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  • What are the reasons why the CPU usage doesn’t go 100% with C# and APM?

    - by Martin
    I have an application which is CPU intensive. When the data is processed on a single thread, the CPU usage goes to 100% for many minutes. So the performance of the application appears to be bound by the CPU. I have multithreaded the logic of the application, which result in an increase of the overall performance. However, the CPU usage hardly goes above 30%-50%. I would expect the CPU (and the many cores) to go to 100% since I process many set of data at the same time. Below is a simplified example of the logic I use to start the threads. When I run this example, the CPU goes to 100% (on an 8/16 cores machine). However, my application which uses the same pattern doesn’t. public class DataExecutionContext { public int Counter { get; set; } // Arrays of data } static void Main(string[] args) { // Load data from the database into the context var contexts = new List<DataExecutionContext>(100); for (int i = 0; i < 100; i++) { contexts.Add(new DataExecutionContext()); } // Data loaded. Start to process. var latch = new CountdownEvent(contexts.Count); var processData = new Action<DataExecutionContext>(c => { // The thread doesn't access data from a DB, file, // network, etc. It reads and write data in RAM only // (in its context). for (int i = 0; i < 100000000; i++) c.Counter++; }); foreach (var context in contexts) { processData.BeginInvoke(context, new AsyncCallback(ar => { latch.Signal(); }), null); } latch.Wait(); } I have reduced the number of locks to the strict minimum (only the latch is locking). The best way I found was to create a context in which a thread can read/write in memory. Contexts are not shared among other threads. The threads can’t access the database, files or network. In other words, I profiled my application and I didn’t find any bottleneck. Why the CPU usage of my application doesn’t go about 50%? Is it the pattern I use? Should I create my own thread instead of using the .Net thread pool? Is there any gotchas? Is there any tool that you could recommend me to find my issue? Thanks!

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  • Memory leak on CollectionView.View.Refresh

    - by Dabblernl
    I have defined my binding thus: <TreeView ItemsSource="{Binding UsersView.View}" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource MyDataTemplate}" /> The CollectionViewSource is defined thus: private ObservableCollection<UserData> users; public CollectionViewSource UsersView{get;set;} UsersView=new CollectionViewSource{Source=users}; UsersView.SortDescriptions.Add( new SortDescription("IsLoggedOn",ListSortDirection.Descending); UsersView.SortDescriptions.Add( new SortDescription("Username",ListSortDirection.Ascending); So far, so good, this works as expected: The view shows first the users that are logged on in alphabetical order, then the ones that are not. However, the IsLoggedIn property of the UserData is updated every few seconds by a backgroundworker thread and then the code calls: UsersView.View.Refresh(); on the UI thread. Again this works as expected: users that log on are moved from the bottom of the view to the top and vice versa. However: Every time I call the Refresh method on the view the application hoards 3,5MB of extra memory, which is only released after application shutdown (or after an OutOfMemoryException...) I did some research and below is a list of fixes that did NOT work: The UserData class implements INotifyPropertyChanged Changing the underlying users collection does not make any difference at all: any IENumerable<UserData as a source for the CollectionViewSource causes the problem. -Changing the ColletionViewSource to a List<UserData (and refreshing the binding) or inheriting from ObservableCollection to get access to the underlying Items collection to sort that in place does not work. I am out of ideas! Help? EDIT: I found it: The Resource MyDataTemplate contains a Label that is bound to a UserData object to show one of its properties, the UserData objects being handed down by the TreeView's ItemsSource. The Label has a ContextMenu defined thus: <ContextMenu Background="Transparent" Width="325" Opacity=".8" HasDropShadow="True"> <PrivateMessengerUI:MyUserData IsReadOnly="True" > <PrivateMessengerUI:MyUserData.DataContext> <Binding Path="."/> </PrivateMessengerUI:MyUserData.DataContext> </PrivateMessengerUI:MyUserData> </ContextMenu> The MyUserData object is a UserControl that shows All properties of the UserData object. In this way the user first only sees one piece of data of a user and on a right click sees all of it. When I remove the MyUserData UserControl from the DataTemplate the memory leak disappears! How can I still implement the behaviour as specified above?

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  • Failed to load viewstate

    - by Jen
    OK have just started getting this error and I'm not sure why. I have a hosting page which has listview and a panel with a usercontrol. The listview loads up records with a linkbutton. You click the link button to edit that particular record - which gets loaded up in the formview (within the usercontrol) which goes to edit mode. After an update occurs in the formview I'm triggering an event which my hosting page is listening for. The hosting page then rebinds the listview to show the updated data. So this all works - but when I then go to click on a different linkbutton I get the below error: Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; WOW64; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.3) Timestamp: Fri, 18 Jun 2010 03:15:54 UTC Message: Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManagerServerErrorException: Failed to load viewstate. The control tree into which viewstate is being loaded must match the control tree that was used to save viewstate during the previous request. For example, when adding controls dynamically, the controls added during a post-back must match the type and position of the controls added during the initial request. Line: 4723 Char: 21 Code: 0 URI: http://localhost:1951/AdminWebSite/ScriptResource.axd?d=yfdLw4zYs0bqYqs1arL-htap1ceeKCyW1EXhrhMZy_AqJ36FUpx8b2pzMKL6V7ebYsgJDVm_sZ_ykV1hNtFqgYcJCLLtardHm9-yyA7zC4k1&t=ffffffffec2d9970 Any suggestions as to what is actually wrong?? My event listener does this: protected void RatesEditDate1_EditDateRateUpdated() { if (IsDateRangeValid(txtDisplayFrom, txtDisplayTo)) { PropertyAccommodationRates1.DataBind(); } else { pnlViewAccommodationRates.Visible = false; } divEditRate.Visible = false; } When I click my link button - it should be hitting this but the second time round it errors before hitting the breakpoint: protected void RatesEditDate1_EditDateRateSelected(DateTime theDateTime) { // make sure everything else is invisible pnlAddAccommodation.Visible = false; pnlViewEditAccommodations.Visible = false; RatesEditDate1.TheDateTime = theDateTime; RatesEditDate1.PropertyID = (int)Master.PropertyId; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(Accommodations1.SelectedValue)) { RatesEditDate1.AccommodationTypeID = Convert.ToInt32(Accommodations1.SelectedValue); } else { RatesEditDate1.AccommodationTypeID = 0; } divEditRate.Visible = true; } So my listview appears to be being rebound successfully - I can see my changed data.. I just don't know why its complaining about viewstate when I click on the linkbutton. Or is there a better way to update the data in my listview? My listview and formview are bound to objectdata sources (in case that matters) Thanks for the help!

