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  • WCF + Azure = Nightmare!

    - by lsb
    Hi! I've spent the prior week trying to get a secure form of WCF to work on Azure, but all to no avail! My use case is pretty simple. I want to call a WCF endpoint in the cloud and pass messages to be queued for a Worker Role. Beyond that I want to limit access to pre-authrorized users, authenticated via username & password. I've tried to get this working with Transport, TransportWithMessageCredential and Message security but nothing seems to work. Indeed, I've worked through every example and snippet that I could find, most recently the "Service using binary HTTP binding with transport security and message credentials and Silverlight client" example on the http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/wcfazure page. I'm pretty sure that I'm being knocked down by small bugs and beta changes but the end result is that I'm totally stuck. This is a critical path item for me so any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. A complete working example or a walkthrough would be even better!

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  • Call any webservice from the same $.ajax() call

    - by Andreas
    Hi! Im creating a usercontrol which is controled client side, it has an javascript-file attatched to it. This control has a button and upon click a popup appears, this popup shows a list of my domain entities. My entities are fetched using a call to a webservice. Im trying to get this popup usercontrol to work on all my entities, therefore i have the need to call any webservice needed (one per entity for example) with the same $.ajax() call. I have hiddenfields for the webservice url in my usercontrol which you specify in the markup via a property. So far so good. The problem arise when i need some additional parameters to the webservice (other than pagesize and pageindex). Say for example that one webservice takes an additional parameter "Date". At the moment i have my parameters set up like this: var params = JSON.stringify({ pageSize: _this.pageSize, pageIndex: _this.pageIndex }); and then i call the webservice like so: $.ajax({ webserviceUrl, params, function(result) { //some logic }); }); What i want to do is to be able to add my extra parameters (Date) to "Param" when needed, the specification of these parameters will be done via properties of the usercontrol. So, bottom line, i have a set of default parameters and want to dynamically add optional extra parameters. How is this possible? Thanks in advance.

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  • .NET Web Serivce hydrate custom class

    - by row1
    I am consuming an external C# Web Service method which returns a simple calculation result object like this: [Serializable] public class CalculationResult { public string Name { get; set; } public string Unit { get; set; } public decimal? Value { get; set; } } When I add a Web Reference to this service in my ASP .NET project Visual Studio is kind enough to generate a matching class so I can easily consume and work with it. I am using Castle Windsor and I may want to plug in other method of getting a calculation result object, so I want a common class CalculationResult (or ICalculationResult) in my solution which all my objects can work with, this will always match the object returned from the external Web Service 1:1. Is there anyway I can tell my Web Service client to hydrate a particular class instead of its generated one? I would rather not do it manually: foreach(var fromService in calcuationResultsFromService) { ICalculationResult calculationResult = new CalculationResult() { Name = fromService.Name }; yield return calculationResult; } Edit: I am happy to use a Service Reference type instead of the older Web Reference.

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  • assembling an object graph without an ORM -- in the service layer or data layer?

    - by Hans Gruber
    At my current gig, our persistence layer uses IBatis going against SQL Server stored procedures (puke). IMHO, this approach has many disadvantages over the use of a "true" ORM such NHibernate or EF, but the one I'm trying to address here revolves around all the boilerplate code needed to map data from a result set into an object graph. Say I have the following DTO object graph I want to return to my presentation layer: IEnumerable<CustomerDTO> |--> IEnumerable<AddressDTO> |--> LatestOrderDTO The way I've implemented this is to have a discrete method in my DAO class to return each IEnumerable<*DTO>, and then have my service class be responsible for orchestrating the calls to the DAO. It then returns the fully assembled object graph to the client: public class SomeService(){ public SomeService(IDao someDao){ this._someDao = someDao; } public IEnumerable<CustomerDTO> ListCustomersForHistory(int brokerId){ var customers = _someDao.ListCustomersForBroker(brokerId); foreach (customer in customers){ customer.Addresses = someDao.ListCustomersAddresses(brokerId); customer.LatestOrder = someDao.GetCustomerLatestOrder(brokerId); } } return customers; } My question is should this logic belong in the service layer or the should I make my DAO such that it instead returns the assembled object graph. If I was using NHibernate, I assume that this kind of relationship association between objects comes for "free"?

