 and the unchanged value otherwise. Strangely, different runs of the script from the command line yield varying results: sometimes it works correctly, and sometimes I get all 0's. It doesn't matter which of the three lines I use for the case when d <= T. It does seem to be correlated with whether the first value to be returned is 0. Any ideas? Thanks. import numpy as np def my_func(d, T=0.5): if d > T: return d #if d <= T: return 0 else: return 0 #return 0 N = 4 A = np.random.uniform(size=N**2) A.shape = (N,N) print A f = np.vectorize(my_func) print f(A) $ python x.py [[ 0.86913815 0.96833127 0.54539153 0.46184594] [ 0.46550903 0.24645558 0.26988519 0.0959257 ] [ 0.73356391 0.69363161 0.57222389 0.98214089] [ 0.15789303 0.06803493 0.01601389 0.04735725]] [[ 0.86913815 0.96833127 0.54539153 0. ] [ 0. 0. 0. 0. ] [ 0.73356391 0.69363161 0.57222389 0.98214089] [ 0. 0. 0. 0. ]] $ python x.py [[ 0.37127366 0.77935622 0.74392301 0.92626644] [ 0.61639086 0.32584431 0.12345342 0.17392298] [ 0.03679475 0.00536863 0.60936931 0.12761859] [ 0.49091897 0.21261635 0.37063752 0.23578082]] [[0 0 0 0] [0 0 0 0] [0 0 0 0] [0 0 0 0]]

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  • SQL aggregate query question

    - by Phil
    Hi, Can anyone help me with a SQL query in Apache Derby SQL to get a "simple" count. Given a table ABC that looks like this... id a b c 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 2 3 2 1 3 4 2 1 1 ** 5 2 1 2 ** ** 6 2 2 1 ** 7 3 1 2 8 3 1 3 9 3 1 1 How can I write a query to get a count of how may distinct values of 'a' have both (b=1 and c=2) AND (b=2 and c=1) to get the correct result of 1. (the two rows marked match the criteria and both have a value of a=2, there is only 1 distinct value of a in this table that match the criteria) The tricky bit is that (b=1 and c=2) AND (b=2 and c=1) are obviously mutually exclusive when applied to a single row. .. so how do I apply that expression across multiple rows of distinct values for a? These queries are wrong but to illustrate what I'm trying to do... "SELECT DISTINCT COUNT(a) WHERE b=1 AND c=2 AND b=2 AND c=1 ..." .. (0) no go as mutually exclusive "SELECT DISTINCT COUNT(a) WHERE b=1 AND c=2 OR b=2 AND c=1 ..." .. (3) gets me the wrong result. SELECT COUNT(a) (CASE WHEN b=1 AND c=10 THEN 1 END) FROM ABC WHERE b=2 AND c=1 .. (0) no go as mutually exclusive Cheers, Phil.

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  • I can't seem to get my grand Total to calculate correctly

    - by Kenny
    When I run this query below, SELECT clientid, CASE WHEN D.ccode = '-1' Then 'Did Not Show' ELSE D.ccode End ccode, ca, ot, bw, cshT, dc, dte, approv FROM dbo.emC D WHERE year(dte) = year(getdate()) I get the correct results. It is correct result because ccode shows 'Did Not Show' when the value on the db is '-1' However, when I do a UNION ALL so I can get total for each column, I get the results but then 'Did Not Show' is no longer visible when valye for ccode is '-1'. There are over 1000 records with valuye of '-1'. Can someone please help? Here is the entire code with UNION. SELECT clientid, CASE WHEN D.ccode = '-1' Then 'Did Not Show' ELSE D.ccode End ccode, ca, ot, bw, cshT, dc, dte, approv FROM dbo.emC D WhERE year(dte) = year(getdate()) UNION ALL SELECT 'Total', '', SUM(D.ca), SUM(D.ot), SUM(D.bw), SUM(D.cshT), '', '', '' FROM emC D WHERE YEAR(dte)='2011' I also tried using ROLLUP but the real issue here is that I can't get the 'Did Not Show' text to display when ccode value is -1 ClientID CCODE ot ca bw cshT 019692 CF001 0.00 0.00 1.00 0.00 0.00 019692 CH503 0.00 0.00 1.00 0.00 0.00 010487 AC407 0.00 0.00 1.00 0.00 0.00 028108 CH540 0.00 0.00 1.00 0.00 0.00 028108 GS925 0.00 0.00 1.00 0.00 0.00 001038 AC428 0.00 0.00 3.00 0.00 0.00 028561 Did Not Show 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 016884 Did Not Show 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 05184 CF001 0.00 0.00 4.50 0.00 0.00