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  • Android -- autoLink

    - by Ryan
    Is there any way to Linkify a specific TextView that is contained within a ListView? I tried using android:autoLink="all" but that didn't work. I was getting an out of context error. Important also to note: the ListView is my second view in the ViewFlipper. I have also tried: View mItemView = mAdapter.getView(2, null, null); TextView infoText = (TextView) mItemView.findViewById(R.id.rowText2); Linkify.addLinks(infoText, Linkify.ALL); Right after the adapter was bound to the ListView and the View was switched. No luck. Here is the stack trace: 06-03 21:19:25.180: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): Uncaught handler: thread main exiting due to uncaught exception 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): android.util.AndroidRuntimeException: Calling startActivity() from outside of an Activity context requires the FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK flag. Is this really what you want? 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.app.ApplicationContext.startActivity(ApplicationContext.java:550) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.content.ContextWrapper.startActivity(ContextWrapper.java:248) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.text.style.URLSpan.onClick(URLSpan.java:62) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.text.method.LinkMovementMethod.onTouchEvent(LinkMovementMethod.java:216) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.widget.TextView.onTouchEvent(TextView.java:6560) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.view.View.dispatchTouchEvent(View.java:3709) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:884) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:884) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:884) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:884) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:884) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:884) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:884) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow$DecorView.superDispatchTouchEvent(PhoneWindow.java:1659) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow.superDispatchTouchEvent(PhoneWindow.java:1107) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.app.Activity.dispatchTouchEvent(Activity.java:2061) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow$DecorView.dispatchTouchEvent(PhoneWindow.java:1643) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.view.ViewRoot.handleMessage(ViewRoot.java:1691) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4363) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:860) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:618) 06-03 21:19:25.219: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1214): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) Any Ideas? Thanks in advance!!!

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  • Java RMI (Server: TCP Connection Idle/Client: Unmarshalexception (EOFException))

    - by Perry Dahl Christensen
    I'm trying to implement Sun Tutorials RMI application that calculates Pi. I'm having some serious problems and I cant find the solution eventhough I've been searching the entire web and several javaskilled people. I'm hoping you can put an end to my frustrations. The crazy thing is that I can run the application from the cmd on my desktop computer. Trying the exact same thing with the exact same code in the exact same directories on my laptop produces the following errors. The problem occures when I try to connect the client to the server. I don't believe that the error is due to my policyfile as I can run it on the desktop. It must be elsewhere. Have anyone tried the same and can you give me a hint as to where my problem is, please? POLICYFILE SERVER: grant { permission java.security.AllPermissions; permission java.net.SocketPermission"*", "connect, resolve"; }; POLICYFILE CLIENT: grant { permission java.security.AllPermissions; permission java.net.SocketPermission"*", "connect, resolve"; }; SERVERSIDE ERRORS: Microsoft Windows XP [Version 5.1.2600] (C) Copyright 1985-2001 Microsoft Corp. C:\Documents and Settings\STUDENTcd\ C:start rmiregistry C:java -cp c:\java;c:\java\compute.jar -Djava.rmi.server.codebase=file:/c:/jav a/compute.jar -Djava.rmi.server.hostname=localhost -Djava.security.policy=c:/jav a/servertest.policy engine.ComputeEngine ComputeEngine bound Exception in thread "RMI TCP Connection(idle)" java.security.AccessControlExcept ion: access denied (java.net.SocketPermission 127.0.0.1:1440 accept,resolve) at java.security.AccessControlContext.checkPermission(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.checkPermission(Unknown Source) at java.lang.SecurityManager.checkPermission(Unknown Source) at java.lang.SecurityManager.checkAccept(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport$ConnectionHandler.checkAcceptPermi ssion(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport.checkAcceptPermission(Unknown Sour ce) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport.serviceCall(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport.handleMessages(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport$ConnectionHandler.run0(Unknown Sou rce) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport$ConnectionHandler.run(Unknown Sour ce) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.runTask(Unknown Source ) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) CLIENTSIDE ERRORS: Microsoft Windows XP [Version 5.1.2600] (C) Copyright 1985-2001 Microsoft Corp. C:\Documents and Settings\STUDENTcd\ C:java -cp c:\java;c:\java\compute.jar -Djava.rmi.server.codebase=file:\C:\jav a\files\ -Djava.security.policy=c:/java/clienttest.policy client.ComputePi local host 45 ComputePi exception: java.rmi.UnmarshalException: Error unmarshaling return header; nested exception is: java.io.EOFException at sun.rmi.transport.StreamRemoteCall.executeCall(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.server.UnicastRef.invoke(Unknown Source) at java.rmi.server.RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.invokeRemoteMethod(Unkn own Source) at java.rmi.server.RemoteObjectInvocationHandler.invoke(Unknown Source) at $Proxy0.executeTask(Unknown Source) at client.ComputePi.main(ComputePi.java:18) Caused by: java.io.EOFException at java.io.DataInputStream.readByte(Unknown Source) ... 6 more C: Thanks in advance Perry

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  • How can I pass a reference to another control as an IValueConverter parameter?

    - by MKing
    I am binding some business objects to a WPF ItemsControl. They are displayed using a custom IValueConverter implementation used to produce the Geometry for a Path object in the DataTemplate as shown here: <ItemsControl x:Name="Display" Background="White" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" ItemsSource="{Binding ElementName=ViewPlaneSelector, Path=SelectedItem.VisibleElements}" > <ItemsControl.Resources> <!-- This object is just used to get around the fact that ConverterParameter can't be a binding directly (it's not a DependencyProperty on a DependencyObject --> <this:GeometryConverterData x:Key="ConverterParameter2" Plane="{Binding ElementName=ViewPlaneSelector, Path=SelectedItem}" /> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type o:SlenderMember}"> <Path Stroke="Blue" StrokeThickness=".5" Data='{Binding Converter={StaticResource SlenderMemberConverter}, ConverterParameter={StaticResource ConverterParameter2}}' ToolTip="{Binding AsString}"> </Path> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.Resources> </ItemsControl> Note that the items for the ItemsControl are drawn from the ViewPlaneSelector (a ComboBox) SelectedItem.VisibleElements property. I need that same ViewPlaneSelector.SelectedItem in the SlenderMemberConverter to figure out how to display this element. I'm trying to get a reference to it into the converter by creating the intermediate GeometryConverterData object in the Resources section. This object exists solely to get around the problem of not being able to bind directly to the ConverterParameter property (as mentioned in the comments). Here is the code for the GeometryDataConverter class: class GeometryConverterData : FrameworkElement { public static readonly DependencyProperty PlaneProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Plane", typeof(ViewPlane), typeof(GeometryConverterData), null, ValidValue); public static bool ValidValue(object o){ return true; } public ViewPlane Plane { get{ return GetValue(PlaneProperty) as ViewPlane; }set{ SetValue(PlaneProperty, value); } } } I added the ValidValue function for debugging, to see what this property was getting bound it. It only and always gets set to null. I know that the ViewPlaneSelector.SelectedItem isn't always null since the ItemsControl has items, and it's items are drawn from the same property on the same object... so what gives? How can I get a reference to this ComboBox into my ValueConverter. Or, alternately, why is what I'm doing silly and overly complicated. I'm as guilty as many of sometimes getting it into my head that something has to be done a certain way and then killing myself to make it happen when there's a much cleaner and simpler solution.