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  • Providing downloads on ASP.net website

    - by Dave
    I need to provide downloads of large files (upwards of 2 GB) on an ASP.net website. It has been some time since I've done something like this (I've been in the thick-client world for awhile now), and was wondering on current best practices for this. Ideally, I would like: To be able to track download statistics: # of downloads is essential; actual bytes sent would be nice. To provide downloads in a way that "plays nice" with third-party download managers. Many of our users have unreliable internet connections, and being able to resume a download is a must. To allow multiple users to download the same file simultaneously. My download files are not security-sensitive, so providing a direct link ("right-click to download...") is a possibility. Is just providing a direct link sufficient, letting IIS handle it, and then using some log analyzer service (any recommendations?) to compile and report the statistics? Or do I need to intercept the download request, store some info in a database, then send a custom Response? Or is there an ASP.net user control (built-in or third party) that does this? I appreciate all suggestions.

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  • .Net Inherited Control Property Default

    - by Yisman
    Hello fellows Im trying to make a simple "ButtonPlus" control. the main idea is to inherit from the button control and add some default property values (such as font,color,padding...) No matter how i try, the WinForm always generates (or "serializes") the property value in the client forms the whole point is to have minimal and clean code, not that every instance of the buttonPlus should have 5 lines of init code. I want that the form designer should not generate any code for theses properties and be able to control them from the ButtonPlus code. In other words, if I change the ForeColor from red to blue only 1 single bingle line of code in the app should change. heres my code so far. as you can see, ive tried using defaultvalue, reset , shouldserialize.... anything i was able to find on the web! Public Class ButtonPlus Inherits Button Sub New() 'AutoSize = True AutoSizeMode = Windows.Forms.AutoSizeMode.GrowAndShrink Font = New System.Drawing.Font("Arial", 11.0!, System.Drawing.FontStyle.Bold, System.Drawing.GraphicsUnit.Point, CType(177, Byte)) Padding = New System.Windows.Forms.Padding(3) Anchor = AnchorStyles.Left + AnchorStyles.Right + AnchorStyles.Top ForeColor = Color.Aqua End Sub ' _ 'Public Overrides Property AutoSize() As Boolean ' Get ' Return MyBase.AutoSize ' End Get ' Set(ByVal value As Boolean) ' MyBase.AutoSize = value ' End Set 'End Property Public Function ShouldSerializeAutoSize() As Boolean Return False ' Not AutoSize = True End Function Public Function ShouldSerializeForeColor() As Boolean Return False 'Not ForeColor = Color.Aqua End Function Public Overrides Sub ResetForeColor() ForeColor = Color.Aqua End Sub End Class Thank you very much for taking the time to look this over and answer all the best

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  • How does Crystal Reports Runtime Licensing work?

    - by GluedHands
    I am designing an application in C# and I want to use some Crystal Reports in my application. I am selling this application as freelance to a small business. This is my first program that I have ever sold. I have Crystal Reports 2008 that I am using to design reports with. Do I need to get any kind of licensing from Business Objects to include the Crystal Reports Runtime for report printing in my application? Or do I not need to worry about it as long as I have a licensed version of Crystal Reports 2008 on my development machine. The client would only need be able to print the reports that I have designed on my machine, not design their own. The reports would be saved as a file. The application will load the saved report and print it with provided data. I did see this article which answers the most part of my question. However, it does not include whether it covers loading saved report documents? Any additional related information for a commercial product newbie is gladly appreciated.

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  • TortoiseSVN Error: "OPTIONS of 'https://...' could not connect to server (...)"