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  • [iphone] method created in a seperate class returns "out of scope"

    - by Dror Sabbag
    Hey, I have created a Class (subclass of NSObject) which will hold all my SQLs/dbConnections etc.. in a seperate viewcontroller, i have instantiated the SQL's class and performed some actions, all went trough OK. but. one of my methods in the SQL's class is a method defined as follows: -(NSString *)queryTable:(NSUInteger *)fieldnum //query from db, and assign the field value into "fieldName" dbEntity = fieldName; [fieldName release]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } return dbEntity; } dbEntity is defined as NSString, and i have set it as a nonatoimc-retain property @property (nonatomic,retain) NSString *dbEntity; when ever i call this method out from my viewController and debug step by step, i see that the method is running, it is quering from the db as expected, but when it passes the value into dbEntity the values in dbEntity are suddenly "out of scope" that is... if i browse this specific action: dbEntity = fieldName; i can see values inside fieldName, but see "out of scope" in dbEntity. Why is that?!? what is wrong with dbEntity definitions? Any help will be appriciated.

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  • python script problem once build and package it

    - by Apache
    hi expert, I've written python script to scan wifi and send data to the server, I set interval value, so it keep on scanning and send the data, it read from config.txt file where i set the interval value to scan, I also add yes/no in my config file, so is 'no' it will scan only once and if 'yes' it will scan according to the interval level, my code as below import time,..... from threading import Event, Thread class RepeatTimer(Thread): def __init__(self, interval, function, iterations=0, args=[], kwargs={}): Thread.__init__(self) self.interval = interval self.function = function self.iterations = iterations self.args = args self.kwargs = kwargs self.finished = Event() def run(self): count = 0 while not self.finished.is_set() and (self.iterations <= 0 or count < self.iterations): self.finished.wait(self.interval) if not self.finished.is_set(): self.function(*self.args, **self.kwargs) count += 1 def cancel(self): self.finished.set() def scanWifi(self): #scanning process and sending data done here obj = JW() if status == "yes": t = RepeatTimer(int(intervalTime),obj.scanWifi) t.start() else: obj.scanWifi() once I package my code, its only run when I set my config file set to 'no' where it scan only once, but when I set my config file to 'yes', there is no progress at all, so I found that there is problem with my class RepeatTimer(Timer) once build, but don't know how to solve can anyone help me thanks

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  • Oracle Insert via Select from multiple tables where one table may not have a row

    - by Mikezx6r
    I have a number of code value tables that contain a code and a description with a Long id. I now want to create an entry for an Account Type that references a number of codes, so I have something like this: insert into account_type_standard (account_type_Standard_id, tax_status_id, recipient_id) ( select account_type_standard_seq.nextval, ts.tax_status_id, r.recipient_id from tax_status ts, recipient r where ts.tax_status_code = ? and r.recipient_code = ?) This retrieves the appropriate values from the tax_status and recipient tables if a match is found for their respective codes. Unfortunately, recipient_code is nullable, and therefore the ? substitution value could be null. Of course, the implicit join doesn't return a row, so a row doesn't get inserted into my table. I've tried using NVL on the ? and on the r.recipient_id. I've tried to force an outer join on the r.recipient_code = ? by adding (+), but it's not an explicit join, so Oracle still didn't add another row. Anyone know of a way of doing this? I can obviously modify the statement so that I do the lookup of the recipient_id externally, and have a ? instead of r.recipient_id, and don't select from the recipient table at all, but I'd prefer to do all this in 1 SQL statement.

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  • A better solution than element.Elements("Whatever").First()?