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  • UITableView having one Cell with multiple UITextFields (some of them in one row) scrolling crazy

    - by Allisone
    I have a UITableView (grouped). In that tableview I have several UITableViewCells, some custom with nib, some default. One Cell (custom) with nib has several UITextfields for address information, thus also one row has zip-code and city in one row. When I get the keyboard the tableview size seems to be adjusted automatically (vs. another viewController in the app with just a scrollview where I had to code this functionality on my own) so that i can scroll to the bottom of my tableview (and see it) even though the keyboard is up. That's good. BUT when I click on a textfield the tableview gets either scrolled up, or down, I can't figure out the logic. It seems to be rather random up/down scrolling / contentOffset setting. So I have bound the Editing Did Begin events of the textfields to a function that has this code. - (IBAction)textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField *)textField { CGPoint pt; CGRect rc = [textField bounds]; rc = [textField convertRect:rc toView:self.tableView]; pt = rc.origin; pt.x = 0; [self.tableView setContentOffset:pt animated:YES]; ... } This, well, it seems to work most of the time, BUT it doesn't work if I click the first textfield (the view jumps so that the second row gets to the top and the first row is out of the current visible view frame) AND it also doesn't work if I first select the zip textfield and next the city textfield (both in one row) or vice versa. If I do so, the tableview seems to jump to the (grouped tableview) top of my viewForHeaderInSection(this section with this mentioned cell with all my textfields) What is is going on ? Why is this happening ? How to fix this ? Edit This on the other hand behaves as expected (for the two Textviews wit same origin.y) if (self.tableView.contentOffset.y == pt.y) { pt.y = pt.y + 1; [self.tableView setContentOffset:pt animated:YES]; }else { [self.tableView setContentOffset:pt animated:YES]; } But this is a stupid solution. I wouldn't like to keep it that way. And this also doesn't fix the wrong jumping, when clicking the first textfield at first.

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  • Event taps: Varying results with CGEventPost, kCGSessionEventTap, kCGAnnotatedSessionEventTap, CGEve

    - by kevingessner
    I'm running into a thorny problem with posting an event from an event tap. I'm tapping for NSSystemDefined at kCGHIDEventTap, then replacing the event with a new one. The problem I'm running in to is that depending on how I post the event, it's being seen only by some applications. My test applications are Opera, Firefox, Quicksilver, and Xcode. Here are the different techniques I've tried within my event tap callback, with results. I'm expecting an action (the "correct response") from each app; "system beep" means the nothing-is-bound-to-that-key system sound. Create a new event, and return it from the callback. Opera: no response/system beep, Firefox: no response/system beep, Quicksilver: correct response, Xcode: no response/system beep Create a new event, post to kCGSessionEventTap with CGEventPost, return null. Opera: no response/system beep, Firefox: no response/system beep, Quicksilver: correct response, Xcode: no response/system beep Create a new event, post to kCGAnnotatedSessionEventTap with CGEventPost, return null. Opera: correct response, Firefox: correct response, Quicksilver: no response/system beep, Xcode: no response/system beep Create a new event, post with CGEventTapPostEvent, return null. Opera: no response/system beep, Firefox: no response/system beep, Quicksilver: correct response, Xcode: no response/system beep Create a new event, post to kCGSessionEventTap with CGEventPost, and return new event. Opera: no response/system beep, Firefox: no response/system beep, Quicksilver: correct response, Xcode: no response/system beep Create a new event, post to kCGAnnotatedSessionEventTap with CGEventPost, and return new event. Opera: correct response and system beep, Firefox: correct response and system beep, Quicksilver: correct response and system beep, Xcode: no response/double system beep Create a new event, post with CGEventTapPostEvent, and return new event. Opera: no response/system beep, Firefox: no response/system beep, Quicksilver: correct response, Xcode: no response/system beep (6) is the best, but users are complaining about the extra system beep on correct responses, which I'm guessing is coming from the double-posting of the event. I'm not sure of other combinations to try, or where else to look. Can anyone offer any guidance? Is there any way to get the results of both returning the event from my callback and posting to the annotated tap without doing both? Sorry for the lengthy question; I've been doing a lot of experimenting. Thanks in advance Update: this is the code I use to create the event tap: CFMachPortRef eventTap; eventTap = CGEventTapCreate(kCGHIDEventTap, kCGHeadInsertEventTap, 0,CGEventMaskBit(NX_SYSDEFINED) | (1 << kCGEventKeyDown) | (1 << kCGEventKeyUp), myCGEventCallback, (void *)hidEventQueue);

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  • jquery and requirejs and knockout; reference requirejs object from within itself

    - by Thomas
    We use jquery and requirejs to create a 'viewmodel' like this: define('vm.inkoopfactuurAanleveren', ['jquery', 'underscore', 'ko', 'datacontext', 'router', 'messenger', 'config', 'store'], function ($, _, ko, datacontext, router, messenger, config, store) { var isBusy = false, isRefreshing = false, inkoopFactuur = { factuurNummer: ko.observable("AAA") }, activate = function (routeData, callback) { messenger.publish.viewModelActivated({ canleaveCallback: canLeave }); getNewInkoopFactuurAanleveren(callback); var restricteduploader = new qq.FineUploader({ element: $('#restricted-fine-uploader')[0], request: { endpoint: 'api/InkoopFactuurAanleveren', forceMultipart: true }, multiple: false, failedUploadTextDisplay: { mode: 'custom', maxChars: 250, responseProperty: 'error', enableTooltip: true }, text: { uploadButton: 'Click or Drop' }, showMessage: function (message) { $('#restricted-fine-uploader').append('<div class="alert alert-error">' + message + '</div>'); }, debug: true, callbacks: { onComplete: function (id, fileName, responseJSON) { var response = responseJSON; }, } }); }, invokeFunctionIfExists = function (callback) { if (_.isFunction(callback)) { callback(); } }, loaded = function (factuur) { inkoopFactuur = factuur; var ids = config.viewIds; ko.applyBindings(this, getView(ids.inkoopfactuurAanleveren)); /*<----- THIS = OUT OF SCOPE!*/ / }, bind = function () { }, saved = function (success) { var s = success; }, saveCmd = ko.asyncCommand({ execute: function (complete) { $.when(datacontext.saveNewInkoopFactuurAanleveren(inkoopFactuur)) .then(saved).always(complete); return; }, canExecute: function (isExecuting) { return true; } }), getView = function (viewName) { return $(viewName).get(0); }, getNewInkoopFactuurAanleveren = function (callback) { if (!isRefreshing) { isRefreshing = true; $.when(datacontext.getNewInkoopFactuurAanleveren(dataOptions(true))).then(loaded).always(invokeFunctionIfExists(callback)); isRefreshing = false; } }, dataOptions = function (force) { return { results: inkoopFactuur, // filter: sessionFilter, //sortFunction: sort.sessionSort, forceRefresh: force }; }, canLeave = function () { return true; }, forceRefreshCmd = ko.asyncCommand({ execute: function (complete) { //$.when(datacontext.sessions.getSessionsAndAttendance(dataOptions(true))) // .always(complete); complete; } }), init = function () { // activate(); // Bind jQuery delegated events //eventDelegates.sessionsListItem(gotoDetails); //eventDelegates.sessionsFavorite(saveFavorite); // Subscribe to specific changes of observables //addFilterSubscriptions(); }; init(); return { activate: activate, canLeave: canLeave, inkoopFactuur: inkoopFactuur, saveCmd: saveCmd, forceRefreshCmd: forceRefreshCmd, bind: bind, invokeFunctionIfExists: invokeFunctionIfExists }; }); On the line ko.applyBindings(this, getView(ids.inkoopfactuurAanleveren)); in the 'loaded' method the 'this' keyword doens't refer to the 'viewmodel' object. the 'self' keyword seems to refer to a combination on methods found over multiple 'viewmodels'. The saveCmd property is bound through knockout, but gives an error since it cannot be found. How can the ko.applyBindings get the right reference to the viewmodel? In other words, with what do we need to replace the 'this' keyword int he applyBindings. I would imagine you can 'ask' requirejs to give us the ealiers instantiated object with identifier 'vm.inkoopfactuurAanleveren' but I cannot figure out how.