    - by Zack Peterson
    I'm trying to setup a new computer to synchronize with my SVN repository that's hosted with cvsdude.com. I get this error: Here's what I did (these have worked in the past): Downloaded and installed TortoiseSVN Created a new folder C:\aspwebsite Right-clicked, chose SVN Checkout... Entered the following information, clicked OK: URL of repository: https://<reponame>-svn.cvsdude.com/aspwebsite Checkout directory: C:\aspwebsite Checkout depth: Fully recursive Omit externals: Unchecked Revision: HEAD revision Got TortoiseSVN error: OPTIONS of 'https://<reponame>-svn.cvsdude.com/aspwebsite': could not connect to server (https://<reponame>-svn.cvsdude.com) Rather than getting the error, TortoiseSVN should have asked for my username and password and then downloaded about 90MB. Why can't I checkout from my Subversion repository? Kent Fredric wrote: Either their security certificate has expired, or their hosting is broken/down. Contact CVSDude and ask them whats up. It could also be a timeout, because for me their site is exhaustively slow.. It errors after only a couple seconds. I don't think it's a timeout. Matt wrote: Try visiting https://[redacted]-svn.cvsdude.com/aspwebsite and see what happens. If you can visit it in your browser, you ought to be able to get the files in your SVN client and we can work from there. If it fails, then there's your answer. I can access the site in a web browser.

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  • Serialization of generic types - GWT

    - by sarav
    I have an interface like this public interface IField<T> extends IsSerializable { public String getKey(); public void setKey(String name); public T getValue(); public void setValue(T role); } And a class like this public class FieldImpl<T> implements IField<T> { private String key; public String getKey() { return key; } public void setKey(String key) { this.key = key; } public T getValue() { return value; } public void setValue(T value) { this.value = value; } private T value; public FieldImpl() { } public FieldImpl(String key, T value) { super(); this.key = key; this.value = value; } } When I try to compile I'm getting [ERROR] In order to produce smaller client-side code, 'Object' is not allowed; please use a more specific type (reached via server.sdk.model.IField) What is the cause for this? Is there any place I can read about GWT's generics support?

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  • GWT + Seam, cannot fetch scoped beans from gwt servlet in seam resource servlet.

    - by David Göransson
    Hello all I am trying to get session and conversation scoped beans to a gwt servlet in the seam resource servlet. I have a conversation scoped bean: @Name ("viewFormCopyAction") @Scope (ScopeType.CONVERSATION) public class ViewFormCopyAction {} and a session scoped bean: @Name ("authenticator") @Scope (ScopeType.SESSION) public class AuthenticatorAction {} There is a RemoteService interface: @RemoteServiceRelativePath ("strokesService") public interface StrokesService extends RemoteService { public Position getPosition (int conversationId); } with corresponding async interface: public interface StrokesServiceAsync extends RemoteService { public void getPosition (int conversationId, AsyncCallback callback); } and implementation: @Name ("com.web.actions.forms.gwt.client.StrokesService") @Scope (ScopeType.EVENT) public class StrokesServiceImpl implements StrokesService { @In Manager manager; @Override @WebRemote public Position getPosition (int conversationId) { manager.switchConversation( "" + conversationId ); ViewFormCopyAction vfca = (ViewFormCopyAction) Component.getInstance( "viewFormCopyAction" ); AuthenticatorAction aa = (AuthenticatorAction) Component.getInstance( "authenticator" ); return null; } } The gwt page is within an IFrame in a regular seam page and the conversationId is propagted with the src attribute of the IFrame. Both bean objects end up with only null values. Can anyone see anything wrong with the code? I know that I could use strings instead of the int, but never mind that at this point.

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  • What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

    - by nopopem
    I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

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  • How to prevent the user from leaving the page

    - by JohnathanKong
    Hey Everyone, I am currently building a registration site where if the user leaves, I want to pop up a CSS box asking him if he is sure or not. I can accomplish this feat using confirm boxes, but the client says that they are too ugly. I've tried using unload and beforeunload, but both cannot stop the page from being redirected. Using those to events, I return false, so maybe there's a way to cancel other than returning false? Another solution that I've had was redirecting them to another page that has my popup, but the problem with that is that if they do want to leave the page, and it wasn't a mistake, they lose the page they were originally trying to go to. If I was a user, that would irritate me. The last solution was real popup window. The only thing I don't like about that is that the main winow will have their destination page while the pop will have my page. In my opinion it looks disjoint. On top of that, I'd be worried about popup blockers.