    - by codeka
    I have an XML file like this: <SiteConfig> <Sites> <Site Identifier="a" /> <Site Identifier="b" /> <Site Identifier="c" /> </Sites> </SiteConfig> The file is user-editable, so I want to provide reasonable error message in case I can't properly parse it. I could probably write a .xsd for it, but that seems kind of overkill for a simple file. So anyway, when querying for the list of <Site> nodes, there's a couple of ways I could do it: var doc = XDocument.Load(...); var siteNodes = from siteNode in doc.Element("SiteConfig").Element("SiteUrls").Elements("Sites") select siteNode; But the problem with this is that if the user has not included the <SiteUrls> node (say) it'll just throw a NullReferenceException which doesn't really say much to the user about what actually went wrong. Another possibility is just to use Elements() everywhere instead of Element(), but that doesn't always work out when coupled with calls to Attribute(), for example, in the following situation: var siteNodes = from siteNode in doc.Elements("SiteConfig") .Elements("SiteUrls") .Elements("Sites") where siteNode.Attribute("Identifier").Value == "a" select siteNode; (That is, there's no equivalent to Attributes("xxx").Value) Is there something built-in to the framework to handle this situation a little better? What I would prefer is a version of Element() (and of Attribute() while we're at it) that throws a descriptive exception (e.g. "Looking for element <xyz> under <abc> but no such element was found") instead of returning null. I could write my own version of Element() and Attribute() but it just seems to me like this is such a common scenario that I must be missing something...

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  • Spring Controller's URL request mapping not working as expected

    - by Atharva
    I have created a mapping in web.xml something like this: <servlet> <servlet-name>dispatcher</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>dispatcher</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/about/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> In my controller I have something like this: import org.springframework.stereotype.Controller; @Controller public class MyController{ @RequestMapping(value="/about/us", method=RequestMethod.GET) public ModelAndView myMethod1(ModelMap model){ //some code return new ModelAndView("aboutus1.jsp",model); } @RequestMapping(value="/about", method=RequestMethod.GET) public ModelAndView myMethod2(ModelMap model){ //some code return new ModelAndView("aboutus2.jsp",model); } } And my dispatcher-servlet.xml has view resolver like: <mvc:annotation-driven/> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver" p:viewClass="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView" p:prefix="/WEB-INF/jsp/" p:suffix=".jsp"/> To my surprise: request .../about/us is not reaching to myMethod1 in the controller. The browser shows 404 error. I put a logger inside the method but it isn't printing anything, meaning, its not being executed. .../about works fine! What can be the done to make .../about/us request work? Any suggestions?

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  • Jquery (non-gem) plugin won't work in my rails 3.2 app

    - by jfdimark
    I'm trying to equalize columns in my rails 3.2 app, and while there may be a better way to do it then my current attempt, after hours of trying to make it work I'd like to see if anyone can point out specifically why this jQuery plugin (which isn't a gem) is not working. I'm not getting any errors in the developer console, so it's hard to pin point. Here's the relevant code: The index view, where I've followed the plugin's instructions: div id="column-group"> <div class="equalize span5 offset1 UserProfile"> <% if user_signed_in? %> <h3>Hello <%= current_user.name %>!</h3> </div> <div class="equalize span5 MemberDisplay"> My application.js file, where I've also included the specific js code, so it would definitely be picked up by the application: //= require jquery //= require jquery_ujs //= require bootstrap //= require equalize_column_heights //= require_tree . $(document).ready(function() { $("#column-group").equalize_column_heights("equalize"); }); The jQuery plugin code, which is saved in my vendor/assets/javascripts folder: (function ($) { $.fn.equalize_column_heights = function (equalize_class) { var tallest_column=0; parent_id = "column-group" + $(this).attr("id") + " ." + equalize_class; $(parent_id).each(function(index, value) { if (tallest_column < $(this).height()){ tallest_column = $(this).height(); } }); $(parent_id).each(function(index, value) { $(this).css({'min-height': tallest_column}); }); } }(jQuery)); I've read all the rails guides documentation on the asset pipeline and all the relevant jQuery-rails3 questions on SO, but after several hours, I just can't seem to figure this one out. If anyone can point to other tutorials on how to get non-gem jQuery plugins to work in a Rails 3.2 app then I'd be glad to take a look!

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  • jquery getscript <script> tags

    - by user1871612
    To ask about getscript html Code as follows: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "- / / W3C / / DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional / / EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head> <title>jQuery GetScript</title> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.8.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type = "text / javascript "> $(document). ready(function () { $getScript ('script.js', function (jd) { $.each (test, function (index, value) { console.log (value); }); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="dest"> </div> </body> </html> js (1) code are as follows: - <script type='text/javascript'> var test = []; test [0] = ['111 ', '222']; </ script> js (2) Code as follows: - var test = []; test [0] = ['111 ', '222']; The problem is as follows: - Run js (1) code will appear: - Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token < No problem running js (2) Would like to ask how we can run js (1) can not go wrong Thank! Badly written, please forgive me.

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  • How do I cast from int to generic type Integer?