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  • DevExpress Reporting Session Issue

    - by LeeHull
    This is pretty complicated so I will explain what is going on. I have created an ASP.NET website for displaying images, the way we use our images is, we have a database table that contains the URL where the images are located, however we recently started moving them from the filesystem, and storing them directly into the database as binary, but since we don't want to break older applications, we currently store them both places till they are all updated. Alright, the website I'm working on, is just a reporting website to display images by a date range, I have created an HTTPHandler to display the image, depending if they exist in the database as binary, if the row is DBNull, I just grab the URL from the other table instead, I just read the image, convert it into a byte[] and write it to the response, so it is interpreted as an image. I have created a page to display the report using DevExpress Reporting, I just query the report, save the dataset into a session, and the report reads the session to bind the report, i also have a picturebox in the report bound to "Handler.ashx?id=ImageID", this is because I am not binding a URL to the image, since it is a byte[] Also since there could be a report with 10000+ images, I am reading the dataset from the session inside the handler and just pulling out the image from the passed in ImageID, I am doing this to prevent connecting to the database each and every row. Now the strange thing is, Report loads fine.. data is loading, I have paging on the devexpress report viewer, it is loading the images fine, however here is the issue. When I print or export, I am not getting any images, I am debugged and found out the Session.Count is 0 when it tries to print or export, which is strange since there is more than just the dataset in the session. I have also added IRequiresSessionState to allow sessions in the handler, but the session count is still 0, I have changing the Handler to an aspx page, same issue. Any ideas or suggestions on logic changes, I'm all ears.. this is a very difficult situation since I have to display the images from database as a string AND byte[] since one can be URL and other be the image bytes, but I also can't slam the database on connection calls each row either. I have also reported the issue to DevExpress and they are clueless as well, since they don't dispose the session in the exporting process.

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  • Prism Commands - binding error when binding to list element ?

    - by Maciek
    I've got a ItemsControl (to be replaced by listbox) which has it's ItemsSource bound to an ObservableCollection<User> which is located in the view model. The View Model contains some DelegateCommand<T> delegates for handling commands (for instance UpdateUserCommand and RemoveUserCommand). All works fine if the buttons linked to those commands are placed outside of the DataTemplate of the control which is presenting the items. <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Users, Mode=TwoWay}" HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="0.2*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="0.2*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="0.2*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="0.2*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="0.2*"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" Text="{Binding UserName}"/> <PasswordBox Grid.Column="1" Password="{Binding UserPass}"/> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Text="{Binding UserTypeId}"/> <Button Grid.Column="3" Content="Update" cal:Click.Command="{Binding UpdateUserCommand}" cal:Click.CommandParameter="{Binding}"/> <Button Grid.Column="4" Content="Remove" cal:Click.Command="{Binding RemoveUserCommand}" cal:Click.CommandParameter="{Binding}"/> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> What I'm trying to achieve, is : Have each row - generated by the ListView/ItemsControl - contain buttons to manage the item represented that particular row. During the runtime, the VS's output panel generated the following messages for each listbox element System.Windows.Data Error: BindingExpression path error: 'UpdateUserCommand' property not found on 'ModuleAdmin.Services.User' 'ModuleAdmin.Services.User' (HashCode=35912612). BindingExpression: Path='UpdateUserCommand' DataItem='ModuleAdmin.Services.User' (HashCode=35912612); target element is 'System.Windows.Controls.Button' (Name=''); target property is 'Command' (type 'System.Windows.Input.ICommand').. System.Windows.Data Error: BindingExpression path error: 'RemoveUserCommand' property not found on 'ModuleAdmin.Services.User' 'ModuleAdmin.Services.User' (HashCode=35912612). BindingExpression: Path='RemoveUserCommand' DataItem='ModuleAdmin.Services.User' (HashCode=35912612); target element is 'System.Windows.Controls.Button' (Name=''); target property is 'Command' (type 'System.Windows.Input.ICommand').. Which would imply that there are binding errors present. Is there any way to make this right? or is this not the way?

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  • ASP MVC 2: Error with dropdownlist on POST

    - by wh0emPah
    Okay i'm new to asp mvc2 and i'm experiencing some problems with the htmlhelper called Html.dropdownlistfor(); I want to present the user a list of days in the week. And i want the selected item to be bound to my model. I have created this little class to generate a list of days + a short notation which i will use to store it in the database. public static class days { public static List<Day> getDayList() { List<Day> daylist = new List<Day>(); daylist.Add(new Day("Monday", "MO")); daylist.Add(new Day("Tuesday", "TU")); // I left the other days out return daylist; } public class Dag{ public string DayName{ get; set; } public string DayShortName { get; set; } public Dag(string name, string shortname) { this.DayName= name; this.DayShortName = shortname; } } } I really have now idea if this is the correct way to do it Then i putted this in my controller: SelectList _list = new SelectList(Days.getDayList(), "DayShortName", "DayName"); ViewData["days"] = _list; return View(""); I have this line in my model public string ChosenDay { get; set; } And this in my view to display the list: <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.ChosenDay, ViewData["days"] as SelectList, "--choose Day--")%> </div> Now this all works perfect. On the first visit, But then when i'm doing a [HttpPost] Which looks like the following: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Registreer(EventRegistreerViewModel model) { // I removed some unrelated code here // The code below executes when modelstate.isvalid == false SelectList _list = new SelectList(Days.getDayList(), "DayShortName", "DayName"); ViewData["days"] = _list; return View(model); } Then i will have the following exception thrown: The ViewData item that has the key 'ChosenDay' is of type 'System.String' but must be of type 'IEnumerable<SelectListItem>'. This errors gets thrown at the line in my view where i display the dropdown list. I really have no idea how to solve this and tried several solutions i found online. but none of them really worked. Ty in advance!