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  • How to make smooth transition from a WebBrowser control to an Image in Silverlight 4?

    - by Trex
    Hi, I have the following XAML on my page: `<Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <Viewbox Stretch="Uniform"> <Image x:Name="myImage" /> </Viewbox> <WebBrowser x:Name="myBrowser" /> </Grid>` and then in the codebehind I'm switching the visibility between the image and the browser content: myBrowser.Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; myImage.Source = new BitmapImage(new Uri(p)); myImage.Visibility = Visibility.Visible; and myImage.Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; myBrowser.Source = new Uri(myPath + p, UriKind.Absolute); myBrowser.Visibility = Visibility.Visible; This works fine, but what the client now wants is a smooth transition between when the Image is shown and when the browser is shown. I tried several approaches but always ran into dead end. Do you have any ideas? I tried setting two states using the VSM and than displaying a white rectangle on top as an overlay, before the swap takes place, but that didn't work (I guess it's because nothing can be placed above the WebBroser???) I tried setting the Visibility of the image control and the webbrowser control using the VSM, but that didn't work either. I really don't know what else to try to solve this simple task. Any help is greatly appreciated. Jan

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  • Simple JPG/HTML Not Showing Up in iPhone

    - by Jascha
    I'm not familiar with iPhones wants and needs, nor do I have one, but a client wants a screen cap of his site to show up when an iPhone user comes around so I created an .htaccess redirect to an iPhone specific page with this bit of code... RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} iPhone RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/iPhone/ RewriteRule .* /iPhone/ [R] And the html of the iPhone page... <html> <head> <title>Eatamadedia</title> </head> <body style="background-color:#858384;margin:0 auto;"> <img src="../images/iPhonePage.jpg"> </body> </html> The page redirects just fine, but the .jpg doesn't show up. I can't imagine a simpler page. Anyone know what could be preventing the image from displaying? Does the iPhone require headers? The site in question is http://eatamedida.com Thank you in advance for your input. -J

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  • When I try to pass large amounts of information using jquery $.ajax(post) method. it throws potenti

    - by dotnetrocks
    I am trying to create a preview window for my texteditor in my blog page. I need to send the content to the server to clean up the text entered before I can preview it on the preview window. I was trying to use $.ajax({ type: method, url: url, data: values, success: LoadPageCallback(targetID), error: function(msg) { $('#' + targetID).attr('innerHTML', 'An error has occurred. Please try again.'); } }); Whenever I tried to click on the preview button it returns an XMLHTTPRequest error. The error description - Description: Request Validation has detected a potentially dangerous client input value, and processing of the request has been aborted. This value may indicate an attempt to compromise the security of your application, such as a cross-site scripting attack. You can disable request validation by setting validateRequest=false in the Page directive or in the configuration section. However, it is strongly recommended that your application explicitly check all inputs in this case. The ValidateRequest for the page is set to false. Is there a way I can set validaterequest to false for the ajax call.Please advise Thank you for reading my post.

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  • [Apache] Creating rewrite rules for multiple urls in the same folder

    - by DavidYell
    I have been asked by our client to convert a site we created into SEO friendly url format. I've managed to crack a small way into this, but have hit a problem with having the same urls in the same folder. I am trying to rewrite the following urls, /review/index.php?cid=intercasino /review/submit.php?cid=intercasino /review/index.php?cid=intercasino&page=2#reviews I would like to get them to, /review/intercasino /submit-review/intercasino /review/intercasino/2#reviews I've almost got it working using the following rule, RewriteRule (submit-review)/(.*)$ review/submit.php?cid=$2 [L] RewriteRule (^review)/(.*) review/index.php?cid=$2 The problem, you may already see, is that /submit-review rewrites to /review, which in turn gets rewritten to index.php, thus my review submission page is lost in place of my index page. I figured that putting [L] would prevent the second rule being called, but it seems that it rewrites both urls in two seperate passes. I've also tried [QSE], and [S=1] I would rather not have to move my files into different folders to get the rewriting to work, as that just seems too much like bad practise. If anyone could give me some pointers on how to differentiate between these similar urls that would be great! Thanks (Ref: http://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.0/mod/mod_rewrite.html)