    - by Rob Kent
    I'm relatively new to Java and am used to generics in C# so have struggled a bit with this code. Basically I want a generic method for getting a stored Android preference by key and this code, albeit ugly, works for a Boolean but not an Integer, when it blows up with a ClassCastException. Can anyone tell me why this is wrong and maybe help me improve the whole routine (using wildcards?)? public static <T> T getPreference(Class<T> argType, String prefKey, T defaultValue, SharedPreferences sharedPreferences) { ... try { if (argType == Boolean.class) { Boolean def = (Boolean) defaultValue; return argType.cast(sharedPreferences.getBoolean(prefKey, def)); } else if (argType == Integer.class) { Integer def = (Integer) defaultValue; return argType.cast(sharedPreferences.getInt(prefKey, def)); } else { AppGlobal.logWarning("getPreference: Unknown type '%s' for preference '%s'. Returning default value.", argType.getName(), prefKey); return defaultValue; } } catch (ClassCastException e) { AppGlobal.logError("Cast exception when reading pref %s. Using default value.", prefKey); return defaultValue; } } I've tried various ways - using the native int, casting to an Integer, but nothing works.

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  • Same random numbers from instantiated class

    - by user1797202
    I'm learning C# and created a class within my program that holds a random number generator: class RandomNumberGenerator { Random RNG = new Random(); // A bunch of methods that use random numbers are in here } Inside this class are a few methods that use the RNG. Data gets sent here from other parts of the program, gets processed, then gets returned. One of the methods does the following: // Method works something like this int Value1 = RNG.Next(x, y); int Value2 = RNG.Next(x, y); int Value3 = RNG.Next(x, y); The x, y values are to be sent here from another class. So, I have to create an instance of the RandomNumberGenerator within that class so I can call its methods and pass the x and y values to it. class DoStuff { RandomNumberGenerator Randomizer = new RandomNumberGenerator // Here I call a bunch of Randomizer methods that give me values I need } The problem in the above method is that I get the same numbers every time for all three values. I'm not sure if it's because they're so close together and Randomizer's seed value hasn't had time to change or if I'm doing something wrong when I create a new instance of the RandomNumberGenerator class. I've gone through a bunch of answers on here already and typically problems like this are due to people creating many new Random objects when they run methods (thus setting the seed for all of them to the same value), but the only new Random object I create is within the RandomNumberGenerator class. I then instantiate that once within the other class so I can pass it data and use its methods. Why is this happening and how would I fix this?

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  • jquery select one class from many

    - by simnom
    Hi, I'm trying to achieve the following functionality. Within a form I have multiple fields with the class name .inputField if one of these fields is selected then the div associated with that element should be shown on focus and hidden on blur. However, when I implement the code below on selecting the second element the class is applied to both. Not sure where I'm going wrong?!?!? html markup: <form class="friendlyForm" name="friendlyForm" id="friendlyForm"> <ul> <li> <label for="testField">Test field</label> <input name="testField" value="here" class="inputField" id="testField" /> <div class="helper" style="display: none;">helper text here</div> </li> <li> <label for="testField">Test field2</label> <input name="testField2" value="here" class="inputField" id="testField2" /> <div class="helper" style="display: none;">helper text here</div> </li> </ul> </form> jQuery markup: $('.friendlyForm').find('.inputField').each(function(i) { $(this).blur(); $(this).focus(function() { //Add the focus class and fadeIn the helper div $(this).parent().addClass('focus'); $(this).parent().parent().find('.helper').fadeIn(); }); $(this).blur(function () { //Remove the focus class and fadeOut helper div $(this).parent().removeClass('focus'); $(this).parent().parent().find('.helper').fadeOut(); }); }); Any pointers here would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • Runtime Error 1004 using Select with several workbooks