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  • EJB client can't find a DataSource that tests successfully in WebLogic admin console

    - by suszterpatt
    Disclaimer: I'm completely new to JEE/EJB and all that, so bear with me. I have a simple EJB that I can successfully deploy using JDeveloper 11g's integrated WebLogic server and a remote database connection (JDBC). I have a DataSource named "PGY2" defined in WebLogic, and I can test it successfully from the admin console. Here's the code of the client I'm trying to test it with (generated entirely by JDev except for the three method calls on adminManager): public class AdminManagerClient { public static void main(String [] args) { try { final Context context = getInitialContext(); AdminManager adminManager = (AdminManager)context.lookup("Uran-AdminManager#hu.elte.pgy2.BACNAAI.UranEJB.AdminManager"); adminManager.addAdmin("root", "root", "Kovács Isten"); adminManager.addStudent("BACNAAI", "matt", "B Cs", 2005); adminManager.addTeacher("SIPKABT", "patt", "S P", "numanal", "Dr."); } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } private static Context getInitialContext() throws NamingException { Hashtable env = new Hashtable(); // WebLogic Server 10.x connection details env.put( Context.INITIAL_CONTEXT_FACTORY, "weblogic.jndi.WLInitialContextFactory" ); env.put(Context.PROVIDER_URL, "t3://127.0.0.1:7101"); return new InitialContext( env ); } } But when I try to run this, I get the following error on the line with adminManager.addAdmin (that is, after the lookup): javax.ejb.EJBException: EJB Exception: ; nested exception is: Exception [EclipseLink-4002] (Eclipse Persistence Services - 1.0.2 (Build 20081024)): org.eclipse.persistence.exceptions.DatabaseException Internal Exception: java.sql.SQLException: Internal error: Cannot obtain XAConnection Creation of XAConnection for pool PGY2 failed after waitSecs:30 : java.sql.SQLException: Data Source PGY2 does not exist. Why can't the client find the data source, and how do I make it find it? EDIT: I took a closer look at WebLogic's output during deployment, and I found this. I have no idea what it means, but it may be relevant: <2010.05.20. 0:50:43 CEST> <Error> <Deployer> <BEA-149231> <Unable to set the activation state to true for the application 'PGY2'. weblogic.application.ModuleException: at weblogic.jdbc.module.JDBCModule.activate(JDBCModule.java:349) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.ModuleListenerInvoker.activate(ModuleListenerInvoker.java:107) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow$2.next(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:411) at weblogic.application.utils.StateMachineDriver.nextState(StateMachineDriver.java:37) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow.activate(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:74) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace weblogic.common.ResourceException: is already bound at weblogic.jdbc.common.internal.RmiDataSource.start(RmiDataSource.java:387) at weblogic.jdbc.common.internal.DataSourceManager.createAndStartDataSource(DataSourceManager.java:136) at weblogic.jdbc.common.internal.DataSourceManager.createAndStartDataSource(DataSourceManager.java:97) at weblogic.jdbc.module.JDBCModule.activate(JDBCModule.java:346) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.ModuleListenerInvoker.activate(ModuleListenerInvoker.java:107) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace >

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  • How can I troubleshoot an APPCRASH in Internet Explorer?

    - by Schnapple
    I'm writing an ActiveX control using the firebreath framework (hi taxilian!) and while it technically works, I'm running into a weird issue that appears to be unique to me. I've followed the instructions to create a simple plugin and then I ran it in Internet Explorer 8 on Windows 7 x64 (firebreath sets up a test page for the control). But as soon as I try to test it (clicking on a link that fires off JavaScript to interact with the control), IE crashes. Hard. "Internet Explorer has stopped working" style. If I try the control in Firefox (the resulting registered DLL can also be called as a Firefox plugin using a MIME type), it works fine. If I try it on my XP box, it works fine. I emailed the DLL and the testing page to a coworker in the next cube who is like me also running Windows 7 x64 and it works for him just fine as well, so it's not something unique to Windows 7 or x64. When it crashes I get this message: Problem signature: Problem Event Name: APPCRASH Application Name: iexplore.exe Application Version: 8.0.7600.16385 Application Timestamp: 4a5bc69e Fault Module Name: RPCRT4.dll Fault Module Version: 6.1.7600.16385 Fault Module Timestamp: 4a5bdb3b Exception Code: c0000005 Exception Offset: 000220b1 OS Version: 6.1.7600.2.0.0.256.1 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: 0a9e Additional Information 2: 0a9e372d3b4ad19135b953a78882e789 Additional Information 3: 0a9e Additional Information 4: 0a9e372d3b4ad19135b953a78882e789 Which tells me nothing extremely useful. I can have it attach to a debugger but it just tells me a long list of DLL's, none of which are the ActiveX control in question. It's almost like it's not even getting there. I did a sfc /scannow yesterday to see if anything on my system is corrupt and nothing came up as wrong. I tried various different security levels in IE, but nothing seems to have any effect. As this is a development machine there has been all matter of crap installed on it, so I figure it's bound to be something I've installed since October (when Win7 was released) but I cannot figure out what it is. I presume the information it's giving me when I attach to Visual Studio is useful somehow but I don't know how to interpret it. Admittedly I'm mainly a C#/.NET developer who's a bit out of his element with C/C++ and troubleshooting native code, but does anyone have any advice on how to proceed on figuring out why this very simple ActiveX control crashes IE on my machine and nowhere else?

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  • Can't override a global WPF style that is set by TargetType on a single specific control

    - by Matt H.
    I have a style applied to all my textboxes, defined in a resource dictionary.. <Style TargetType="TextBlock"> <Setter Property="TextBlock.FontSize" Value="{Binding Source={StaticResource ApplicationUserSettings}, Path=fontSize, Mode=OneWay}" /> <Setter Property="TextBlock.TextWrapping" Value="Wrap" /> <Setter Property="TextBlock.VerticalAlignment" Value="Center"/> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Transparent"/> <Setter Property="TextBox.FontFamily" Value="{Binding Source={StaticResource ApplicationUserSettings}, Path=fontName, Mode=OneWay}"/> </Style>\ The fontsize and fontstyle properties are bound to a special user settings class that implements iNotifyPropertyChanged, which allows changes to font size and fontfamily to immediately propogate throughout my application. However, in a UserControl I've created (Ironically, the screen that allows the user to customize their font settings), I want the font size and fontfamily to remain static. No matter what I try, my global font settings override what I set in my user control: <UserControl x:Class="ctlUserSettings" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:R2D2" Height="400" Width="600"> <Grid> <Grid.Resources> <Style x:Key="tbxStyle" TargetType="TextBox"> <Style.Setters> <Setter Property="FontSize" Value="14"/> <Setter Property="FontFamily" Value="Tahoma"/> </Style.Setters> </Style> ... etc... <StackPanel Margin="139,122.943,41,0" Orientation="Horizontal" Height="33" VerticalAlignment="Top"> <TextBox Style="{x:Null}" FontSize="13" FontFamily="Tahoma" HorizontalAlignment="Left" MaxWidth="500" MinWidth="350" Name="txtReaderPath" Height="Auto" VerticalAlignment="Top" /> <TextBox Style="{x:tbxStyle}" Margin="15,0,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Name="txtPath" Width="43" Height="23" VerticalAlignment="Top">(some text)</Button> </StackPanel> I've tried setting Style to {x:Null}, setting custom font sizes inline, and setting a style in the resources of this control. None take precedence over the styles in my resource dictionary. As you can see, I show a sprinkling of all the things I've tried in the XAML sample above... What am I missing?

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  • Any software for pattern-matching and -rewriting source code?