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  • MySql ODBC connection in VB6 on WinXP VERY slow. Other machines on same network are fast.

    - by Matthew
    Hi All, I have a VB6 application that has been performing very well. Recently, we upgraded our server to a Windows 2003 server. Migration of the databases and shares went well and we experienced no problems. Except one. And it has happened at multiple sites. I use the MySQL ODBC 5.1 connector to point to my MySQL database. On identical machines (as far as I can tell, they are client machines not ours), access to the DB is lightning fast on all but one computer. They use the same software and have the same connection strings. And I'm sure it's not the program, but the ODBC connection. When I press the 'Test Connection' button in the ODBC connection string window, it can take up to 10 seconds on the poorly performing machine to respond with a success. All the other computers are instantaneous. I have tried using ip address versus the machine name in the UDL, no change. I enabled option 256, which sped it up initially, but it's slow again. Most of the time on a restart the program will be fast for an hour or so then go slow again with the option 256 enabled. Frankly, I am out of ideas and willing to entertain any and all ideas or suggestions. This is getting pretty frustrating. Anyone ever experience anything like this?

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  • (Weak) ETags and Last-Modified

    - by Kai Moritz
    As far as I understand the specs, the ETag, which was introduced in RFC 2616 (HTTP/1.1) is a predecessor of the Last-Modified-Header, which is proposet to give the software-architect more controll over the cache-revalidating process. If both Cache-Validation-Headers (If-None-Match and If-Modified-Since) are present, according to RFC 2616, the client (i.e. the browser) should use the ETag when checking, if a resource has changed. According to section 14.26 of RFC 2616, the server MUST NOT respond with a 304 Not Modified, if the ETag presented in a If-None-Match-Header has changed, and the server has to ignore an additional If-Modified-Since-Header, if present. If the presented ETag matches, he MUST NOT perform the request, unless the Date in the Last-Modified-Header says so. (If the presented ETag matches, the server should respond with a 304 Not Modified in case of a GET- or HEAD-request...) This section leaves room for some speculations: A strong ETag is supposed to change ''everytime'', the resource changes. So, having to responde with something else as 304 Not Modified to a request with an unchanged ETag and an If-Modified-Since-Header, which dose not match is a bit of a contradiction, because the strong ETag says, that the resource was not modified. (Though, this is not that fatal, because the server can send the same unchanged resource again.) ... ... o.k. While I was writing this, the question was boiling down to this answer: The (small) contradiction stated above, was made because of Weak ETags. A resource marked with a Weak ETag may have changed, although the ETag has not. So, in case of a Weak ETag it would be wrong, to answer with 304 Not Modified, when the ETag has not changed, but the date presented in the If-Modified-Since does not match, right?

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  • Is it possible to spoof or reuse VIEWSTATE or detect if it is protected from modification?