    - by Johaen
    I have an Excel workbook which pulls out data from two other workbooks. Since the data changes hourly there is the possibility that this macro is used more than one time a day for the same data. So I just want to select all previous data to this date period and want to delete them. Later on the data will be copied in anyway. But as soon as I want to use WBSH.Range(Cells(j, "A"), Cells(lastRow - 1, "M")).Select the code stopes with Error 1004 Application-defined or object-defined error. Followed just a snippet of the code with the relevant part. What is wrong here? 'Set source workbook Dim currentWb As Workbook Set currentWb = ThisWorkbook Set WBSH = currentWb.Sheets("Tracking") 'Query which data from the tracking files shoud get pulled out to the file CheckDate = Application.InputBox(("From which date you want to get data?" & vbCrLf & "Format: yyyy/mm/dd "), "Tracking data", Format(Date - 1, "yyyy/mm/dd")) 'states the last entry which is done ; know where to start ; currentWb File With currentWb.Sheets("Tracking") lastRow = .Range("D" & .Rows.Count).End(xlUp).Row lastRow = lastRow + 1 End With 'just last 250 entries get checked since not so many entries are made in one week j = lastRow - 250 'Check if there is already data to the look up date in the analyses sheet and if so deletes these records Do j = j + 1 'Exit Sub if there is no data to compare to prevent overflow If WBSH.Cells(j + 1, "C").Value = "" Then Exit Do End If Loop While WBSH.Cells(j, "C").Value < CheckDate If j <> lastRow - 1 Then 'WBSH.Range(Cells(j, "A"), Cells(lastRow - 1, "M")).Select 'Selection.ClearContents End If Thank you!

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  • Make form redirect users after posting

    - by Liso22
    I need to change a form so that instead of reloading the page after submitting it, it redirects the user to another page, this is the form: <form class="questionform" name="questionform-0" id="questionform-0"> <textarea class="question-box" cols="12" rows="5" id="question-box-' . $questionformid . '" name="title" type="text" maxlength="200" size="28"></textarea> <input type="text" class="ubicacion" value="" name="question"> <input type="button" name="ask" value="Publicar" onclick="askquestion('questionform-0'); window.location.reload(true);"> I want to remove the window.location.reload and change it for a redirect that sends users to the page their comment will appear. Which is: www.chusmix.com/s?= (the content of the second field) The problem is that the content of the second field is part of the url I want to redirect, it's not simply always the same URL. So I have no idea how to do it. How do I do it? Anyway thanks for any info or whatever that points me on the right direction. Thanks

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  • Does Spring MVC form submit data bind children objects automagically?

    - by predhme
    I have a data model that is something like this: public class Report { // report owner private User user; ... typical getter setter ... } public class User { ... omitted for clarity } What happens is when a report is created, the current user is set to the report user object. When the report is edited, the spring controller handling the POST request is receiving a report where the user object is null. Here is what my controller looks like: @Controller @RequestMapping("/report") public class ReportController { @RequestMapping(value = "/edit/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String editReport(@PathVariable Long id, Model model) { Report r = backend.getReport(id); // fully loads object model.addAttribute("report", report); return "report/edit"; } @RequestMapping(value = "/edit/{id}", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String process(@ModelAttribute("report") Report r) { backend.save(r); return "redirect:/report/show" + r.getId(); } } I ran things throw the debugger and it looks like in the editReport method the model object is storing the fully loaded report object (I can see the user inside the report). On the form jsp I can do the following: ${report.user.username} and the correct result is rendered. However, when I look at the debugger in the process method, the passed in Report r has a null user. I don't need to do any special data binding to ensure that information is retained do I?

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  • Passing an arbritrary JavaScript object in Xul

    - by Tom Brito
    I'm following this example to pass an object to a window, but when it as an argument it's with "undefined" value. This is my first window (obs. dump is the way to print to console when debug options are turned on): <?xml version="1.0"?> <?xml-stylesheet href="chrome://global/skin/" type="text/css"?> <!DOCTYPE window SYSTEM "chrome://XulWindowArgTest/locale/XulWindowArgTest.dtd"> <window id="windowID" width="400" height="300" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <script> <![CDATA[ function onClickMe(event) { dump("begin\n"); try { var args = { param1: true, param2: 42 }; args.wrappedJSObject = args; var watcher = Components.classes["@mozilla.org/embedcomp/window-watcher;1"].getService(Components.interfaces.nsIWindowWatcher); watcher.openWindow(null, "chrome://XulWindowArgTest/content/about.xul", "windowName", "chrome", args); } catch (e) { dump("error: " + e + "\n"); } dump("end\n"); } ]]> </script> <button label="Click me !" oncommand="onClickMe();" /> </window> and my second window: <?xml version="1.0"?> <?xml-stylesheet href="chrome://global/skin/" type="text/css"?> <!DOCTYPE window SYSTEM "chrome://XulWindowArgTest/locale/XulWindowArgTest.dtd"> <window xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul" onload="onload()"> <script> <![CDATA[ function onload() { dump('arg = ' + window.arguments[0].wrappedJSObject + "\n"); } ]]> </script> <label value="test" /> </window> when the second window loads, it calls the onload and prints: arg = undefined Any idea how to fix it?

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