    - by Steven A. Lowe
    I have some old software (in a language that's not dead but is dead to me ;-)) that implements a basic pattern-matching and -rewriting system for source code. I am considering resurrecting this code, translating it into a modern language, and open-sourcing the project as a refactoring power-tool. Before I go much further, I want to know if anything like this exists already (my google-fu is fanning air on this tonight). Here's how it works: the pattern-matching part matches source-code patterns spanning multiple lines of code using a template with binding variables, the pattern-rewriting part uses a template to rewrite the matched code, inserting the contents of the bound variables from the matching template matching and rewriting templates are associated (1:1) by a simple (unconditional) rewrite rule the software operates on the abstract syntax tree (AST) of the input application, and outputs a modified AST which can then be regenerated into new source code for example, suppose we find a bunch of while-loops that really should be for-loops. The following template will match the while-loop pattern: Template oldLoopPtrn int @cnt@ = 0; while (@cnt@ < @max@) { … @body@ ++@cnt@; } End_Template while the following template will specify the output rewrite pattern: Template newLoopPtrn for(int @cnt@ = 0; @cnt@ < @max@; @cnt@++) { @body@ } End_Template and a simple rule to associate them Rule oldLoopPtrn --> newLoopPtrn so code that looks like this int i=0; while(i<arrlen) { printf("element %d: %f\n",i,arr[i]); ++i; } gets automatically rewritten to look like this for(int i = 0; i < arrlen; i++) { printf("element %d: %f\n",i,arr[i]); } The closest thing I've seen like this is some of the code-refactoring tools, but they seem to be geared towards interactive rewriting of selected snippets, not wholesale automated changes. I believe that this kind of tool could supercharge refactoring, and would work on multiple languages (even HTML/CSS). I also believe that converting and polishing the code base would be a huge project that I simply cannot do alone in any reasonable amount of time. So, anything like this out there already? If not, any obvious features (besides rewrite-rule conditions) to consider? EDIT: The one feature of this system that I like very much is that the template patterns are fairly obvious and easy to read because they're written in the same language as the target source code, not in some esoteric mutated regex/BNF format.

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  • Maintaining ViewModel fields with default model binding and failed validation

    - by TonE
    I have an ASP.Net MVC Controller with a 'MapColumns' action along with a corresponding ViewModel and View. I'm using the defaultModelBinder to bind a number of drop down lists to a Dictionary in the ViewModel. The view model also contains an IList field for both source and destination columns which are used to render the view. My question is what to do when validation fails on the Post call to the MapColumns action? Currently the MapColumns view is returned with the ViewModel resulting from the default binding. This contains the Dictionary values but not the two lists used to render the page. What is the best way to re-provide these to the view? I can set them explicitly after failed validation, but if obtaining these values (via GetSourceColumns() and GetDestinationColumns() in the example) carries any overhead this doesn't seem ideal. What I am looking for is a way to retain these lists when they are not bound to the model from the view. Here is some code to illustrate: public class TestViewModel { public Dictionary<string, string> ColumnMappings { get; set; } public List<string> SourceColumns; public List<string> DestinationColumns; } public class TestController : Controller { [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult MapColumns() { var model = new TestViewModel; model.SourceColumns = GetSourceColumns(); model.DestinationColumns = GetDestinationColumns(); return View(model); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult MapColumns(TestViewModel model) { if( Validate(model) ) { // Do something with model.ColumnMappings RedirectToAction("Index"); } else { // Here model.SourceColumns and model.DestinationColumns are empty return View(model); } } } The relevant section of MapColumns.aspx: <% int columnCount = 0; foreach(string column in Model.targetColumns) {%> <tr> <td> <input type="hidden" name="ColumnMappings[<%= columnCount %>].Value" value="<%=column %>" /> <%= Html.DropDownList("ColumnMappings[" + columnCount + "].Key", Model.DestinationColumns.AsSelectItemList())%> </td> </tr> <% columnCount++; }%>

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  • WPF 4 Datagrid with ComboBox

    - by Doug
    I have a WPF 4 app with a ComboBox embedded in a DataGrid. The ComboBox is in a template column that displays the combobox when in edit mode but just a TextBlock otherwise. If I edit the cell and pick a new value from the combobox, when leaving the cell, the TextBlock in view mode does not reflect the new value. Ultimately, the new value gets saved and is displayed when the window is refreshed but it does not happen while still editing in the grid. Here are the parts that are making this more complicated. The grid and the combobox are bound to different ItemsSource from the EnityFramework which is tied to my database. For this problem, the grid is displaying project members. The project member name can be picked from the combobox which gives a list of all company employees. Any ideas on how to tie the view mode of the DataGridColumnTemplate to the edit value when they are pointing to different DataSources? Relevant XAML <Window.Resources> <ObjectDataProvider x:Key="EmployeeODP" /> </Window.Resources> <StackPanel> <DataGrid Name="teamProjectGrid" AutoGenerateColumns="false" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ProjectMembers}" <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Name" x:Name="colProjectMember"> <DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=ProjectMemberFullName}" /> </DataTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataGridTemplateColumn.CellEditingTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ComboBox x:Name="ProjectMemberCombo" IsReadOnly="True" DisplayMemberPath="FullName" SelectedValue="{Binding Path=Employee}" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource EmployeeODP}}" /> </DataTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn.CellEditingTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn> <DataGridTextColumn x:Name="colProjectRole" Binding="{Binding Path=ProjectRole}" Header="Role" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </StackPanel> Relevant Code Behind this.DataContext = new MyEntityLibrary.MyProjectEntities(); ObjectDataProvider EmployeeODP= (ObjectDataProvider)FindResource("EmployeeODP"); if (EmployeeODP != null) { EmployeeODP.ObjectInstance = this.DataContext.Employees; }

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  • Turtle Graphics as a Haskell Monad

    - by iliis
    I'm trying to implement turtle graphis in Haskell. The goal is to be able to write a function like this: draw_something = do fordward 100 right 90 forward 100 ... and then have it produce a list of points (maybe with additional properties): > draw_something (0,0) 0 -- start at (0,0) facing east (0 degrees) [(0,0), (0,100), (-100,100), ...] I have all this working in a 'normal' way, but I fail to implement it as a Haskell Monad and use the do-notation. The basic code: data State a = State (a, a) a -- (x,y), angle deriving (Show, Eq) initstate :: State Float initstate = State (0.0,0.0) 0.0 -- constrain angles to 0 to 2*pi fmod :: Float -> Float fmod a | a >= 2*pi = fmod (a-2*pi) | a < 0 = fmod (a+2*pi) | otherwise = a forward :: Float -> State Float -> [State Float] forward d (State (x,y) angle) = [State (x + d * (sin angle), y + d * (cos angle)) angle] right :: Float -> State Float -> [State Float] right d (State pos angle) = [State pos (fmod (angle+d))] bind :: [State a] -> (State a -> [State a]) -> [State a] bind xs f = xs ++ (f (head $ reverse xs)) ret :: State a -> [State a] ret x = [x] With this I can now write > [initstate] `bind` (forward 100) `bind` (right (pi/2)) `bind` (forward 100) [State (0.0,0.0) 0.0,State (0.0,100.0) 0.0,State (0.0,100.0) 1.5707964,State (100.0,99.99999) 1.5707964] And get the expected result. However I fail to implement this as an instance of Monad. instance Monad [State] where ... results in `State' is not applied to enough type arguments Expected kind `*', but `State' has kind `* -> *' In the instance declaration for `Monad [State]' And if I wrap the list in a new object data StateList a = StateList [State a] instance Monad StateList where return x = StateList [x] I get Couldn't match type `a' with `State a' `a' is a rigid type variable bound by the type signature for return :: a -> StateList a at logo.hs:38:9 In the expression: x In the first argument of `StateList', namely `[x]' In the expression: StateList [x] I tried various other versions but I never got it to run as I'd like to. What am I doing wrong? What do I understand incorrectly?