    - by Peter Jaric
    Question ASP and ASP.NET web applications use a value called VIEWSTATE in forms. From what I understand, this is used to persist some kind of state on the client between requests to the web server. I have never worked with ASP or ASP.NET and need some help with two questions (and some sub-questions): 1) Is it possible to programmatically spoof/construct a VIEWSTATE for a form? Clarification: can a program look at a form and from that construct the contents of the base64-encoded VIEWSTATE value? 1 a) Or can it always just be left out? 1 b) Can an old VIEWSTATE for a particular form be reused in a later invocation of the same form, or would it just be luck if that worked? 2) I gather from http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms972976.aspx#viewstate_topic12 that it is possible to turn on security so that the VIEWSTATE becomes secure from spoofing. Is it possible for a program to detect that a VIEWSTATE is safeguarded in such a way? 2 a) Is there a one-to-one mapping between the occurrence of EVENTVALIDATION values and secure VIEWSTATEs? Regarding 1) and 2), if yes, can I have a hint about how I would do that? For 2) I am thinking I could base64-decode the value and search for a string that always is found in unencrypted VIEWSTATEs. "First:"? Something else? Background I have made a small tool for detecting and exploiting so called CSRF vulnerabilities. I use it to quickly make proof of concepts of such vulnerabilities that I send to the affected site owners. Quite often I encounter these forms with a VIEWSTATE, and these I don't know if they are secure or not. Edit 1: Clarified question 1 somewhat. Edit 2: Added text in italics.

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  • Passing a Variable into jQuery AJAX

    - by Scott
    I'm stuck in a rut. I hope some one can help. Basically, I am building an AJAX mobile web app with jQuery. I am able to parse a specific XML file just fine, but I want the option to parse other XML files based on the link they were clicked on and load them on the fly into the same DIV or UL. So: click on Link1, loads XML1 click on Link2, loads XML2 I would like to be able to do this all client side, so no PHP (or is that a bad idea?). This the jquery code I've been using: $(document).ready(function() { $("a.load_ajax").click(loadAjax()); function loadAjax() { var fileID = get('?lineID='); var dataID = "xml/" + fileID + ".xml" $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: dataID, dataType: "xml", success: parseXml }); function parseXml(xml) { $(xml).find("train").each(function() { $("ul#ajax-output").append('<li>' + $(this).find("time").text() + '</li>'); }); } } }); Its just not working at all. I have been passing the variable using GET in the url. So the link in the HTML goes to /?lineID=SBD_to_Union and it should load the XML file called SBD_to_Union.xml Making sense to anyone? I'd appreciate some help.

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  • C#/.NET: FInd out whether a server exists, Query DNS for SVC records.

    - by TomTom
    Writing a cleint/Server tool I am tasked trying to find a server to connect to. I would love to make things as easy as possible for the user. As such, my idea is to: CHeck whether specific servers (coded by name) exist (like "mail.xxx" for a mail server, for example - my exampüle is not a mail server;) Query otherwise for DNS SVC records, allowing the admin to configure a server location for a specific serivce (that the client connects to). The result is that the user may have to enter only a domain name, possibly even not even that (using the registered standard domain of the computer in a LAN environment). Anyone ideas how: To find out whether a server exists and answers (i.e. is online) in the fastest way? TCP can take a long time if the server is not there. A UDP style ping sounds like a good idea to me. PING itself may be unavailable. Anyonw knows how to ask from withint .NET best for a SVC record in a specific (the default) domain?

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  • How can I add SOAP Headers to a WSDL generated Borland C++ Builder 6 application.

    - by MJG
    Using a WSDL that requires a SOAP HEADER for Authentication (fragment below) code that gets generated when creating a web service client via the "WSDL Importer" has no concept of the Authentication Headers and there are no examples in BCB6 C++ Examples/WebServices directories that show how, and nothing on Web that I can find. Anyone with BCB6 C++ (not Delphi) have an example of adding SOAP Headers to a TRemotable subclass? <s:element name="AuthenticationHeader" type="tns:AuthenticationHeader"/> <s:complexType name="AuthenticationHeader"> <s:complexContent mixed="false"> <s:extension base="tns:UserAuthHeader"> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Function" type="s:string"/> <s:element minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" name="TimeOutMilliSec" type="s:int"/> </s:sequence> </s:extension> </s:complexContent> </s:complexType> <s:complexType name="UserAuthHeader"> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Username" type="s:string"/> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Password" type="s:string"/> </s:sequence> <s:anyAttribute/> </s:complexType>

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  • get the javascript variable value to Code Behind Asp.net

    - by Siddiq Baig
    i am trying to pass the javascript variable value to hidden feild from code behind by onclientclick event.. i have button that have both client and server side onclick event <asp:Button ID="btnSave" runat="server" Text="Save" class="buttonstyle" onclick="btnSave_Click" OnClientClick="otherdata()" /> i want to get the javascript value in codebehind from OnClientClick event and then want to insert that value to database table from Onclick event function otherdata() { var hv = $('input[id$=hdnOthers]').val(); var $arrT = $('#<%=gv_Others.ClientID %>').find('input:text[id$="txtEmp"]'); var count = []; for (var i = 0; i < 10; i++) { var $txt = $arrT[i]; count[i] = $($txt).val(); } hv = count; alert(hv); } i am getting the value in alert and assigning the value to hidden field but problem is that i am not getting the value in hidden field from code behind.. although i have already pass the value to hidden field from javascript so why i am not getting that value from code behind.. protected void Insert_OtherServices() { dsJobCardTableAdapters.Select_OtherServiceTableAdapter dsother = new dsJobCardTableAdapters.Select_OtherServiceTableAdapter(); string hdn = hdnOthers.Value; dsother.Insert_OtherService(hdn); }

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  • Resumable Upload in Ruby on Rails

    - by user253011
    Hi, I have been searching for a way for resumable file upload in RoR. In conclusion, I found out other than Java Applet no client-side-and-cross-platform agent can access the file system in such a way that to request the file from the position where the upload got terminated (due to any reason) with some exceptions like http://github.com/taf2/resume-up/tree/master (built in native Ruby, but requires google gears which is not "reliable" yet when it comes to cross platform almost same story as of ActiveX!) Since the only reliable option left is java applet, is there any good tutorial/forum/documentation for those paid java applets, such as "thin slice upload" etc. to make it work with rails application. I have found one http : // github . com / dassi / mediaclue , its a non-multi-ligual-German-Application in which they used jumploader. But in that application, I am unable to see resumable functionality. Scratching my head against their documentation, i found out http : // jumploader.com / doc_resume.html It tells that jumploader has resume functionality in Cross session resume, the one i am looking for (if the user close the browser the new session gets hold on uncompleted uploaded files from the old session against the user id). But I cant find any example on their demos page which actually pause/RESUME functionality in a continuous manner! Is it even possible to achieve that kind of resumable functionality. Please tell me about any options/example/demos preferable deployed in rails. I shall be very much obliged. ~ Thanks

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  • Need advanced mod_rewrite assistance

    - by user1647719
    This is driving me bananas. I have tried multiple fixes, and have even found a generator (generateit.net/mod-rewrite/) to create my .htaccess files, but I cannot get this to work. The .htaccess file is being read - if I put garbage characters in, I get a 500 server error. Also, mod rewrite was working in a simpler format, but the client wants even more SEO, so here I am. My intention: Take the url of brinkofdesign.com/portfolio/123/456/some_seo_text.html and send it to brinkofdesign.com/brink_portfolio.php?catid=123&locationid=456. The full contents of my .htaccess file are: Options +FollowSymlinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^portfolio([^/]*)/([^/]*)/([^/]*)\.html$ /portfolio_brink.php?catid=$1&locationid=$2&page=$3 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^(.*)blog(.+)([0-9+])(.+).html$ blog.php?blogid=$3 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^blog.xml$ blogfeed.php The blog and blogfeed parts work fine. If it matters, I do have an actual portfolio.php page - could this be breaking it? There is no actual /portfolio/ folder - this is just part of the SEO nme. Also, the host is 1and1.com. Real life tests: brinkofdesign.com/portfolio/1/1/birmingham_al_corporate_branding.html loads my actual portfolio.php page - which is supposed to be a landing page for the portfolio, as opposed to the brink_portfolio.php page, which is my detail record page. No variables are passed (echoing out the contents of the $_GET array gives an empty array). Typing in an non SEO link like brinkofdesign.com/brink_portfolio.php?catid=1&locationid=1 does work correctly. Gurus, please help me!

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