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  • reCaptcha issue with Spring MVC

    - by skip
    Hi I've been trying to integrate reCaptcha with my application built on Spring framework, but I am getting this error: org.springframework.web.bind.MissingServletRequestParameterException: Required String parameter 'recaptcha_challenge_field' is not present Could someone help me understand that why am I getting this error. I've got both recaptcha_challenge_field and recaptcha_response_field parameters bound to the User domain object. Could anybody help me understand what am I missing? Thanks Here is the code of the controller I am using, all I am trying to do is register a user with reCaptcha functionality but what I am getting is a http status 400 with the error org.springframework.web.bind.MissingServletRequestParameterException: Required String parameter 'recaptcha_challenge_field' is not present: UserManagementController.java @Controller public class UserManagementController { private static final String RECAPTCHA_HTML = "reCaptchaHtml"; @Autowired private UserService userService; @Autowired private ReCaptcha reCaptcha; @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET, value="/addNewUser.do") public ModelAndView addNewUser() { User user = new User(); String html = reCaptcha.createRecaptchaHtml(null, null); ModelMap modelMap = new ModelMap(); modelMap.put("user", user); modelMap.put(RECAPTCHA_HTML, html); return new ModelAndView("/addNewUser", modelMap); } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST, value="/addNewUser.do") public String addNewUser(@Valid User user, BindingResult result, @RequestParam("recaptcha_challenge_field") String challenge, @RequestParam("recaptcha_response_field") String response, HttpServletRequest request, Model model) { verifyBinding(result); String remoteAddr = request.getRemoteAddr(); ReCaptchaResponse reCaptchaResponse = reCaptcha.checkAnswer(remoteAddr, challenge, response); if (!reCaptchaResponse.isValid()) { result.rejectValue("captcha", "errors.badCaptcha"); } model.addAttribute("user", user); if (result.hasErrors()) { result.reject("form.problems"); return "addNewUser"; } return "redirect:showContent.do"; } @InitBinder public void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) { binder.setAllowedFields(new String[] { "firstName", "lastName", "email", "username", "password", "recaptcha_challenge_field", "recaptcha_response_field" }); } private void verifyBinding(BindingResult result) { String[] suppressedFields = result.getSuppressedFields(); if (suppressedFields.length > 0) { throw new RuntimeException("You've attempted to bind fields that haven't been allowed in initBinder(): " + StringUtils.join(suppressedFields, ", ")); } } } Here is the addNewUser.jsp element on the form page for the above controller: <tr> <td>Please prove you're a person</td> <td>${reCaptchaHtml}</td> <td><form:errors path="captcha" cssStyle="color:red"></form:errors></td> </tr> Could you help me understand what am I missing here? Thanks for reply.

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  • .NET WinForms INotifyPropertyChanged updates all bindings when one is changed. Better way?

    - by Dave Welling
    In a windows forms application, a property change that triggers INotifyPropertyChanged, will result in the form reading EVERY property from my bound object, not just the property changed. (See example code below) This seems absurdly wasteful since the interface requires the name of the changing property. It is causing a lot of clocking in my app because some of the property getters require calculations to be performed. I'll likely need to implement some sort of logic in my getters to discard the unnecessary reads if there is no better way to do this. Am I missing something? Is there a better way? Don't say to use a different presentation technology please -- I am doing this on Windows Mobile (although the behavior happens on the full framework as well). Here's some toy code to demonstrate the problem. Clicking the button will result in BOTH textboxes being populated even though one property has changed. using System; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace Example { public class ExView : Form { private Presenter _presenter = new Presenter(); public ExView() { this.MinimizeBox = false; TextBox txt1 = new TextBox(); txt1.Parent = this; txt1.Location = new Point(1, 1); txt1.Width = this.ClientSize.Width - 10; txt1.DataBindings.Add("Text", _presenter, "SomeText1"); TextBox txt2 = new TextBox(); txt2.Parent = this; txt2.Location = new Point(1, 40); txt2.Width = this.ClientSize.Width - 10; txt2.DataBindings.Add("Text", _presenter, "SomeText2"); Button but = new Button(); but.Parent = this; but.Location = new Point(1, 80); but.Click +=new EventHandler(but_Click); } void but_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { _presenter.SomeText1 = "some text 1"; } } public class Presenter : INotifyPropertyChanged { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private string _SomeText1 = string.Empty; public string SomeText1 { get { return _SomeText1; } set { _SomeText1 = value; _SomeText2 = value; // <-- To demonstrate that both properties are read OnPropertyChanged("SomeText1"); } } private string _SomeText2 = string.Empty; public string SomeText2 { get { return _SomeText2; } set { _SomeText2 = value; OnPropertyChanged("SomeText2"); } } private void OnPropertyChanged(string PropertyName) { PropertyChangedEventHandler temp = PropertyChanged; if (temp != null) { temp(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(PropertyName)); } } } }

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  • ProgressDialog does not display until after AsyncTask completes

    - by tedwards
    I am trying to display an indefinite ProgressDialog, while an AsyncTask binds to a RemoteService. The RemoteService builds a list of the users contacts when the service is first created. For a long list of contacts this may take 5~10 seconds. The problem I am having, is that the ProgressDialog does not display until after the RemoteService has built it's list of contacts. I even tried putting a Thread.sleep in to give the ProgressDialog time to show up. With the sleep statement the ProgressDialog loads and starts spinning, but then locks up as soon as the RemoteService starts doing it's work. If I just turn the AsyncTask into dummy code, and just let it sleep for a while, everything works fine. But when the task has to do actual work, it is like the UI just sits and waits. Any ideas on what Im doing wrong ? @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); Log.d(IM,"Start Me UP!!"); setContentView(R.layout.main); Log.d(IM, "Building List View for Contacts"); restoreMe(); if (myContacts==null){ myContacts = new ArrayList<Contact>(); this.contactAdapter = new ContactAdapter(this, R.layout.contactlist, myContacts); setListAdapter(this.contactAdapter); new BindAsync().execute(); } else{ this.contactAdapter = new ContactAdapter(this, R.layout.contactlist, myContacts); setListAdapter(this.contactAdapter); } } private class BindAsync extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, RemoteServiceConnection>{ @Override protected void onPreExecute(){ super.onPreExecute(); Log.d(IM,"Showing Dialog"); showDialog(DIALOG_CONTACTS); } @Override protected RemoteServiceConnection doInBackground(Void... v) { Log.d(IM,"Binding to service in BindAsync"); try{ Thread.sleep(2000); } catch (InterruptedException e){ } RemoteServiceConnection myCon; myCon = new RemoteServiceConnection(); Intent i = new Intent(imandroid.this,MyRemoteService.class); bindService(i, myCon, Context.BIND_AUTO_CREATE); startService(i); Log.d(IM,"Bound to remote service"); return myCon; } @Override protected void onPostExecute(RemoteServiceConnection newConn){ super.onPostExecute(newConn); Log.d(IM,"Storing remote connection"); conn=newConn; } };

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  • DatagridView loses current edit on Background update

    - by yoni.s
    Here's my problem : I have a DataGridView bound to a BindingList of custom objects. A background thread is constantly updating a value of these objects. The udpates are showing correctly, and everything is fine except for one thing - If you try to edit a different field while the background-updated field is being updated, it loses the entered value. Here is a code sample that demonstrates this behavior: (for new form, drop a new DataGridView on:) using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Threading; namespace WindowsFormsApplication2 { public partial class Form1 : Form { private BindingList<foo> flist; private Thread thrd; private BindingSource b; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); flist = new BindingList<foo> { new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1} }; b = new BindingSource(); b.DataSource = flist; dataGridView1.DataSource = b; thrd = new Thread(new ThreadStart(updPRoc)); thrd.Start(); } private void upd() { flist.ToList().ForEach(f=>f.c++); } private void updPRoc() { while (true) { this.BeginInvoke(new MethodInvoker(upd)); Thread.Sleep(1000); } } } public class foo:INotifyPropertyChanged { private int _c; public int a { get; set; } public int b { get; set; } public int c { get {return _c;} set { _c = value; if (PropertyChanged!= null) PropertyChanged(this,new PropertyChangedEventArgs("c")); } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion } } So, you edit column a or b, you will see that the column c update causes you to lose your entry. Any thoughts appreciated.

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  • C socket programming: connect() hangs

    - by Fantastic Fourier
    Hey all, I'm about to rip my hair out. I have this client that tries to connect to a server, everything seems to be fine, using gethostbyname(), socket(), bind(), but when trying toconnect()` it just hangs there and the server doesn't see anything from the client. I know that the server works because another client (also in C) can connect just fine. What causes the server to not see this incoming connection? I'm at the end of my wits here. The two different clients are pretty similar too so I'm even more lost. if (argc == 2) { host = argv[1]; // server address } else { printf("plz read the manual\n"); exit(1); } hserver = gethostbyname(host); if (hserver) { printf("host found: %p\n", hserver); printf("host found: %s\n", hserver->h_name ); } else { printf("host not found\n"); exit(1); } bzero((char * ) &server_address, sizeof(server_address)); // copy zeroes into string server_address.sin_family = AF_INET; server_address.sin_addr.s_addr = htonl(hserver->h_addr); server_address.sin_port = htons(SERVER_PORT); bzero((char * ) &client_address, sizeof(client_address)); // copy zeroes into string client_address.sin_family = AF_INET; client_address.sin_addr.s_addr = htonl(INADDR_ANY); client_address.sin_port = htons(SERVER_PORT); sockfd = socket(AF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, 0); if (sockfd < 0) exit(1); else { printf("socket is opened: %i \n", sockfd); info.sock_fd = sockfd; rv = fcntl(sockfd, F_SETFL, O_NONBLOCK); // socket set to NONBLOCK if(rv < 0) printf("nonblock failed: %i %s\n", errno, strerror(errno)); else printf("socket is set nonblock\n"); } timeout.tv_sec = 0; // seconds timeout.tv_usec = 500000; // micro seconds ( 0.5 seconds) setsockopt(sockfd, SOL_SOCKET, SO_RCVTIMEO, &timeout, sizeof(struct timeval)); rv = bind(sockfd, (struct sockaddr *) &client_address, sizeof(client_address)); if (rv < 0) { printf("MAIN: ERROR bind() %i: %s\n", errno, strerror(errno)); exit(1); } else printf("socket is bound\n"); rv = connect(sockfd, (struct sockaddr *) &server_address, sizeof(server_address)); printf("rv = %i\n", rv); if (rv < 0) { printf("MAIN: ERROR connect() %i: %s\n", errno, strerror(errno)); exit(1); } else printf("connected\n"); Any thoughts or insights are deeply greatly humongously appreciated. -Fourier

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  • Error trying to run rails server

    - by David87
    I am trying to get a basic Rails application to run on my Mac OS X 10.6.5. I created a new app called demo (rails new demo), then went into the demo directory and tried to start the app with rails server. Here is the error message I received: "/Users/dpetrovi/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/sqlite3-ruby-1.3.2/lib/sqlite3/sqlite3_native.bundle: [BUG] Segmentation fault ruby 1.8.7 (2010-12-23 patchlevel 330) [i686-darwin10] Abort trap" I checked bundle install in the demo folder: "Using rake (0.8.7) Using abstract (1.0.0) Using activesupport (3.0.3) Using builder (2.1.2) Using i18n (0.5.0) Using activemodel (3.0.3) Using erubis (2.6.6) Using rack (1.2.1) Using rack-mount (0.6.13) Using rack-test (0.5.6) Using tzinfo (0.3.23) Using actionpack (3.0.3) Using mime-types (1.16) Using polyglot (0.3.1) Using treetop (1.4.9) Using mail (2.2.13) Using actionmailer (3.0.3) Using arel (2.0.6) Using activerecord (3.0.3) Using activeresource (3.0.3) Using bundler (1.0.7) Using thor (0.14.6) Using railties (3.0.3) Using rails (3.0.3) Using sqlite3-ruby (1.3.2) Your bundle is complete! Use bundle show [gemname] to see where a bundled gem is installed." Ruby, RubyGems, and sqlite3 were installed using MacPorts. Then I used gem to try to install the sqlite3-ruby interface. (sudo gem install sqlite3-ruby). Here is where I first noticed something could be off: "Successfully installed sqlite3-ruby-1.3.2 1 gem installed Installing ri documentation for sqlite3-ruby-1.3.2... No definition for libversion Enclosing class/module 'mSqlite3' for class Statement not known Installing RDoc documentation for sqlite3-ruby-1.3.2... No definition for libversion Enclosing class/module 'mSqlite3' for class Statement not known " I had rails running well on my system a few months ago, so I figured maybe I had some duplicates and it was trying to use the wrong one. I ran: "for cmd in ruby irb gem rake; do which $cmd; done" and got: "/opt/local/bin/ruby /opt/local/bin/irb /opt/local/bin/gem /opt/local/bin/rake" Checking where sqlite3 also gets me: "/opt/local/bin/sqlite3" so they all seem to be in the right place. Obviously /opt/local/bin is in my system path. If I check gems server, it shows that I have installed sqlite3-ruby 1.3.2 gem. Not sure what the problem could be? I am using ruby 1.8.7 (2010-12-23 patchlevel 330) [i686-darwin10]. Macports claims this is the latest (although ive seen 1.9.1) One more thing-- in irb, I tried to check which version of sqlite3 my sqlite3-ruby is bound to, but I can only get this far: ":irb(main):001:0 require 'rubygems' = true irb(main):002:0 require 'sqlite3' /Users/dpetrovi/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/sqlite3-ruby-1.3.2/lib/sqlite3/sqlite3_native.bundle: [BUG] Segmentation fault ruby 1.8.7 (2010-12-23 patchlevel 330) [i686-darwin10] Abort trap" Any suggestions? Im hoping I overlooked something obvious. Thanks

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